I) Choose the correct answer:

1. Inertia of a body depends on 11. The refractive index of four substances A, B,C and D are 1.31, 1.43,
a) weight of the object b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet 1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is maximum in
c) mass of the object d) Both a & b a) A b) B c) C d) D
2. Impulse is equals to 12. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of same size is
a) rate of change of momentum b) rate of force and time obtained by a convex lens
c) change of momentum d) rate of change of mass a) f b) 2f c) infinity d) between f and 2f
3. Newton’s III law is applicable 13. A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. When
a) for a body is at rest b) for a body in motion the bulb is switched on, the lens will produce
c) both a & b d) only for bodies with equal masses a) a convergent beam of light b) a divergent beam of light
4. Plotting a graph for momentum on the X-axis and time on Y-axis. c) a parallel beam of light d) a colored beam of light
Slope of momentum-time graph gives 14. Magnification of a convex lens is
a) Impulsive force b) Acceleration a) Positive b) negative
c) Force d) Rate of force c) either positive or negative d) zero
5. In which of the following sport the turning of effect of force used 15. A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the
a) swimming b) tennis c) cycling d) hockey position of the object is at
6. The unit of ‘g’ is m s . It can be also expressed as
-2
a) focus b) infinity c) at 2f d) between f and 2f
a) cm s-1 b) N kg-1 c) N m2 kg-1 d) cm2 s-2 16. Power of a lens is –4D, then its focal length is
7. One kilogram force equals to a) 4m b) – 40m c) – 0.25 m d) – 2.5 m
a) 9.8 dyne b) 9.8 × 104 N c) 98 × 104 dyne d)980 dyne 17. In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed
8. The mass of a body is measured on planet Earth as M kg. When it is a) behind the retina b) on the retina
taken to a planet of radius half that of the Earth then its value will be c) in front of the retina d) on the blind spot
____ kg 18. The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by
a) 4 M b) 2M c) M/4 d) M a) convex lens b) concave lens
9. If the Earth shrinks to 50% of its real radius its mass remaining the c) convex mirror d) Bi focal lenses
same, the weight of a body on the Earth will 19. Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading
a) decrease by 50% b) increase by 50% small letters found in a dictionary?
c) decrease by 25% d) increase by 300% a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
10. To project the rockets which of the following principle(s) is /(are) b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
required? c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm
a) Newton’s third law of motion b) Newton’s law of gravitation d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm
c) law of conservation of linear momentum d) both a and c
1|Page DIXDAR 9443805408
20. If VB, VG, VR be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively b) Closing the switch completes the circuit.
in a glass prism, then which of the following statement gives the c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit.
correct relation? d) The bulb is getting charged.
a) VB = VG = VR b) VB > VG >VR 29. Kilowatt hour is the unit of
c) VB < VG < VR d) VB < VG > VR a) resistivity b) conductivity
21. The value of universal gas constant c) electrical energy d) electrical power
a) 3.81 mol–1 K–1 b) 8.03 mol–1 K–1 30. When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles
c)1.38 mol–1 K–1 d) 8.31 mol–1 K–1 a) Vibrate along the direction of the wave motion
22. If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is b) Vibrate but not in any fixed direction
a) positive b) negative c) Vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion
c) zero d) none of the above d) Do not vibrate
23. If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along 31. Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 m s-1. If the pressure is
the axis of increased by 4 times without causing a change in the temperature, the
a) X or –X b) Y or –Y velocity of sound in the gas is
c) both (a) and (b) d) (a) or (b) a) 330 m s-1 b) 660 m s-1
24. Temperature is the average ______of the molecules of a substance c) 156 m s-1 d) 990 m s-1
a) difference in K.E and P.E b) sum of P.E and K.E 32. The frequency, which is audible to the human ear is
c) difference in T.E and P.E d) difference in K.E and T.E a) 50 kHz b) 20 kHz
25. In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy c) 15000 kHz d) 10000 kHz
transformation is 33. The velocity of sound in air at a particular temperature is 330 m s-1.
a) A←B, A←C, B ← C b) A → B, A → C, B → C What will be its value when temperature is doubled and the pressure is
c) A → B, A ← C, B → C d) A← B, A → C, B ← C halved?
a) 330 m s-1 b) 165 m s-1
26. Which of the following is correct? c) 330 × √2 m s-1 d) 320 / √2 m s-1
a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power 34. If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25×104 Hz at 344 m s-1, the
b) Rate of change of charge is current wavelength will be
c) Rate of change of energy is current a) 27.52 m b) 275.2 m c) 0.02752 m d) 2.752 m
d) Rate of change of current is charge 35. The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium
27. SI unit of resistance is from which they were incident. Which of the following changes?
a) mho b) joule c) ohm d) ohm meter a) speed b) frequency c) wavelength d) none of these
28. In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the switch?
a) The switch produces electricity.
2|Page DIXDAR 9443805408
36. Velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 ms-1. The iv. Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high
minimum distance between the sources of sound and the obstacle to a) (i) & (ii) are correct b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
hear the echo, should be c) (iv) only correct d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
a) 17 m b) 20 m c) 25 m d) 45. Proton - Proton chain reaction is an example of__________________
50 m a) Nuclear fission b) α – decay
37. Man-made radioactivity is also known as_____________ c) Nuclear fusion d) β - decay
a) Induced radioactivity b) Spontaneous radioactivity 46. In the nuclear reaction 6X12 A
ZY , the value of A & Z.
c) Artificial radioactivity d) a & c a) 8, 6 b) 8, 4 c) 4, 8
38. Unit of radioactivity is _____________ d) cannot be determined with the given data
a) Roentgen b) curie 47. Kamini reactor is located at __________
c) Becquerel d) all the above a) Kalpakkam b) Koodankulam
39. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by____________ c) Mumbai d) Rajasthan
a) Becquerel b) Irene Curie c) Roentgen d) Neils Bohr 48. Which of the following is/are correct?
40. In which of the following, no change in mass number of the i. Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor and an atomic
daughter nuclei takes place bomb.ii. The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is controlled iii.
i) α decay ii) β decay iii) γ decay iv) neutron decay The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not controlled iv. No
a) (i) is correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct chain reaction takes place in an atom bomb
c) (i) & ( iv) are correct d) (ii) & (iv) are correct a) (i) only correct b) (i) & (ii) are correct
41. _-------------__ isotope is used for the treatment of cancer. c) (iv) only correct d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
a) Radio Iodine b) Radio Cobalt 49. Which of the following has the smallest mass?
c) Radio Carbon d) Radio Nickel a) 6.023 × 1023 atoms of He b) 1 atom of He
42. Gamma radiations are dangerous because c) 2 g of He d) 1 mole atoms of He
a) It affects eyes & bones b) it affects tissues 50. Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
c) It produces genetic disorder a) Glucose b) Helium c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen
d) it produces enormous amount of heat 51. The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO2 at S.T.P
43. ---------- aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations a) 22.4 litre b) 2.24 litre c) 0.24 litre d) 0.1 litre
a) Lead oxide b) Iron c) Lead d) Aluminium 52. Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is
44. Which of the following statements is/are correct? a) 28 amu b) 14 amu c) 28 g d) 14 g
i. α particles are photons 53. Which of the following represents 1 amu?
ii. Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low a) Mass of a C – 12 atom b) Mass of a hydrogen atom
iii. Ionization power is maximum for α ray c) 1/12th of the mass of a C – 12 atom

3|Page DIXDAR 9443805408

 d) Mass of O – 16 atom c) hydrogenating agent d) sulphurising agent
54. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 65. The process of coating the surface of metal with a thin layer of zinc is called______.
a) One gram of C – 12 contains Avogadro’s number of atoms. a) Painting b) thinning c) galvanization d) electroplating
b) One mole of oxygen gas contains Avogadro’s number of 66. Which of the following have inert gases 2 electrons in the outer most shell.
molecules. a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr
c) One mole of hydrogen gas contains Avogadro’s number of atoms. 67. Neon shows zero electron affinity due to_____.
d) One mole of electrons stands for 6.023 × 1023 electrons. a) stable arrangement of neutrons
55. The volume occupied by 1 mole of a diatomic gas at S.T.P is b) stable configuration of electrons
a) 11.2 litre b) 5.6 litre c) 22.4 litre d) 44.8 litre c) reduced size
56. In the nucleus of 20Ca40, there are d) increased density
a) 20 protons and 40 neutrons b) 20 protons and 20 neutrons 68. ______ is an important metal to form amalgam.
c) 20 protons and 40 electrons d) 40 protons and 20 electrons a) Ag b) Hg c) Mg d) Al
57. The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is 69. A solution is a __________ mixture.
a) 16 g b) 18 g c) 32 g d) 17 g a) homogeneous b) heterogeneous
58. 1 mole of any substance contains ____molecules. c) homogeneous and heterogeneous d) non homogeneous
a) 6.023 × 1023 b) 6.023 × 10-23 70. The number of components in a binary solution is __________
c) 3.0115 × 1023 d) 12.046 × 1023 a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
59. The number of periods and groups in the periodic table are______. 71. Which of the following is the universal solvent?
a) 6, 16 b) 7, 17 c) 8, 18 d) 7, 18 a) Acetone b) Benzene c) Water d) Alcohol
60. The basis of modern periodic law is______. 72. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite
a) atomic number b) atomic mass amount of solvent at a given temperature is called _______
c) isotopic mass d) number of neutrons a) Saturated solution b) Un saturated solution
61. _____ group contains the member of halogen family. c) Super saturated solution d) Dilute solution
a) 17th b) 15th c) 18th d) 16th 73. Identify the non aqueous solution.
62. _____ is a relative periodic property a) sodium chloride in water b) glucose in water
a) atomic radii b) ionic radii c) copper sulphate in water d) sulphur in carbon-di-sulphide
c) electron affinity d) electronegativity 74. When pressure is increased at constant temperature the solubility of
63. Chemical formula of rust is ________. gases in liquid___________.
a) FeO.xH2O b) FeO4.xH2O c) Fe2O3.xH2O d) FeO a) No change b) increases
64. In the alumino thermic process the role of Al is _____. c) decreases d) no reaction
a) oxidizing agent b) reducing agent 75. Solubility of NaCl in 100 ml water is 36 g. If 25 g of salt is dissolved
in 100 ml of water how much more salt is required for saturation _
4|Page DIXDAR 9443805408
 a) 12g b) 11g c) 16g d) 20g (iii) Irreversible reactions do not attain chemical equilibrium
76. A 25% alcohol solution means (iv) The concentration of reactants and products may be different
a) 25 ml alcohol in 100 ml of water b) 25 ml alcohol in 25 ml a) i, ii and iii b) i, ii and iv c) ii, iii and iv d) i, iii and iv
of water 84. A single displacement reaction is represented by
c) 25 ml alcohol in 75 ml of water d) 75 ml alcohol in 25 ml X(s) + 2HCl(aq) → XCl2(aq) + H2(g). Which of the following(s)
of water could be X.
77. Deliquescence is due to __________ (i) Zn (ii) Ag (iii) Cu (iv) Mg.
a) Strong affinity to water b) Less affinity to water Choose the best pair.
c) Strong hatred to water d) Inertness to water a) i and ii b) ii and iii c) iii and iv d) i and iv
78. Which of the following is hygroscopic in nature? 85. Which of the following is not an “element + element → compound”
a) ferric chloride b) copper sulphate penta hydrate type reaction?
c) silica gel d) none of the above a) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) b) 2K(s) + Br2(l) → 2KBr(s)
79. H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) is a c) 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) d) 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s)
a) Decomposition Reaction b) Combination Reaction 86. Which of the following represents a precipitation reaction?
c) Single Displacement Reaction d) Double Displacement Reaction a) A(s) + B(s) → C(s) + D(s) b) A(s) + B(aq) → C(aq ) + D(l)
80. Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by ___________ c) A(aq) + B(aq) → C(s) + D(aq) d) A(aq) + B(s) → C(aq) + D(l)
a) heat b) electricity c) light d) mechanical energy 87. The pH of a solution is 3. Its [OH–] concentration is
81. A reaction between carbon and oxygen is represented by a) 1 × 10–3 M b) 3 M c) 1 × 10–11 M d) 11 M
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + Heat. In which of the type(s), the above 88. Powdered CaCO3 reacts more rapidly than flaky CaCO3 because of
reaction can be classified? a) large surface area b) high pressure
(i) Combination Reaction (ii) Combustion Reaction c) high concentration d) high temperature
(iii)Decomposition Reaction (iv) Irreversible Reaction 89. The molecular formula of an open chain organic compound is C3H6. The
a) i and ii b) i and iv c) i, ii and iii d) i, ii and iv class of the compound is
82. The chemical equation Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s)↓ + a) alkane b) alkene c) alkyne d) alcohol
2NaCl(aq) represents which of the following types of reaction? 90. The IUPAC name of an organic compound is 3-Methyl butan-1-ol.
a) Neutralisation b) Combustion What type compound it is?
c) Precipitation d) Single displacement a) Aldehyde b) Carboxylic acid c) Ketone d) Alcohol
83. Which of the following statements are correct about a chemical 91. The secondary suffix used in IUPAC nomenclature of an aldehyde is
equilibrium? a) - ol b) – oic acid c) - al d) - one
(i) It is dynamic in nature. 92. Which of the following pairs can be the successive members of a
(ii) The rate of the forward and backward reactions are equal at homologous series?
equilibrium a) C3H8 and C4H10 b) C2H2 and C2H4
5|Page DIXDAR 9443805408
 c) CH4 and C3H6 d) C2H5OH and C4H8OH
93. C2H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O is a 104. In leech locomotion is performed by
a) Reduction of ethanol b) Combustion of ethanol a) Anterior sucker b) Posterior sucker
c) Oxidation of ethanoic acid d) Oxidation of ethanol c) setae d) None of the above
94. Rectified spirit is an aqueous solution which contains about _______ 105. The segments of leech are known as
of ethanol a) Metameres (somites) b) Proglottids
a) 95.5 % b) 75.5 % c) 55.5 % d) 45.5 % c) Strobila d) All the above
95. Which of the following are used as anaesthetics? 106. Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of
a) Carboxylic acids b) Ethers c) Esters d) Aldehydes a) Excretory system b) Nervous system
96. TFM in soaps represents ___________content in soap. c) Reproductive system d) Respiratory system
a) mineral b) vitamin c) Fatty acid d) carbohydrate 107. The brain of leech lies above the
97. Which of the following statements is wrong about detergents? a) Mouth b) Buccal Cavity c) Pharynx d) Crop
a) It is a sodium salt of long chain fatty acids 108. The body of leech has
b) It is sodium salts of sulphonic acids a) 23 segments b) 33 segments
– +
c) The ionic part in a detergent is –SO3 Na c) 38 segments d) 30 segments
d) It is effective even in hard water. 109. Mammals are ______ animals
a) Cold blooded b) Warm blooded
98. Casparian strips are present in the __________ of the root
c) Poikilothermic d) All the above
a) Cortex b) Pith c) Pericycle d) endodermis
99. The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of 110. Active transport involves
a) root b) Stem c) leaves d) flower a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration
100. The xylem and phloem arranged side-by-side on same radius is called b) expenditure of energy
a) radial b) amphivasal c) conjoint d) None of these c) it is an uphill task d) all of the above
101. Which is formed during anaerobic respiration 111. Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the
a) Carbohydrate b) Ethyl alcohol plant through
c) Acetyl CoA d) pyruvate a) cortex b) epidermis c) Phloem d) xylem
102. Kreb’s cycle takes place in 112. During transpiration there is loss of
a) chloroplast b) mitochondrial matrix a) carbon dioxide b) oxygen c) water d) none of the above
c) stomata d) inner mitochondrial membrane 113. Root hairs are
103. Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis a) cortical cell b) projection of epidermal cell
a) when ATP is converted to ADP b) when Co2 c) unicellular d) both b and c
c) when H2O is splitted d) All of these 114. Which of the following process requires energy?

6|Page DIXDAR 9443805408

 a) active transport b) diffusion c) osmosis d) all of them (c) towards, towards (d) away from, towards
115. The wall of human heart is made of 124. The outer most of the three cranial meninges is
a) Endocardium b) Epicardium (a) arachnoid membrane (b) piamater
c) Myocardium d) All of the above (c) duramater (d) myelin sheath
116. Which is the sequence of correct blood flow 125. There are pairs of cranial nerves and pairs of spinal nerves.
a) ventricle - atrium - venin - arteries (a) 12, 31 (b) 31, 12 (c) 12, 13 (d) 12, 21
b) atrium - ventricle - veins - arteries 126. The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system
c) atrium - ventricle - arteries - vein to the muscle fibre.
d) ventricles - vein - atrium - arteries (a) afferent neurons (b) association neuron
117. A patient with blood group O was injured in an accident and has (c) efferent neuron (d) unipolar neuron
blood loss. Which blood group the doctor should effectively use for 127. Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain?
transfusion in this condition? (a) thalamus (b) hypothalamus
a) O group b) AB group (c) corpus callosum (d) pons
c) A or B group d) all blood group 128. Node of Ranvier is found in
118. 'Heart of heart ' is called (a) muscles (b) axons (c) dendrites (d) cyton
a) SA node b) AV node c) Purkinje fibres d) Bundle of His 129. Vomiting centre is located in
119. Which one of the following regarding blood composition is correct. (a) medulla oblongata (b) stomach
a) Plasma - Blood + Lymphocyte (c) cerebrum (d) hypothalamus
b) Serum - Blood + Fibrinogen 130. Nerve cells do not possess
c) Lymph - Plasma + RBC + WBC (a) neurilemma (b) sarcolemma
d) Blood - Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets (c) axon (d) dendrites
120. Bipolar neurons are found in 131. A person who met with an accident lost control of body temperature,
(a) retina of eye (b) cerebral cortex water balance, and hunger. Which of the following part of brain is
(c) embryo (d) respiratory epithelium supposed to be damaged?
121. Site for processing of vision, hearing, memory, speech, intelligence (a) Medulla oblongata (b) cerebrum
and thought is (c) pons (d) hypothalamus
(a) kidney (b) ear (c) brain (d) lungs 132. Gibberellins cause:
122. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by a) Shortening of genetically tall plants b) Elongation of dwarf plants
(a) brain, spinal cord, muscle (b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord c) Promotion of rooting d) Yellowing of young leaves
(c) muscle, receptor, brain (d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle 133. The hormone which has positive effect on apical dominance is:
123. Dendrites transmit impulse cell body and axon transmit impulse cell body. a) Cytokinin b) Auxin c) Gibberellin d) Ethylene
(a) away from, away from (b) towards, away from
7|Page DIXDAR 9443805408
134. Which one of the following hormones is naturally not found in 146. What is true of gametes?
plants: a) They are diploid b) They give rise to gonads
a) 2, 4-D b) GA3 c) Gibberellin d) IAA c) They produce hormones d) They are formed from gonads
135. Avena coleoptile test was conducted by 147. A single highly coiled tube where sperms are stored, get concentrated
a) Darwin b) N. Smit c) Paal d) F.W. Went and mature is known as
136. LH is secreted by a) Epididymis b) Vasa efferentia
a) Adrenal gland b) Thyroid gland c) Vas deferens d) Seminiferous tubules
c) Anterior pituitary d) Hypothalamus. 148. The large elongated cells that provide nutrition to developing sperms are
137. Identify the exocrine gland a) Primary germ cells b) Sertoli cells
a) Pituitary gland b) Adrenal gland c) Leydig cells d) Spermatogonia
c) Salivary gland d) Thyroid gland 149. Estrogen is secreted by
138. Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland a) Anterior pituitary b) Primary follicle
a) Pancreas b) Kidney c) Liver d) Lungs c) Graffian follicle d) Corpus luteum
139. Which one is referred as “Master Gland”? 150. Which one of the following is an IUCD?
a) Pineal gland b) Pituitary gland a) Copper – T b) Oral pills c) Diaphragm d) Tubectomy
c) Thyroid gland d) Adrenal gland
151. According to Mendel alleles have the following character
140. The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is _______ a) Pair of genes b) Responsible for character
a) Onion b) Neem c) Ginger d) Bryophyllum c) Production of gametes d) Recessive factors
141. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in ___________ . 152. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio is due to
a) Amoeba b) Yeast c) Plasmodium d) Bacteria a) Segregation b) Crossing over
142. Syngamy results in the formation of _________ . c) Independent assortment d) Recessiveness
a) Zoospores b) Conidia c) Zygote d) Chlamydospores 153. The region of the chromosome where the spindle fibres get attached
143. The essential parts of a flower are ___________ . during cell division
a) Calyx and Corolla b) Calyx and Androecium a) Chromomere b) Centrosome
c) Corolla and Gynoecium d) Androecium and Gynoecium c) Centromere d) Chromonema
144. Anemophilous flowers have __________ . 154. The centromere is found at the centre of the______chromosome.
a) Sessile stigma b) Small smooth stigma a) Telocentric b) Metacentric
c) Colored flower d) Large feathery stigma c) Sub-metacentric d) Acrocentric
145. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of ____ 155. The _____________ units form the backbone of the DNA.
a) Generative cell b) Vegetative cell a) 5 carbon sugar b) Phosphate
c) Microspore mother cell d) Microspore c) Nitrogenous bases d) Sugar phosphate
8|Page DIXDAR 9443805408
156. Okasaki fragments are joined together by___________________. 165. Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of_________.
a) Helicase b) DNA polymerase a) sugar cane b) rice c) cow pea d) maize
c) RNA primer d) DNA ligase 166. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease
157. The number of chromosomes found inhuman beings are _______. resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of __________.
a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes. a) chilli b) maize c) sugar cane d) wheat
b) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome 167. The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its
c) 46 autosomes 50th birthday is_______
d) 46 pairs autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes. a) IR 8 b) IR 24 c) Atomita 2 d) Ponni
158. The loss of one or more chromosome in a ploidy is called _______ 168. Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by
a) Tetraploidy b) Aneuploidy biotechnology techniques?
c) Euploidy d) polyploidy a) enzyme from organism b) live organism
159. Biogenetic law states that ______________ c) Vitamins d) both (a) and (b)
a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together 169. We can cut the DNA with the help of
b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny a) scissors b) restriction endonucleases
c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny c) knife d) RNAase
d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny 170. rDNA is a
160. The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed by ______________. a) vector DNA b) circular DNA
a) Charles Darwin b) Ernst Haeckel c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA d) satellite DNA
c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck d) Gregor Mendel 171. DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying -------
161. Paleontologists deal with --------sequences of DNA
a) Embryological evidences b) Fossil evidences a) single stranded b) mutated
c) Vestigial organ evidences d) All the above c) polymorphic d) repetitive
162. The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by 172. Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are
a) Radio-carbon method b) Uranium lead method also known as
c) Potassium-argon method d) Both (a) and (c) a) transgenic organisms b) genetically modified
163. The term Ethnobotany was coined by c) mutated d) both a and b
a) Khorana b) J.W. Harshberger 173. In a hexaploid wheat( 2n = 6 x = 42 ) the haploid (n) and the basic
c) Ronald Ross d) Hugo de Vries (x) number of chromosomes respectively are
164. Which method of crop improvement can be practiced by a farmer if a) n = 7 and x = 21 b) n = 21 and x = 21
he is in experienced? c) n = 7 and x = 7 d) n = 21 and x = 7
a) clonal selection b) mass selection
c) pureline selection d) hybridisation
9|Page DIXDAR 9443805408
174. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline.
184. Which of the following is / are a fossil fuel?
The component causing this could be
i. Tar ii. Coal iii. Petroleum
a) Nicotine b) Tannic acid c) Curcumin d) Leptin
a) i only b) i and ii
175. World 'No Tobacco Day' is observed on
c) ii and iii d) i, ii and iii
a) May 31 b) June 6 c) April 22 d) October 2
185. What are the steps will you adopt for better waste management?
176. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal
a) reduce the amount of waste formed
cells because they are
b) reuse the waste
a) Different in structure b) Non-dividing
c) recycle the waste
c) Mutated Cells d) Undergoing rapid division
d) all of the above
177. Which type of cancer affects lymph nodes and spleen?
186. The gas released from vehicles exhaust are
a) Carcinoma b) Sarcoma
i. Carbon monoxide
c) Leukemia d) Lymphoma
ii. Sulphur dioxide
178. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to
iii. Oxides of nitrogen
a) Loss of memory b) Cirrhosis of liver
a) i and ii b) i and iii
c) State of hallucination d) Supression of brain function
c) ii and iii d) i, ii and iii
179. Coronary heart disease is due to
187. Soil erosion can be prevented by
a) Streptococci bacteria
a) deforestation b) afforestation
b) Inflammation of pericardium
c) over growing d) removal of vegetation
c) Weakening of heart valves
188. A renewable source of energy is
d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles
a) petroleum b) coal
180. Cancer of the epithelial cells is called
c) nuclear fuel d) trees
a) Leukemia b) Sarcoma
189. Soil erosion is more where there is
c) Carcinoma d) Lipoma
a) no rain fall b) low rainfall
181. Metastasis is associated with
c) rain fall is high d) none of these
a) Malignant tumour b) Benign tumour
190. An inexhaustible resources is
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Crown gall tumour
a) wind power b) soil fertility
182. Polyphagia is a condition seen in
c) wild life d) all of the above
a) Obesity b) Diabetes mellitus
191. Common energy source in village is
c) Diabetes insipidus d) AIDs.
a) electricity b) coal
183. Where does alcohol effect immediately after drinking?
c) bio gas d) wood and animal dung
a) Eyes b) Auditory region
b) c) Liver d) Central nervous system.
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192. Green house effect refers to
a) cooling of earth b) trapping of UV rays
c) cultivation of plants d) warming of earth
193. A cheap, conventional, commercial and inexhaustible source of
energy is
a) hydropower b) solar energy
c) wind energy d) thermal energy
194. Global warming will cause
a) raise in level of oceans b) melting of glaciers
c) sinking of islands d) all of these
195. Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to wind
energy
a) wind energy is a renewable energy
b) the blades of wind mill are operated with the help of electric
motor
c) production of wind energy is pollution free
d) usage of wind energy can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels
196. Which software is used to create animation?
a) Paint b) PDF
c) MS Word d) Scratch
197. All files are stored in the ______________
a) Folder b) box
c) Pai d) scanner
198. Which is used to build scripts?
a) Script area b) Block palette
c) stage d) sprite
199. Which is used to edit programs?
a) Inkscape b) script editor
c) stage d) sprite
200. Where you will create category of blocks?
a) Block palette b) Block menu
c) Script area d) sprite
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