LAW SUBJECTS

1. The maxim “Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege” means that
a. The act is criminal at the time of its commission and recognize as such at the time of its
commission but the penalty therefore is prescribed in a subsequently enacted law.
b. The act is criminal and punished under and pursuant to common law
c. There is a crime for as long as the act is inherently evil.
d. Crime is a product of the law

2. When a penal law absolutely repealed such that the offense is decriminalized, a pending case
charging the accused of the repealed crime is to be
a. Prosecuted still since the charge was valid when filed.
b. Dismissed without any precondition.
c. Dismissed provided the accused is not a habitual delinquent.
d. Prosecuted still since the offended party has a vested interest in the repealed law.

3. Principles of public international law exempt certain individuals from the Generality
characteristics of criminal law. Who among the following are NOT exempt from the Generality
rule?
a. Ministers Resident
b. Commercial Attaché of foreign country.
c. Ambassador
d. Chiefs of Mission

4. Which of the following crimes is an exception to the Territoriality Rule in Criminal Law?
a. Violation of the Trademark Law committed by an alien in the Philippines.
b. Forgery of US bank notes committed in the Philippines
c. Crime committed by a Filipino in the disputed Spratly’s Island.
d. Plunder committed at his place of assignment abroad by a Philippine public officer.

5. When committed outside the Philippine territory, our courts DO NOT have jurisdiction over the
crime of
a. Treason
b. Piracy
c. Espionage
d. Rebellion

6. What court has jurisdiction when an Indonesian crew murders the Filipino captain on board a
vessel of Russian registry while the vessel is anchored outside the breakwaters of the Manila
bay?
a. The Indonesian court.
b. The Russian court.
c. The Philippine court.
d. Any court that first asserts jurisdiction over the case.

7. A foreigner residing in Hong Kong counterfeits a twenty-peso bill issued by the Philippine
Government. May foreigner be prosecuted before a civil court in the Philippines?
a. No. The provisions of the Revised Penal Code are enforceable only within the
Philippine archipelago.
b. No. The Philippine Criminal Law is binding only on persons who reside or sojourn in
the Philippines.
c. No. Foreigners residing outside the jurisdiction of the Philippines are exempted from
the operation of the Philippine Criminal Law.
d. Yes. The provisions of the Revised Penal Code are enforceable also outside the
jurisdiction of the Philippines against those who should forge or counterfeit currency
 notes of the Philippines or obligations and securities issued by the Government of the
Philippines.

8. Motive is generally IMMATERIAL in determining criminal liability EXCEPT when

a. Several offenders committed the crime but the court wants to ascertain which of them
acted as leader
b. The evidence of the crime consists of the both direct and circumstantial evidence.
c. Ascertaining the degree of penalty that may be imposed on the offender.
d. The evidence of guilt of the accused is circumstantial.

9. It is a matter of judicial knowledge that certain individuals will kill others or commit serious
offenses for no reason at all. For this reason,
a. Lack of motive can result in conviction where the crime and the accuser’s part in it are
shown.
b. Motive is material only where there is no evidence of criminal intent.
c. Lack of motive precludes conviction.
d. The motive of an offender is absolutely immaterial.

10. Felonies are classified according to manner or mode of execution into felonies committed by
means of deceit (dolo) and by means of fault (culpa). Which of the following causes may not
give rise to culpable felonies?
a. Imprudence
b. Malice
c. Negligence
d. Lack of foresight

11. A crime resulting from negligence, reckless impudence, lack of foresight or lack of skill is
called
a. Dolo
b. Culpa
c. Tortuous crimes
d. Quasi delict

12. Culpa can either be a crime by itself or a mode of committing a crime. Culpa is a crime by
itself in
a. Reckless imprudence resulting in murder.
b. Medical malpractice.
c. Serious physical injuries thru reckless imprudence.
d. Complex crime of reckless imprudence resulting in serious physical injuries.

13. X, without intent to kill, aimed his gun at Z and fired it, hitting the latter who died as a
consequence. Under the circumstances
a. X cannot plead praeter intentionem since the intent to kill is presumed from the killing of
the victim.
b. X may plead praeter intentionem since he intended only to scare, not to kill Z.
c. X may plead aberratio ictus as he had no intention to hit Z.
d. X may plead commission of only Discharge of Firearm as he had no intent to kill Z when
he fired his gun.

14. X inflicted serious injuries on Y. Because of delay in providing medical treatment to Y, He

died. Is X criminally liable for the death of Y?
a. Yes, because the delay did not break the causal connection between X’s felonies act and
the injuries sustained by Y.
b. Yes because any intervening cause between the infliction of injury and death is
immaterial.
c. No because the infliction of injury was not the immediate cause of death.
d. No because the delay in the administration of the medical treatment was an intervening
cause.
15. X inflicted violent kicks on vital parts of E’s body. E nevertheless was able to flee for fear of
his life. Refusing to undergo treatment for his injuries, E died 3 days later. Is X liable for E’s
death?
a. No, since kicks on the body cannot cause death.
b. No, since it took too long for death to occur.
c. Yes, since E cannot be compelled to undergo medical treatment.
d. Yes, since it was a natural result of the injuries X inflicted on E.

16. Under which of the following circumstances is an accused not liable for the result not
intended?
a. Accused is not criminally liable for the result not intended when there is mistake in the
identity of the victim.
b. Accused is not criminally liable for the result not intended when there is mistake in the
blow.
c. Accused is not criminally liable for the result not intended when the wrongful act is not the
proximate cause of the resulting injury.
d. Accused is not criminally liable for the result not intended when there is mistake of fact
constituting an involuntary act.

17. Can there be a frustrated impossible crime?

a. Yes. When the crime is not produced by reason of the inherent impossibility of its
accomplishment, it is a frustrated impossible crime.
b. No. there can be no frustrated impossible crime because the means employed to
accomplish the crime is inadequate or ineffectual.
c. Yes, there can be frustrated impossible crime when the act performed would be an
offense against persons.
d. No. there can be no frustrated impossible crime because the offender has already
performed acts for the execution of the crime.

18. Is the penalty for impossible crime applicable to one who attempts to commit a light felony of
impossible materialization?
a. No. The evil intent of the offender cannot be accomplished.
b. No. An attempt to commit light felony constitutes an employment of inadequate or
ineffectual means.
c. No. The penalty for consummated light felony is less than the penalty for impossible
crime.
d. No. In impossible crime, the act performed should not constitute a violation of another
offense.

19. DD, intending to kill EE, peppered the latter’s bedroom with bullets, but since the intended
victim was not home at that time, no harm came to him. What crime is committed?
a. DD committed a crime of attempted murder.
b. DD committed a crime of attempted homicide.
c. DD committed a crime of impossible crime.
d. DD committed a crime of malicious mischief.

20. In an attempted felony, the offender’s preparatory act.

a. Itself constitutes an offense.
b. Must seem connected to the intended crime.
c. Must be not connected to the intended crime.
d. Requires another act to result in a felony.

21. A private person who assist the escape of a person who committed robbery shall be liable
a. As a principal to the crime of robbery
b. As an accessory to the crime of robbery.
 c. As a principal to the crime of obstruction of justice.
d. As an accessory to the crime of obstruction of justice.

22. When are light felonies punishable?

a. Light felonies are punishable in all stages of execution.
b. Light felonies are punishable only when consummated.
c. Light felonies are punishable only when consummated with the exception of those
committed against persons or property.
d. Light felonies are punishable only when committed against persons or property.

23. A, B, and C agreed to rob a house of its cash. A and B entered the house while C remained
outside as lookout. After getting the cash, A and B decided to set the house on fire to destroy
any evidence of their presence. What crime or crimes did C commit?
a. Robbery and arson since arson took place as an incident of the robbery.
b. Robbery and arson since C took no step to stop the arson.
c. Just for robbery, since he only agreed to it and served as lookout.
d. Accomplice to robbery since his role in the crime was minimal

24. Conspiracy to commit felony is punishable only in cases in which the law specially provides a
penalty therefor. Under which of the following instances are the conspirators not liable.
a. Conspiracy to commit arson.
b. Conspiracy to commit terrorism.
c. Conspiracy to commit child pornography.
d. Conspiracy to commit trafficking in persons.

25. A proposal to commit felony is punishable only when the law specifically provides a penalty
for it as in the case of proposal to commit
a. rebellion
b. sedition
c. espionage
d. highway robbery

26. Proposal to commit felony is punishable only in cases in which the law specially provides a
penalty therefor. Under which of the following instances are proponents NOT liable?
a. Proposal to commit coup d’etat.
b. Proposal to commit sedition.
c. Proposal to commit rebellion.
d. Proposal to commit treason.

27. The classification of felonies into grave, less grave, and light is important in ascertaining
a. If certain crimes committed on the same occasion can be complexed
b. The correct penalty for crimes committed through reckless imprudence
c. Whether the offender is liable as an accomplice
d. What stage of the felony has been reached

28. Three men gave Arnold fist blow and kicks causing him to fall. As they surrounded and
continued hitting him, he grabbed a knife he had in his pocket and stabbed one of the men
straight to the heart. What crime did Arnold commit?
a. Homicide with incomplete self- defense, since he coud have run from his aggressors.
b. Homicide, since he knew that stabbing a person in the heart is fatal
c. Homicide mitigated by incomplete self-defense, since stabbing a person to the heart is
excessive.
d. No crime, since he needed to repel the aggression, employing reasonable means for
doing so.

29. The husband has for a long time physically and mentally tortured his wife. After one episode
of beating, the wife took the husband’s gun and shot him dead. Under the circumstances, her
act constitutes
 a. Mitigating vindication of grave offense
b. Battered woman syndrome, a complete self defense.
c. Incomplete self- defense.
d. Mitigating passion and obfuscation.

30.A battered woman claiming self-defense under the Anti-violence against Women and Children
must prove that the final acute battering episode was preceded by
a. 3 battering episodes
b. 4 battering episodes
c. 5 battering episodes
d. 2 battering episodes

31. As modifying circumstance, insanity

a. Is in the nature of confession and avoidance
b. May be presumed from the offender’s previous behavior.
c. May be mitigating if its presence becomes apparent subsequent to the commission of the
crime.
d. Exempts the offender from criminal liability whatever the circumstances.

32. To save himself from crashing into an unlighted truck abandoned on the road, Jose swerved
his car to the right towards the graveled shoulder, killing two bystanders. Is he entitled to the
justifying circumstances of state of necessity?
a. No, because the bystanders had nothing to do with the abandoned truck on the road.
b. No, because the injury done is greater than the evil to be avoided.
c. Yes, since the instinct of self- preservation takes priority in an emergency.
d. Yes, since the bystanders should have kept off the shoulder of the road.

33. Insuperable cause is an exempting circumstance which may be applied to

a. Robbery
b. Misprision of treason
c. Homicide
d. Rebellion

34. The police officer in civilian clothes asked X where he can buy shabu. X responded by asking
the officer how much of the drug he needed. When he told him, X left, returned after a few
minutes with the shabu, gave it to the officer, and took his money. X is
a. Liable for selling since the police operation was a valid entrapment.
b. Not liable for selling since the police operation was invalid entrapment.
c. Liable for selling since the police operation was a valid form of instigation.
d. Not liable since the police operation was an invalid instigation.

35. The presence of a mitigating circumstance in a crime

a. Increase the penalty to its maximum period.
b. Changes the gravity of the offense.
c. Affects the imposable penalty, depending on other modifying circumstances.
d. Automatically reduces the penalty.

36. What is the minimum age of criminal responsibility?

a. Fifteen (15) years old or under
b. Nine (9) years old or under
c. Above nine (9) years old and under fifteen (15) who acted with discernment.
d. Above fifteen (15) years old and under eighteen (18) who acted with discernment.

37. Minority is a privilege mitigating circumstances which operates to reduce the penalty by a
degree where the child is
a. 15 years and below acting without discernment.
b. Above 15 years but below 18 acting without discernment.
c. Below 18 years acting with discernment.
d. 18 years old at the time of the commission of the crime acting with discernment.
38. A child over fifteen (15) years of age acted with discernment in the commission of murder.
What is the duty of the court if he is already over eighteen (18) years of age at the time of the
determination of his guilt for the offense charge?
a. The court should pronounce the judgment of conviction.
b. The court should place the child under suspended sentence for a specified period or until
he reaches twenty-one (21) years of age.
c. The court shall discharge the child for disposition Measures.
d. The court shall place the child on probation.

39. A child in conflict with the law shall enjoy all the rights of a child until
a. He is found to have acted with discernment.
b. His minority is set off by some aggravating circumstances.
c. He is proved to be 18 years or older.
d. He forfeits such rights by gross misconduct and immorality.

40. W allowed a man to have sex with her thinking that he was her husband. After realizing that
the man was not her husband, W stabbed him to death. Under the circumstances, the
mitigating circumstance in attendance constitutes
a. Defense of honor
b. Immediate vindication of a grave offense
c. Passion or obfuscation.
d. Self- defense.

41. Deeply enraged by his wife’s infidelity, the husband shot and killed her lover. The husband
subsequently surrendered to the police. How will the court appreciate the mitigating
circumstances of (i) passion or obfuscation, (ii) vindicating of a grave offense, and (iii)
voluntary surrender that the husband invoked and proved?
a. It will appreciate passion or obfuscation and voluntary surrender as one mitigating
circumstances and vindication of grave offense as another.
b. It will appreciate all three mitigating circumstances separately.
c. It will appreciate the three mitigating circumstances only as one.
d. It will appreciate passion or obfuscation and vindication of a grave offense as just one
mitigating circumstance and voluntary surrender as another.

42. Without meaning anything, Z happened to stare into the eye of one of four men hanging out
by store which he passed. Taking offense, the four mauled and robbed him of his wages. Z
went home, took a knife, and stabbed one of his attackers’ death. Charged with murder, Z
may raise the mitigating circumstance of
a. Praeter intentionem
b. Incomplete self- defense preceded by undue provocation.
c. Passion or obfuscation
d. Complete self-defense.

43. After properly waiving his Miranda rights, the offender led the police to where he buried the
gun he used in shooting victim. How does this affect his liability?
a. This serves as an analogous mitigating circumstances of voluntary surrender.
b. It has no effect at all since the law provides none.
c. He is considered to have confessed to murder.
d. This serves as aggravating circumstances of concealment of weapon.

44. An extenuating circumstances, which has the same effect as a mitigating circumstance, is
exemplified by
a. The mother killing her 2- day old child to conceal her dishonor
 b. The accused committing theft out of extreme poverty
c. The accused raping his victim in extreme state of passion
d. The accused surrendering the weapon he used in his crime to the authorities.

45. Which of the following circumstances may be taken into account for the purpose of increasing
the penalty to be imposed upon the convict?
a. Aggravating circumstance which in themselves constitutes a crime specially punishable
by law.
b. Aggravating circumstances which are inherent in the crime to such a degree that they
must necessary accompany the crime.
c. Aggravating circumstance which arise from the moral attributes of the offender.
d. Aggravating circumstances which are included by the law in defining a crime.

46. Which of the following circumstances may be appreciated as aggravating in the crime of
treason?
a. Cruelty and ignominy;
b. Evident premeditation;
c. Superior strength;
d. Treachery.

47. A qualifying aggravating circumstances

a. Changes the description and the nature of the offense.
b. Increases the penalty to its next degree but absorbs all the other aggravating
circumstances.
c. Raises the penalty by two periods higher.
d. Is one which applies only in conjunction with another aggravating circumstance.

48. When is a crime deemed to have been committed by band?

a. When armed men, at least four (4) in number, take direct part in the execution of the
act constituting the crime.
b. When three (3) armed men act together in the commission of the crime.
c. When there are four (4) armed persons, one of whom is a principal by inducement.
d. When there are four (4) malefactors, one of whom is armed.

49. Arthur, Ben, and Cesar quarreled with Glen while they were at the latter’s house. Enraged,
Arthur repeatedly stabbed glen while Ben and Cesar pinned his arms. What aggravating
circumstances if any attended the killing of Glen?
a. Evident premeditation.
b. None.
c. Abuse and superior strength.
d. Treachery.

50. FF and his two sons positioned themselves outside the house of the victim. The two sons
stood by the stairs in front of the house while the father waited at the back. The victim jumped
out of the window and was met by FF who instantly hacked him. The two sons joined hacking
the victim to death. They voluntarily surrender to the police. How will the attendant
circumstances be properly appreciated?
a. Treachery and abuse of superior strength qualify the killing to murder.
b. Only treachery qualifies the killing to murder because abuse of superior strength is
absorbed by treachery.
c. Treachery is the qualifying aggravating circumstance, while abuse or superior strength is
treated as generic aggravating circumstance.
d. The qualifying circumstance of treachery or abuse of superior strength can be offset by
the mitigating circumstance of voluntary surrender.

51. Ana visited her daughter Belen who worked as Caloy’s housemaid. Caloy was not home but
Debbie, a casual visitor in the house, verbally maligned Belen in Ana’s presence. Irked, Ana
 assaulted Debbie. Under the circumstances, dwelling is NOT regarded as aggravating
because
a. Dwelling did nothing to provoke Ana into assaulting Debbie.
b. Caloy, the owner of the house, was not present.
c. Debbie is not a dweller of the house.
d. Belen, whom Debbie maligned, also dwells in the house.

52. B was convicted by final judgment of theft. While serving sentence for such offense, B was
found in possession of an unlicensed firearm. Is B a quasi-recidivist?
a. B is a quasi-recidivist because he was serving sentence when found in possession of an
unlicensed firearm.
b. B is not a quasi-recidivist because the offense for which he was serving sentence is
different from the second offense.
c. B is not a quasi-recidivist because the second offense is not a felony. (Art.160, RPC)
d. B is not a quasi-recidivist because he was committed while still serving for the first
offense.

53.

Sumpay ni maam until muabot 100 items

1. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules, of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth
respecting the matter of fact. a. Evidence b. Criminal Law c. Constitutional Law

d. Fishing Expedition e. Judicial Admission

2. It is an evidence which tends to prove the fact in issue in a case.

a. Material Evidence b. Immaterial Evidence c. Competent Evidence d. Relevant Evidence

e. Circumstantial Evidence

3. It is kind of evidence which proves the fact in dispute without the aid of any inference or
presumption. a. Material Evidence b. Expert Evidence c. Relevant Evidence

d. Direct Evidence e. Competent Evidence

4. It is an evidence which has a tendency in reason to establish the probability or improbability of

the fact in issue. a. Material Evidence b. Expert Evidence c. Relevant Evidence

d. Direct Evidence e. Competent Evidence

5. This is an evidence which is not excluded by any law or the Rules on Evidence.

a. Material Evidence b. Expert Evidence c. Relevant Evidence

d. Direct Evidence e. Competent Evidence

6. It is an evidence given by one possessing, in regard to a particular subject or department of

human activity, knowledge not usually acquired by other persons.

a. Material Evidence b. Expert Evidence c. Relevant Evidence

d. Direct Evidence e. Competent Evidence

7. It is defined as evidence addressed to the senses of the court - something that you can see, touch
or hear. a. Testimonial Evidence b. Object Evidence c. Parole Evidence

d. Rebutting Evidence e. Prima Facie Evidence

8. It is also known as “Autopic Preference”. a. Testimonial Evidence b. Object

Evidence c. Parole Evidence d. Rebutting Evidence e. Prima Facie Evidence

9. These are the facts which should not be found in the pleadings but brought out during the trial.

a. Factum Probans b. Factum Probandum c. Sigma Legis d. Lexi e. Ultimate Facts

10. It is anevidence which admits of no proof to the contrary.

a. Prima Facie Evidence b. Rebutting Evidence c. Conclusive Evidence

d. Testimonial Evidence e. Object Evidence

11. When does the evidence become admissible? a. If the evidence is relevant and
competent

b. It is enough that the evidence is relevant c. It is enough that the evidence is

competent.

d. If the evidence is a material e. If it is an circumstantial evidence which can be corroborated

12. These are collateral matters which preceded the fact in issue and which have already been in
existence prior to the fact in issue, but pointing forward to it.

a. Porspectant or Antecedent Collateral Matters b. Concomitant Collateral Matters

c. Retrospectant or Subsequent Collateral Matters d. None Of the Choices

13. These are collateral matters which are succeeding the fact in issue, but pointing backward to it.
a. Porspectant or Antecedent Collateral Matters b. Concomitant Collateral Matters

c. Retrospectant or Subsequent Collateral Matters d. None Of the Choices

14. This is a kind of admissibility of evidence which appears to be immaterial is admitted by the court
subject to the condition that its connection with another or other facts subsequently to be proved
will be established. a. Multiple Admissibility of Evidence b. Conditional Admissibility
of Evidence c. Curative Admissibility of Evidence d. Conclusive Admissibility of
Evidence e. Final Admissibility of Evidence

15. It is defined as the cognizance which the courts may take, without proof, of facts which they are
bound or are supposed to know by virtue of their office.

a. Judicial Admission b. Judicial Notice c. Presumptions

d. Extra-judicial Confession e. Plea of Guilt

16. This is a type of judicial notice wherein the court shall take judicial notice without the
introduction of evidence. a. Mandatory Judicial Notice b. Permissive Judicial Notice

c. Judicial Notice when hearing is necessary d. Discretionary Judicial

Notice

e. None of the Choices

17. It refers to the personal knowledge of the judge?

a. Permissive Judicial Notice b. Discretionary Judicial Notice c. Judicial Admission

d. Judicial Knowledge e. Judicial Confession

18. It is a type of judicial notice wherein the court, on its own initiative, or on request of a party, may
announce its intention to take judicial notice of any matter and allow the parties to be heard
thereon. a. Mandatory Judicial Notice b. Permissive Judicial Notice

c. Judicial Notice when hearing is necessary d. Discretionary Judicial Notice

e. None of the Choices

19. This is a classification of Object Evidence which consists the making of an experiment.

a. Demonstrative Evidence b. Ocular Inspection c. Corroborative Evidence

d. Testimonial Evidence e. None of the choices

20. This is a Rule which states that when the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document, no
evidence shall be admissible other than the original document itself.

a. Parole Evidence Rule b. Survivor’s Disqualification Rule c.Marital Communication

Rule d. Marital Disqualification Rule e. Best Evidence Rule

21. This is also known as Rule of Exclusion. a. Rule Secondary Evidence b.Survivor’s
Disqualification Rule c. Marital Communication Rule d. Marital Disqualification
Rule e. Best Evidence Rule

22. Which is considered as Original of document?

a. One the contents of which are the subject of inquiry b. A document which is in two or more
copies executed at or about the same time with identical contents

c. One an entry of which is repeated in the regular course of business, one being copied from
another at or near the time of the transaction

d. A newspaper which contains a story which is alleged to be libelous.

e. All of the Choices

23. Which of the choices is considered Secondary Evidence?

a. Copy of the Original b. A recital of its contents in some other authentic documents

c. Testimony of witnesses d. A diary on which the contents of the Contract of Sale were
verbatimly written e. All of the Choices

24. What needs to be proven before the secondary evidence be allowed in lieu of the original which
is in the possession of the adverse party?

a. Proof of the existence or execution of the document;

b. The giving of reasonable notice to the defendant to produce the original document;

c. If there are other copies of the original , all must be counted for;

d. All of the Choices

25. It is a rule which states that when the terms of an agreement have been reduced to writing, it is
considered as containing all the terms agreed upon and there can be, between the parties and their
successors in interest, no evidence of such terms other than the contents of the written agreement.

a. Parol Evidence Rule b. Survivor’s Disqualification Rule c.Marital Communication

Rule d. Marital Disqualification Rule e. Best Evidence Rule

26. This is the Rule also known as “Evidence Aliunde”.

a. Parol Evidence Rule b. Survivor’s Disqualification Rule c.Marital Communication

Rule d. Marital Disqualification Rule e. Best Evidence Rule

27. This is a kind of ambiguity which does not appear on the face of the writing or agreement, but
lies hidden in the person, or thing, or subject of the writing or agreement.

a. Evidence Aliunde b. Extrinsic Aliunde c. Intrinsic Evidence

d. Extrinsic Evidence e. Patent Ambiguity

28. Which of the choices is considered the exception of the Parol Evidence Rule?

a. Intrinsic Ambiguity b. Failure of the agreement to express the true intent or agreement
of the parties c. Validity of the written agreement

d. The existence of the terms agreed to by the parties after the execution of the written agreement.

e. All of the Choices

29. What is/are the matter/s to be taken with Mandatory Judicial Notice?

a. The law of Nation b. The Law of Nature c. The Measure of Time

d. The Political Constitution and History of the Philippines e. All of the Choices
30. It is a Rule which states that all prior agreements are deemed incorporated in the written
agreement. a. Best Evidence Rule b. Parole Evidence Rule c. Survivor’s Disqualification
Rule d. Integration of Agreement Rule e. Marital Communication Rule

31. What instance wherein the court may disallow the object as evidence?

a. When the object is irrelevant to the fact in issue b. Indecent Object

c. Improper Object d. Repulsive Object e. All of the Choices

32. Persons who can perceive, and perceiving, and can make known their perception to others, are
persons who are qualified to be __________.

a. Accused b. Judges c. Prosecutors d. Witnesses e. Victim

33. It is a descriptive of statutes which require certain classes of contracts to be in writing, and
regulate the formalities of contracts to make them enforceable.

a. Best Evidence Rule b. Statute of Frauds c. Survivor’s Disqualification

Rule d. Integration of Agreement Rule e. Marital Communication Rule

34.Which of the choices is disqualified from testifying in court?

a. Blind Person b. Deaf-mute Person c. 21-year old girl with a mind of 8-year old

d. 5-yaer old child e. Insane Person

35. What is/are the quality/ies which the prospective witness must show?

a. To observe b. To remember c. To relate

d. To recognize a duty to tell the truth e. All of the Choices

36. It is a Rule which states that during the marriage, neither the husband nor the wife may testify
for or against the other without the consent of the affected spouse.

a. Best Evidence Rule b. Parole Evidence Rule c. Survivor’s Disqualification Rule

d. Marital Disqualification Rule e. Marital Communication Rule

38. The husband or the wife, during or after the marriage, cannot be examined without the consent
of the other as to any communication received in confidence by one from the other during the
marriage except in a civil case by one against the other, or in a criminal case for a crime committed
by one against the other or the latter’s direct descendants or ascendants.

a. Best Evidence Rule b. Parole Evidence Rule c. Survivor’s Disqualification Rule

d. Marital Disqualification Rule e. Marital Communication Rule

39. Which of the Choices is/are element/s of Attorney-Client Privileged Communication?

a. There must be an Attorney-Client Relation b. There must be a communication made by the

client to the attorney c. The communication or advice must have been given
confidentially

d. The communication must have made in the course of or with a view to professional employment

e. All of the Choices

40. A Rule which states that a person authorized to practice medicine, surgery or obstetrics cannot
in a civil case, without the consent of the patient, be examined as to any advice or treatment given
by him or any information which he may have acquired in attending such patient.

a. Privilege of Physician and Patient b. Privilege between Priest and Penitent

c. Privilege of State Secrets d. Marital Disqualification Rule

e. Marital Qualification Rule

42. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, other direct ascendants, children or
other direct descendants unless the testimony is voluntarily given by the child witness.

a. Privilege of Physician and Patient b. Privilege between Priest and Penitent

c. Privilege of State Secrets d. Testimonial Privilege

e. Marital Qualification Rule

43. It is admission favorable to the party making it. a. Extra-judicial Admission

b. Judicial Admission c. Self-serving Statement d. Confession e. Plea of Guilt

44. Ii is an act, declaration, or omission of a party as to a relevant fact, and which may be given in
evidence against him. a. Self-serving Evidence b. Admission c. Plea of Guilt

d. Dying Declaration e. None of the Choices

45. They are admissions made in the judicial proceeding.

a. Extra-judicial Admission b. Judicial Admission c. Self-Serving Statement

d. Plea of guilt e. Dying Declaration

46. It is stated that the rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration, or omission of
another. a. Res Inter Alios Acta Rule b. Best Evidence Rule c. Parol Evidence
Rule d. Marital Qualification Rule e. Marital Disqualification Rule

48. It is an acknowledgment of guilt of the offense charged.

a. Admission by Silence b. Admission by Privies c. Confession d. Dying Declaration

e. Judicial Admission

Sumpay ni maam sa 100

101. This is a breach of the allegiance, which is the obligation of the fidelity and obedience one owes
to the government, or sovereign under which he lives, in return for the protection he receives.
A. Levying war B. Treason C. Adherence to the enemy D. Aid and
comfort

102. As a mode of committing treason, it means as actual assemblage of person for the purpose of
executing a
treasonable design.
A. Levying war B. Adherence to the treason C. Aid and comfort D. Misprision
of treason

103. Means that the citizen intellectually or emotionally favors the enemy and harbors sympathies or
connection disloyal to his country policy or interest.
A. Levying war B. adherence to the treason C. Aid and comfort D.
misprision of treason

104. This requirement imparts the degree of the proof necessary to convict an accused of the crime of
treason consisting of the testimony of two witnesses to the same overt act.
A. Dangerous tendency rule B. two-witness rule C. B & D D. Multiple
witness rule
105. It is defined as the deprivation by a public officer of the liberty of a person without any legal
ground. If the offender is private person illegal detention is committed.
A. illegal detention B. Arbitrary detention C. Violation of domicile D.
expulsion

106. It is the unauthorized act of a public officer or employee of expelling a person from the
Philippines, or of compelling him to change his residence
A. Probable cause B. expulsion C. Rebellion D. Sedition

107. There is a public and tumultuous uprising in order to attain by force, intimidation or any other
means, like the prevention of execution of laws or holding of an election.
A. sedition B. rebellion C. Direct assault D. resistance

108. This crime is committed by attacking, employing force, seriously intimidating or seriously
resisting any person in authority or his agent, while engaged in the performance of official duties or on
the occasion of said performance.
A. direct assault B. rebellion C. Indirect assault D.
resistance

109. This crime is committed upon a private person who comes to aid an agent of a person in
authority on the occasion of direct assault committed against the latter.
A. Indirect assault B. Resistance C. Direct assault D. Insulting a person
in authority

110. A coin is said to be, when it is made of metal inferior intrinsic value to that of the genuine coin
and is gives the appearance of one legal tender.
A. False or counterfeit coin B. Mutilation of coin C. forger
D. Falsified

111. It is the act of diminishing, by ingenious means, the metal in the coin
A. False or counterfeit coin B. Mutilation of coin C. Forgery D.
falsification

112. This crime committed whenever the offender makes or imitates a treasury or bank notes or
certificates of giving it the appearances of one that is genuine.
A. Falsification of document B. Forgery C. Intercalation D.
Rubric

113. Those directly vested with the jurisdiction, whether as individual or as members of some court or
government corporation, board or commissions are –
A. Public officer B. Person in authority C. Agents of person authority D.
Employee

114. It is the act of person who knowingly offers in evidence a false witness or testimony in any
judicial or official proceeding.
A. Perjury B. False testimony C. Bribery D. False
representation

115. This crime is committed by a public officer who agrees to commit a criminal offense in connection
with the exercise of the powers of his office in consideration of a price, reward, promise or gift.
A. Moonlighting B. Direct bribery C. indirect bribery
D. Estafa

116. This crime is committed by a pubic officer who agrees to commit and act inconsideration of the
gift and his act is connected with the discharge of his public duties.
A. Moonlighting B. Direct bribery C. indirect bribery
D. Estafa
117. This crime is committed whenever a public officer does not account for what he collects and he
misappropriates the fees collected.
A. Illegal transaction B. Estafa C. Malversation D. Corruption
of public official

118. This is committed by a person who gives gift or makes the offer or promise in the direct or
indirect bribery.
A. Estafa B. Illegal exaction C. Corruption of public official
D. Malversation

119. This crime, it is the convict who evades service of sentence by escaping during his term of
imprisonment and who is subject to punishment.
A. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner B. Evasion of service of sentence
C. Jail break D. Escapee

120. This is not a crime before society, before God, it is an enormous offense, which is punished, is
the one who assist in self destruction.
A. Tumultuous affray B. suicide C. infanticide D.
kidnapping

121. This is the willful conscious killing of any child less than three days old.
A. Abortion B. Infanticide C. Maltreatment of prisoner
D. kidnapping

122. It is the unlawful destruction, or the bringing forth prematurely, of human fetus before the natural
time of birth which results in death.
A. Infanticide B. Abortion C. Parricide
D. Murder

123. A presidential degree which provides for the granting of Immunity from prosecution to givers of
bribes and other gift to their accomplices in bribery and other graft cases against public officers.
A. PD 603 B. PD 749 C. PD 765 D. PD 968

124. If the person maltreated by a public officer has already been arrested but is not yet booked in the
office of the police and put in jail, the crime committed is.
A. Physical injuries B. Police brutality C. Coercion D.
Physical Abuse

125. If the person is not yet confined in jail and he is maltreated by a public officer to make him
confess his guilt. The crime committed is:
A. Police brutality B. Coercion C. Physical injuries D.
Illegal Detention

126. It is the intentional derivation of any body organ necessary for reproduction.
A. Abortion B. Castration C. Physical injuries D.
Mutilation

127. This is a crime against liberty and the violent taking of another person is not motivated by lewd
designs.
A. Forcible abduction B. kidnapping C. Acts of lasciviousness
D. seduction

128. This is a crime against chastity and the violent taking of a woman is motivated by lewd designs.
A. Forcible abduction B. kidnapping C. Acts of lasciviousness
D. seduction
129. It is an act of private persons of entering the dwelling of another affected against the latter’s will.
A. violation of domicile B. Trespass of dwelling C. threat D. grace
coercion

130. It is an act of a public officer or employee who enters the dwelling of another effected against the
latter’s will.
A. violation of domicile B. Trespass of dwelling C. Threat D. Grave
coercion

131. Every person owing allegiance to the government of the Philippines, without being a foreigner,
and having knowledge of any conspiracy against them, who conceals or disclose any information of
act to commit conspiracy on treason is liable on:
A. Treason B. Rebellion C. Misprision of treason D.
Sedition

132. Jez and Joel entered a military establishment and obtained information. They also took
photographs of themselves that has background on confidential in nature. They can be liable to what
crime?
A. Treason B. Sedition C. Espionage D.
Sabotage

133. What crime could personnel of a post office who destroyed a foreign mail and stole the content of
it?
A. Destroying of document B. Malicious mischief C. Theft D. Qualified
theft

134. All of the following are continuous crimes, except:

A. Theft B. Robbery C. STAFA D. Treason

135. The following crimes are classified as Physical injury, except?

A. abortion B. maltreatment C. mutilation D. serious
physical injuries

136. The following is the purpose in committing a crime of Brigandage, except_____.

A. Kidnapping for the purpose or extortion B. Robbery in the highway
C. Theft in the highway D. Kidnapping for the purpose of
demanding money

137. Which of the following is not a crime against the fundamental law of the state?
A. Illegal detention B. Delaying release C. Expulsion D. Violation of
domicile

138. One of the following is not an element of murder, It is ________.

A. The killing is not attended by passion or obfuscation B. That the person accused
was killed
C. That the accused killed the person D. The killing does not constitute
parricide or infanticide

139. In premature marriage, Upon the reckoned of the death of the husband, how many days the
widow will be open for marriage?
A. 301 days B. 501 days C. 101 days D.
201 days
140. Mr. A is a driver of a tricycle who was drunk at that time and very reckless in driving, because of
this Mr. B his passenger pointed a gun at A. What was the crime committed?
A. Threat B. Driving under the influence of liquor C. Grave threat D.
Speeding

141. It the offender demand money from the offended party and obtained it, the offender can be liable
on _______.
A. Threat B. Grave coercion C. Light coercion D.
Grave threat

142. Forging the signature of the Chief executive in order to pardon the convict maybe liable for.
A. falsification B. qualified theft C. counterfeiting D.
forgery

143. If a public officer arrest a person who has not committed any crime with the intention of bringing
him before the judge and the person arrested was supposed to be charged in court but no charge is
made. The crime committed is.
A. Arbitrary detention B. Coercion C. Illegal; detention D.
Unlawful arrest

144. One of the following is not a crime against national security:

A. Treason B. Flight to enemy country C. Misprision of treason D.
Espionage

145. If forgery, the following elements must be present:

1. the signature of the president must be forged by another person
2. the forge is done by the forger
3. the forger is known by the forger
4. the forged signature is owned by the forger
A. 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 3, 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4

146. Mr. Joma and Sinko went for drinking spree. After they were drunk they went home using the
motorcycle of Mr. Sinko. While on their way, a guard noticed the movement of their motorcycle that
runs unusual, the guard offers assistance but Mr. Joma recognized that the guard was his long time
enemy so he pointed a gun at the guard. Another guard seen the event and managed to call the
Police and two were apprehended. What is the liability of Mr. Sinko?
A. Grave threats B. Light threats C. Driving under the influence of liquor
D. Carnapping

147. Mr. A,B,C went to Manila to visit their friends. Unknowingly, Mr. C lost his P500.00 in the bus
while on their way to Manila. Mr. C confronted Mr. B, who was his seatmate at the bus. Mr. B denied
the allegation, and immediately he was stabbed by Mr. C. What crime was committed by Mr. C?
A. Malicious mischief B. Robbery C. Frustrated homicide D.
Physical injuries

148. In what instance may the offended party NOT be allowed to institute criminal action if he has
consented or pardoned the offender?
A. Concubinage, bigamy B. Adultery, concubinage C. Concubinage, abduction D.
Adultery, seduction

149. These are the elements of inciting to Rebellion, except:

A. Offender take arms or in open hostility against the government
B. The offender does not take arms or is not open hostility against the government
C. Incites another to the execution of any of the act of rebellion
D. Inciting was done by means of speeches

150. Art 125 of the RPC speaks on delay in the delivery of detained persons to the proper judicial
authorities. The meaning of the phrase shall fail to deliver such person is _____.
A. Failure to surrender the accused to the police station.
B. Failure to bring the accused to the court
 C. Failure to use the fastest means of transportation to speed up the case.
D. Failure to charge/file compliant/information against the accused.
s
151. If Police Officer 1 Mendoza prevented a religious ceremony of the Roman Catholics because he
doesn’t want his wife to attend such occasion. PO! Mendoza is liable for ________.
A. Art. 131. Prohibition, interruption and dissolution of peaceful meetings
B. Art, 132. interruption of religious worships
C. Art 132 interruption and dissolution of peaceful meetings
D. Art 133 offending the religious feelings.

152. Mr. Vicente is very strict instructor in classroom. When he was outside, he was attacked by his
former student in criminal law. The attacker is _______.
A. liable for direct assault B. liable for indirect assault
C. liable for Art, 148 RPC D. not liable for serious physical injuries.

153. Mr. Guay was elected as barangay councilman at Salvacion. He was lucky also to be the
Head/Chairman of the peace and order committee. He is _____.
A. a person in authority because he heads the committee. B. An agent of person in
authority
C. Both in authority and agent of person in authority. D. An executive council for
peace

154. Enumerated below are persons in authority, except:

A. division superintendent of schools, municipal councillor B. fiscal, public and private
school teachers
C. Teacher-nurse private school teachers. D. Judges, sheriff

155. Intending to steal some jewelry and silver, a young man breaks a window and enters another
house at 10:00 pm
A. Robbery B. robbery with force C. qualified robbery D.
burglary

156. It crime is committed when a woman bought some poison and pours it into a cup of coffee her
husband is drinking intending to kill him with a motive to get the insurance of the victim.
A. murder B. attempted murder C. first-degree murder D. manslaughter

157. Identify the crime with these facts: A husband coming home early from work finds his wife in bed
with another man. The husband goes into a range and shoots and kills both lovers by a gun he keeps
by his bedside. What crime is committed?
A. murder B. manslaughter C. first degree murder D. voluntary
manslaughter

158. A drug company sells larger-than-normal quantities of drugs to a doctor, knowing that the doctor
is distributing the drugs illegally. The drug company is guilt of ______.
A. illegal production of goods B. conspiracy C. illegal distribution of medicines D.
sabotage

159. Any private person who shall enter the dwelling of another against the will of the latter
A. none of these B. trespassing to dwelling C. light threat D. usurpation

160. The following are crimes Against National Security and Law of Nations, EXCEPT.
A. Treason B. Piracy and mutiny C. Espionage D. Rebellion

161. The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT:

A. A vessel is on the high seas or in Philippine waters;
B. The offenders are not members of its complement or passengers of the vessel;
C. That the offender resist to a superior officer
 D. The offenders either attack or seize that vessel or seize the whole or part of the cargo of
said vessel, its
equipment or personal belongings of its complement or passengers

162. Which of the following does NOT Qualify the crime of Piracy:
A. Whenever the pirates have seized the vessel on the high seas or in Philippine waters.
B. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by boarding or firing upon the same.
C. Whenever the pirates have abandoned their victims without means of saving themselves.
D. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder, homicide, physical injuries, or rape.

163. Otherwise known as the “Anti Piracy and Anti-highway Robbery Law of 1974:
A. Comm. Act. No, 616 B. P.D. 532 C. P.D. 533 D. R.A. 6235

164. PO1 Agresibo, without legal grounds arrested and detained Mr. Suspetsoso and deprived said
person of his
liberty is liable for:
A. illegal detention B. arbitrary detention C. Unlawful arrest D.
Kidnapping

165. It is the unauthorized act of public officer who compels a person to changed his residence or
otherwise expels
him from the Philippines.
A. violence of domicile B. arbitrary detention C. trespass to dwelling
D. expulsion

166. SPO1 John Cailing having authorized by a search warrant, search the house of Mr. Mando N.
Ducot. After having discovered the item specified in the warrant, SPO1 John Cailing took the same
and includes the jewelry box filed with jewelry which is not included in the list of the item to be seized.
SPO1 John Cailing is:
A. liable for the crime of violation of domicile. B. Not liable for the crime of violation
of domicile.
C. May not be liable for violation of domicile. D. liable for a crime but not on
violation of domicile.

167. The following are crimes against the fundamental law of the State. Which one can be
committed by private person?
A. Arbitrary detention B. Interruption of religious worship. C.
Violation of Domicile
D. Offending religious feelings. E. Prohibition, interruption or dissolution of peaceful
meetings.

168. Bert de Leon not only confessed his membership with the Sparrow unit but also his participation
and that of his Group in the killing of SPO2 Manalad while the latter was manning the traffic along
C.M. Recto Ave, Manila. Under the facts given, what crime was committed by the former and that of
his Group?
A. murder B. sedition C. rebellion D.
Homicide

169. A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation, stealth, directed against duly constituted
authorities, public utilities, military camps and installation with or without civilian support, for the
purpose of diminishing state power.
A. treason B. rebellion C. coup d' etat D.
sedition

170. It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of communications or disturbances in the state
outside of the legal method.
 A. treason B. rebellion C. coup d' etat D.
sedition

171. A police officer, who arrested a member of congress while going to attend a senate session
for a traffic violation is liable for:
A. crime against popular representation B. acts tending to prevent the meeting of
the National assembly
C. violation of parliamentary immunity D. all of the foregoing

172. The Kilusan ng mga Ungas at Paranoid (KUP) was organized by Mr. Panot allegedly for
protecting the poor laborer, where in fact it was organized to form a group that would rise against the
rich businessmen of their city. For what crime can they be charged?
A. Illegal assembly B. Illegal association C. coup de ‘etat
D. rebellion

173. Any association, organization, political party or group of persons organized for the purpose of
overthrowing the Government of the Republic of the Philippines or for the purpose of removing the
allegiance to said government or its law, the territory of the Phils. Or any part thereof, with the open or
covert assistance or support of a foreign power by force violence, deceit or other illegal means. Is a
crime of:
A. Rebellion B. Illegal Association C. Subversive Association or Organization D.
illegal Assembly

174. Mrs Ditas, a Mayor of Caloocon together with engineer Pandac and Councilor Panot were
surveying the land occupied by informal settlers for government projects and for their relocation. The
residence opposes with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the resident, slapped the face of Mayor Ditas
when the latter came near. One of the close escort of the Mayor defend her but Mrs. Lourdes also
slapped him and punch as well. For What crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in relation to Mayor
Ditas?
A. Sedition B. Slander by Deed C. Direct Assault D.
Rebellion

175. The following Qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:

A. The assault is committed with a weapon
B. The offender is a public officer or employee
C. The offender lays hands upon a person in authority
D. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a person in authority.

176. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a member of some
court or government corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed _____?
A. Agent of a person in authority B. Judicial authority C. person in authority D.
Public employee

177. It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously disobey any person in authority, or the
agents of such person , while engaged in the performance of official functions.
A. Direct assault C. Disobedience to summons issued by the National Assembly.
B. Indirect assault D. Resistance and disobedience to a person in authority or the
agents of such person.

178. In the crime of sexual assault, it is important to note the __________ that was inserted and the
particular __________ where it was inserted.
A. Circumstances/methods used B. Object or instrument/part of the
body
C. Victim/method used D. Methods/victim

179. In the crime of abortion, the maternal parents may invoke the mitigating circumstances of
________.
A. Passion & obfuscation B. Relationship C. Concealment of dishonour D.
Weakness as a woman
180. One of the essential elements for the crime on infanticide is that the person killed is
A. Three days & above B. Three days & below C. Less than 3 days old D. Is three
days old

181. Which of the following is the meaning of Corpus Delicti

I. Corpus delicti is the actual commission by someone of the particular crime charged
II. Corpus delicti is the body of the person who is a victim of the homicide or murder
III. Corpus delicti is the body or substance of the crime
A. I, II, III B. I, II C. II, III D. I,III

182. When misappropriation is committed by a public officer or private person and the nature of fund
is public, the crime committed
A. Estafa B. Qualified theft C. Malversation D. Graft &
corruption

183. The Crime committed by a public officer who will refrain from prosecution offender in
consideration of a price or gift and the crime is punishable by reclusion perpetua to death is
A. Qualified bribery B. Direct bribery C. Indirect bribery D.
Corruption of public officers

184. When a person is detained for a period of NOT exceeding three (3) days, the crime committed is
slight detention, is the offender is a .
A. Officer of public corporation B. Private individual C. Any person D. Public officer
or employee

185. A government law enforcement officer may be liable for indirect bribery if he/she .
A. Commits an act not constituting a crime in consideration of what he will receive
B. Does an act constituting a crime in consideration of what he will receive
C. Receives consideration because of his office
D. Who will do an act in consideration of what he will receive

186. Rebellion and coup de `etat when committed by military personnel with subject them to court
martial proceedings. What is the NATURE of court martial proceedings?
A. Administrative B. Civil C. Criminal D. Sui
generis

187. For a police officer, which of the following is NOT one of the legal grounds for the detention of a
person?
A. The person detained has committed a crime
B. The person detained is suffering from violet insanity
C. The person is detained is an illegal alien
D. The person detained requires compulsory confinement to a hospital

188. Which of the following penalty does not require preliminary investigation?
A. Not exceeding six years B. Less than four years of
imprisonment
C. Exceeding six years D. less than four years, two month and one
day

189. The crime committed by a person who shall perform a mock serenade where the offender
actually disturbs the peace by using cans, pensm utensils, etc. is .
A. Alarms and scandal B. Misdemeanor C. Indecent exposure D.
Public disorder

190. Though the offender is the parent, if the victim of the killing is a child less than three days old, the
crime is
A. Murder B. Infanticide C. Abortion D. Parricide
Situation 3 – ADOR entered the house of EDUARDO, EDUARDO objected on the entry of ADOR

191. From the foregoing situation, suppose ADOR is a police officer and it is very clearly indicated in a
signage above the door of EDUARDO’s house the statement “No entry otherwise you will be shot,
those who will survive will be shot again!”. Yet, ADOR still entered the house. Which of the following
statement correctly describes the criminal liability of ADOR?
A. He is criminally liable for unlawful entry B. He is criminally liable for violation of
domicile
C. He is not criminally liable for any crime D. He is not criminally liable since he did
not make any search

192. From the foregoing situation, suppose ADOR is a police officer and he is running after a
suspected criminal who entered the house of EDUARDO. ADOR entered the house of EDUARDO
without the consent of the latter. Which of the following statements correctly describes the criminal
liability of ADOR?
A. He is criminally liable for trespass to dwelling
B. He is not criminally liable for any crime as he is in the performance of his duty
C. He is criminally liable for unlawful entry
D. He is criminally liable for violation of domicile because he entered the house of EDUARDO

193. From the foregoing situation, suppose ADOR is a police officer he entered the house of
EDUARDO through an open door, and the latter saw hm. However, EDUARDO was so busy watching
the fight between Manny Pacquiao and Floyd Mayweaher, he simply ignored the entry of ADOR.
Which of the following statements correctly describe the criminal liability of ADOR, if any?
A. He is criminally liable for violation of domicile because he entered the house of EDUARDO.
B. He is criminally liable for unlawful entry
C. He is not criminally liable for any crime
D. He is criminally liable for trespass to dwelling

194. From the foregoing situation, suppose ADOR is a police officer and while EDUARDO is fully
aware that ADOR entered his house. EDUARDO simply ignored ADOR, ADOR then started looking
for papers and effects without EDUARDO’s consent. Which of the following statements correctly
describes the criminal liability of ADOR, if any?
A. He is criminally liable for illegal search because he search without the consent of EDUARDO
B. He is not criminally liable for any crime as he is in the performance of his duty
C. He is criminally liable for violation of domicile because he searched without the consent of
EDUARDO
D. He is criminally liable for violation of domicile because he entered the house of EDUARDO

195. Aid of arm men to commit felony requires a minimum number of ___________ persons.
A. At least 4 C. At least 2
B. At least 3 D. At least 5

196. In proposal to commit felony, what is the requirement in order for the person whom the proposal
was made is liable?
A. Agreement C. Knowledge
B. Acceptance D. Discernment

197. Circumstances that constitute to kidnapping and serious illegal detention

A. If lasted more than 2 days C. If committed simulating public
authority
B. If the person kidnapped is an artist D. All of them

198. The penalty of kidnapping and failure to return a minor is mitigated if the offender is; (I) Father;
(II) Mother; (III) Grandparent; and (IV) Relatives.
A. I and II C. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III D. I only
199. Mar surreptitiously placed marijuana in the house of Telyo who was neighbor and reported the
matter to the police officers. What would be the crime committed by Mar if any?
A. Slander by deeds C. Incriminating innocent person
B. Libel D. Intriguing against honor

200. The crime qualified trespass to dwelling shall not apply; (I) for the purpose of preventing some
serious harm to himself or the occupants of the dwelling; (II) for the purpose of rendering some
service to humanity or justice; (III) if the place is inhabited places; and (IV) if they enter cafes, taverns,
inn and other public houses while open.
A. I and II C. I, II and IV
B. II and IV D. I, II, III and IV