NSEA 2024 25 Answers and Solutions Final
NSEA 2024 25 Answers and Solutions Final
NSEA 2024 25 Answers and Solutions Final
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Q. No. 24 a c d
In Part A-2 (Q. No. 49 to 60) each question has four alternatives, out of which any number of
alternative (s) (4, 3, 2 or 1) may be correct. You have to choose ALL correct alternative(s) and fill
the appropriate bubble(s), as shown.
Q. No. 58 a c
(3) For Part A-1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. In Part A-2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked. No negative marks
in this part.
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A-1
ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.
1. The energy radiated per second by star A is twice that radiated per second by star B. Also the distance of star A
from Earth is twice to that of star B from Earth. Which of the two stars appears brighter when seen from the
Earth, and by how much?
(a) Star A appears 2 times brighter than star B (b) Star B appears 2 times brighter than star A
(c) Star B appears 4 times brighter than star A (d) The observed brightness of the stars A and B are equal
Answer (b)
Sol. PA = 2PB
dA = 2dB
P
b
d2
2
bA PA dB
bB PB dA
1
2
4
bB = 2bA
2. How large should the aperture of a telescope be in order to achieve a diffraction limit of 0.001 arc second for
visible light of wavelength 500 nm?
(a) 2.4 m (b) 12.6 m
(c) 126 m (d) 24 m
Answer (c)
1.22
Sol. =
a
r = 180
1.22 500 10 −9
a= 1 = r
1
0.001 180
180 3600
126 m
3. A nearby star, Alpha Centauri, subtends a parallax angle of 0.7420. The distance to Alpha Centauri from us is
(a) 1.35 pc (b) 13.5 pc
(c) 0.742 pc (d) 7.42 pc
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Answer (a)
1
Sol. Distance in parsec =
in seconds
1
d= pc = 1.35 pc
0.742
4. The spectral lines of two stars in an eclipsing binary system with both stars moving in circular orbits, shift back
and forth with a period of 2 years, T = 6.3 × 107 second. The lines of one star (star 1) shift twice as far as the
lines of the other (star 2). Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) Masses of star 1 and star 2 are equal
(b) Mass of star 2 is twice the mass of star 1
(c) Mass of star 1 is twice the mass of star 2
(d) Nothing can be predicted about the masses of the two stars from the given data
Answer (b)
V
Sol. =
C
1 = 2 2
V1 = 2V2
1 = 2
V1 V2
=
r1 r2
r1 = 2r2
As they are rotating about COM
m1r1 = m2r2
m1(2r2 ) = m2r2
m2 = 2m1
5. The reciprocal of Hubble’s constant, or 1/H0, tells us the age of the universe if the expansion rate has remained
constant over time. How would the estimated age of the universe differ if the measured value of H 0 were 44
km/s/Mly rather than 22 km/s/Mly?
(a) The estimated age will remain the same
(b) Indeterminate
(c) The estimated age will be twice the current estimated age
(d) The estimated age will be half the current estimated age
Answer (d)
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1
Sol. As T =
H0
2GM
v= 4.35 km/s
6.5 Re
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9. Planets orbiting very close to black holes show general relativistic effects; the orbits of such planets are
precessing ellipses i.e. the major axis of the ellipse rotates about the occupied focus. A planet is on an elliptical
orbit with semi-major axis 1.0 AU around an isolated black hole of one solar mass. A second planet is orbiting
the black hole at a distance of 0.3 AU. If observations of this second planet are started when it is closest to the
black hole, the minimum length of time over which observations should be carried out so that the precession rate
may be ascertained with better accuracy, is a little more than
(a) 30 days (b) 60 days
(c) 75 days (d) 90 days
Answer (b)
Sol. T 2 a3
2 3
T1 a1
=
T2 a2
2 3
365 1
=
T2 0.3
T2 = 365(0.3)3/ 2 60 days
10. Spectral resolution of a grating is given by RP = where is the smallest difference in wavelength between
two lines that may be resolved as separate at some order after dispersion by the grating. In the binary system
consisting of a star and a planet, both the masses orbit around the common centre of mass. The orbital speed
of the star will be extremely small due to its comparatively very large mass. The Doppler shift due to this orbital
motion will also be extremely small. Doppler spectroscopy is a technique used to detect and estimate the orbital
speeds of stars, induced by the presence of exoplanets around them. With what accuracy can the recession
speed of a star be determined by simple use of a high-resolution spectrograph with RP = 1,00,000 observing a
spectral line at 0.3 micron?
(a) 3.0 m/s
(b) 30.0 m/s
(c) 3.0 km/s
(d) 30.0 km/s
Answer (c)
V
Sol. =
C
RP = = 105
C 3 108
V =C = =
RP 105
= 3 km/s
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11. Fermions (half-integer spin particles) obey the Pauli Exclusion Principle which says that no two fermions can
have all physical characteristics (like position, momentum, spin, charge, electron number, muon number etc. ….)
the same. As per the uncertainty principle position and momentum can be simultaneously measured only to a
precision that satisfies the relation x px . So a ‘cell’ in phase space (position-momentum space) of size
2
3
2 can contain only a pair of any one type of neutrino (for example electron neutrino) of opposing spin and
all other quantum numbers the same. Consider a spherical dwarf galaxy of a total mass M and radius R consisting
of a large amount of dark matter and very little ordinary matter. Suppose dark matter consists of nf different types
of neutrinos all having the same mass m equivalent to 1 eV. Given that the escape speed from the galaxy
2GM
v esc = , a limit may be put on nf by the relation
R
2
4 3
3 (mv esc R )
(a) 2nf m M
3
2
2
4 3
3 (mv esc R )
(b) nf m M
3
2
2
4 3
3 (mv esc R )
(c) nf m M
3
2
(d) No such limit may be extracted
Answer (No Answer)
Sol. x p
2
x
2mv
xmin
2mv esc
3
Volume of cell = ( xmin )3 =
(2mv esc )3
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4
R 3
v 3
Number of cells = = (mv esc )3
( xmin )3
3
2
Number of neutrinos = 2nf
4
R 3 (mv esc )3 2nf m
Mass of dark matter = 3
3
2
4
R 3 (mv esc )3 ( 2nf m )
M 3
3
2
No answer matches.
12. Inverse Compton scattering is the scattering of low energy photon by high energy ultra-relativistic charged
particle. The photon gains energy and the charged particle loses energy. The frequency of the photon gets
multiplied by a factor equal to the square of the Lorentz factor of the ultra-relativistic particle. The low energy
photons of the Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) can be scattered by ultra-relativistic electrons in radio
relies in galaxy clusters. If the microwave photons of the CMB (wavelength around 10 cm) get scattered, on the
average, into soft X-ray region (wavelength ~ nanometre), the Lorentz factor for the electrons involved is
(a) ~ 104 (b) ~ 108
(c) ~ 2.73 × 109 (d) ~ 2.73
Answer (c)
hc hc
Sol. Ei = =
i 0.1 m
hc hc
Ef = =
f 10 nm
Ef
Ratio of energy, = 2
Ei
Ef
=
Ei
i 10 cm
= = 105
f 10 nm
= 105
2 1010
Lorentz factor is approximately, 2.73 × 109
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13. The Saha ionization formula gives the ratio of the number of (n + 1) times ionized ions of an element per unit
volume to the number of n times ionized ions of the same element in the same volume in a plasma. Normal stars
show absorption spectra due to atoms/ions/molecules of the atmosphere of the star in a lower energy state
absorbing photons of appropriate energy, from the continuum radiation emitted by the photosphere, to go into a
higher energy state. Given the Saha ionization formula as
ni +1 U j +1(T ) 5040E j
log = –0.1761– log Pe + log + 2.5logT –
ni U j (T ) T
where, ni + 1 is the number density of (i + 1) times ionized ions, ni is the number density of i times ionized ions, Pe
is the electron pressure, U(T) is the partition function and Ej is the ionization energy of the j times ionized ion.
The ionization energy of hydrogen = 13.54 eV, of first ionization of helium = 24.48 eV and of second ionization
of helium = 54.17 eV. As the temperature of photosphere decreases from ~ 50,000 K, in the spectrum
(a) Strength of lines of ionized helium and hydrogen will decrease together
(b) Lines of hydrogen will decrease in strength, helium will increase
(c) Lines of ionized helium will decrease in strength, of helium increase
(d) Strength of hydrogen lines will decrease, ionized helium will increase
Answer (c)
Sol. As the temperature of photosphere decreases the ionisation of element will also decrease. So lower temperature
leads to decrease in the ratio of ionized neutral atoms.
For Hydrogen with ionization energy 13.54 eV and for helium with first two ionization energy 24.48 eV and
54.17 eV respectively, the strength of lines of helium decreases as the temperature drops, while neutral helium
lines may increase in strength due to increased number of neutral atoms.
14. The observed Doppler shift of spectral lines of galaxies is used to determine their velocity of recession from us
using the formula v = cz, where z = (this may then be used in the Hubble relation v = HD to determine the
distance to the galaxy). Spectrometry is expensive since the received light is highly dispersed and only a small
number of photons are available in small frequency ranges and so observations have to be integrated over long
hours to capture the spectrum. In photometry, light transmitted through various filters (which transmit light in a
small band of wavelengths centred on given wavelengths) is measured. Photometry is much cheaper and faster.
The hydrogen surrounding galaxies absorb light with wavelength below ~100 nm. Hence the observed brightness
of the galaxy will drop drastically below this wavelength of emission. A galaxy was imaged through the
u, g, r, i, z filters in the Sloan Digital Sky Survey. The pivot wavelengths of these filters are 354, 477, 623, 763
and 913 nm respectively. A galaxy is visible when imaged through the last three filters. The galaxy ‘drops out’
and is not visible through the other filters. The redshift of the galaxy as determined by this ‘dropout method’ lies
between
(a) 4.77 and 6.23 (b) 5.77 and 7.23
(c) 3.77 and 5.23 (d) 5.23 and 6.63
Answer (c)
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And, from the data given, dropout occurs between 477 nm and 623 nm filter.
Redshift, z = obs − 1
rest
477
zmin = − 1 3.9
121.6
623
and zmax = − 1 4.1
121.6
Redshift range lies between 3.77 and 5.23
15. A liquid column of height 1.0 cm and having density 0.8 g/cc, is in a closed container on a horizonal surface
inside Chandrayaan-3 Lander on the surface of Moon. The temperature where the landing took place was around
50°C. What is the hydrostatic pressure on the bottom of the container? Mass of the Moon = 7 × 10 22 kg and
radius of the Moon = 1750 km.
(a) 12.2 N/m2
(b) 98.0 N/m2
(c) 78.4 N/m2
(d) 1.22 N/m2
Answer (a)
Sol.
GM
g =
r2
= 15.25 10−11+22+12
= 1.525 m/s2
p = hg
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16. Cerenkov radiation may be defined as “electromagnetic radiation emitted when a charged particle (such as an
electron) passes through a dielectric medium (such as distilled water) at a speed greater than the phase velocity
(speed of propagation of a wave front in a medium) of light in that medium”. Which of the following cosmic ray
particles is likely to be detectable by the recording of the Cerenkov radiation emitted by it in its passage through
the Earth’s atmosphere. The lower atmosphere near the Earth has a refractive index of 1.002.
(a) A 13 GeV proton (b) A 13 MeV electron
(c) A 25 MeV proton (d) A 0.51 MeV electron
Answer (b)
c 3 108
Sol. Speed of light in medium, =v =
1.002
KE 1
+ 1 =
2
mc v2
1−
c2
v2 1
1− =
2 2
c KE
1 +
mc 2
1 2
1 − c = v2
2
KE
1 +
mc 2
1/2
1
v = c 1 −
2
KE
1 + 2
mc
Now putting the values of the energy given for different particles.
For (a) 13 GeV proton, v 2.992 × 108 m/s which is less than speed of light in medium.
For (b) 13 MeV electron, v 2.9978 × 108 m/s which is greater than speed of light in medium.
So, electron of 13 MeV will be detected.
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17. Which of the following animals, if they develop their own number system, is likely to write 100 where you count
64?
(a) Spiders
(b) Ants
(c) Crabs
(d) Seahorses
Answer (a)
Sol. In decimal system, 64 is written as 64 and in base-8, the number 64 can be written by dividing 64 by 8.
64
i.e., = 8 with remainder of 0.
8
So, 64 in decimal should written as 100 in octal. In given reference, answer should be spiders (with 8 legs).
18. The Mercator projection maps the surface of the globe (excluding latitudes close to the two poles) onto a cylinder
whose axis coincides with the rotation axis of the globe. The cylinder when cut open with a straight cut parallel
to its axis gives a rectangular map which preserves directions. Maps made utilizing this projection are hence
used for marine navigation and also by major online street mapping services. On a map of this kind the length
of the equator is 40 cm. How many kilometres on the Earth does 1 cm at 60° N latitude on this map correspond
to? Assume that the earth is a perfect sphere.
(a) 866 km
(b) 1732 km
(c) 1000 km
(d) 500 km
Answer (d)
Sol. Length of equator is L0 = 2R
L0 2R
Which is 40 cm, so 1 cm corresponds to =
40 cm 40 cm
1
Scaling factor cos =
2
2R
So 1 cm corresponds to 1 cm
40 cm
2R 1 2 6400
And at 60° N, length = 1 cm = 500 km
40 cm 2 80
19. Five identical letters have to be posted to five different addresses and there are two messengers available. The
number of ways in which the letters may be assigned for posting is
(a) 5!/(2!3!) (b) 25
(c) 52 (d) 6
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Answer (b)
Sol.
(m1 or m2)
x2 y 2
20. Consider the ellipse with equation + = 1 with one focus at (2, 0). The equation to the line that passes
9 b
through the point (0, 2) and is perpendicular to the tangent to the ellipse at (x0, y0) is
1/2
x2
9 1– 0
9
(a) y = x+2
5 x0
9
(b) y = x+2
10 x0
x2
9 1– 0
(c) y = −
9 x+2
5 x0
9
(d) y = − x+2
10 x0
Answer (a)*
2
Sol. ae = 2 e =
3
4 b2
= 1− 1
9 9
b12 5
=
9 9
b12 = 5
b = b12 = 5
b=5
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x2 y 2 xx0 yy 0
+ = 1 is + −1= 0
9 5 9 5
5 x0
Slope = −
9 y0
9y 0
Given line, ( y − 2) = ( x − 0)
5 x0
9y 0 x02 y 02
y= +2 + =1
5 x0 9 5
x02
y0 = 5 1 −
9
x2
5 1 − 0
9
9
y = +2
5 x0
1/2
9 x02
y = 1 − +2
5 x0 9
x2 y 2
21. Consider a planet moving on an elliptical orbit that may be represented by the equation + = 1 (in some
9 5
units) with the parent star at the focus at (–2, 0). The area swept by the radius vector from the focus to the planet
in equal intervals of time is a constant. The ratio of the time taken to traverse the portion of the path with x < –2
to the time taken to traverse the portion of the path with x > –2 is
2 – A – B – –
(a) , where A = sin–1 2 and B = (b) , where = 1 sin–1 2 and = 5
2 5 4
3 9 2 3 27
2 + A + B 4 + +
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
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Answer (a)
Sol. Using Kepler’s areal velocity law,
A x2
is constant y 2 = 5 1 −
t 9
A1
(–3, 0) for x < 2
t1
A2
for x > 2 is equal
t 2
t1 A1
=
t2 A2
−2 x2
A1 = 2 5 1 − dx
9
−3
3 x2
A2 = 2 5 1−
dx
9
or use A1 + A2 = (3) ( 5)
−2
−2 −2
2 5 2 5 9 −1 x 1 2
2
A1 = 9 − x dx = sin + x 9 − x
3
−3
3 2
3 2 −3
−2
2 5 1 x
A1 = 9 sin−1 + x 9 − x 2
3 2 3 −3
2 5 −1 2
= −18 sin − 9 + 4 5
12 3
A2 = 3 5 − A1
A1 4 5 − 9 − 18 2
= , = sin−1
A2 27 + 18 − 4 5 3
−1 2
− A − B A = sin 3
= 2 ,
+ A+B B=
2 5
2 9
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22. The percentage error in determining sin 30° by assuming that between 0° and 45° the sine function may be
approximated by a straight line is
(a) 9.3% (b) 7.5%
(c) 5.7% (d) 3.6%
Answer (c)
Sol. The slope of line between (0°, 0) and (45°, sin45°) is
1
−0
1
m= 2 =
45 − 0 45 2
1
y = x
45 2
1 2
y = 30 = 3 0.4714
45 2
0.5 − 0.4714
Percentage error = 100
0.5
= 5.7%
23. The relation R on N, the set of natural number, defined by (x, y) R if and only if xy is a perfect square is
(a) reflexive, symmetric but not transitive
(b) reflexive, symmetric and transitive
(c) symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive
(d) symmetric, transitive but not reflexive
Answer (b)
Sol. xy = perfect square
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(1) × (2)
(xy)(yz) = k12k22
(xz)y2 = k12k22
k12k22
xz = = perfect square
y2
Transitive
24. If A is a 10 × 10 matrix with determinant 2, what is the determinant of 2A?
(a) 4
(b) 512
(c) 1024
(d) 2048
Answer (d)
Sol. |2A| = 210 |A| |A| = 2 (given)
= 210 × 2
|2A| = 2048
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1 1 1
=k k k 1
k2 k2 1
Always zero as
two columns
are identical
=0
2023 1 1
x = 2024 k 1
2025 k 2 1
k 2023 1
2
y = k 2024 1
3
k 2025 1
k 1 2023
2
z = k k 2024
3 2
k k 2025
If k = 1,
= x = y = z
26. The number of real values of x in the closed interval [0, 2024] that satisfy the equation sin2x + sinx – 2 = 0 is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 1012
(d) 2024
Answer (c)
Sol. sin2x + sinx – 2 = 0
sinx[sinx + 2] –1[sinx + 2] = 0
sin x −2 sinx = 1
Rejected
x = (4n + 1) nZ
2
1012 → (c)
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z +1
27. What is the centre and radius of the circle represented by = 2?
z–2
(a) Centre (–1, 2), Radius 2 (b) Centre (1, –2), Radius 2
(c) Centre (0, 3), Radius 2 (d) Centre (3, 0), Radius 2
Answer (d)
z +1
Sol. =2
z−2
|z + 1| = 2|z – 2|
|(x + 1) + iy| = 2|(x – 2) + iy|
28. In how many ways can 10 identical balls be distributed among three children?
(a) 30 (b) 66
(c) 120 (d) 156
Answer (b)
Sol. Let n = 10 (Identical balls)
p = 3 (Children)
Number of ways = n +( p −1)C( p −1)
= 10 + 2C2
= 12C2
= 66
1 + 2x + 3 x 2 , x
29. Consider the function f ( x ) =
3 + 2x + x 2 , x
Which of the following is not correct?
(a) f is discontinuous at x = 2024 (b) f has removable discontinuity at x = 2024
(c) f is continuous at c where c < 2024 (d) f is differentiable at c where c > 2024
Answer (b)
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2
1 + 2x + 3 x , x 2024
Sol. f ( x ) =
2
3 + 2x + x , x 2024
2 2
( x + 1) + 2x , x 2024
=
2
( x + 1) + 2, x 2024
Clearly f(x) is not continuous at x = 2024
As lim f (x) lim f (x)
x →2024+ x →2024−
6 x + 2, x 2024
f ( x )
2 x + 2, x 2024
f(x) is discontinuous at x = 2024 and it is non-removal type of discontinuity.
(a) Yes, f(x) is discontinuous at x = 2024
(b) No, non-removable discontinuity at LHL RHL
(c) f(x) for x > 2024 is 3 + 2x + x2 which is continuous
(d) f(x) for x > 2024 is 1 + 2x + 3x2, which is differentiable
30. What is the value of the following limit?
1 4 9 1
lim + + ++
3 3 3
n → n + 1 n + 8 n + 27 2n
(a) 0 (b) n 2
(c) n 23 (d) n 21/3
Answer (d)
1 4 n2
+ + + 3
( )
Sol. lim
n → n3 + 1 n3 + 8 n + n3
n r2
lim
n →
n3 + r 3
r =1
2
r 1
n n n
lim
n → r =1
3
r
1+
n
1
x 2dx
= x3
(Applying limit as sum)
0 1+
1
( )0
1
1 ln 2
= ln 1 + x 3 = = ln 2 3
3 3
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31. The area (arbitrary units) bounded by the curves y = 4|x| and y = x2|x| is
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 12 (d) 16
Answer (b)
Sol.
2
x4
( )
2
Area = 2 4 x – x 3
dx = 2 2 x 2 – = 2(8 – 4) = 8
0
4 0
32. Consider the set S of all functions from A = {2021, 2022, 2023, 2024} to itself. What is the probability that a
randomly picked function from S is a one-one function?
3 3
(a) (b)
32 64
3 1
(c) (d)
128 64
Answer (a)
Sol. Total functions = 44 = 256
One-one functions = 4!
4! 24 3
Probability = = =
256 256 32
33. Auroral Kilometric Radiation occurs due to emission from charged particles moving in helical paths around
planetary magnetic field lines at or around the electron gyro frequency and/or its lower harmonics. Considering
the emission from relativistic particles, the emission peaks around a frequency ~2c, where , the Lorentz factor
1 eB
is = and the cyclotron frequency is c = . Determine the frequency of peak emission by
v 2 2 m
1–
c
electrons moving at one-third the speed of light near the Earth’s poles. The average strength of the Earth’s
magnetic field (which is approximately a dipole) at its surface is 50 Tesla. It varies from about 25 Tesla to 65
Tesla over the surface.
(a) 1.78 × 1012 Hz (b) 1.89 MHz
(c) 2 × 1012 Hz (d) 2 MHz
Answer (d)
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1 9
Sol. Lorentz factor = =
v2 8
1– 2
c
eB
f=
2m
9
fpeak = f = 2 MHz
8
34. Thermal diffusivity of a material is related to the speed with thermal equilibrium is reached. Thermal diffusivity
k
a= where k is the thermal conductivity, is the density and c is the specific heat capacity of the material.
c
Vessel of thick walls and bottom, made of which of the following metals/alloys aluminium (k = 385 W/m.K; =
2.7 g/cc; c = 0.9 J/g.°C all at room temperature) or copper (k = 205 W/m.K; = 8.96 W/m.K; c = 0.385 J/g.°C) or
steel (k = 50.2 W/m.K; = 7.75 W/m.K; c = 0.42 J/g.°C) is more likely to develop cracks if cold water is suddenly
poured in after the vessel has been heated to 400 kelvin. The other conditions like size, shape and thickness of
the walls and the bottom of the vessels remaining the same.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Steel
(c) Copper
Answer (b)
k
Sol. a =
c
385
For Al: = 158.4
2.7 0.9
205
For Cu: = 59.4
8.96 0.385
50.2
For Steel: = 15.4 of thermal diffusivity is lower, the material is more likely to break
7.75 0.42
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35. At the interface between two media which are transparent to the incident light, specular reflection with angle of
reflection equal to angle of incidence will take place if surface irregularities are small (scale of micro-roughness
1
less < times the wavelength of incident light). Reflectance is the fraction of the incident intensity that is
100
( )
2
2
n cos – n 2 – sin2
reflected. For light going from a rarer medium to a denser one par = and
n 2 cos +
( )
n 2 – sin2
( )
2
2 2
cos – n – sin
per = are the reflectances respectively for radiation polarized parallel to the interface
( )
cos + n 2 – sin2
and perpendicular to that. Here, n is the refractive index of medium two with respect to medium one. For
unpolarised light is the mean of par and per; it is a monotonic function of the angle of incidence . Headlights
of a faraway car coming towards you are getting reflected off the wet road into your eyes. The emission cone of
light is narrow. The brightness of the reflection will be
(a) greatest when car is farther away
(b) independent of distance
(c) greatest when car is nearer
(d) increases continuously
Answer (a)
Sol. Reflectance is 1 for close to 90° i.e., when car is farther away
Since light is unpolarised, the reflectance is the average of the reflectance of radiation polarised parallel to the
36. Light from a sodium vapour lamp is diffracted by a plane transmission diffraction grating with N = 4000 lines per
cm. The light is incident normally on the grating placed in air. The maximum angular separation (in minute of
arc) achieved between the sodium doublets?
(a) 0.014’
(b) 0.029’
(c) 0.155’
(d) 9.9’
Answer (d)
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4 598.6
For 2, 2 = sin–1 = 13.641°
2500
9.9
37. A proton with kinetic energy 1 keV is shot at a static uranium nucleus. The radius of the uranium nucleus is
approximately 15 femto-meter, the range of the strong force is of the order of a femto-meter and the impact
parameter is 50 femto-meter. The angular momentum of the proton with respect to the centre of the Uranium
nucleus in units of the reduced Planck’s constant () is
(a) 6.96
(b) 55.2
(c) 1.04
(d) 0.346
Answer (d)
Sol. Angular momentum = mvr
= r 2mk
In units of ,
2r
L= 2mk
0.346
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38. In quantum mechanics the wave function carries all the information about the system. The spin part of the general
state of a spin half particle, with spin pointing in the (, ) direction in three dimensional space can be written
cos 2
down in matrix from as | = . The scalar product between two vectors | > and | > is given by
ei sin
2
< || > where < | stands for the complex conjugate transpose of | >. The vector orthogonal to | > is
sin cos 2
2
(a) (b)
– e – i cos – e – i sin
2 2
sin 2 cos 2
(c) (d)
– e i cos – ei sin
2 2
Answer (c)
cos 2
Sol. Complex conjugate transpose of is cos e – i sin
e i sin 2 2
2
For orthogonality the product of the two matrices must be zero, which gives cos e – i sin sin – e i cos
2 2 2 2
= cos sin – e – i + i sin cos
2 2 2 2
= (0)
h
39. The value of in SI units is
e2
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40. Three identical convex lenses of focal length f have been placed with common principal axis along the X axis.
The separation between two adjacent lenses is f. A laser beam is made incident parallel to principal axis. If the
middle lens is now slightly shifted along –ve y direction, the emergent rays from the third lens will
(a) shift upward in the +ve y direction and stay parallel to principal axis
(b) move upward
(c) shift downward in the –ve y direction and stay parallel to principal axis
(d) move downward
Answer (c)
Sol.
Clearly ray diagram shows that emergent rays remain parallel to lenses from object-image distance formula &
rays shift downward as well.
41. Consider a coil of inductance 22.4 mH is connected in series with a capacitor 22.4 F. The coil has resistance
22.4 . This combination is connected to an AC source of 224 Hz, rms 22.4 V sinusoidal signal. The rms current
in the circuit will be
(a) 262 mA (b) 354 mA
(c) 501 mA (d) 1000 mA
Answer (d)
X L = L(2f ) 31.5105
1
XC = 31.735
C (2f )
z = ( XL − XC )2 + R 2
22.4011
v r ms
Ir ms = = 0.999 A
z
1000 mA
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42. A proton moving with speed of 20 km/s enters a 200 cm long and 2.0 cm radius solenoid close to its axis.
Solenoid has magnetic field of 200 gauss. If it leaves from the other end of the solenoid in 200 s, how many
revolutions can it complete (approximately) while inside the solenoid, (neglect end effects)?
(a) 20 (b) 61
(c) 102 (d) 122
Answer (b)
2 m 2 1.67 10−27
Sol. Period of revolution of proton (T ) = = −19 −4
3.28 10−6 s
qB 1.6 10 200 10
200 10−6
So number of revolution = = 60.975 61
3.28 10−6
43. Four charges are placed at points whose cartesian coordinates are +Q(–a, –a, 0), –Q(–a, a, 0), +Q(a, a, 0) and
–Q(a, –a, 0). The number of neutral points where electric field is zero is:
(a) zero (b) one
(c) four (d) infinite
Answer (d)
Sol. Electric field on entire z-axis is zero, because of the symmetry of positive and negative charges.
44. Stars emit radiation approximately like perfectly black bodies. The amount of light energy emitted per unit time
is called the luminosity of the star. Luminosity L and radius R of main sequence stars whose masses are neither
too high nor too low are related to mass m of star as L m3.5 and R m0.8. The surface temperature T depends
on the mass as
(a) T m–2.1 (b) T m0.475
(c) T m1.1 (d) T m1.275
Answer (b)
Sol. L = 4R2.T 4
7
As, L (m) 2
And R (m)0.8
7
So, (m) 2 4 .(m)1.6 .T 4
7
−1.6
4
T (m) 2 = (m)1.9
T (m)0.475
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45. A box of 22.4 litre is filled with ideal gas at pressure 2.00 atm and temperature 300 K. The box is opened in
vacuum chamber of volume 44.8 litres. The final temperature of the gas will be
(a) 150 K (b) 200 K
(c) 300 K (d) 450 K
Answer (c)
Sol. When the box will opened, the gas will expand freely. So work done in free expansion must be zero. It implies
that the temperature of the gas will remain the same. i.e., 300 K
r 2
46. If the density of a planet is varying with radius as (r ) = 0 1– , its gravity will be maximum at
R
5 3
(a) r = R (b) r = R
9 5
3
5 5 2
(c) r = R (d) r = R
3 9
Answer (c)
r r2
G 4r 2 0 1 − 2
R
Sol. g = 0
r2
r
r1
C r 2 − 2 dr
R
g = 0
r2
r3 r5
C −
3 5R 2
g=
r2
r r3
g =C − 2
3 5R
dq
=0
dr
1 3r 2
=
3 5R 2
5R
r =
3
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47. In the following circuit, voltmeter has 40 k resistance and ammeter has 40 resistance. Their readings are
4.00 V and 40.0 mA respectively. The actual values if the meters were ideal would be
(a) Larger than 4.00 V, smaller than 40.0 mA (b) Smaller than 4.00 V, smaller than 40.0 mA
(c) Larger than 4.00 V, larger than 40.0 mA (d) Smaller than 4.00 V, larger than 40.0 mA
Answer (c)
Sol.
4
IR2 = 40 mA − mA
40
IR2 = 39.9 mA
4
R2 = = 100.25
39.9 mA
R1 = 6 − 4 − 40 10−3 40
= 10
40 10−3
6 6
If voltmeter and ammeter are ideal, I = = = 54.4mA
R1 + R2 100.25 + 10
Reading of voltmeter = 5.45 V
48. If an atom absorbs red photon of 650 nm and a yellow photon of 580 nm and emits the entire absorbed energy
as a single photon, the wavelength of the emitted photon is
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A–2
ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS (4, 3, 2 or 1) MAY BE CORRECT
MARKS WILL BE AWARDED ONLY IF ALL THE CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED AND NO INCORRECT.
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Which of the following interstellar molecular hydrogen clouds are unstable to collapse?
(a) Giant molecular cloud of mass 104 solar masses, with n = 100 per cc and T = 20 K
(b) Molecular cloud core of mass 10 solar masses, with n = 105 per cc and T = 10 K
(c) Molecular cloud core of mass equal to 1 solar mass, radius 0.001 pc and T = 10 K
(d) A molecular cloud core of radius 10 pc, temperature 10 K with n = 104 per cc
Answer (b)
Sol. Jeans length,
15KBT
RJ =
4GmH
Putting T = 20, = 2
MJ = 3 × 102 M
M >> M5
This cloud is unstable.
For option (c):
MJ = 1.5 M
M << MJ
Cloud stable.
For option (d):
MJ = 3 × 104 M
Since actual mass of cloud is not given, so stable/unstable cannot be determined.
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52. Consider a spherical satellite of mass m and radius r, held intact by its own gravity, moving in a circular orbit
around a planet of mass M and radius R. Consider the following possible critical distance d R (say), between the
planet and the satellite. When the distance d is less than dR the tidal force on the satellite, which is stretching the
satellite along the line from the planet to the satellite, is greater than the self-gravitational force holding the
satellite together. Hence if the planet-satellite separation d becomes less than dR, the satellite disintegrates. Now
consider the rotating reference frame in which both the planet and the satellite are stationary with respect to
each other. In this frame, at the side of the satellite that is closest to the planet, the tidal acceleration towards
2GMr GM
the planet is given by 3
. The magnitude of the acceleration due to self-gravity of the satellite is 2 . The
d r
most appropriate value of dR may be obtained as
1 1
2 3 3
(a) R M (b) R M
m m
1 1
2M 3 2 2
(c) r (d) R M
m m
Answer (a,c)
Sol. For critical distance dr,
Tidal force = self-gravitational force
2GMr GM
3
=
d r2
1/3
2M
d =r
m
1/ 3
4
M R 3
And, d = r 2 3
4
m r 3
3
1/3
2
= R M
m
53. Calculus was invented by Newton to solve the equations that came up when he examined motion under a central
force such as gravity. The force of gravity is the controlling force underlying the laws of Kepler. The possible
solutions to the equation were obtained as conic sections. Which of the following is/are possible solutions (x, y,
t, r, are standard coordinates; A, B, k and K are constants) to the Kepler problem?
(a) x(t) = A cos kt; y(t) = B sin kt (b) r(t) = k; (t) = Kt modulo 2
( x – 2) ( y – 3) ( z – 4)
(c) x(t) = A sec ; y(t) = B tan (d) = =
2 3 4
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Answer (a,b,c,d)
2 2
x y
Sol. (a) + = 1 elliptical for bounded system
A B
(b) r constant
= linear
uniform circular motion
2 2
x y
(c) − = 1
A B
Hyperbolic when speed is greater than escape speed
x −2 y −3 z −4
(d) = = that is equation of straight line (either with constant velocity or variable velocity)
2 3 4
All are possible trajectory under central force.
g ( x ) = | sin x |, x R
f + g |x – 1| + |sinx|
and f – g |x – 1| + |sinx|
Since |x – 1| is differentiable everywhere except x = 1.
And |sinx| is non differentiable at integer multiple of where sin(n) = 0, n I.
Check at x = 0, x = 1, x = random multiple of would suffice.
Let P(x) = f(x) + g(x)
q(x) = f(x) – g(x)
For x = 0, neighbourhood
1 − x + sin x, x 0
P( x ) =
1 − x − sin x, x 0
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−1 + cos x, x 0
P '( x ) =
−1 − cos x, x 0
lim P '( x ) = 0 and lim P '( x ) = −2
x → 0+ x → 0–
1 − x − sin x, x 0
q( x ) =
1 − x + cos x, x 0
f + g not differentiable at x = 0
f – g not differentiable at x = 0
Check for x = 1 in neighbourhood of x = 1
x − 1 + sin x, x 1 1 + cos x, x 1
P( x ) = P '( x ) =
1 − x + sin x, x 1 −1 + cos x, x 1
lim P '( x ) = 1 + cos1
x →1+
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dy dy dy
= 2, = −1, =2
dx x =1 dx x = 2 dx x = 3
dy dy
(a) = tangents are parallel.
dx x =1 dx x = 3
dy
= –1 –45° with +ve x-axis
dx x = 2
(b)
(c) tangent equation (y – y1) = m1(x – x1) but y1 = 0 for each case
y = mx – m1x1
yintercepts = –m1x1
Sum of yintercepts = – m1x1 – m2x2 – m3x3
= (–2)(1) + (1) (2) + (–2)(3)
= – 2 + 2 – 6 = –6
Sol.
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Max. z = x + y = 6
3 24
All the points lying on the line x + y = 6 are optimal solution for x .
2 5
(a) (3, 3) is a feasible solution, as it satisfies all the inequalities.
(b) (3, 3) is also the optimal solution
3 24
(c) If x = k, y = 6 – k for x . Option (c) is false.
2 5
(d) LPP has infinitely many solutions.
57. There are two whales of exactly the same shape and size. One can just float in a sea somewhat below the arctic
circle (say arctic whale) and the other in a tropical sea near the equator (say equatorial whale). Salinity of sea
water first increases in going from the equator towards the poles and then decreases in going close to the poles.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(a) The two whales are of the same mass (b) Equatorial whale has smaller mass
(c) Equatorial whale has larger mass (d) Arctic whale has more weight
Answer (b, d)
Sol. Equator whale floats in warmer less dense water and arctic whale in more dense water.
Buoyant force is greater at arctic circle.
Buoyant force = mg
Arctic whale has more mass as compared to equatorial whale.
a b
58. A point charge q = 1.00 C and mass m = 1.00 g moves in a potential V ( x ) = – + ( x 0) , where a = 1000
2
x x3
V × m2 and b = 100 V × m3. The correct statement(s) is/are
(a) There is an equilibrium at x = 0.15 m
(b) Around x = 0.15 m, charge can make small oscillations
(c) The period of small oscillations of charge around x = 0.15 is 0.10 ms
(d) A negative charge will not experience zero force at x = 0.15 m
Answer (a,b,c)
a b
Sol. V = − 2 + 3
x x
2a 3b
E=− + =0
3
x x4
x0 = 0.15 m
2a 3b
F = q− + F = – 3.95x
( x + x )3 ( x + x )4
0 0
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10−9
T = 2
3.95
T 0.1 ms
59. Two bodies are moving under their mutual gravitational force in circular orbits. Their mass ratio is 2 : 5. The ratio
of their
(a) Speeds of the two masses will be in ratio of 5 : 2
(b) Angular speeds around CoM will be in ratio of 4 : 25
(c) Angular momenta about the CoM will be 1 : 1
(d) Kinetic energies will be 5 : 2
Answer (a,d)
Sol. Angular speed around COM is same for both masses.
Ratio of distances is r1 : r2 :: m2 : m1
i.e., r1 : r2 :: 5 : 2
Ratio of speed is v1 : v2 :: r1 : r2
or v1 : v2 :: r1 : r2
i.e., v1 : v2 :: 5 : 2
Since linear momentum about COM is same in magnitude, the ratio of kinetic energies is
K1 : K2 :: m2 : m1
i.e., K1 : K2 :: 5 : 2
60. Assume that the Moon’s orbit around the Earth is an almost circular ellipse and that neither its orbit nor its rotation
axis precesses. From the Earth we can see more than 50% of the surface of the Moon because
(a) rotation period and revolution period of the Moon are not equal
(b) the Moon’s speed of revolution increases and decreases along the elliptical orbit
(c) inclination of the Moon’s orbit with the ecliptic plane makes the Moon alternately show more northern or
more southern part
(d) other side of the Moon is also visible sometimes
Answer (b, c)
Sol. (a) The rotational and revolution periods are equal.
(b) Because of elliptical path, speed increases and decreases
(c) This causes liberation in latitude letting us see beyond the near side at poles.
(d) Because of locking we can never see more than 50%.
❑ ❑ ❑
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