Nosb Test

2. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The term 'oceanography' is derived in part from _______. the Greek word for water the father of the ocean nymphs in Greek mythology the Phoenician word for 'big water' the Greek word for waves the Latin word for water

3. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Greek word 'graphia' refers to _______. the discipline of mathematics a visual representation of something one of the principles of logic the act of recording and describing a type of etching

4. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The physical description of the world and its biota is _______. oceanology oceanography geology geography biology

5. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The scientific study of the Earth and its processes is _______. geography meteorology seismology oceanography geology

6. The word root 'ology' means _______. W) the concept of X) the logical basis of

Y) the science of Z) the evolution of E) the appearance of

7. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Oceanography is customarily divided into four categories, which are _______. computational, experimental, field, theoretical tectonics, water characteristics, organisms, currents wetlands, estuaries, lagoons, open ocean physical, geological, chemical, biological near surface, midwater, deep water, abyssal depths

8. W) X) Y) Z)

The first stage of the history of oceanography is characterized by records of _______. the efforts of individual mariners systematic attempts to use a scientific approach to study the oceans the observations of individual scientists the studies of Pythagorus

9. W) X) Y) Z)

The third stage of the history of oceanography is characterized by records of _______. the Challenger expedition the first systematic attempts to use a scientific approach to study the oceans the development and use of new technology and collaboration among scientists Darwin's voyage on the Beagle

10. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The ability to explore and chart the seas safely depends on _______. good records and charts local knowledge accurate depth soundings good navigational skills modern communications devices

11. W) X) Y) Z)

Records indicate maritime activity in Egypt as long ago as _______. 4,000 B.C. 6,000 B.C. 8,000 B.C. 10,000 B.C.

E) 9,000 B.C.

12. By the sixth century B.C., the __________ had established sea routes throughout the entire Mediterranean region. W) Egyptians X) Greeks Y) Italians Z) Phoenicians E) English

13. By the sixth century B.C., the __________ had sailed as far north as the coast of England. W) Vikings X) Greeks Y) Phoenicians Z) Egyptians E) Italians

14. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Historians suspect the first people to circumnavigate Africa were the _______. Phoenicians English Spanish French Greek

15. In the period around 600 B.C., navigators charted the courses of their ships according to _______. W) prominent landmarks X) advice from local residents Y) patterns of wind Z) observations of the moon E) observations of the stars

16. The process in which sailors steer their craft in sight of land and rely on distinctive landmarks to determine their position is termed _______. W) dead reckoning

X) Y) Z) E)

line of sight navigation piloting eyeballing coastal navigation

17. The first Greek to sail around England and gauge the length of its shorelines was _______. W) Herodotus X) Pytheas Y) Homer Z) Plato E) Socrates

18. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Some historians believe that Pytheas may have sailed as far west as _______. Long Island Virginia Iceland Greenland Newfoundland

19. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Some historians believe that Pytheas sailed as far north as _______. Spain Norway England Scotland Iceland

20. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Historians have established that Greek sailors estimated latitude by _______. the angle of the moon above the horizon the time between sunset and moonrise the angle between Venus and the moon the length of the day the angle between Venus and the horizon

21. Greek mariners were unable to determine longitude because they had no accurate _______.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

compasses alidades chronometers altimeters astrolabes

22. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Who discovered that the tides of the Atlantic Ocean vary with the phases of the moon? Herodotus Magellan Diaz Cook Pytheas

23. In 450 B.C., __________ compiled a map in which Libya, Europe, and Asia surrounded the Mediterranean Sea. W) Herodotus X) Plato Y) Pytheas Z) Socrates E) Pythagorus

24. During the Middle Ages, the only notable exploration of the oceans by Europeans was done by the _______. W) Spanish X) French Y) Portuguese Z) English E) Vikings

25. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Vinland was established in North America by the _______. English French Norse Spanish Greeks

26. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Vinland was established in the area we now know as _______. New York Virginia Labrador Maine Newfoundland

27. The Norsemen used the angular height of the _________ above the horizon to maintain a course on a predetermined line of latitude. W) Moon X) Sun Y) Morning star Z) North Star E) Big Dipper

28. The Norsemen's daytime navigation relied on careful calculation of the position of the _________ for the time of year. W) currents X) prevailing winds Y) Sun Z) Moon

29. W) X) Y) Z) E)

In 1487 and 1488, what Portuguese sailor rounded the Cape of Good Hope? Bartholomew Diaz Vasco de Gama Ferdinand Magellan Sebastian del Cano Jose Gaspar

30. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Cape of Good Hope is located _______. at the tip of South America at the tip of Africa between Spain and Africa at the tip of India at the tip of Italy

31. W) X) Y) Z) E)

In 1498, _________ sailed around the Cape of Good Hope and continued to India. Bartholomew Diaz Vasco de Gama Ferdinand Magellan Sebastian del Cano Jose Gaspar

32. W) X) Y) Z) E)

In 1519, __________ began a voyage in which his ships sailed around the world. Bartholomew Diaz Vasco de Gama Ferdinand Magellan Sebastian del Cano Jose Gaspar

33. W) X) Y) Z) E)

What explorer was killed by natives on the island of Mactan? Magellan de Gama Diaz Cook del Cano

34. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Who completed the voyage begun by Magellan to circumnavigate the globe? Gaspar Diaz del Cano de Gama Cortez

35. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which major scientific society sponsored early oceanographic investigations? International Guild of Explorers Royal Society of London Royal Explorer's Society National Geographic Society Royal Audubon Society

36. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Captain __________ was the commanding officer of the HMS Endeavour. James Cook Charles Darwin Matthew Fontaine Maury John Murray Wyville Thomson

37. Who charted much of the coast of New Zealand, and demonstrated that it was not a part of Terra Australis? W) Matthew Fontaine Maury X) Robert Fitzroy Y) James Cook Z) Edward Forbes E) Sir Robert Scott

38. Who circumnavigated the globe as commander of the HMS Adventure and HMS Resolution? W) Thomson X) Forbes Y) Fitzroy Z) Maury E) Cook

39. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Cook used the ___________ winds to round the Cape of Good Hope. Polar Northeasterly Prevailing Westerly Northeast Trade Southeast Trade Antarctic Circumpolar

40. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Hawaiian Islands were discovered by _______. Johansen Cook Nansen Forbes Lamont

41. W) X) Y) Z) E)

On his final voyage, Cook sailed north into the __________. Hudson Bay Antarctic Ocean Bering Sea Red Sea North Sea

42. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Maury was the Director of the _______. U.S. Naval Depot of Charts and Instruments HMS Beagle National Geographic Society Challenger Expedition National Oceanographic and Atmospheric Administration

43. Maury wrote ___________ to familiarize the public with recent oceanographic findings. W) Earth, Sea and Sky X) The Depths of the Sea Y) The Silent World Z) Ocean Currents E) The Physical Geography of the Sea

44. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Who is known as the "father of physical oceanography"? Darwin Maury Fitzroy Cousteau Nansen

45. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Darwin was ship's naturalist on board the _______. HMS Beagle HMS Challenger Fram HMS Adventure HMS Endeavour

46. Whose observations on the morphology of coral reefs in the Pacific Ocean are still the accepted explanation of the development today? W) Forbes X) Cook Y) Nansen Z) Fitzroy E) Darwin

47. Whose observations of the morphology of coral reefs in the Pacific Ocean still provide the accepted model for their development? W) Forbes X) Maury Y) Cook Z) Nansen E) Darwin

48. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The director of the Challenger expedition was _______. Maury Forbes Nansen Cook Thomson

49. W) X) Y) Z)

Forbes believed that animals could not live below 550 m due to _______. cold temperatures darkness high water pressure all of the above

50. Nansen made an important contribution to oceanography with his study of the ________ Ocean. W) North Atlantic X) Pacific Y) Indian Z) Arctic E) Antarctic

51. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Nansen wanted to be the first European to reach _______. the northern tip of Greenland the South Pole the North Pole Hudson Bay the Bering Strait

52. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The findings of the Challenger expedition were published in ________ volumes. 5 25 50 75 100

53. W) X) Y) Z) E)

What ship was trapped in the sea ice north of Siberia for three years? Fram Meteor Challenger Beagle Calypso

54. W) X) Y) Z) E)

What oceanographic vessel is on display in Oslo, Norway? Meteor Fram Beagle Challenger Nansen

55. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Meteor expedition went to the __________ Ocean. North Pacific South Pacific North Atlantic South Atlantic Indian

56. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The first marine institution established in the United States was _______. the Scripps Institution of Biological Research the Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution the United States Naval Academy the Lamont-Doherty Geological Observatory the National Oceanographic and Atmospheric Administration

57. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Scripps Institution of Oceanography was founded by the _______. University of California at Los Angeles University of Oregon University of California at San Diego University of Washington University of Massachusetts

58. The Deep Sea Drilling Project, from 1968-1975, was organized and funded by the _______. W) National Geographic Society X) Department of the Navy Y) National Oceanographic and Atmospheric Administration Z) National Science Foundation E) United Nations

59. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The ship used in the Deep Sea Drilling Project was the _______. Aluminaut HMS Challenger Glomar Challenger Meteor Deep Probe

60. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Modern oceanography is said to have begun with the voyage of the _______. HMS Challenger Fram Glomar Challenger Calypso Meteor

61. W) X) Y) Z) E)

In 1943, a fully-automatic aqualung was designed and tested by _______. the United States Navy Emile Gagnon and Jacques-Yves Cousteau Auguste Piccard Jules Verne Wyville Thomson

62. The shallow sea bottom that extends from the low tide mark to a depth of about 60 m is termed the __________ zone. W) Supralittoral X) Littoral Y) Sublittoral Z) Intertidal E) Coastal

63. The depth limit for diving using compressed air is caused by the amount of __________ that dissolves in the blood under pressure. W) nitrogen X) oxygen Y) helium Z) carbon dioxide E) hydrogen

64. If a diver ascends too quickly, without decompressing adequately, nitrogen may come out of solution in the blood and form bubbles that cause _______. W) nitrogen narcosis X) the bends Y) mask squeeze Z) stomach cramps

65. A feeling of euphoria that interferes with clear thinking during a deep dive is called _______. W) nitrogen narcosis X) the bends Y) helioxus Z) embolism

E) helium narcosis

66. Who determined the circumference of the earth using trigonometry and the angle of sunlight at Alexandria and Aswan? W) Pytheas X) Herodotus Y) Seneca Z) Eratosthenes E) Ptolemy

67. Between 673 and 735 A.D., who published a discussion of the lunar control of the tides? W) Bede X) Eric the Red Y) Ptolemy Z) Leif Ericson E) Herodotus

68. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Who completed the first trans-Atlantic crossing and discovered Baffin Island? Bede Eric the Red Leif Ericson Columbus Cabral

69. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Who described the Florida Current? da Vinci de Gama de Leon Cabral Columbus

70. W) X) Y)

Who constructed a map projection of the world that was adapted to navigational charts? da Vinci Martyr Columbus

Z) Mercator E) Boyle

71. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Who founded the first U.S. marine research station? Thompson Agassiz Whitman Nansen Roosevelt

72. The first nuclear submarine to reach the North Pole underwater and under the ice was the USS _______. W) Arizona X) Shark Y) Challenger Z) Thresher E) Nautilus

73. Ocean basin refers to the portion of the ocean that lies at depths greater than _______. W) 1,000 m X) 2,000 ft Y) 2,000 m Z) 1,000 ft E) 10,000 ft

74. One of the main concerns of marine geologists is tracing the development of __________ since their formation on the Earth. W) ocean basins X) mid-ocean ridges Y) island archipelagos Z) coral reefs E) guyots

75. The interior of the Earth is composed of _______. W) sand and gravel

X) Y) Z) E)

lava solid rock concentric shells of different materials minerals not found on the surface

76. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Earth's core contains high concentrations of _______. lead and silver aluminum and nickel iron and nickel silicon and lead iron and copper

77. Iron and nickel sank to the center of the Earth in its development due to the influence of _______. W) magnetic attraction X) gravity Y) atmospheric pressure Z) oceanic pressure E) seismology

78. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Density is usually expressed as _______. grams per cubic centimeter ounces per cubic inch grams per square centimeter ounces per cubic inch cubic centimeters per second

79. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The deepest drill hole on Earth has a depth of about _______. 4 km 1 mile 12 km 3,860 km 6,370 km

80. The layers of the atmosphere are separated from each other based on _______. W) hydrogen content

X) Y) Z) E)

oxygen content temperature density pressure

81. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The atmosphere of the Earth consists primarily of _______. oxygen and carbon dioxide oxygen and argon oxygen and water vapor oxygen and nitrogen nitrogen and hydrogen

82. When the Earth was a molten mass, its elements and compounds separated from each other according to their ________. W) atomic number X) density Y) magnetism Z) radioactivity E) specific heat

83. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The outermost shell of the Earth is called the _______. upper mantle core crust skin lower mantle

84. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The rocks of which layer of the Earth are rich in oxygen, silicon, aluminum and iron? upper mantle outer core crust inner core lower mantle

85. The Earth's mantle has a thickness of approximately ________ kilometers. W) 40,322

X) Y) Z) E)

1,500 1,750 2,900 5,280

86. What effect does an increase in pressure have on the melting temperature of a substance? W) No effect X) Increases the melting temperature Y) Decreases the melting temperature

87. W) X) Y) Z)

Which of the following is thinnest? crust mantle asthenosphere core

88. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The lithosphere is comprised of _______. asthenosphere and crust mantle and crust uppermost mantle and crust molten and solid rock all parts of the Earth in contact with the atmosphere

89. W) X) Y) Z)

The asthenosphere is a portion of the _______. crust mantle outer core inner core

90. W) X) Y) Z) E)

About _____ percent of the water at the Earth's surface is in the oceans. 71 85 97 53 68

91. The waters in the oceans are ______ percent of the entire reservoir of water contained in the Earth. W) 20 X) 50 Y) 30 Z) 10 E) 40

92. W) X) Y) Z) E)

All of the organic matter on earth is sometimes referred to as the _______. Living Earth Ecosystem Biological zone Green zone Biotic zone

93. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The water beneath the Earth's surface is termed _______. hydroscopic rndothermic ground water runoff transpired water

94. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Bathymetry refers to submarine _______. mineralogy topography biology currents waves

95. The bathymetry of the oceans can be broadly subdivided into __________ large physiographic provinces. W) two X) five Y) six Z) eight

E) three

96. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The continental margins are relatively shallow because _______. they have been built up by sediments contributed by marine organisms the underlying crust is lighter they have been built up by sediment washed off of the continents they were formed in the last ice age, when the oceans were shallower sea level has dropped in the last 100 years

97. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The drowned edges of the continents are referred to as the continental _______. outskirts boundaries margins growth lines basins

98. The continuous submarine mountain range which winds through all the oceans is called the mid-ocean _______. W) ridge X) archipelago Y) plume Z) cordillera E) divide

99. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The deep-ocean basins are at depths greater than ________ meters. 4,000 2,000 6,000 8,000 9,000

100. W) X) Y) Z)

The flat, drowned edges of the continents are called the continental _______. rises wedges slopes shelves

E) ridges

101. The seaward edge of the continental shelf, where the bottom steepens considerably, is termed the shelf _______. W) cliff X) drop-off Y) wall Z) slope E) break

102. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The average width of the continental shelf is about _______. 60 mi 60 km 50 mi 50 km 100 km

103. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The continental shelf is more than 1000 km wide in the __________ Ocean. Indian Pacific Arctic Antarctic Atlantic

104. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Shelf breaks occur at an average water depth of about ________ meters. 1,000 10 500 130 20

105. W) X) Y) Z)

The continental shelf is widest in the __________ Ocean. Arctic Antarctic Pacific Atlantic

E) Indian

106. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The continental shelf is narrowest in the __________ Ocean. Arctic Antarctic Pacific Atlantic Indian

107. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The average slope of the continental shelf is about ________ degrees. 0.0 0.5 5.0 10.0 15.0

108. The shelf break, where the continental shelf transforms into the continental slope, has a slope of about _______ degrees. W) 2 X) 6 Y) 8 Z) 12 E) 20

109. W) X) Y)

Submarine canyons have _______-shaped profiles. U V W

110. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following is not characteristic of the deep sea basins? Canyons Plains Hills Seamounts Guyots

111. At the base of many continental shelves, the ocean floor flattens out to a broad region formed from materials eroded from the adjoining continental shelf and slope. This plain is termed the __________. W) abyss X) abyssal plain Y) continental plain Z) continental rise E) guyot

112. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The flattest areas on Earth are the _______. floors of the trenches floors of the rift valleys continental shelves guyots abyssal plains

113. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Most of the sediment in the abyssal plains are derived from _______. erosion on land insoluble animal parts insoluble plant parts precipitated materials insoluble plant and animal parts

114. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Most of the sediment of the abyssal plains is debris that has moved through _______. rift valleys trenches mid-ocean ridges submarine canyons guyots

115. Most of the abyssal hills are __________ rocks that may be covered with a thin layer of sediment. W) igneous X) metamorphic Y) sedimentary Z) volcanic

116. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Most of the abyssal hills are __________ composed of volcanic rocks. volcanoes aretes domes guyots hotspots

117. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The regional slope of the abyssal plains is _______. 10'/mi less than 1 m/km 33'/km 2 m/km a 45 angle

118. Extinct volcanoes with conical tops and steep sides in the ocean basins are called _______. W) islands X) archipelagos Y) banks Z) atolls E) seamounts

119. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Guyots were once active volcanoes whose tops were flattened and leveled by _______. currents wave erosion volcanic explosions solidified lava ice sheets in the last ice age

120. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The deepest parts of the oceans are the _______. rift valleys submarine canyons trenches deep basins fault scarps

121. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Deep sea trenches are normally found in association with _______. seamounts continental margins mid-ocean ridges abyssal hills the continental rise

122. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes? Abyssal plains Abyssal hills Guyots Seamounts Deep-sea trenches

123. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Fractured rocks slide past each other in which geologically active ocean region? Abyssal plains Mid-ocean ridges Seamounts Guyots Deep-sea trenches

124. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The mid-ocean ridges occupy almost ______% of the ocean floor. 25 66 33 50 10

125. The system of mid-ocean ridges forms a continuous mountain range that extends for over ________ km of the Earth's surface. W) 75,000 X) 15,000 Y) 1,500 Z) 30,000 E) 60,000

126. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The rift valley of the mid-ocean ridges is formed by _______. weathering melting solution faulting erosion

127. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The axis of the mid-ocean ridges is segmented by a series of _______. normal faults reverse faults thrust faults gravity faults transform faults

128. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Movement along transform faults _______. is caused by volcanic activity along mid-ocean ridges causes sediment to slide onto the abyssal plain results when rift valleys form causes canyons to form deflects the ridge axis, creating a zig-zag pattern

129. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The number of times a particular phenomenon occurs is referred to as its _______. ratio proportion frequency relativity bathymetry

130. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Only about _________ of the Earth's surface projects above sea level. 31% 27% 29% 34% 24%

131. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The two basic rock types that characterize the Earth's crust are _______. silicon; oxygen granite; basalt igneous; sedimentary limestone; basalt granite; limestone

132. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A dark-colored, volcanic rock rich in silicon, oxygen and magnesium is _______. granite limestone basalt shale quartz

133. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Rock which forms by solidification of molten rock is called _______. igneous sedimentary metamorphic gabbro shale

134. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A light-colored igneous rock rich in silicon, oxygen and aluminum is _______. granite limestone basalt shale quartz

135. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Granite is rich in _______. silica and aluminum silica and magnesium iron and aluminum aluminum and magnesium iron and magnesium

136. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Basalt is rich in _______. iron and aluminum iron and magnesium silica and magnesium silica and aluminum aluminum and magnesium

137. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The boundary between the crust and the mantle of the Earth is termed the _______. asthenosphere lower boundary Moho Great Incontinuity break point

138. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Earth's continents are about __________ km thick. 25 55 15 35 45

139. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The sea floor is about _________ km thick. 12.5 7.5 17.5 2.5 22.5

140. The sea floor remains below sea level, and the tops of the continents above it, because _______. W) the continental land mass is thicker X) the mantle beneath the sea floor is cooler Y) the weight of the water keeps the sea floor down Z) the sea floor and the continents are in isostatic balance with the mantle E) convection currents in the mantle keep the continents at a higher level

141. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Earth's crust floats on the mantle through the principle of _______. equality Archimedes hypersonics inequality isostasy

142. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A sidescan sonar can be used to find _______. sub-bottom rock deposits sunken ships floating objects, such as other ships subsea volcanoes schools of fish

143. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The strongest sound pulses are typically produced by _______. echo sounders seismic refraction transmitters seismic reflection transmitters fish finders sidescan sonar

144. Data on rock layers beneath the sea floor can be obtained by analyzing data from _______. W) Refracted sound X) Reflected sound Y) Transmitted sound Z) Absorbed sound

145. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Satellite altimeters allow sea height to be measured with a precision of _______. 7-10 cm 1-2 cm 25-30 cm 3-5 cm 15-20 cm

146. The surface of the continental shelf consists mainly of _______.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

solid rock mud unconsolidated sand sea shells gravel

147. All of today's land masses were joined together in the mega-continent of Pangaea about _________ million years ago. W) 10 X) 50 Y) 100 Z) 200 E) 500

148. W) X) Y) Z) E)

In 1915, a book by ___________ proposed the hypothesis of continental drift. J. Tuzo Wilson Harry Hess Robert Scott Alfred Wegener Edward Teller

149. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Wegener's supercontinent was called _______. Pangaea Gondwanaland Laurasia Panthallassa Unity

150. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The rift valley of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is bounded by __________ faults. strike-slip reverse thrust normal lateral

151. The rift valleys of the mid-ocean ridges are bounded at the sides by _______ faults.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

normal strike-slip transform fracture vertical

152. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Mid-ocean ridges show _______. high heat flow seismicity volcanism all of the above none of the above

153. Steep rock faces where crustal rocks fault and drop past each other are termed _______. W) guyots X) scarps Y) sinks Z) horsts E) aretes

154. W) X) Y) Z)

Folds are produced by _______. rocks being pulled apart compression rocks sliding past each other lava cooling in contorted layers

155. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Compression forces result in _______. heating stretching fractures volcanism folding

156. Tension forces at plate boundaries cause _______. W) thinning of the sea floor

X) Y) Z) E)

volcanism mountain building folding heating

157. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Variations in magnetic fields are termed magnetic _______. anomalies polarities uncertainties auroras declinations

158. A key piece of evidence that significantly advanced the study of sea floor spreading was the discovery of _______. W) mid-ocean ridges X) continental rift valleys Y) ocean trenches Z) remnant magnetism E) undersea volcanoes

159. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Magnetometer data across a mid-ocean ridge shows alternating bands of _______. normal, reversed and zero magnetism normal and reversed magnetism young and old rock granite and basalt molten and solid rock

160. To test the hypothesis of sea floor spreading, magnetometer data had to be combined with _______. W) mineral samples X) deep camera surveys Y) coring data Z) diver observations E) water temperature data

161. When rocks cool, they retain a record of _______.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

their age the strength of the Earth's magnetic field the direction to the North Pole the geographic location of the source of the lava the strength and orientation of the Earth's magnetic field

162. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Earth's magnetic field changes polarity _______. every 5 million years every 10 million years randomly with no clear pattern with every ice age randomly in conjunction with major sunspot events

163. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A magnetometer measures _______. the presence of magnetized rocks the strength and orientation of the Earth's magnetic field the presence of a magnetic field the strength and orientation of the rock's magnetic field both B and D

164. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Ocean basins get wider with time due to _______. erosion of continental margins sinking of continents palaeomagnetism rising sea levels sea-floor spreading

165. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Sea floor spreading occurs at a rate of about _______ cm/year. 35 15 25 5 45

166. The size of the Earth _______.

W) does not appear to be changing X) is very slowly increasing as new sea floor is created Y) is very slowly decreasing as the Earth cools

167. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The lava created by volcanic activity near deep-sea trenches is called _______. anthracite lava andesite lava Benioff lava collision lava extrusion lava

168. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A Benioff zone is characterized by _______. mantle plumes scarp faults active subduction island chains rift valleys

169. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Andesite lava comes from rock melted about _______ km below the Earth's surface. 50 500 250 150 350

170. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The basaltic crust is being destroyed along _______. mid-ocean ridges subduction zones hot spots mantle plumes magnetic anomalies

171. Subduction occurs at a rate of about __________ cm/yr. W) 15 - 45 X) 5 - 10

Y) 200 - 300 Z) 125 - 190 E) 50 - 100

172. The lack of subduction zones in the Atlantic, Indian and Arctic Oceans suggests that these ocean basins are ____________ with time. W) expanding X) shrinking Y) remaining constant

173. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The global plate tectonics theory was formulated in the _______. 1920's 1930's 1940's 1950's 1960's

174. The global tectonic plates that cover the Earth's surface extend downward through the _______. W) mantle X) crust Y) asthenosphere Z) lithosphere

175. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Tectonic plates are moved around by _______. convection currents in the mantle gravity ocean currents pressure gradients in the crust the heating and cooling cycles associated with the seasons

176. W) X) Y)

Compression is dominant at ___________ plate boundaries. divergent convergent transform

177. W) X) Y)

Plates move apart along __________ plate boundaries. divergent convergent transform

178. The Himalayan Mountain Range of Asia is an example of a __________ plate boundary. W) divergent X) convergent Y) transform

179. W) X) Y) Z)

The San Andreas Fault in California is an example of a ________ plate boundary. divergent convergent transform stable

180. W) X) Y)

Ocean floor is neither created nor destroyed along __________ plate boundaries. divergent convergent transform

181. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Island Chains are formed when a tectonic plate moves across a _______. subduction zone spreading centre volcano mantle plume earthquake zone

182. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Island Chains are characterized by _______. many active volcanoes a linear increase in island age from one end to the other a series of islands of random age a series of islands of identical size the presence of a subduction zone

183. Rank the following features in order according to their stage in the Wilson cycle, from earliest to latest. W) East African rift valleys, Red Sea, Pacific Ocean, Mediterranean Sea, Himalayan Mountains X) Mediterranean Sea, Red Sea, Himalayan Mountains, Pacific Ocean, East African rift valleys Y) Red Sea, East African rift valleys, Pacific Ocean, Mediterranean Sea, Himalayan Mountains Z) East African rift valleys, Mediterranean Sea, Red Sea, Pacific Ocean, Himalayan Mountains

184. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The deep, hot brine pools of the Red Sea are caused by _______. high rates of evaporation dumping of mine waste volcanic activity exposed deposits of soluble minerals on the sea floor groundwater flowing through the deep crust

185. The processes which break rock and minerals into smaller particles are collectively termed _______. W) metamorphism X) igneous activity Y) weathering Z) erosion E) fractionalization

186. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Marine sedimentary rocks make up over ______% of the outcrops on land. 50 60 70 80 90

187. The most common constituents of ocean sediments are _______. W) gravel

X) Y) Z) E)

organic materials mud and sand silt and clay colloids

188. Fine and coarse grains of sediment produced by weathering on land are termed __________ sediment. W) Biogenic X) Cosmogenous Y) Authigenic Z) Volcanogenic E) Terrigenous

189. Fine and coarse sediments derived from the hard parts of organisms are termed _______. W) Biogenic X) Cosmogenous Y) Authigenic Z) Volcanogenic E) Terrigenous

190. Sediment particles precipitated near the sea floor by chemical or biochemical reactions are termed __________ sediments. W) Biogenic X) Cosmogenous Y) Authigenic Z) Volcanogenic E) Terrigenous

191. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Tiny grains of sediment that originate from outer space are termed _______. Biogenic Cosmogenous Authigenic Volcanogenic Terrigenous

192. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Mud is typically made of silt and __________-sized materials. gravel sand clay cobble boulder

193. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Dredge samplers are used to collect samples of _______. specific sediment types rock or sediment in bulk quantities bottom dwelling organisms suspended sediments buried sediments

194. W) X) Y) Z)

The deepest sediment samples are obtained by _______. grab samplers piston corers gravity corers platform drilling

195. A sediment deposit that is well sorted is likely to have been deposited at a __________ rate. W) rapid X) slow

196. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Rapid erosion produces sediment deposits that are _______. well mixed well sorted by grain size eeposited further from their source well sorted by sediment source not traceable to their source

197. The average particle size of a deposit is proportional to the __________ level present at the time of deposition. W) water X) ozone

Y) pressure Z) energy E) tide

198. Under high-energy conditions, which of the following would be most likely to be deposited? W) silt X) clay Y) coarse sand Z) mud

199. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Piston corers can obtain cores as long as _______. 30m 20m 5m 40m 10m

200. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A Hjulstrom diagram is a plot of _______. sediment type versus depth sediment type versus distance from shore current velocity versus particle size sinking rate versus particle size water current energy versus degree of sediment sorting

201. On the basis of water depth, the two major areas where sedimentation occurs are the _______. W) slope and trench X) continental shelf and deep sea Y) continental rise and mid-ocean ridge Z) rift valleys and trenches E) onshore and offshore

202. Beaches exposed to high wave energy are composed of _______. W) mud and silt X) mud and sand

Y) bare rock Z) gravel and sand E) shale and sand

203. Energy for eroding and transporting sand grains on the shelf is provided by windgenerated waves and currents and the _______. W) Coriolis effect X) magnetic fields of the Earth Y) plate movements Z) tides E) hydrologic cycle

204. W) X) Y) Z) E)

On the continental shelf, the sea bottom is most strongly affected by _______. waves wind circulation pattern turbidity currents chemical precipitation

205. W) X) Y)

Bottom energy induced by surface waves _________ with distance offshore. increases decreases remains the same

206. W) X) Y)

Currently, mean sea level is _______. rising slowly not changing dropping slowly

207. About 15,000 years ago, during the last major ice age, sea level dropped to _______ below where it is today. W) 225 m X) 175m Y) 75m Z) 125m E) 50m

208. W) X) Y) Z) E)

About _______ of the sediment on continental shelves can properly be termed 'relict'. 80% 30% 5% 60% 75%

209. A broad band of __________ sediment straddles the equator and extends into the subtropics on the continental shelf. W) biogenic X) river-supplied terrigenous Y) poorly-sorted glacial Z) precipitated

210. W) X) Y) Z)

Continental shelves in mid-latitudes are covered by _______. weathered material from the land extensive coral reefs mud and clay thick deposits of plant and animal remains

211. The continental shelves of polar regions are covered with __________ sediment deposits. W) poorly-sorted glacial X) river-supplied terrigenous Y) biogenic Z) precipitated

212. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A major component of sediments in tropical seas is _______. sodium silicate calcium chloride sodium carbonate calcium carbonate ammonium nitrate

213. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Unsorted glacial deposits of boulders, gravel, sand and mud are termed _______. calcareous ooze radiolarian ooze till slump turbidites

214. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Geologically speaking, the Earth has now been relatively stable for up to _______. 5,000 years 1,000 years 2,000 years 100 years 500 years

215. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Winter storms can generate waves that affect the bottom even in depths of _______. 75 m 10 m 125 m 100 m 25 m

216. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Tidal scour results when _______. normal tides pass over an area tides, acting over many years, remove all of the sediment muddy bottoms are impacted by tidal currents constricted passages cause strong tidal streams to develop tidal currents interact with deep circulation patterns

217. River-supplied terrigenous deposits are composed mainly of sand-sized grains of __________ and __________. W) gematite; magnetite X) calcite; aragonite Y) garnet; pyrite Z) talc; gypsum E) quartz; feldspar

218. The river-supplied sediments of the continental shelves are derived from the weathering of __________ on land. W) limestone X) granite Y) marble Z) basalt E) shale

219. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The recent rise of sea level is referred to by the geologic time term _______. Paleozoic Mesozoic Holocene Jurassic Cretaceous

220. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The principle currents which move sediment across the shelf are created by _______. turbidity pressure gradients sea level differences rivers flowing into the ocean winds and tides

221. The turbidity current triggered by the 1929 Grand Banks earthquake had a measured speed of about __________. W) 20 m/sec X) 10 m/sec Y) 30 m/sec Z) 25 m/sec E) 15 m/sec

222. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Turbidity currents have been a recognized phenomenon since _______. 1947 1867 1929 1886 1900

223. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The water level on the continental shelves fluctuates daily in response to _______. the tides the wind the Coriolis effect the Earth's rotation magnetic anomalies

224. Erosion of sediment beds on the continental shelf by tidal activity is termed tidal _______. W) bores X) scourge Y) waves Z) consolidation E) scour

225. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The last million years of the Earth's history are referred to as the __________ Epoch. Eocene Cambrian Pleistocene Azoic Mesozoic

226. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Another name for the Pleistocene Epoch is the _______. Age of the dinosaurs Age of fishes Age of gigantic insects Ice age Age of cephalopods

227. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The 'dominant' Earth-shaping event of the past million years has been _______. the appearance of life repeated glaciation events the cooling of the Earth's core the development of the atmosphere continental drift

228. W) X) Y) Z) E)

During the height of glaciation, river deltas formed at the _______. continental rise same general area as now shelf break trench margin rift valley

229. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The most direct effect of ice-age glaciers on the oceans was to cause _______. drastic changes in the salinity of seawater the addition of nutrients in soil pushed off the land into the sea immense waves as the glaciers broke up expansion of the oceans as the continents sank under the weight of the ice. drastic changes in sea level

230. Triangular deposits of sediment which form at the mouths of rivers are termed _______. W) alluvial fans X) island archipelagos Y) flood plains Z) deltas E) Inselbergs

231. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Submarine canyons were deepened during interglacial periods by _______. glacial erosion ice masses sediment-laden bottom currents ice caps deltas

232. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Submarine canyons provide an important mechanism for _______. bottom-dwelling organisms to move from the shelf to the slope bottom-dwelling organisms to move from the slope to the shelf nutrient-rich water to spill off the shelf onto the slope sediment to be transported off the shelf free-swimming organisms to find hiding places from predators

233. Which of the following was not a modification of the continental shelf due to low stands of sea level during the Pleistocene Epoch? W) Ice caps and glaciers extended onto the shelf proper. X) Rivers extended their channels across the continental shelves. Y) Deposition and erosion rates increased in deep-sea environments that border the continental shelves. Z) There were massive kills of coral reefs. E) Large, tropical rainforests grew in the areas of the continental shelves.

234. During the age of Pangaea, large portions of the central and western parts of North America were covered by _______. W) extremely rugged mountains X) warm, shallow seas Y) rift valleys Z) mid-ocean ridges E) glaciated valleys

235. W) X) Y) Z)

Atlantic-type continental margins are characterized by _______. active faulting deep sedimentation rapid change deep trenches

236. W) X) Y) Z)

Pacific-type continental margins are characterized by _______. slow, steady development deep sedimentation tectonic stability active subduction

237. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Carbonate sediments composed of the shells of marine organisms are found _______. widely on all continental shelves on shelf areas that were exposed to the atmosphere during periods of glaciation only in the tropical Pacific only on land areas once covered with ocean water on some continental shelves in tropical and sub-tropical regions

238. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Slumps are _______. sediment piles that slide down slopes intact turbidity currents created by unstable sediment loads depressions in the sea floor created when underlying gas deposits escape basalt landslides that break off of mid-ocean ridges the mechanism by which rift valleys form

239. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Turbidites are found _______. on the continental shelf at the mouth of submarine canyons in deep-sea trenches on the slopes of seamounts on the floors of submarine canyons

240. The part of a subduction zone between the deep-sea trench and volcanic arc is termed a/ an _______. W) alluvial fan X) delta Y) thrust fault Z) accretionary prism E) nodule

241. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Most shelves are covered by sand and mud composed of _________ and __________. salt; clay quartz; feldspar calcite; dolomite feldspar; gypsum calcite; aragonite

242. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A carbonate shelf system would most likely be found off the coast of _______. California Oregon Florida Chile Peru

243. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following is a carbonate rock? Granite Basalt Shale Gneiss Limestone

244. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Bahama platform is made primarily of __________ materials. granitic basaltic carbonate andesite pyroclastic

245. The fine-grained fallout of biogenic and terrigenous material that settles to the deep-sea floor through the water column can be called __________. W) terrigenous X) biological Y) extraterrestrial Z) foraminiferal E) pelagic

246. W) X) Y) Z)

Authigenic sediments are largely __________ precipitates that form in place. extraterrestrial inorganic biochemical volcanic

247. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Vertical, grain-size gradation in a layer of sediments is referred to as graded _______. sorting bedding selection stacking accretion

248. The cone-shaped deposits that form at the mouths of submarine canyons are called _______. W) fluvial cones X) alluvial fans Y) cones of depression Z) deep-sea fans E) deltaic fans

249. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Glacial marine sediments are characterized by _______. Inselbergs polygonal structures graded bedding homogeneous composition of rock and mineral fragments poor sorting and heterogeneous composition of rock and mineral fragments

250. W) X) Y) Z)

Glacial marine sediments are produced by _______. runoff from melting glaciers on land runoff from arctic islands in summer the remains of cold water organisms ice rafting

251. The reddish color of the pelagic clays is due to the oxidation of minerals rich in _______. W) iron X) calcium Y) carbonates Z) manganese E) magnesium

252. W) X) Y) Z)

Floating and drifting single-celled animals are referred to as _______. Diatoms Phytoplankton Zooplankton Coccolithophores

253. Floating and drifting single-celled plants can be referred to as _______.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

Foraminiferans Radiolarians Zooplankton Phytoplankton Pteropods

254. At least _________ of the content of 'biogenic' ooze must come from microscopic organisms. W) 30% X) 60% Y) 5% Z) 45% E) 15%

255. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Sahara desert contributes ________ to deep sea sediments. sand chlorite gravel kaolinite calcium carbonate

256. W) X) Y)

Ferromanganese nodules are examples of _______. calcareous ooze siliceous ooze authigenic deposits

257. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Ferromanganese nodules are _______. sources of nutrient for sea floor communities a potentially valuable economic resource restricted to Polar seas found embedded in continental slope sediments found on tropical beaches

258. If carbonate oozes are compacted and cemented into sedimentary rock, the rock is called _______. W) shale

X) slate Y) sandstone Z) limestone

259. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Sedimentary rocks that form in layers are said to be _______. discontinuous stratified sorted graded calcareous

260. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The mineral name for calcium sulfate is _______. gypsum calcite anhydrite andesite halite

261. W) X) Y) Z)

Laminated rocks made of thin beds of carbonate mud and algae are called _______. coprolites trilobites zooxanthellae stromatolites

262. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Scientists postulate that for the Mediterranean Sea to dry up took about _______ years. 10,000 100 100,000 1,000 50,000

263. W) X) Y)

The dominant elements dissolved in seawater are _______. Na and Cl Mg and Hg Fe and Si

Z) Ca and Na E) O and C

264. The smallest unit of an element that contains all the chemical properties of the element is a/an _______. W) molecule X) proton Y) compound Z) atom E) neutron

265. The smallest unit of a compound that contains all the chemical properties of the compound is a/an _______. W) molecule X) proton Y) parcel Z) atom E) neutron

266. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The central portion of an atom is the _______. nuculus nucleus nucular nuclear core

267. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The protons and neutrons of an atom are located in the _______. Orbitals Core Electrons Pycnocline Nucleus

268. Which of the following has a positive charge? W) Electron X) Neutron

Y) Proton Z) Soliton

269. W) X) Y) Z)

Which of the following has a neutral charge? Electron Neutron Proton Soliton

270. W) X) Y) Z)

Which of the following has a negative charge? Electron Neutron Proton Soliton

271. W) X) Y) Z)

The electrons of an atom are located in _______. the nucleus electron shells the center of the atom a ring formation

272. W) X) Y)

A stable atom of an element has a __________ charge. positive negative neutral

273. W) X) Y)

Atoms with more electrons than protons have a net __________ charge. positive negative neutral

274. W) X) Y)

A charged atom is called a/an _______. molecule proton isotope

Z) ion E) electrode

275. The single most important reason for an ion's ability to bond with other elements is its _______. W) atomic mass X) atomic number Y) abundance Z) charge

276. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons are called _______. Ions Isotopes Compounds Inert Nobel

277. W) X) Y) Z)

Isotopes differ in the number of __________ they contain. electrons neutrons protons ions

278. W) X) Y)

If you apply heat to a material, the agitation of its molecules and atoms __________ . increases decreases remains the same

279. W) X) Y) Z) E)

__________ results from the physical vibrations of atoms and molecules. Heat Sound Light Color Stirring

280. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The energy of motion is termed _______. potential radioactivity ionic kinetic latent

281. The process in which water molecules change to a gas at temperatures below the boiling point is called _______. W) deposition X) sublimation Y) condensation Z) evaporation E) transpiration

282. The process in which water molecules are transformed into a gas by boiling is termed _______. W) deposition X) sublimation Y) condensation Z) evaporation E) vaporization

283. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The amount of mass contained in a unit volume is termed _______. specific gravity density weight specific heat isostasy

284. Heat capacity is the quantity of heat needed to raise the temperature of one gram of substance ______ C . W) 0.1 X) 1.0 Y) 5.0 Z) 10.0 E) 15.0

285. W) X) Y)

The water molecule is an example of a/an ______________ chemical bond. ionic covalent isotopic

286. A molecule that has a positively-charged end and a negatively-charged end is termed a/ an __________ molecule. W) monocular X) dipolar Y) radioactive Z) anoxic E) ionic

287. In a/an __________ bond, the atoms of a compound share electrons. W) covalent X) ionic

288. The weak chemical bond that forms between bipolar molecules is called a/an __________ bond. W) water X) isotopic Y) hydrogen Z) oxygen E) liquid

289. W) X) Y) Z)

Hydrogen bonding is a type of __________ bonding between molecules. ionic hydrostatic electrostatic electrolytic

290. The clusters of water molecules formed by hydrogen bonding _________ in size when temperature increases. W) increase

X) decrease Y) do not change

291. Water's unexpectedly high boiling and melting temperatures depend on the __________ of the water molecule. W) size X) weight Y) eipolar structure Z) positive charge E) density

292. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A positively-charged atom is called a/an _______. isotope proton electron cation anion

293. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A negatively-charged ion is called a/an _______. isotope proton electron cation anion

294. When two ions come into contact, they are attracted to each other because of their _______. W) radioactivity X) complementary shapes Y) opposite charges Z) gravitational attraction E) atomic mass

295. When a sodium ion and a chloride ion come into contact with each other, they are joined by ionic bonds to form _______. W) halite

X) Y) Z) E)

quartz calcite anhydrite gypsum

296. W) X) Y) Z) E)

When water cannot contain any more salt ions, it is said to be _______. full geavy saturated hydrated anhydrous

297. W) X) Y) Z) E)

When water is added to a substance, the process is known as _______. solution dissolution sublimation hydration condensation

298. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The angle between the hydrogen atoms in a molecule of water is _______. 45 90 105 135 180

299. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The angle between the hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ice is _______. 127.5 97.3 105.0 109.5 48.7

300. In the solid state, a crystal of ice has a __________ shape. W) cubic

X) Y) Z) E)

octagonal hexagonal spheroidal square

301. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Water reaches its maximum density at ______ C. 32.00 18.42 - 2.05 0 - 3.98

302. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The substances dissolved in seawater are collectively called _______. minerals salts acids solutes solvents

303. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Since water dissolves all substances to some degree, it can be termed a/an _______. antacid universal solvent universal solute polymer receiver

304. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The symbol '0/000' stands for _______. parts per hundred parts per thousand parts per ten thousand parts per hundred thousand parts per million

305. The average salinity of seawater is __________ 0/000. W) 22

X) Y) Z) E)

44 35 18 57

306. The 'Principle of Constant Proportion' allows us to determine the salinity of a sample of seawater by measuring the concentration of __________ . W) micronutrients X) dissolved metals Y) CO2 Z) ClE) phytoplankton

307. Rivers annually contribute on the order of __________ of dissolved material to the oceans. W) 1,012 kg X) 108 kg Y) 1,010 kg Z) 1,014 kg E) 1,015 kg

308. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The oceans have existed for as long as __________ billion years. 1.2 6.7 3.4 5.2 2.4

309. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Plants convert the nutrients in seawater into food by the process of _______. respiration osmosis active transport photosynthesis anabolism

310. The most abundant gas dissolved in seawater is _______.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

nitrogen carbon dioxide oxygen argon hydrogen

311. The physical and chemical processes that produce living matter in cells are termed __________ processes. W) embryonic X) hydrologic Y) metabolic Z) anaerobic E) catabolic

312. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The total dissolved materials in seawater is termed _______. density specific gravity load salinity solubility

313. The total amount of halogens dissolved in seawater, expressed as g/kg, is termed _______. W) thermicity X) specific gravity Y) toxicity Z) chlorinity E) galicity

314. A __________ measures the salt content of water indirectly, by measuring electrical conductivity. W) salinometer X) barometer Y) photovoltaic cell Z) hygrometer E) hydrometer

315. W) X) Y) Z)

Over a long time period, the input of salts to the ocean __________ the output. exceeds is less than is not related to balances

316. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The residence time of both sodium and chloride ions in the ocean is __________. less than 103 years between 103 and 105 years between 105 and 107 years between 107 and 109 years longer than 1,010 years

317. W) X) Y) Z) E)

When carbon dioxide is dissolved in water, it reacts with the water to form _______. Calcium carbonate Sodium bicarbonate Carbonic acid Orthoclase sediments Plagioclase sediments

318. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The mineral name of the potassium-bearing feldspar of granite is _______. Plagioclase Orthoclase Kaolinite Illite Montmorillonite

319. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Aluminum silicates bond with water to form _______. Pyrite Quartz Orthoclase Plagioclase Kaolinite

320. The relationship between salt input to, and salt removal from, the oceans is thought to be in a _______. W) steady-state equilibrium X) state of mass flow Y) state of supersaturation Z) state of emergence E) state of plasticity

321. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A very salty solution is termed _______. Halite Evaporite Brine Pyrite Supersaturated

322. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following is an evaporite? Quartz Kaolinite Orthoclase Brine Halite

323. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Precipitation of evaporite minerals from seawater represents a/an _______. Halocline Sink Thermocline Source Reduction process

324. Ions "stick" to the surface of some clay minerals in the ocean by the process of _______. W) ion transfer X) absorption Y) condensation Z) adsorption E) radiation

325. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The average length of time an ion remains in solution in the ocean is termed _______. residence time radioactive decay rate half-life terminal time turnover time

326. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Seawater with a salinity of 35 0/000 freezes at __________ C. 3.98 -5.17 -1.91 0 -8.46

327. W) X) Y)

Increasing the salinity of water ____________ its freezing point. decreases increases does not affect

328. In fresh water, the freezing point is __________ than the temperature of maximum density. W) less than X) greater than Y) the same as

329. W) X) Y)

As the salinity of water increases, its vapor pressure _______. increases decreases stays the same

330. Lines which connect points of equal temperature on an oceanographic chart are termed _______. W) Isobars X) Isotherms Y) Isometrics

Z) Thermoclines

331. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A/an __________ is an area where the temperature changes rapidly with depth. Isotherm Pycnocline Thermocline Halocline Isobar

332. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Zones of rapid salinity change with depth are called _______. Salt domes Isotherms Pycnoclines Haloclines Thermoclines

333. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The temperature of the sea surface is determined by _______. input of solar radiation changes in heat capacity due to salinity wind-driven mixing processes the concentration of phytoplankton all of the above

334. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The surface salinity in the central parts of the world oceans is determined by _______. the amount of rainfall in the area the amount of wind the balance between evaporation and precipitation the amount of freshwater runoff from the continents the stability of the water column

335. In temperate latitudes, the oceans are characterized by a permanent thermocline lying at a depth of _______. W) 100-200 m X) 1,000-2,000 m Y) 50-100 m Z) 200-1,000 m

E) 500-750 m

336. W) X) Y) Z)

The cold, deep water of the central oceans in equatorial latitudes _______. sank directly from the surface sank in polar oceans and circulated towards the equator issued from cold springs in the sea floor sank down from the edge of the adjacent continental shelf

337. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A pycnocline is created by strong vertical gradients in _______. light penetration water circulation dissolved material temperature or salinity organisms

338. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A sharp density gradient with depth is called a/an _______. Pressure ridge Pycnocline Thermocline Halocline Isobar

339. The term __________ refers to the amount of gas at equilibrium that can be dissolved by a volume of water at a particular salinity, pressure and temperature. W) solubility X) density Y) saturation value Z) gas law E) non-conservative property

340. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Surface layers of the ocean may become supersaturated with oxygen due to _______. high levels of photosynthesis an increase in temperature a reduction in respiration levels all of the above none of the above

341. Most of the oxygen found in the deepest parts of the ocean originally came from _______. W) chemical processes in deep water X) degassing from the mid-ocean ridges Y) the atmosphere Z) runoff from the continents

342. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The chemical breakdown of food in cells for the release of energy is _______. Respiration Oxidation Ingestion Photosynthesis Digestion

343. Enzymes break organic matter down into simpler chemical compounds by the process of _______. W) Respiration X) Oxidation Y) Photosynthesis Z) Solution E) Fractionation

344. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Anoxic water is water that contains no dissolved _______. nutrients carbohydrates hydrogen oxygen gases

345. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Anaerobic bacteria are those which need no _______. food water sunlight oxygen air

346. Anaerobic bacteria produce the toxic gas __________ as a byproduct of their metabolic processes. W) CO2 X) Rn Y) CO Z) H2S E) O3

347. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The horizontal movement of a fluid is termed _______. advection convection conduction radiation flow

348. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The vertical movement of a fluid is termed _______. advection convection conduction radiation flow

349. W) X) Y) Z) E)

pH describes the __________ of a substance. salinity temperature H+ concentration Cl- concentration Na+ concentration

350. W) X) Y) Z)

A pH of __________ is considered neutral. 5 3 7 9

E) 11

351. A solution which is hardly affected by the input or output of hydrogen ions is said to be _______. W) acidic X) basic Y) buffered Z) neutral

352. The oceans are considered to be well buffered due to the concentration of _______ found there. W) carbonates and bicarbonates X) dissolved salts Y) hydrogen ions Z) dissolved organic materials

353. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Sediments high in calcium carbonate are more likely to be found in _______. deep, cold ocean basins deep tropical seas deep canyons on continental margins shallow tropical seas areas affected by runoff high in calcium carbonate

354. W) X) Y)

Calcareous materials would dissolve most readily in _______. warm water cold water saturated water

355. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The water below the ground surface on land is termed _______. anoxic acidic basic groundwater runoff

356. Over the whole of the oceans, on average, __________ exceeds __________. W) evaporation; precipitation X) precipitation; evaporation

357. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Detached pieces of floating sea ice are called _______. icebergs Inselbergs floes rafts flows

358. Large masses of floating ice that broke off of glaciers and were carried out to sea are called _______. W) icebergs X) Inselbergs Y) floes Z) rafts E) flows

359. W) X) Y)

The well-lighted portion of the ocean is termed the __________ zone. Aphotic Dysphotic Photic

360. W) X) Y)

The zone of the ocean where there is no light is termed the _________ zone. Aphotic Dysphotic Photic

361. W) X) Y) Z) E)

_________ light is transmitted the farthest distance through water. Red Green Yellow Orange Blue

362. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Most of the light entering the ocean is absorbed in the upper _________. 1m 100 m 50 m 1,000 m 500 m

363. The surface microlayer is the surface where chemicals are exchanged between the ocean and the _______. W) bottom X) continent Y) fish Z) atmosphere E) continental shelf

364. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The sea-surface microlayer is about _________ thick. 10-3 m 10-5 m 10-6 m 10-2 m 1m

365. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The SOFAR channel is a channel of minimum _______. temperature salinity pressure sound velocity life

366. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Biologists refer to the organisms of the surface microlayer as _______. Megazoa Plankton Neuston Benthos Biolumes

367. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The author of Physical Geography of the Sea was _______. Darwin Maury Cousteau Thompson Forbes

368. The pressure exerted by a column of air that extends from the top of the atmosphere to the surface of the earth is termed _________ pressure. W) hydrostatic X) partial Y) air Z) atmospheric E) gas

369. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The most abundant gas of the atmosphere is _______. oxygen carbon dioxide nitrogen argon methane

370. W) X) Y)

When air is heated, its density _______. decreases increases stays the same

371. W) X) Y)

The addition of water vapor to dry air causes the density of the air to ________. decrease increase stay the same

372. At sea level, a column of air one inch square that reaches to the top of the atmosphere weighs an average of _______. W) 1 kg

X) Y) Z) E)

33 pounds 14.7 pounds 1 metric ton 28.4 pounds

373. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Standard atmospheric pressure is equivalent to ____ atmosphere(s). 1 2 3 4 5

374. A low-pressure zone is a region where the air pressure is less than ____ lb/in2. W) 50.7 X) 30.7 Y) 20.7 Z) 14.7

375. Fluids (including air) move from ______ pressure to ______ pressure. W) low; high X) high, low

376. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Wind is caused by _______. the phases of the moon solar flares differences in air pressure the rotation of the earth evaporation

377. W) X) Y) Z)

A pressure gradient is _______. the change in pressure vertically in the atmosphere the change in pressure across a horizontal distance a chart of the air pressures of a region over a long period of time a method of grading the changes in pressure for accuracy

378. W) X) Y) Z)

A steep pressure gradient results in __________ winds. strong gentle short-term long-term

379. Winds are named for the direction _______. W) in which they are going X) from which they are coming

380. Currents are named for the direction _______. W) in which they are going X) from which they are coming

381. The surface of the Earth at the equator is characterized by __________ atmospheric pressure. W) high X) variable Y) low

382. W) X) Y)

High altitudes at the Equator are characterized by __________ atmospheric pressure. high variable low

383. The surface winds in the Northern Hemisphere flow dominantly out of a _______ direction. W) southerly X) northerly

384. W) X) Y)

The Coriolis deflection is caused by _______. the wind-induced deflection of surface currents the gravitational attraction of the sun the combined gravitational attraction of the sun and moon

Z) the rotation of the Earth on its axis E) atmospheric pressure differentials

385. In the Northern Hemisphere, all moving objects appear to be deflected to the _______ of their point of origin. W) North X) South Y) right Z) left E) East

386. In the Southern Hemisphere, all moving objects appear to be deflected to the _______ of their point of origin. W) North X) South Y) right Z) left E) East

387. The faster an object moves and the greater the distance it travels, the _______ the Coriolis effect. W) greater X) smaller Y) more variable Z) less variable

388. The velocity of rotation at a point mid-way between the equator and the pole is __________ than it is at the equator. W) greater X) less than Y) no different than

389. W) X) Y)

In the Northern Hemisphere, the Tradewinds blow out of the _______. Southeast Northeast Southwest

Z) Northwest

390. The Trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres converge in a region known as the ________________. W) Bermuda Triangle X) Subtropical Lows Y) Subpolar Lows Z) Subtropical Lows E) Doldrums

391. The circulation of winds in both hemispheres is arranged in the _______, _______, and _______ cells. W) Polar; Tropical; Subtropical X) Southwesterly; Northwesterly; Southeasterly Y) Hadley; Ferrel; Polar Z) Equatorial; Polar; Latitudinal

392. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Most surface currents are driven by the _______. Earth's rotation Magnetic fields Aurora borealis wind salinity differences of surface waters

393. A wind-driven current will flow at about ______ of the speed of the wind that created it. W) 1% X) 3% Y) 6% Z) 10% E) 12%

394. W) X) Y)

Sea-surface temperature can be measured by satellites using __________. near infrared radiometers altimeters microwave radiometers

Z) high-resolution imaging radar E) side-looking radar

395. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Subsurface currents are driven mainly by _______. wind the rotation of the Earth density differences solar storms wind drag

396. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The large loops of surface currents in the ocean are termed circulation __________. loops gyres seisms sinks gradients

397. The net flow of water to the right of the wind in the Northern Hemisphere is termed _______. W) Upwelling X) Downwelling Y) Ekman transport Z) Langmuir circulation E) Franklin gyre

398. When near-surface water is moved offshore by Ekman transport, water from below replaces it in a process known as _______. W) Upwelling X) Downwelling Y) Langmuir circulation Z) Franklin eddies E) Occlusion

399. When winds blow parallel to the coast, such that Ekman transport drives water against the land, surface water sinks in the process known as _______. W) Upwelling

X) Y) Z) E)

Downwelling Langmuir circulation Franklin eddies Occlusion

400. The net transport of water in an Ekman spiral in the northern hemisphere is _________ to the right of the wind direction. W) 45 X) 15 Y) 90 Z) 135 E) 180

401. W) X) Y)

The equator is a zone of ___________ water. upwelling downwelling stagnant

402. A series of parallel, counter-rotating circulation cells with long axes aligned parallel to the direction of the generation wind is called ___________ circulation. W) Franklin X) Ekman Y) Coriolis Z) Langmuir E) Pinet

403. The difference in height between the centers of the large ocean gyres and their edges is about __________. W) 5 m X) 5 cm Y) 3 m Z) 10 cm E) 1 m

404. Langmuir cells in the ocean can mix the surface layer to depths of _______. W) 5-6 m

X) Y) Z) E)

18-20 m 1-3 m 12-14 m 40-50 m

405. Currents that result from a balance between pressure gradient and Coriolis effect are termed ________________ currents. W) Coriolis X) Density Y) Geostrophic Z) Seismic E) Internal

406. W) X) Y) Z)

Geostrophic flow is a dynamic balance between _______ and _______. wind; gravity gyres; continental masses north polar magnetic fields; south polar magnetic fields Coriolis deflection; pressure gradient

407. The narrow, deep, swift current on the western side of the North Atlantic Ocean is the ________. W) Benguela Current X) Canary Current Y) West Wind Drift Z) Brazil Current E) Gulf Stream

408. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The slow current on the eastern side of the North Atlantic Ocean is the _________. Benguela Current Canary Current West Wind Drift Brazil Current Gulf Stream

409. The western arm of all ocean gyres is called the ____________. W) Langmuir circulation

X) Y) Z) E)

Thermohaline circulation Western boundary intensification Continental deflector ridge Zone of geostrophy

410. W) X) Y) Z)

The characteristics of western boundary currents are a result of _______. Coriolis deflection. Higher wind speeds on the western edge of oceans. Deeper continental shelf areas on the western edge of oceans. Greater freshwater runoff from the adjacent land masses, which stabilizes the water column. E) The rotation of the earth, which presses water against the western edge of the ocean basins.

411. The mound of water around which the geostrophic currents flow is not centrally located in the oceans, but is displaced to the ____________. W) North X) South Y) East Z) West

412. The mound of water around which the geostrophic currents flow is steeper on its ______ edge. W) Northern X) Southern Y) Eastern Z) Western

413. The faster the rate of flow of a current, the __________ the Coriolis deflection. W) greater X) smaller

414. The amount of circular rotation around a vertical axis that masses of water undergo due to the spin of the Earth and current shear is termed __________. W) intensification X) vorticity

Y) centrifuging Z) upwelling E) downwelling

415. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Sargasso Sea is located in the _______________ Ocean. North Pacific South Pacific North Atlantic South Atlantic Indian

416. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Sargassum is _______. a Japanese word for tidal wave a large, ocean-going eel a deep-water fish a brown seaweed a salt deposit on the western boundary of oceans

417. Meander loops that pinch off from the main axis of the Gulf Stream are called _________. W) Oxbows X) Meander scars Y) Rings Z) Wanderers E) Detached basins

418. W) X) Y)

Warm-core rings form on __________ side of the Gulf Stream. either the Southeastern the Northwestern

419. W) X) Y)

Cold-core rings form on __________ side of the Gulf Stream. either the South-eastern the North-western

420. The rings to the west of the Gulf Stream rotate ___________. W) clockwise X) counterclockwise

421. The rings to the east of the Gulf Stream rotate ___________. W) clockwise X) counterclockwise

422. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The geostrophic currents of the ocean gyres are powered by _______. salinity differences temperature differences density differences the Coriolis effect the wind

423. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Thermohaline circulation patterns are caused by variations in _______. evaporation precipitation land runoff heat exchange with the atmosphere all of the above

424. When two water masses of different densities come into contact, the __________ water mass will sink beneath the other water mass. W) more dense X) less dense

425. W) X) Y)

Thermohaline currents tend to flow very __________. rapidly slowly sporadically

426. The analogy between global scale oceanic circulation and an immense conveyor belt is _______.

W) X) Y) Z)

entirely theoretical strongly supported by theoretical analysis and direct observation compatible with general observations but highly simplified the only possible explanation for oceanic circulation

427. W) X) Y) Z)

Density of water is a function of its ________, ________, and ________. chemical content; distance from land; turbidity distance from land; depth; rate of flow rate of flow; turbidity; resistance to wind drag temperature; salinity; pressure

428. As the temperature of water increases, its density ________. W) increases X) decreases

429. As the salinity of water increases, its density ________. W) increases X) decreases

430. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Over ________ % of all ocean water has a temperature between 0and 5C. 95 90 85 80 75

431. Ocean basins are ________ systems between which water is exchanged. W) open X) closed

432. Water that is warmer than 10C is confined to a lens that straddles the equator and extends out to ________ latitude in both Northern and Southern Hemispheres. W) 30 X) 45 Y) 60

Z) 75

433. Antarctic Bottom Water (AABW) is produced mainly at the surface of the ________ Sea. W) China X) North Y) Weddell Z) Baltic E) Bering

434. Antarctic Deep Water (AADW) flows northward at the surface until it reaches the ______. W) Weddell Sea X) Sea Japan Y) China Sea Z) Antarctic Convergence E) Intertropical Convergence

435. W) X) Y) Z) E)

North Atlantic Deep Water originates near _______. the Falkland Islands the Canary Islands Greenland Hudson Bay the Aleutian Islands

436. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Bering Strait extends between ________ and North America. South America Cuba Greenland Baffin Island Asia

437. The volume of water cascading down the underwater 'waterfall' at the Denmark Strait is _______. W) 0.5 Sverdrups X) 15 Sverdrups

Y) 10 Sverdrups Z) 5 Sverdrups E) 12.5 Sverdrups

438. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The cascade of water down the Denmark Strait is the primary source of _______. Arctic Intermediate Water North Atlantic Deep Water North Atlantic Central Water Antarctic Intermediate Water Common Water

439. The length of time that water from the Atlantic Ocean stays in the Mediterranean is about _______. W) 10 years X) 1 year Y) 50 years Z) 90 years E) 175 years

440. The dominant type of water that occupies the bottom of the Pacific Ocean is referred to as _________ Water. W) Heavy X) Common Y) Polar Z) Equatorial E) Turbid

441. W) X) Y) Z)

Seas are semi-enclosed and are greatly influenced by _______. oceanic water masses continental climates and drainage the rise and fall of sea level the oceanic gyres

442. The water at the surface of the Mediterranean gets ________ saline the longer it remains at the surface. W) more

X) less

443. The Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea are remnants of an ancient sea known as the ________ Sea. W) Panhellenic X) Pangaea Y) Tethys Z) Proterozoic E) Eocene

444. The length of time that incoming water stays in the Black Sea before leaving the basin is _______. W) 90 years X) 3,000 years Y) 500 years Z) 20 years E) 10,000 years

445. W) X) Y) Z)

Water flowing out of the Mediterranean Sea into the Atlantic is _______. fresh and cool salty and cool fresh and warm salty and warm

446. W) X) Y)

The Mediterranean Sea is _______. nutrient rich and productive nutrient poor and relatively unproductive moderately productive with average nutrient levels

447. W) X) Y) Z) E)

When there is no dissolved oxygen in the water, the condition is known as _______. anaerobic aerobic undersaturated anoxia toxic

448. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Bacteria which can live without oxygen are termed _______. aerobic anaerobic toxic sulfurous phosphatic

449. Which of the following methods of measuring water currents directly used a meter fixed to the ocean floor? W) Eulerian X) Langmurian Y) Lagrangian Z) Wilsonian E) Ekmanian

450. Which of the following methods of measuring water currents directly uses a neutrallybuoyant float that drifts with the water? W) Eulerian X) Langmurian Y) Lagrangian Z) Wilsonian E) Ekmanian

451. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The surface layers of the ocean move and swirl in response to _______. wind stress seismic activity density differences salinity differences temperature differences

452. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The smallest wind-generated waves are called __________ . ripples wavelets capillary waves chop micro-waves

453. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Surface waves can be measured by a ________ sensor mounted on the sea floor. turbidity temperature current pressure sea level

454. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Deep waters of the ocean move and swirl in response to _______. wind storms fronts seismic activity density differences

455. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The highest point of a wave is the _______. summit height crest trough period

456. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The lowest point of a wave is the _______. length foot crest trough period

457. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The horizontal distance between successive crests is the wave- _______. length height crest trough period

458. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The vertical distance between crest and trough is the wave _______. length height crest trough period

459. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The time that it takes two successive crests to pass a fixed point is the wave _______. length height width trough period

460. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Water waves with periods of less than one-tenth of a second are called _______. Tsunamis Tidal waves Capillary waves Chop Seiches

461. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A ruffling of the water by a light breeze is called a _______. Bear's paw Dog's paw Shark's tail Cat's paw Cub's paw

462. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Locally-generated waves with periods of about one second are termed _______. Capillary waves Chop Swell Tsunamis Seiches

463. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Waves with a period of about ten seconds are called _______. Capillary waves Chop Swell Tsunamis Seiches

464. Waves with periods of minutes or tens of minutes that are associated with earthquake activity are _______. W) Capillary waves X) Chop Y) Tsunamis Z) Seiches E) Surge

465. The waves which slosh back and forth in harbors and have very long periods are called _______. W) Chop X) Tsunamis Y) Capillary waves Z) Seiches E) Swell

466. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The distance over which the wind blows to create waves is termed _______. fetch distortion convection defraction refraction

467. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Significant wave height is the average height of _______. all waves passing a fixed point in one hour. the highest of the waves present in an area of the sea surface. the highest 1/2 of the waves present in an area of the sea surface. waves which can damage the shore structures in a particular area. waves which are associated with storm winds.

468. The significant wave height is the average of the highest ________ of all the waves present in an area of the sea surface. W) one-tenth X) one-third Y) one-half Z) one-sixth E) one-ninth

469. W) X) Y)

The significant wave height will always be ________ the average wave height. more than less than equal to

470. A state of the sea where the energy in the waves has reached a maximum value for the given set of wind and fetch conditions is termed a/an _______. W) Swell X) Chop Y) fully developed sea Z) Seiche E) Tsunami

471. W) X) Y)

Wind-generated waves are termed _______. standing waves progressive waves imaginary waves

472. W) X) Y)

Water particles in waves move _______. only up and down only back and forth in circular orbits

473. The slight forward motion which occurs in the water as a wave passes by is called _______. W) Brownian motion X) Wave transport

Y) Ekman transport Z) Progression E) Stokes drift

474. At the surface of the ocean, the orbits of water particles have a diameter equal to the _______. W) wave celerity X) wave height Y) wave length Z) water depth E) water period

475. The energy of surface waves becomes essentially undetectable at a depth equal to about __________ . W) one-half of the wavelength X) the wavelength Y) two-thirds of the wavelength Z) twice the wave height E) three times the wave height

476. The size of the orbits of water particles is not detectable at a depth of about one-half the wavelength. This depth is called the wave _______. W) Celerity X) Diagnostic Y) Fetch Z) Base E) Level

477. W) X) Y) Z) E)

If a wavelength is 10m, at what depth would you encounter the wave base? 2 5 4 7 6

478. A deep-water wave is one that is moving through water that is deeper than _______.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

200 m three times its height 1/2 its wavelength 3,000 m 11,022 m

479. An intermediate-water wave is one that travels through water depths that are between 1/2 and ________ of the wavelength. W) 1/3 X) 1/10 Y) 1/4 Z) 1/20 E) 1/87

480. W) X) Y)

A tsunami is a ________ wave. standing progressive rogue

481. W) X) Y)

A seiche is a ________ wave. standing progressive rogue

482. A swell is a ________ wave. W) standing X) progressive

483. W) X) Y)

Only the ________ of a wave and not the mass of the wave is in motion. energy orbit water

484. The speed of a wave is termed its _______. W) velocity

X) Y) Z) E)

length celerity period orbit

485. A wave-group travels across an undisturbed sea surface at a speed of ________ the celerity of the individual waves. W) 1/3 X) 1/10 Y) 1/5 Z) 1/20 E) 1/2

486. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following will not change as a wave enters shallower water? wave height wave period wave speed wave length wave direction

487. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The interaction of several waves is called _______. dispersion refraction diffraction surf interference

488. W) X) Y) Z)

When several wave crests or troughs coincide, ________ wave interference occurs. destructive constructive cumulative confused

489. When the crest of one wave coincides with the trough of another wave, ________ wave interference occurs. W) destructive

X) cumulative Y) confused Z) constructive

490. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A rogue wave is a wave that __________. was not created by any known force does not obey the same laws that govern other waves is smaller than predicted by theory is an unusually large breaking wave was created by a seismic disturbance

491. W) X) Y) Z)

Rogue waves are created by ________ wave interferences. cumulative destructive confused constructive

492. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Ever-changing wave interference patterns are called _______. Seiches Tsunamis Swells Seas Chop

493. Waves sort themselves according to celerity and, hence, according to length and period in the process of _______. W) dispersion X) refraction Y) diffraction Z) reflection E) declination

494. Waves approach shore at an angle and then swing around and come in nearly parallel to shore in the process of _______. W) dispersion X) refraction

Y) diffraction Z) reflection E) declination

495. Wave rays which can be drawn perpendicular to wave crests and evenly spaced along the wave crests are termed _______. W) octagonals X) rectangles Y) orthogonals Z) pentagonals E) polygonals

496. W) X) Y)

Where wave orthogonals diverge from each other, the wave energy is _______. focused defocused eliminated completely

497. W) X) Y)

Wherever orthogonals converge, the wave energy is _______. focused defocused eliminated completely

498. Which of the following would help predict when and where waves will become unstable and break? W) wavelength X) wave height Y) wave steepness Z) wave prolongation E) wave dispersion

499. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Wave height divided by wave length will give the wave _______. dispersion celerity period steepness node

500. In a ________ breaker, the upper part of the crest becomes oversteepened and spills down the front side of the wave. W) surging X) spilling Y) plunging Z) slipping

501. W) X) Y) Z)

In a ________ breaker, the entire wave front steepens, curls, and collapses forward. surging spilling plunging spilling

502. In a ________ breaker, the waves don't actually break, but move slowly up and then down the beach, reflecting much of their energy seaward. W) surging X) spilling Y) plunging Z) slipping

503. W) X) Y) Z)

The ________ breaker is the most common type. surging spilling plunging slipping

504. W) X) Y)

Spilling breakers usually form where there is a ________ bottom slope. steep gentle level

505. Plunging breakers usually form where there is a ________ bottom slope. W) steep X) gentle

Y) level

506. ________ breakers are associated with the steepest beaches where the crest is reflected off the beach and back into the sea. W) spilling X) plunging Y) surging Z) slipping

507. A wave will 'break' when the height has increased to about __________ of the wavelength. W) 1/13 X) 2/3 Y) 5/8 Z) 1/7 E) 3/5

508. A substantial rise in sea level along a coast during a severe storm is called a storm ______. W) tide X) surge Y) surf Z) swell E) tsunami

509. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Strong winds combined with low atmospheric pressure can create _______. hurricanes oceanic gyres storm surges downwelling tsunamis

510. W) X) Y)

The most devastating storm surges are associated with ________. tornadoes thunderstorms tropical depressions

Z) hurricanes E) tropical waves

511. W) X) Y)

Seas, swell and breakers are ________ waves. standing seiche progressive

512. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Standing waves oscillate about a fixed point called a _______. node fulcrum antinode wave base dispersing point

513. The spot on a standing wave where no vertical displacement of the wave form occurs is termed the _______. W) node X) fulcrum Y) antinode Z) wave base E) dispersing point

514. The point on a standing wave where maximum vertical displacement of the wave occurs is termed the _______. W) node X) fulcrum Y) antinode Z) wave base E) dispersing point

515. W) X) Y)

The water level doesn't change at all at the ________ of a standing wave. node antinode fulcrum

516. W) X) Y) Z)

The properties of a standing wave depend on _______. the fetch the geometry of the basin the latitude of the basin the longitude of the basin

517. The period of oscillation of a standing wave is controlled by the ________ and ________ of the basin W) length; width X) length; depth Y) latitude; longitude Z) wave base; constructive wave interference

518. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A standing wave in a lake, harbor, or estuary is called a _______. tsunami tidal surge tidal bore seiche rogue wave

519. Seiches become dangerous in semi-enclosed basins when the period of the tides is equal to the _______. W) natural period of oscillation of the basin X) latitudinal spin of the Earth Y) longitudinal time of the Earth Z) refraction of the shoreline E) angle of slope of the bottom of the basin

520. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Compared to surface waves, internal waves are _______. slow, long wavelength, and of great height fast, long wavelength, and of great height slow, short wavelength, and of minimal height fast, short wavelength, and of minimal height slow, short wavelength, and of great height

521. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Internal waves are caused by differences in _______. plankton populations seiches density refraction resonance

522. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A solitary wave _______. lacks a visible crest lacks a visible trough does not result in net movement of water is large and energetic is a deep water wave

523. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Tsunamis are waves created by _________ activity. earthquake volcanic tectonic faulting all of the above

524. W) X) Y) Z)

The periods of internal waves are measured in _______. seconds minutes hours days

525. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A tsunami travels at speeds of _______. 10 km/hr 75 km/hr 175 km/hr 500 km/hr 750 km/hr

526. Tsunamis have ________ periods and ________ wavelengths.

W) X) Y) Z)

long; short long; long short; long short; short

527. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Tides are waves with very large _______. crests troughs wavelengths travel speed antinodes

528. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The crest of the tide is called _______. high tide low tide tidal range neap tide spring tide

529. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The trough of the tide is called _______. high tide low tide tidal range neap tide spring tide

530. W) X) Y) Z)

The tidal range is the _______. distance between high and low water marks on a shoreline the vertical distance between high tide and low tide the area over which a particular tidal pattern will be observed the length of time between two successive high tides

531. The wave height of the tide is called _______. W) high tide X) low tide

Y) tidal range Z) neap tide E) spring tide

532. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Tides act like _______. shallow water waves capillary waves rogue waves deep water waves storm surges

533. W) X) Y) Z)

Which of the following is NOT one of the categories of tides? diurnal mixed semidiurnal triurnal

534. W) X) Y) Z)

Areas that have one high tide and one low tide each day have ________ tides. diurnal mixed semidiurnal triurnal

535. W) X) Y) Z)

Areas that experience two high tides and two low tides each day have ________ tides. diurnal mixed triurnal semidiurnal

536. W) X) Y) Z)

Tides vary irregularly twice daily in regions with ________ tides. mixed triurnal semidiurnal diurnal

537. W) X) Y) Z)

High tides are highest and low tides are lowest during _______. neap tides spring tides ebb tides semidiurnal tides

538. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Spring tides _______. occur only in Spring have the smallest tidal range have the greatest tidal range occur only in certain basin configurations occur once each year

539. W) X) Y) Z)

High tide is lower than normal and low tide is higher than normal during _______. neap tides spring tides ebb tides semidiurnal tides

540. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Neap tides _______. occur only in Fall have the smallest tidal range have the greatest tidal range occur once each year occur only in specific basin configurations

541. W) X) Y) Z)

The greatest expanse of beach is exposed at low tide during _______. neap tides spring tides semidiurnal tides diurnal tides

542. The greatest expanse of beach is flooded at high tide during _______. W) neap tides X) spring tides

Y) semidiurnal tides Z) diurnal tides

543. W) X) Y) Z) E) F)

Spring tides will occur _______. at the new moon at the quarter moon at the full moon at both A and B at both A and C at both B and C

544. W) X) Y) Z)

The strength of gravitational attraction varies directly with _______. the tilt of the Earth's axis with respect to the sun latitude and longitude the masses of the interacting bodies and the distance separating them the composition of the interacting bodies

545. If the distance between two objects is tripled, the gravitational force between them will be decreased by _______. W) 3 X) 6 Y) 9 Z) 12 E) 15

546. W) X) Y) Z)

The most important factor influencing the Earth's tides is _______. the sun the rotation of the Earth the configuration of the tidal basin the moon

547. The sun's gravitational effect on the Earth is much less than that of the moon because _______. W) the moon is smaller than the sun X) the moon moves more rapidly than the sun Y) the sun is made of gas and the moon is made of rocks and minerals

Z) the sun is so much farther from the Earth than the moon

548. W) X) Y) Z)

The center of mass about which the Earth and the Moon rotate is _______. near the center of the Earth near the center of the Moon half-way between the Earth and the Moon between the Earth's surface and its core

549. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The tidal bulge on the side of the Earth opposite the moon is due to _______. centrifugal force tidal bore activity ebb currents tidal resonance spring tides

550. In the ________ model of tides, the Earth's surface is considered to be completely covered by seawater to an infinite depth. W) equilibrium X) two-dimensional Y) dynamic Z) uniform

551. The waves associated with the tides in the equilibrium model are assumed to be ________ waves. W) solitary X) progressive Y) standing Z) conservative

552. W) X) Y) Z)

In which model of tides are there no land masses or effects of the sea floor? two-dimensional equilibrium uniform dynamic

553. W) X) Y) Z)

Diurnal tides are more often found in _______. high latitudes mid-latitudes low latitudes large bays

554. W) X) Y) Z)

Mixed tides are more often found in _______. high latitudes shallow inlets mid-latitudes low latitudes

555. W) X) Y)

Semidiurnal tides are more often found in _______. high latitudes mid-latitudes low latitudes

556. W) X) Y)

During the full moon, high tide will be _______. normal higher than normal lower than normal

557. W) X) Y)

During the new moon, low tide will be _______. normal higher than normal lower than normal

558. W) X) Y)

When the Earth, Moon, and Sun are aligned, which phase of the moon might you see? full 1/4 3/4

559. When the Earth, Moon, and Sun are oriented at a 90 angle to each other, which type of tides occur? W) spring

X) diurnal Y) neap Z) mixed

560. W) X) Y) Z) E) F)

During neap tides _______. high tide is higher than normal high tide is lower than normal low tide is lower than normal low tide is higher than normal both B and D are correct both A and C are correct

561. The tidal pattern observed at any point on Earth is actually the sum of ________ different factors that affect the tide. W) 90 X) 75 Y) 65 Z) 55 E) 40 F) 3

562. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Maximum tidal ranges vary greatly, and can reach as high as __________. 5m 10 m 15 m 20 m 25 m

563. If a high tide occurred at a location with diurnal tides at 8 A.M. on a particular day and you wanted to be there at the next high tide, at what time should you arrive? W) 8:00 P.M. X) 8:25 P.M. Y) 8:00 A.M. Z) 8:50 A.M.

564. The times of high tide and low tide shift ________ each day.

W) forward X) backward Y) imperceptibly

565. In the ________ model of tides, water is permitted to respond actively to the tidegenerating forces. W) equilibrium X) uniform Y) dynamic Z) two-dimensional

566. W) X) Y) Z)

The effects of continents are considered in which of the models of tides? uniform equilibrium two-dimensional dynamic

567. In the ________ model of the tides, the tidal bulges remained fixed in place relative to the moon, and the Earth rotated through them. W) equilibrium X) uniform Y) two-dimensional Z) dynamic

568. W) X) Y) Z) E)

An amphidromic system describes the ________ tidal motion relative to a fixed node. polygonal pentagonal octagonal rotary hexagonal

569. The lines that radiate outward from the node of an amphidromic system are called _______. W) Isobars X) Isobaths Y) Cotidal lines

Z) Isoclines E) Corange lines

570. W) X) Y) Z)

Cotidal lines connect points _______. at which the tidal range is always the same at which high tide occurs at the same time of the day at which low tide occurs at the same time of the day at which the tidal pattern is identical

571. W) X) Y) Z) E)

In an amphidromic system, the tidal range at the node is _______. 25' 50' 0 10 m 20 m

572. W) X) Y) Z)

Corange lines link the points on the water surface that have equal _______. Tidal times Tidal ranges Tidal bores Tidal currents

573. The rotary wave in amphidromic systems travels in a ________ direction in the Northern Hemisphere. W) clockwise X) progressive Y) counterclockwise

574. The rotary wave in an amphidromic system in the Southern Hemisphere travels in a ________ direction. W) clockwise X) counterclockwise Y) progressive

575. The unusually large tidal range at the Bay of Fundy is a consequence of _______.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

cotidal lines refraction tidal resonance reflection diffraction

576. W) X) Y) Z)

The largest tidal range in the world occurs at _______. the Amazon River the Gulf of St. Lawrence the Bay of Fundy the Fu-Ch'un river of northern China

577. W) X) Y) Z)

Which of the following does NOT contribute to the occurance of tidal bores? coral reef formation a large tidal range a tapering basin geometry water depths that systematically decrease upriver

578. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A visible wave that surges upriver with the incoming tide is called a _______. tidal surge tidal bore tsunami seismic sea wave flood tide

579. As sea level moves up and down with the tide, water is transferred toward the coast as ________ currents. W) hydraulic X) geostrophic Y) ebb Z) flood E) undertow

580. As sea level moves up and down with the tide, water is transferred away from the coast as _______ currents. W) geostrophic

X) Y) Z) E)

flood undertow hydraulic ebb

581. W) X) Y)

In the open ocean, tidal currents describe a ________ pattern. up-and-down flow back-and-forth flow rotary flow

582. W) X) Y) Z)

The oldest and most successful tidal power plant is located at _______. the Bay of Fundy the La Rance River in France Biscayne Bay in Florida San Francisco Bay in California

583. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Currents created by the buildup of water at a tidal inlet are called _______. surge currents tidal resonance currents hydrologic currents hydraulic currents tectonic currents

584. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The waters of the ocean are referred to as the ________ province. Pelagic Littoral Benthic Intertidal Bathyal

585. W) X) Y) Z)

The bottom environments of the oceans are referred to as the ________ province. Pelagic Epipelagic Oceanic Neritic

E) Benthic

586. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The shallow areas overlying continental shelf areas can collectively be termed _______. the benthic province the demersal zone the neritic zone the oceanic zone the mid-water zone

587. The study of the interrelationships between the physical and biological aspects of an environment is _______. W) geology X) ecology Y) oceanology Z) biology E) hydrology

588. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The space or site occupied by a specific plant or animal is a/an _______. home range faunal assemblage habitat community ecosystem

589. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The waters of the ocean beyond the shelf break are called the ________ zone. Bathyal Hadal Abyssalpelagic Neritic Oceanic

590. W) X) Y) Z)

Which of the following is not a distinct subdivision of the open ocean water column? the bathypelagic the hadalpelagic the epipelagic the micropelagic

E) the mesopelagic

591. The layer of the oceanic zone that extends from the surface to about 200 m is called the ________ zone. W) Mesopelagic X) Epipelagic Y) Abyssalpelagic Z) Bathypelagic E) Hadalpelagic

592. The part of the oceanic zone that extends from a depth of 2,000 m to 6,000 m is called the ________ zone. W) Mesopelagic X) Epipelagic Y) Abyssalpelagic Z) Bathypelagic E) Hadalpelagic

593. The region of the oceanic zone that extends from 1,000 m to 2,000 m is called the ________ zone. W) Mesopelagic X) Epipelagic Y) Abyssalpelagic Z) Bathypelagic E) Hadalpelagic

594. The segment of the oceanic zone that extends from 200 m to 1,000 m is called the ________ zone. W) Mesopelagic X) Epipelagic Y) Abyssalpelagic Z) Bathypelagic E) Hadalpelagic

595. The layer of the oceanic zone that extends from 6,000 m to the bottom of the ocean is called the ________ zone.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

Mesopelagic Epipelagic Abyssalpelagic Bathypelagic Hadalpelagic

596. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The largest oceanic zone, by volume, is _______. the bathypelagic the abyssalpelagic the neritic the benthic the hadalpelagic

597. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The benthic province is broken into five zones based on _______. Salinity Density Temperature Depth Pressure

598. The ________ zone of the benthic province encompasses the floor of the continental shelf from the beach to the shelf break. W) Littoral X) Abyssal Y) Sublittoral Z) Bathyal E) Hadal

599. That part of the sea bottom which is sometimes exposed to the atmosphere is termed the _______. W) Intertidal zone X) Subtidal zone Y) Benthic zone Z) Splash zone E) Sub-littoral zone

600. The ________ zone of the benthic province of the ocean extends from a depth of 200 m to a depth of 2,000 m. W) Littoral X) Abyssal Y) Sublittoral Z) Bathyal E) Hadal

601. The ________ zone of the benthic province encompasses the deep ocean trenches and all the bottom with a depth over 6 000 m. W) Littoral X) Abyssal Y) Sublittoral Z) Bathyal E) Hadal

602. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The benthic zone that is between 2 000 m and 6 000 m is the ________ zone. Littoral Abyssal Sublittoral Bathyal Hadal

603. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The ________ benthic zone is roughly the continental slope and rise. Littoral Abyssal Sublittoral Bathyal Hadal

604. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The sublittoral generally is the environment of the ________. Continental slope Continental rise Continental shelf Trench Abyssal plains

605. In the open ocean, the farthest that sufficient light for photosynthesis can penetrate is _______. W) 10 m X) 50 m Y) 100 m Z) 150 m E) 175 m

606. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The ocean can be divided into ________ zones on the basis of illumination. three five eight two four

607. The zone of the ocean where photosynthesis can be carried out effectively during the daylight hours is the ________ zone. W) dysphotic X) aphotic Y) photic

608. W) X) Y)

Which of the following is sometimes referred to as the "twilight" zone? dysphotic aphotic photic

609. W) X) Y)

The portion of the ocean that is in perpetual darkness is the ________ zone. dysphotic aphotic photic

610. The classification system used in this text is one developed by the Swedish naturalist named _______. W) Darwin X) Bjorling

Y) Hess Z) Linnaus E) Wegener

611. In the binomial system of classification, Orders of organisms are grouped together into _______. W) families X) sub-orders Y) genera Z) phyla E) classes

612. Which of the following is always capitalized? W) Genus name X) Species name

613. Which of the following is never capitalized? W) Genus name X) Species name

614. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Kingdom Monera includes _______. Fungi Single-celled organisms that possess a true nucleus Bacteria and blue-green algae Plants attached to the sea floor Marine animals

615. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Kingdom Protista refers to _______. Fungi Single-celled organisms that possess a true nucleus Bacteria and blue-green algae Plants attached to the sea floor Marine animals

616. Which of the following is not a member of the protista?

W) X) Y) Z) E)

Dinoflagellates Blue-green algae Foraminifera Flagellates Coccolithophores

617. W) X) Y) Z) E)

In marine environments, fungi are most common in _______. the abyssal zone the deep ocean the sublittoral zone the intertidal zone the pelagic zone

618. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Kingdom Metaphytae refers to _______. Fungi Single-celled organisms that possess a true nucleus Bacteria and blue-green algae Plants attached to the sea floor Marine animals

619. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Kingdom Metazoa refers to _______. Fungi Single-celled Bacteria and blue-green algae Plants attached to the sea floor Marine animals

620. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The role of ________ is to decompose organic matter. fungi single-celled organisms that possess a true nucleus bacteria and blue-green algae plants attached to the sea floor marine animals

621. Which of the following is a mollusk?

W) X) Y) Z) E)

Fish Comb-jelly Squid Polychaete worm Sea cucumber

622. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following is a ctenophore? Fish Comb-jelly Squid Polychaete worm Sea cucumber

623. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following is a chordate? Fish Comb-jelly Squid Polychaete worm Sea cucumber

624. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following is an annelid? Fish Comb-jelly Squid Polychaete worm Sea cucumber

625. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following is an echinoderm? Oyster Barnacle Sea urchin Lamp shell Seal

626. Which of the following is an arthropod?

W) X) Y) Z) E)

Clam Shrimp Whale Star fish Sponge

627. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The term used for all floating and drifting organisms in the sea is: Plankton Polychaetes Monera Nekton Benthos

628. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The 'nekton' include all _______. animals found in the water column actively swimming animals passively drifting animals animals living on the bottom animals burrowed into the sea bed

629. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The bottom dwellers of the oceans are referred to as the _______. Plankton Polychaetes Monera Nekton Benthos

630. Floating and drifting plants in the oceans are referred to as _______. W) Zooplankton X) Phytoplankton

631. W) X) Y)

Plants that live on the sea bottom are termed _______. Epifauna Epiflora Infauna

632. W) X) Y)

Animals that live on the sea bottom are termed _______. Epifauna Epiflora Infauna

633. A/an ________ is the totality of an environment including the living and nonliving parts. W) niche X) ecosystem Y) aspect ratio Z) habitat E) community

634. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Lines of equal temperature are called _______. Isobars Isoclines Isotherms Isotemps Isoseisms

635. The body temperature of the majority of marine organisms is ________ the temperature of the water that surrounds them. W) the same as X) higher than Y) lower than Z) unrelated to

636. As a general rule, rates of biological activity of marine organisms double for every ______ increase in temperature. W) 1 C X) 5 C Y) 10 C Z) 15 C E) 20 C

637. W) X) Y)

Cold water has ________ nutrients as/than warm water. more less the same amount of

638. W) X) Y)

The majority of marine plants grow in ________ waters. Equatorial Subtropical Polar

639. W) X) Y) Z) E) F) G)

Compared to organisms in tropical seas, those in polar seas _______. live longer require more nutrients reproduce less often wwim more slowly both A and C both B and C both C and D

640. W) X) Y) Z) E)

To sample a discrete patch of the sea floor, oceanographers can use a/an _______. anchor dredge bottom trawl Clarke-Bumpus sampler Niskin bottle grab sampler

641. W) X) Y) Z) E)

To develop successfully, the embryos of Pacific cod require _______. a narrow temperature range a narrow salinity range high levels of dissolved oxygen very warm surface waters ambient salinity of at least 35

642. The process by which molecules move from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration is called _______. W) dispersion

X) Y) Z) E)

molecular equalization concentration gradient osmosis diffusion

643. The diffusion of water molecules through a semipermeable membrane is called _______. W) carbonation X) oxidation Y) osmosis Z) respiration E) photosynthesis

644. Which of the following is likely the most able to withstand large changes in salinity _______. W) an embryonic fish X) an adult fish Y) a benthic organism Z) a nearshore planktonic organism E) an open ocean planktonic organism

645. W) X) Y) Z)

Most marine fish have cellular fluids with salinity _______. higher than the salinity of sea water lower than the salinity of sea water the same as sea water unrelated to the salinity of seawater

646. W) X) Y) Z)

Marine fish osmoregulate by _______. drinking large quantities of sea water excreting excess salt ions through their gills urinating infrequently all of the above

647. Freshwater fish have body fluids that are _______. W) saltier than the surrounding water X) less salty than the surrounding water

Y) of the same salinity as the surrounding water

648. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The pressure created by a stationary column of water is termed _______. osmotic pressure hydraulic pressure hydrostatic pressure barometric pressure isostatic pressure

649. W) X) Y) Z) E)

More than 90 percent of the ocean's plants are _______. algae trees along the tidal flats found along coastal areas rooted in the bottom seed bearing

650. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Plants synthesize food chemically from inorganic matter in the process of _______. respiration transpiration sublimation photosynthesis osmosis

651. W) X) Y) Z)

The green pigment of plants is called _______. Beta carotene Chlorine Chlorophyll Nitrous oxide

652. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Many macroalgae have root-like structures called _______. Helictites Stalactites Nerites Holdfasts Osmotes

653. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The most abundant plants in the oceans are _______. Kelp Mangroves Sea grasses Sea fans Diatoms

654. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The shell of a diatom is called a/an _______. Frustule Protoconch Theca Skeleton Beak

655. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The "lid" of a diatom's shells is called the _______. Globule Epitheca Protoconch Hypotheca Spirula

656. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The "box" of a diatom's shell is called the _______. Globule Epitheca Protoconch Hypotheca Spirula

657. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The frustule of a diatom is composed of _______. Cellulose Lignin Silica Crystal Carbon

658. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Sexual reproduction in diatoms is triggered _______. when average cell size decreases to some critical minimum when day length increases to a critical minimum when the population size decreases to a critical minimum when nutrient levels drop below a critical minimum when water temperatures increase above a critical minimum

659. When phytoplankton populations increase, it is referred to as a phytoplankton _______. W) crop X) harvest Y) bloom Z) fruit

660. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Under ideal conditions, diatoms divide once every ________. 2-4 days 2-4 hours 12-24 days 12-24 hours Year

661. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Dinoflagellates use ________ to propel themselves short distances through the water. cirri flagella theca frustules cilia

662. W) X) Y) Z)

Dinoflagellates belong to the phylum _______. Porifera Protista Coelenterata Cyanophyta

663. The cell wall of dinoflagellates that have a theca is composed of _______. W) cellulose

X) Y) Z) E)

lignin silica crystal carbon

664. W) X) Y) Z)

When copepods lose their shell, the process is called _______. molting shedding sloughing metamorphosis

665. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Herbivorous copepods feed by _______. capturing individual phytoplankton cells filtering water to remove its contents swallowing large amounts of water and its contents extruding protoplasm to capture food grazing on macroalgae

666. Foraminifera secrete shells of _______. W) CaCO3 X) SiO2 Y) Cellulose Z) Phosphate E) Iron oxide

667. W) X) Y) Z)

Forams belong to the phylum _______. Coelenterata Porifera Protista Chrysophyta

668. Killer whales are often found in groups of three to thirty individuals, called _________. W) families X) schools

Y) teams Z) pods E) flocks

669. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Form drag is proportional to the ________ of a fish's body. length weight height cross-sectional areas speed

670. W) X) Y) Z)

The friction between a fish's body and the surrounding water is called ________ drag. form turbulent surface tail

671. W) X) Y) Z)

The retarding force that strongly robs speed from a moving object is called _______. form drag turbulent drag surface drag tail drag

672. W) X) Y) Z)

The tail fin of a fish is called the ________ fin. pectoral anal dorsal caudal

673. W) X) Y) Z)

The large, soft fin on a fish's back is called the ________ fin. pectoral anal dorsal caudal

674. The fins which protrude from the fish's body in the gill area are called the ________ fins. W) pectoral X) anal Y) dorsal Z) caudal

675. W) X) Y) Z)

The speed of a fish depends directly on the shape of _______. the fish's body the caudal fin the pectoral fin the fish's head

676. The ratio of the height of the caudal fin squared to the area of the caudal fin is termed the ________ ratio. W) fin X) swimming Y) drag Z) aspect E) speed

677. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A roughly square caudal fin will have an aspect ratio of _______. -3 7 0 1 4

678. Long-bodied fish with high aspect ratios will be _______. W) slow swimmers X) fast swimmers

679. The parallel bands of plants and animals on the bottom of the ocean are termed _______. W) balconies X) terraces

Y) vertical zonation Z) meridians E) latitudes

680. W) X) Y) Z) E) F)

Which of the following are more likely to be found high on the shoreline? Mussels Clams Blue-green algae Kelp A and C above B and D above

681. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The dominant organisms in sandy and muddy bottoms are _______. Epifauna Large plants Infauna Corals Lobsters

682. Deposit feeders obtain food by processing ________ and selectively removing organic food mixed in it. W) rock X) water Y) mud Z) algae

683. W) X) Y) Z) E)

An example of a deposit feeder is a/an _______. crab lobster snail sand dollar octopus

684. Which of the following would be used to collect samples of floating and drifting organisms for study? W) Trawling gear

X) Y) Z) E)

Anchor dredges Plankton nets Grab samplers Nansen bottles

685. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following would be used to collect nektonic life? Purse seines Plankton nets Anchor dredges Grab samplers Nansen bottles

686. W) X) Y) Z)

Manatees feed mainly on _______. crustaceans plants fish calcareous sediment

687. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The genus Macrocystis is commonly called _______. Sargassum weed Mangrove trees Kelp Turtle grass Surf grass

688. Kelp forests are dominated by specimens of Macrocystis, which can reach ________ in length. W) 5 m X) 10 m Y) 20 m Z) 40 m E) 75 m

689. As the density of sea urchins increases in an area where kelp grows, the density of the kelp _______. W) increases

X) decreases Y) is not affected

690. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Orcinus orca is the technical name for the _______. sea otter seal manatee sea urchin killer whale

691. Which of the following refers to the totality of an environment, including all of its chemical, physical, and geological parts and all the plants and animals? W) niche X) food web Y) ecosystem Z) habitat E) domain

692. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The process of photosynthesis converts solar energy into _______. plants chemical energy potential energy food heat

693. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The chemical pigment which allows plants to photosynthesize is _______. beta carotene PABA chlorophyll chlorofluorocarbon chlorine

694. W) X) Y)

Primary producers are called _______. heterotrophs mesotrophs ectomorphs

Z) autotrophs E) plants

695. W) X) Y) Z) E)

All organisms which require prefabricated food are termed _______. heterotrophs mesotrophs ectomorphs autotrophs ectotrophs

696. W) X) Y) Z)

'Trophic' refers to _______. a warm area near the equator an energy level the process of nourishing the kind of food eaten by an animal

697. The study of nutritional interconnections among the parts of an ecosystem is called ________ dynamics. W) thermoX) hydroY) energy Z) trophic E) photo-

698. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following are the primary producers? plants herbivores carnivores decomposers omnivores

699. W) X) Y) Z)

Which of the following would be found at the third trophic level or higher? plants carnivores herbivores detritus feeders

700. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Plant-eaters are called _______. carnivores omnivores decomposers herbivores autotrophs

701. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Animals which eat mainly meat are called _______. carnivores omnivores decomposers herbivores autotrophs

702. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Animals which eat both plants and animals are termed _______. carnivores omnivores decomposers herbivores autotrophs

703. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Bacteria and fungi would generally be listed as _______. carnivores omnivores decomposers herbivores autotrophs

704. A linear succession of members of an ecosystem based on nutritional relationships is called a _______. W) trophic level X) food web Y) production line Z) food chain E) nutrition portfolio

705. A typical food chain in an oceanic environment might have as many as __________ trophic levels. W) 2 X) 10 Y) 8 Z) 15 E) 5

706. Limited supplies of ________ and ________ are the principal factors that limit primary production in the ocean. W) water; carbon dioxide X) sunlight; nutrients Y) carbon dioxide; nutrients Z) carbon dioxide; sunlight E) water; sunlight

707. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Plants may manufacture which of the following? carbohydrates fats proteins nucleic acids all of the above

708. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The reverse of photosynthesis is called _______. respiration consumption hydrolysis burning oxidation

709. W) X) Y) Z)

Which of the following is typically a grazer? shark crab barnacles copepod

E) polychaete worms

710. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following is typically a predator? shark crab barnacles copepod polychaete worms

711. W) X) Y) Z) E)

An example of a scavenger is a _______. shark crab clam oyster polychaete worm

712. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following is a filter feeder? mussel dolphin crab lobster sea urchin

713. The size of the population of any organism is usually a direct function of its ______ supply. W) oxygen X) carbon dioxide Y) food Z) habitat E) water

714. W) X) Y) Z)

Dinoflagellate blooms can reach population sizes of ______ cells/L. 103 106 104 108

E) 1010

715. W) X) Y) Z) E) F) G) H)

Decomposers found in the marine environment include _______. fungi dinoflagellates copepods bacteria both A and D both A and C both B and D both B and C

716. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The process of decomposition releases __________ into the water. sugars bacteria organic nutrients inorganic nutrients nitrogen

717. Which of the following lists is ranked in order of ease of chemical breakdown (from easiest to hardest)? W) glucose, bone, cartilage, chitin X) cartilage, glucose, chitin, bone Y) bone, glucose, chitin, cartilage Z) chitin, glucose, cartilage, bone E) glucose, chitin, cartilage, bone

718. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Bacteria secrete a wide assortment of ________ that react with organic matter. fats proteins carbohydrates proteins enzymes

719. The cellulose-like substance that forms the exoskeleton of crustaceans and insects is called _______.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

phosphate calcium carbonate chitin silicon dioxide manganese

720. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Organisms which require oxygen are referred to as _______. oxidized anaerobic decomposers aerobic bacteria

721. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Decay does not occur in the absence of free ________. water vapor carbon dioxide sunlight oxygen salt

722. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Bacteria which can live without free oxygen are termed _______. oxidized anaerobic decomposers aerobic bacteria

723. Anaerobic bacteria obtain oxygen chemically from _______. W) NO2 X) H20 Y) SO4 Z) PO4 E) C6H12O6

724. Scientists have known of the existence of hydrothermal vent communities for about __________ years. W) 75 X) 100 Y) 35 Z) 5 E) 20

725. Chemosynthetic bacteria use the chemical energy released by oxidation of inorganic compounds to produce _______. W) light X) carbon Y) food Z) limestone E) quartz

726. W) X) Y) Z)

Which of the following is a primary factor limiting plant growth? nutrient concentrations upwelling and turbulence grazing intensity water turbidity

727. As a rule of thumb, the compensation depth for phytoplankton in the ocean is often assumed to coincide with light levels that are about _________ of those at the surface. W) 10% X) 25% Y) 5% Z) 8% E) 1%

728. Net primary productivity is the amount of ________ fixed by photosynthesis that exceeds the respiration demands of the plant and goes into growth. W) oxygen X) carbon Y) glucose Z) cellulose

729. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Compounds that contain phosphorous, nitrogen, and silicon are called _______. supernutrients supranutrients micronutrients macronutrients piconutrients

730. Chemical substances that plants must have to live, but that are needed in only very small quantities are termed _______. W) supernutrients X) supranutrients Y) supranutrients Z) micronutrients E) piconutrients

731. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The source of carbon as a nutrient in seawater is _______. coal dissolved on the ocean floor elemental carbon from the air carbon dioxide from all the animals bicarbonate carbonic acid in the water

732. The two nutrients that typically limit productivity of ecosystems are nitrogen and ________. W) carbon X) phosphorous Y) sodium Z) iron E) magnesium

733. The ratio of carbon to nitrogen to phosphorus extracted from seawater by phytoplankton is about __________. W) 16: 100: 23 X) 116: 16: 1 Y) 50: 23: 1 Z) 125: 37: 1

E) 116: 7: 25

734. W) X) Y) Z)

Phytoplankton obtain most of their phosphorus in the form of _______. elemental phosphorus organic phosphates inorganic phosphate phosphoric acid

735. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Nutrients are regenerated in the ocean by _______. photosynthesis osmosis respiration oxidation bacterial decomposition of dead cells and tissues

736. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The most productive areas of the ocean are characterized by _______. eddies upwelling warm waters stagnant waters downwelling

737. The irregular, chaotic flow of fluids which mixes the water column and brings nutrients to the surface is termed _______. W) stagnation X) advection Y) overturn Z) turbulence E) the Ekman spiral

738. Turbulent flow is most pronounced when the sea floor is ________ and currents are strong. W) smooth X) irregular

739. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Many herbivorous zooplankton time their egg laying to coincide with _______. the full moon increasing day length phytoplankton blooms times of high salinity times of low salinity

740. When a herbivore eats a plant, most of the energy derived from the plant turns into __________. W) herbivore biomass X) fecal material Y) kinetic energy Z) stored energy E) reproductive material

741. On average, only about __________ of the energy in a trophic level will be transferred to the next level. W) 10% X) 20% Y) 5% Z) 25% E) 15%

742. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Tropical waters are very clear and blue in color due to _______. the ability to reflect the sky better than cold waters the high concentration of plant cells in the water the absence of plant cells in the waters higher salt content of the waters lower salt content of the waters

743. Tropical oceans are infertile because the ________ of the region inhibits mixing of the water column. W) permanent thermocline X) permanent halocline Y) permanent pycnocline Z) high rainfall E) excessive runoff from the land

744. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Biological productivity in polar seas tends to be limited by _________________. nitrate availability temperature levels phosphate availability solar energy micronutrients

745. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The illuminated area of the ocean is termed the _______. growth zone photic zone thermal zone aphotic zone mixing zone

746. The spring diatom bloom of temperate ocean waters occurs in response to increasing levels of _______. W) nutrients X) cool water Y) light Z) upwelling E) respiration

747. Photosynthesis converts inorganic carbon of CO2 into organic carbon in _______. W) X) Y) Z) carbon monoxide methane chlorofluorocarbons sugar

748. W) X) Y)

The waters of the continental shelves are marked by _______. high rates of plant productivity moderate rates of plant productivity low rates of plant productivity

749. W) X) Y)

The waters adjacent to Peru are an area of coastal _______. upwelling downwelling turbulence

750. The coastal upwelling regions tend to be located on the ________ edges of land masses in the low to middle latitudes. W) eastern X) western

751. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The El Nino phenomenon modifies currents located off the coast of _______. Brazil Chile Mexico Peru Cuba

752. W) X) Y) Z)

Near surface waters off Peru are typically _______. warm and nutrient rich warm and nutrient poor cold and nutrient poor cold and nutrient rich

753. W) X) Y) Z)

In an El Nino year, near surface waters off Peru become _______. warm and nutrient rich warm and nutrient poor cold and nutrient poor cold and nutrient rich

754. At its peak, the annual yield of the Peruvian anchoveta fishery was about __________ million tons. W) 12 X) 8 Y) 15 Z) 6 E) 18

755. W) X) Y) Z) E)

In this chapter, SST stands for _______. supersonic transports standard salinity and temperature sea-surface temperatures seismic sea tilts swelling subsurface trails

756. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Primary production in the temperature latitudes varies with the _______. phases of the moon angle of tilt of the Earth season amount of rainfall amount of runoff from land

757. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A food web consists of a system of interconnected _______. animal species plant species currents food chains nutrients

758. Calculations of primary production and the study of food transfer show that ________ and ________ regions produce the majority of the world's fish. W) embayment; coastal X) coastal; downwelling Y) coastal; upwelling Z) polar; downwelling E) polar; downwelling F) tropical; upwelling

759. W) X) Y) Z)

Off Peru, Ekman transport moves water _______. down the coastline up the coastline toward the coastline away from the coastline

760. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Marine vertebrates belong to the phylum _______. Mammalia Coenterata Protista Porifera Chordata

761. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following has a cartilaginous skeleton? Tuna Cod Shark Halibut Swordfish

762. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Whale sharks feed primarily on _______. humans dolphins and porpoises killer whales baleen whales plankton

763. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Most of the animals that live around the volcanic vents of the ocean floor are _______. crabs filter feeders carnivores herbivores autotrophs

764. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The base of the food webs in the deep-sea communities is _______. photosynthesizing phytoplankton photosynthesizing crustaceans chemosynthetic crustaceans chemosynthetic bacteria small anchovies

765. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Coastal Zone Color Scanner is used to assess variations in _______. the size of the whales in the oceans primary productivity in the oceans schools of game fish for sport fishermen numbers of sharks in coastal waters large tropical cyclones of the oceans

766. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Chlorophyll reflects what color light? Red Blue Green Orange Yellow

767. W) X) Y) Z) E)

North Atlantic eels spawn _______. in coastal lakes and rivers in the waters of the Gulf Stream in the deep ocean in the Sargasso Sea in the Caribbean Sea

768. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A baby eel is called a/an _______. Moray Sea snake Elver Alevin Shiner

769. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Most of the energy that reshapes beaches comes from _______. tidal action long-term sea level changes storm surges breaking waves rivers

770. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The currents that move the sand in the surf zone are caused by _______. wind waves tides runoff tidal bores

771. Waves approach shore at an angle, then swing around and come in nearly parallel to shore in the process of _______. W) diffraction X) reflection Y) distortion Z) refraction E) overwash

772. W) X) Y) Z)

Wave setup is a process by which _______. waves increase in height and break incoming waves are refracted until they are almost parallel to the shoreline large masses of water are created in the surf zone a concentration gradient causes currents to form

773. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Waves cause water to move towards shore by a process known as _______. mass transport Ekman drift advection longshore currents Langmuir spirals

774. In very shallow water, waves become oversteepened and unstable and collapse as _______. W) fjords X) breakers Y) runouts Z) rip currents E) storm surge

775. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The type of breaker that forms depends mainly on _______. wind speed wind duration fetch slope of the bottom celerity

776. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Rip currents form when _______. longshore currents diverge water carried into shore by waves flows directly back out the tide is ebbing longshore currents converge the wind is blowing directly offshore

777. The region between where the breakers begin to form and the mean high tide mark is termed _______. W) nearshore X) surf zone Y) offshore Z) backshore E) swash zone

778. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The 'swash' zone comprises that part of the nearshore environment where _______. breaking waves occasionally splash water rooted plants are capable of growing the beach is covered and uncovered by water with each wave storm waves can cause significant erosion the sea bed is only exposed to air at low tide.

779. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following is NOT one of the subdivisions of the "beach"? breaker zone surf zone offshore estuary backshore

780. W) X) Y) Z)

The open water seaward of the breaker zone is the _______. offshore zone swash zone backshore zone surf zone

781. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Most of the wave energy is expended in the _______. offshore zone swash zone backshore zone nearshore zone surf zone

782. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Currents that are created by wave and flow parallel to the shoreline are called _______. runouts rip currents undertow longshore currents in's-and-out's

783. For waves of the same height, the greater the angle of wave approach, the ________ the longshore currents that will be created. W) greater X) weaker

784. When wave crests are parallel to shore, longshore currents can still develop due to _______. W) bottom configuration X) offset orthogonals Y) intersecting orthogonals Z) wave set-up E) undertow

785. The water surface of the surf zone is often uneven due to _______. W) wave set-up X) longshore currents

Y) rip currents Z) runouts E) estuaries

786. W) X) Y) Z)

A long period of incoming swell will _______. cause a beach to grow slowly erode beachfront have no effect on sand distribution along a shoreline create a narrow, gently sloping beach

787. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The furthest extent of ice advance during an ice age is often marked by _______. offshore sand bars a barrier island long, narrow lakes a terminal moraine ice scour basins

788. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Sand input to a beach can be caused by _______. rip currents cliff erosion storm activity long term swell both B and D

789. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Sand removal from a beach is typically caused by _______. rip currents cliff erosion storm activity long term swell both A and C

790. Sand budgets are the principal sand ________ and sand ________ for a stretch of shoreline. W) credits; debits X) movements; depositions Y) dredged up; hauled away

Z) dunes; bars

791. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Sand is removed from a section of shoreline by _______. onshore transport offshore transport wind erosion estuaries A, B, and C are correct

792. If the input and output of sand are equal along a shoreline, a/an ________ condition exists. W) imbalanced X) inequality Y) steady state Z) erosive

793. W) X) Y) Z)

At the 'nodal point' on a beach _______. longshore currents converge longshore currents diverge there are no appreciable longshore currents water is carried directly out to sea

794. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The shape of a beach along a survey line is termed a beach ________. bar intersect transect profile budget

795. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The near horizontal, flat surface of backshore is called a _______. beach face sea cliff stack longshore bar berm

796. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The section of a beach that is subjected to a wave uprush is termed the beach _______. berm face profile stack swell

797. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A submarine deposit of sand that is parallel to the shoreline is termed a/an _______. berm groin washover fan delta longshore bar

798. A beach profile characterized by a narrow berm, a gently sloping beach face, and submarine bars is termed a/an _______. W) fjord profile X) estuary profile Y) storm profile Z) swell profile E) delta profile

799. A beach profile characterized by a broad berm and steep beach face is termed a/an ________ profile. W) fjord X) estuary Y) storm Z) swell E) delta

800. W) X) Y)

During a storm, the average grain size of the sand of a beach ________. increases decreases remains the same

801. W) X) Y) Z)

The most important role of sand dune vegetation is _______. photosynthesis, to provide food for dune grazers to bring water nearer to the surface via their deep roots to stabilize the sand of the dunes to provide microhabitats for small organisms

802. The primary long-term factor in developing the shape and characteristics of the Oregon coastline has been __________. W) subduction X) winter storms Y) river input Z) erosion by rip currents E) wave-driven erosion of cliffs

803. The open ocean connects with the water between a barrier island and the mainland via _______. W) rip currents X) overwash during storms Y) overwash during spring tides Z) storm surges E) tidal inlets

804. W) X) Y) Z)

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of barrier islands? a back-island flat a leeward cliff zone a dune field a salt marsh

805. Laguna Madre, the lagoon between Padre Island and the mainland, is very salty because of _______. W) regular inflow of salty ocean water X) input of river water which carries high levels of dissolved salts Y) high rates of evaporation and limited exchange with the ocean Z) underlying beds of soluble substrate which are slowly dissolving

806. Which of the following is NOT likely to be a factor in the breakdown of a sea cliff?

W) X) Y) Z) E)

Compression of air Increases in groundwater Impact of solid materials thrown against the cliff by waves Dissolving of soluble materials Saltation of wind-blown materials

807. Which of the following lists of materials is listed in increasing order of resistance to erosion (i.e. the material that is easiest to erode first)? W) Unconsolidated sediment, shale, limestone, granite X) Unconsolidated sediment, limestone, shale, granite Y) Shale, unconsolidated sediment, limestone, granite Z) Limestone, unconsolidated sediment, granite, shale E) Shale, limestone, unconsolidated sediment, granite

808. Islands that are large deposits of sand separated from the mainland by the water of lagoons, bays, and estuaries are called _______. W) offshore bars X) submarine bars Y) barrier islands Z) fjords E) jetties

809. A fan-shaped accumulation of sand on the leeward of a barrier island that is deposited by storm waves overtopping the island is termed a ________ fan. W) alluvial X) deltaic Y) washover Z) fjord E) estuary

810. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A sand bar that is attached to the shoreline at one end is termed a/an _______. fjord spit estuary jetty groin

811. A substantial rise in sea level along a coast during a severe storm is called a storm _______. W) tidal wave X) bore Y) surge Z) surf E) swell

812. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A triangular deposit of sediment at the mouth of a river is termed a/an _______. delta alluvial fan offshore bar distributary salt marsh

813. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The flat lowland portion of a delta that is at or above sea level is the delta _______. front back plain prodelta protodelta

814. The shoreline and the broad submerged portion of the delta to seaward are called the delta _______. W) front X) back Y) plain Z) prodelta E) protodelta

815. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Deltaic deposits on the inner continental shelf are called the _______. delta front delta back delta plain prodelta protodelta

816. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The delta plain is drained by a system of channels called _______. tributaries levees sills dikes distributaries

817. Delta plains are underlain by sequences of flat-lying beds of sand and mud which are collectively called _______. W) topset beds X) foreset beds Y) bottomset beds

818. The delta front consists of thick sands and silts that dip seaward and are called _______. W) topset beds X) foreset beds Y) bottomset beds

819. The flat-lying beds composed of fine river silts and clays which are deposited on the prodelta are called _______. W) topset beds X) foreset beds Y) bottomset beds

820. A ________ delta is one where waves and tides are ineffective in rearranging the river deposits. W) river-dominated X) wave-dominated Y) tide-dominated

821. A ________ delta is one where wave energy is high relative to the supply of river sediment. W) river-dominated

X) wave-dominated Y) tide-dominated

822. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The Mahakam River delta is a good example of _______. river dominance tide dominance wave dominance both A and B both A and C

823. The structure that is built to prevent or diminish sediment deposition at the mouth of harbors is called a _______. W) pier X) spit Y) groin Z) jetty E) seawall

824. Structures that are built along eroding beaches to trap sand artificially and promote accretion are _______. W) piers X) spits Y) groins Z) jetties E) seawalls

825. Which of the following is essentially a dam designed to impound sand rather than water? W) piers X) spits Y) groins Z) jetties E) seawalls

826. The structure that is built in front of harbors or shorelines to redirect wave energy away from the shoreline is a _______.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

pier groin seawall jetty breakwater

827. Structures that are built on shore, on the assumption that they protect beaches, roads, and bluffs from erosion by storm waves are _______. W) piers X) groins Y) seawalls Z) jetties E) breakwaters

828. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Seawalls and the steep bottom of the nearshore cause wave _______. refraction reflection diffraction subduction reduction

829. Seawalls ________ the turbulence of the water at the front of the barrier. W) increase X) decrease

830. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Beach nourishment relies on sand _______. deposited by currents dredged from offshore quarried on land deposited by storm waves both B and C

831. W) X) Y)

The sediment deposited at the end of a glacier is called a _______. lateral moraine medial moraine ground moraine

Z) terminal moraine

832. W) X) Y)

Recessional moraines were deposited as _______. the glaciers retreated the glaciers advanced the glaciers remained stationary

833. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The longest barrier island in the United States of America is _______. Cape Hatteras, NC Hutchinson Island, FL Merritt Island, FL Padre Island, TX Sea Island, GA

834. A pile of boulders placed at the base of a cliff or beach to protect it from wave action is called _______. W) a seawall X) a stack Y) riprap Z) a jetty E) a groin

835. W) X) Y) Z)

Waves that move into progressively shallow water are termed ________ waves. tidal standing shoaling intermediate

836. W) X) Y) Z)

Dense tree growth of tropical and subtropical shorelines is a/an _______. mangrove swamp estuary salt marsh lagoon

837. A plant-covered, intertidal fringe of a coastline is a/an _______.

W) X) Y) Z)

mangrove swamp estuary salt marsh lagoon

838. A partially enclosed body of water where there is a free mixing of fresh and salt-water is called a/an _______. W) estuary X) lagoon Y) spit Z) salt marsh

839. Semi-enclosed coastal bodies of water which receive essentially no inflow of fresh water are called _______. W) estuaries X) bays Y) fjords Z) lakes E) lagoons

840. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Poorly sorted sediment deposited by glaciers is _______. shale limestone till foraminiferal ooze muck

841. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Irregular mounds or ridge-like deposits of till are called _______. deltas groins jetties alluvial fans moraines

842. A river valley that was modified by a glacier and partially filled by the sea is a _______.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

fjord jetty delta distributary tributary

843. W) X) Y) Z)

Drowned river valleys were formed when _______. the weight of ice-age glaciers depressed the margins of the continents tectonic changes resulted in increased tidal range sea level increased as a result of melting glaciers erosion during flooding scooped out the substrate from the river mouth

844. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The dynamics of an estuary are most strongly influenced by _______. tidal action storm events rainfall river input both A and D

845. W) X) Y) Z)

The surface currents in a salt-wedge estuary are usually _______. slow and steady fast and turbulent slow and turbulent fast and steady

846. W) X) Y) Z)

Estuaries typically exhibit _______. low species diversity and high productivity high species diversity and high productivity low species diversity and low productivity high species diversity and low productivity

847. W) X) Y)

Species diversity in estuaries is low due to _______. large numbers of mosquitos heavy rainfall thick deposits of mud

Z) widely fluctuating environmental conditions E) low nutrient availability

848. W) X) Y) Z)

Estuaries are very fertile because _______. rivers supply large quantities of dissolved nutrients nutrients supply large quantities of dissolved nutrients the water is well ventilated with oxygen by tides and waves all of the above

849. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Circulation in fjords can be sluggish near the bottom because of _______. groins jetties morainal barriers loess deposits spits

850. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The zooplankton population of estuaries tends to be regulated by _______. currents tides salinity gradients bottom sediments predator species

851. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following is/are least likely to be found on a rocky substrate? sea urchins barnacles polychaete worms bryozoans A and C

852. W) X) Y) Z)

Which of the following is/are least likely to be found on a sandy substrate? starfish bryozoans polychaete worms sponges

E) B and D

853. W) X) Y) Z)

For most organisms, an estuary is _______. an easy place to live a stressful habitat a good place to find food an ecological desert

854. W) X) Y) Z)

The major difference between an estuary and a lagoon is that _______. lagoons are primarily tropical estuaries are significantly more productive lagoons do not receive appreciable freshwater input estuaries have sills separating them from the ocean

855. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The biomass of the benthos in estuaries is typically large due to _______. warm temperatures abundant food strong currents abundant rainfall large amounts of oxygen

856. If longshore currents form a spit across an embayment, it may produce a ________ estuary. W) erosional X) tectonic Y) glacial Z) bar-built E) rip current

857. Estuaries that are formed when folding and faulting create basins that fill with water are ________ estuaries. W) erosional X) tectonic Y) depositional Z) volcanic E) bar-built

858. The character of circulation in an estuary is determined by the relative effects of river input and ________. W) average annual rainfall X) influx of groundwater Y) transpiration Z) respiration E) tidal mixing

859. W) X) Y)

If an estuary is a river-dominated system, its water column is ________. highly stratified unstratified weakly stratified

860. W) X) Y)

If an estuary is a tide-dominated system, its water column is ________. highly stratified unstratified weakly stratified

861. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The majority of sediment going into salt-wedge estuaries comes from _______. longshore current tidal currents rip currents river transport from inland sources upwelling

862. A series of submerged, irregularly-shaped sand bars that are navigational hazards in salt-wedge estuaries are called _______. W) tombolos X) spits Y) shoals Z) stacks E) inselbergs

863. Internal waves are created on the surface of the halocline of a salt-wedge estuary by _______. W) seismic activity X) shearing of the surface river flow Y) tidal flow Z) tidal bores

864. Because of the strong bottom flow from offshore, a partially mixed estuary receives a substantial amount of sand and mud from _______. W) land runoff X) river flow Y) the inner continental shelf Z) the continental slope

865. Many of the mud particles that are concentrated near the halocline in partially mixed estuaries are ingested by _______. W) carnivorous fish larvae X) herbivores Y) plants Z) filter-feeders E) planktonic herbivores

866. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Clay particles stick together to form aggregates by the process of _______. carbonation oxidation lthification flocculation metamorphism

867. W) X) Y)

The halocline is obliterated in _________ estuaries. salt-wedge partially mixed well-mixed

868. The strong currents associated with a well-mixed estuary import large amounts of fineand coarse-grained sediment from _______.

W) X) Y) Z)

rivers streams land offshore

869. During the summer the bottom water of Chesapeake Bay has very low levels of dissolved oxygen. This condition is termed _______. W) hypothermia X) supersaturation Y) anoxia Z) hypoxia E) oxidation

870. W) X) Y) Z) E)

If water contains no dissolved oxygen, the condition is referred to as _______. hypothermia supersalination anoxia hypoxia oxidation

871. W) X) Y) Z)

Low oxygen levels in the bottom waters of Chesapeake Bay are the result of _______. advection of low oxygen water from outside the bay bacterial breakdown of plant material bacterial breakdown of dead fish and shellfish lack of mixing with oxygenated surface waters.

872. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Marsh grasses are typically rooted in _______. sand gravel shell materials directly onto the bedrock mud

873. Salt marshes are subdivided into two principal zones based on _______. W) low tide mark and dry land X) zonation pattern of grasses

Y) animal life in the marsh Z) runoff from the land E) wave action

874. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Salt marshes are separated into two zones by a line marking _______. neap high tide spring high tide spring low tide neap low tide mean low tide

875. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The low salt marsh often has extensive growths of ___________. salt hay grass saltwort grass cordgrass spike grass leather grass

876. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Spartina does not grow in the high marsh because _______. there is insufficient exposure to salt water in the high marsh it can not overcome competition from high marsh plants the high marsh is exposed too often to the air there are insufficient nutrients in the high marsh temperatures are too high in the high marsh

877. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The high marsh extends inland to the level of _______. the highest neap tide the lowest spring tide the highest mean tide the highest spring tide mean high tide

878. Buried, root-like stems that send out roots and grass shoots are called _______. W) rhizomes X) bladders

Y) seed roots Z) pips E) tests

879. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following would be found in the high marsh? smooth cordgrass turtle grass saltwort grass surf grass eel grass

880. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Uca pugnax is commonly known as the _______. raccoon mussel apple snail fiddler crab sand crab

881. Annual primary production rates of Spartina alterniflora in salt marshes can reach as high as _______ grams of organic matter per square meter. W) 250 X) 750 Y) 1,500 Z) 2,500 E) 4,000

882. W) X) Y)

How much of the plant growth of the salt marsh is grazed by animals? most of it little of it almost none of it

883. W) X) Y) Z)

An organic soil composed of partially decomposed vegetation is called _______. caliche laterite clay silt

E) peat

884. Energy flow through the food chains in mangrove swamps is dominated by __________ . W) herbivores X) carnivores Y) detritus feeders Z) bacteria and fungi E) omnivores

885. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Leaf fall in mangrove swamps occurs _______. throughout the year only in local fall only in local winter only in local spring only rarely

886. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The bulk of a coral reef is composed of _______. aragonite calcium carbonate granite living organisms montmorillonite

887. W) X) Y) Z) E)

In rock form, the calcium carbonate of coral reefs is called _______. shale limestone sandstone slate siltstone

888. W) X) Y) Z)

The coral animal is called a/an _______. amoeba elver polyp anemone

E) corallite

889. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The calcium carbonate exoskeleton of a coral animal is called a _______. test theca hypotheca corallite sheath

890. The bottom of the coral exoskeleton is divided into compartments by vertical partitions called _______. W) septa X) meridians Y) boards Z) hermatites E) shells

891. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The algae living in the tissues of coral animals are called _______. Chrysophytes Zooxanthellae Cyanophytes Rhodophytes Thallassia

892. The most accurate term for the relationship between zooxanthellae and coral is _______. W) parasitism X) symbiosis Y) mutualism Z) commensalism E) herbivory

893. W) X) Y)

Aside from the zooxanthellae, the other plants around reefs are _______. benthic algae mangrove trees thick patches of turtle grass

Z) dense kelp forests

894. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The food pyramid of a coral reef consists of ________ tiers. two three four five six

895. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Corals that can live in the deep ocean are called _______. benthic hermatypic aberrant ahermatypic abyssal

896. Which type of coral forms reefs? W) hermatypic X) ahermatypic

897. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Corals live best in water with salinity of about ________ 0/000. 15 20 25 30 35

898. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Reef coral growth is normally restricted to water depths of less than ________ m. 10 15 20 25 30

899. Coral reefs can grow at temperatures as low as ______ C.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

0 5 10 18 12

900. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Coral reefs typically require water temperatures of at least _____ C for optimal growth. 15 5 10 35 20

901. W) X) Y) Z) E)

An average female manatee will produce about _______ calves in her lifetime. 2 7 20 25 4

902. W) X) Y) Z) E)

On the windward side of a reef the waves are absorbed by _______. mangrove buffer zones an algal ridge the reef face the reef terrace the buttress zone

903. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Swell is disrupted by the _______. mangrove buffer zone algal ridge reef face buttress zone reef terrace

904. Which of the following extends downward from the buttress zone?

W) X) Y) Z) E)

reef face algal ridge reef terrace wave-cut terrace wave-built terrace

905. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Reef corals that may grow in the lagoon between the reef and the shore are _______. patch reefs coral pockets passes hammocks outriggers

906. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Brain coral is well adapted to live on the ___________ section of a reef. algal ridge buttress zone reef terrace patch reef lagoon

907. Reefs which form limestone shorelines around islands and the tropical areas of continents are called _______. W) barrier reefs X) fringing reefs Y) atolls Z) reef flats

908. W) X) Y) Z)

Reefs that are separated from the mainland by a lagoon are called _______. barrier reefs fringing reefs atolls reef flats

909. Circular reefs surrounding a central lagoon are called _______. W) barrier reefs X) fringing reefs

Y) atolls Z) reef flats

910. W) X) Y) Z)

Which of the following initially formed around a volcanic island? barrier reefs fringing reefs atolls reef flats

911. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The dominant phytoplankton in shelf waters are _______. silicoflagellates dinoflagellates coccolithophores diatoms both B and D

912. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The zooplankton of shelf waters are dominated by _______. globigerina copepods radiolarians foraminifera fusulinids

913. W) X) Y)

Plankton tend to be distributed _________ in their three-dimensional world. uniformly randomly in discrete patches

914. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Fish swim in groups called _______. pods clusters schools communities gaggles

915. W) X) Y) Z)

In a group of fish swimming together, each member is _______. a different size the same size smaller than the one in front of it larger than the one in front of it

916. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The greatest advantage fish gain by traveling in schools is _______. they can search for food more efficiently they gain protection from predators the utilize less energy individually the do not have to search far to find a mate collectively, they can capture larger food items

917. Elongated, narrow patches of plankton floating at the surface are probably due to _______. W) the Coriolis effect X) schooling habits Y) Langmuir circulation Z) converging longshore currents E) upwelling

918. W) X) Y) Z)

The highest energy benthic environments in the continental shelves are found _______. near the shelf break adjacent to deep canyons in shallower water near shore in areas affected by river runoff

919. High-energy benthic environments on continental shelves tend to be characterized by _______. W) extensive mud flats X) sand and gravel Y) large boulders Z) diverse infaunal communities

920. The bottom energy on continental shelves is a function of wave energy and _______. W) turbidity currents

X) Y) Z) E)

longshore currents Langmuir currents density currents tidal currents

921. Low-energy benthic environments on continental shelves tend to be characterized by _______. W) extensive deposits of mud and silt X) extensive deposits of sand and gravel Y) exposed areas of rock Z) diverse communities of filter feeders

922. Which of the following would you expect to find living on a bare rock bottom with strong currents? W) anemones X) corals Y) oysters Z) mussels E) all of the above

923. W) X) Y) Z)

Gravel and coarse-sand bottoms are populated dominantly by _______. filter feeders detritus and deposit feeders carnivores herbivores

924. Seaweeds tend to grow extensively in _______. W) hard-bottom communities X) soft-bottom communities

925. W) X) Y)

The Macoma community typically dwells in _______. mud sand hard-bottom

926. W) X) Y)

The Venus community typically dwells in _______. hard-bottom mud sand

927. The population of plants and animals in the open ocean and on its bottom is sparse due to _______. W) lack of nutrients X) strong currents Y) low temperatures Z) high wave intensity E) storms and low pressures

928. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The only seaweed in the open ocean of the North Atlantic Ocean is _______. kelp sargassum gulfweed turtle grass eel grass surf grass

929. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The most abundant animals in open ocean waters are _______. dinoflagellates foraminifera radiolaria copepods both B and C

930. It has been estimated that whale feeding in the Bering Sea is responsible for the resuspension of _________ of sediment annually. W) 103 m3 X) 1010 m3 Y) 105 m3 Z) 108 m3 E) 106 m3

931. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Gray whales feed on _______. herring amphipods crabs clams plankton

932. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following would be found in the dysphotic zone? tuna prawns sargassum gulfweed kelp corals

933. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The light-generating organs of deep-sea organisms are called _______. Pneumatophores Nematocysts Cnidoblasts Photophores Luminaphores

934. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Creatures that create their own light are termed _______. photonic bioluminescent incandescent phosphatic irridescent

935. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Euphausiids preferentially feed on ________ while in surface waters. copepods crustaceans lantern fish diatoms foraminiferans

936. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Midwater fishes tend to feed on _______. each other detritus copepods ostracods benthic organisms

937. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The most abundant of the midwater fishes are the _______. lantern fishes gulpers cyclothones hatchet fish angler fish

938. The aphotic zone begins at a depth of about ________ m and is constantly dark and cold. W) 1,000 - 3,000 X) 100 - 300 Y) 500 - 1,000 Z) 6,000 - 10,000 E) 3,000 - 6,000

939. W) X) Y) Z)

Deep ocean communities tend to have _______. high diversity and high population numbers low diversity and high population numbers high diversity and low population numbers low diversity and low population numbers

940. W) X) Y) Z) E)

About 75 percent of the deep-sea fish species are _______. sharks rattails rays angler fishes flounders

941. Deep sea organisms tend to reproduce _______.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

in spring year round when food is abundant in summer when daylength is longest

942. W) X) Y) Z)

The high diversity of deep sea communities has been attributed to ______. the high variability of the environment the low variability of the environment the high number of available niches the high concentration of nutrients

943. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following is a trait of the abyssal depths of the ocean? perpetually dark very cold high hydrostatic pressures sparse food supply all of the above

944. The largest of the squid, members of the genus Architeuthis, reach total lengths of at least __________. W) 10 m X) 26 m Y) 18 m Z) 5 m E) 40 m

945. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following has lost the ability to fly? puffin penguin albatross petrel shearwater

946. Penguins huddle together _______. W) for protection from predators

X) Y) Z) E)

for camouflage against the snow for breeding to conserve body heat for feeding the young

947. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Squids belong to the class _______. Sargassum Histrio Cephalopoda Gastropoda Alterniflora

948. American jurisdiction over the resources of the continental shelf dates from about _______. W) 1885 X) 1918 Y) 1945 Z) 1954 E) 1978

949. For legal purposes, the continental shelf is defined as the submarine land that extends seaward to a water depth of no more than __________ fathoms. W) 100 X) 50 Y) 75 Z) 200 E) 150

950. W) X) Y) Z)

The exploitation of resources of the continental shelf is regulated by _______. the Truman Declaration the Geneva Convention the Law of the Sea Treaty the United Nations

951. The Law of the Sea treaty defines a coastal nation's territorial seas, over which it has direct jurisdiction, as extending seaward from its coastline for __________ nautical miles. W) 5 X) 12 Y) 15 Z) 20 E) 200

952. As recently as 1994, the United States had not adopted the Law of the Sea Treaty because _______. W) it had not yet been signed by the Government X) it was vetoed by the President Y) it had not yet been ratified by Congress Z) it had not yet been ratified by the Senate

953. The Exclusive Economic Zone of the United States covers approximately _________ million km2. W) 5 X) 7 Y) 10 Z) 15 E) 25

954. About ________ % of the world's oceans are under the control of Exclusive Economic Zones. W) 60 X) 15 Y) 75 Z) 35 E) 40

955. W) X) Y) Z)

The International Seabed Authority is a chartered agency of __________. the United States Government the United Nations the Global Drilling Project the World Bank

E) the International Development Agency

956. W) X) Y) Z)

Which of the following is NOT required for the production of petroleum? Organic material Heat Time Oxygen

957. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Petroleum deposits are formed over _________ of years. thousands tens of thousands hundreds of thousands millions tens of millions

958. W) X) Y) Z)

Methane is formed in underground deposits _______. at an early stage of petroleum formation after liquid oil has already formed in parallel with the production of liquid oil when petroleum development proceeds at low temperatures

959. The Mars oil field in the Gulf of Mexico has estimated oil reserves of _________ million barrels. W) 450 X) 700 Y) 1,200 Z) 1,650 E) 2,000

960. W) X) Y)

Oil and gas reservoirs in the Gulf of Mexico have been trapped by _______. thick layers of mud and sand igneous rock formations salt-created sea floor structures

961. The Mississippi river provides about __________ metric tons of sand and mud to the Gulf of Mexico every year. W) 50 x 106 X) 100 x 106 Y) 250 x 106 Z) 400 x 106 E) 550 x 106

962. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Sand and gravel dredged from the sea floor could be used for _______. improving highways replenishing beaches building construction creating wetlands all of the above

963. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Extremely rich deposits of ________ have been found in the oceans. cobalt and aluminum cobalt and manganese manganese and lead magnesium and cobalt magnesium and silver

964. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Manganese nodules can contain as much as _____ % manganese. 5 45 30 15 60

965. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Modern fishing fleets use _________ to find fish at sea. sonar scout boats aircraft satellite observations all of the above

966. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Drift nets are constructed of __________. light plastic monofilament light twine light rope heavy plastic monofilament light cotton cord

967. The 1989 Convention for the Prohibition of Long Driftnets urges all nations to ban the use of driftnets longer than _________ km. W) 15.0 X) 75.0 Y) 2.5 Z) 7.5 E) 25.0

968. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Data suggest that a limited commercial hunt for _______ whales might be sustainable. Blue Minke Humpback Right Sei

969. W) X) Y) Z)

Most American shrimp and lobster farms are located in _______. Texas, South Carolina and Hawaii Louisiana, North Carolina and California Hawaii, Georgia and Rhode Island California, Texas and Louisiana

970. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Antarctic krill are considered to be a __________ species. capstone foundation keystone lynchpin cornerstone

971. In many areas, the development of shrimp farms has been at the expense of _________. W) salt marshes X) tropical lagoons Y) coral reefs Z) coastal estuaries E) mangrove swamps

972. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The mariculture industry produces as much as ______ % of the fish eaten today. 25 15 35 5 42

973. When man introduces substances or energy into the marine environment in such quantities as to harm living resources, present hazards to human health, hinder marine activities, or impair the quality for use of sea-water, it is referred to as _______. W) bioremediation X) biomagnification Y) dredging Z) emulsification E) pollution

974. W) X) Y) Z) E)

In which of the following areas of the ocean does pollution tend to concentrate? on the sea floor in the pelagic zone at a pycnocline in the upper mixed layer both A and C

975. W) X) Y) Z)

The neuston layer is about _________ thick. 0.1-10 mm 10.0-20.0 mm 2-5 cm 25-50 cm

E) 50 - 100 cm

976. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Polluting materials are mixed into the sediment of the sea floor by _______. currents waves tides large fish burrowing benthic organisms

977. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Pollutants commonly are concentrated along pynoclines in _______. the open ocean the swash zone estuaries rivers coral reef areas

978. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The air-sea interface is called the _______. deep scattering layer diurnal migration layer thermocline neuston layer pynocline

979. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Petroleum is a complex mixture which consists primarily of _________. carbohydrates salts hydrocarbons bromides amines

980. W) X) Y) Z)

Whether crude oil is light or dense depends on _______. the coal content the size of the hydrocarbon molecules the number of the hydrocarbon molecules the number of hydrocarbon molecules

E) the amount of lead in the oil

981. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The process of separating crude oil into different components is termed _______. separation purification cascading distillation refraction

982. Which of the following is arranged in order according to the amount of petroleum they contribute to the oceans (from highest to lowest)? W) Rivers, tanker accidents, atmospheric fallout X) Rivers, seepage, offshore petroleum production Y) Tanker operations, tanker accidents, seepage Z) Seepage, offshore petroleum production, atmospheric fallout E) Atmospheric fallout, tanker accidents, coastal facilities

983. When the Torrey Canyon sank, an attempt was made to clean up the spill using _______. W) booms X) bioremediation Y) slick lickers Z) chemical dispersants E) high-pressure hoses

984. The process which drives off gas or vapor from liquids or solids by heating and condenses them to liquid products, and which is used for purification, fractionation, or the formation of new substances is called __________. W) emulsification X) sublimation Y) distillation Z) biomagnification E) bioremediation

985. Kerosene, diesel fuel, gasoline, and many other types of petroleum products are made from crude oil by _______.

W) X) Y) Z) E)

emulsification biomagnification bioaccumulation distillation bioremediation

986. W) X) Y) Z)

Most of the oil spillage at sea is due to _______. tanker accidents leaks when aircraft are being refueled above the ocean incompletely burned fuels and standard operational discharge broken oil pipes on offshore oil rigs

987. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following does NOT happen to oil spilled on the sea? emulsification evaporation distillation dissolution sedimentation

988. W) X) Y) Z) E)

As an oil spill ages, the surface oil eventually _______. evaporates is completely broken down by bacteria is converted into harmless chemicals becomes thick and sinks dissolves

989. W) X) Y) Z) E)

The process in which one liquid is suspended in another liquid is called _______. solution sublimation distillation emulsification fractionation

990. The heavier, insoluble hydrocarbon residues that are spilled into the ocean eventually emulsify and become balls of _______. W) kerosene

X) Y) Z) E)

mud tar gasoline plastic

991. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Oil compounds are toxic to which of the following? sargassum seals penguins sharks all of the above

992. W) X) Y)

Spillage at sea seems to be ________ damaging than/as spillage near shore. more less about as

993. The 1969 oil spill in Buzzard's Bay, Massachusetts reduced the average density of benthic organisms from 200 000/m2 to __________ /m2. W) 0 X) 100 Y) 1,000 Z) 50 E) 2

994. Chesapeake Bay was the site of a little over __________ oil spills in 1981. Fortunately, most of them were minor. W) 50 X) 800 Y) 500 Z) 175 E) 95

995. Which of the following areas is most susceptible to damage from spilled oil? W) the open ocean X) an estuary

Y) a small bay Z) a salt marsh E) the continental shelf

996. The groups cleaning up after the Exxon Valdez spill, having learned from the Torrey Canyon disaster, used __________ as the primary method of cleaning fouled beaches. W) high-pressure hoses X) oil booms Y) bioremediation Z) combustion E) dispersants

997. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Any disease-producing organism can be referred to as a _______. pathogen toxin poison bioaccumulation PCB

998. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Society discards an estimated 20 x ______ tons of waste each year. 106 104 1012 109 1,015

999. W) X) Y) Z) E)

A common means of disposing of pollutants is _______. dumping them from shifts stacking them in landfills storing them in sealed containers discharging them from underwater pipes in the oceans purifying them and spraying them on the land

1000. Water that is still and not flowing is termed _______. W) turbulent X) stagnant

Y) turbid Z) rampaging E) laminar

1001. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Municipal sewage consists of _______. organic chemicals inorganic chemicals human waste microbes all of the above

1002. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following are critical nutrients for plants? carbonates sulfates nitrates phosphates both C and D

1003. The process of decomposition reduces the level of dissolved ________ in the water column. W) Hydrogen X) Oxygen Y) Helium Z) Nitrogen E) Chlorine

1004. W) X) Y) Z)

BOD stands for _______. biological organic deposits biological oxygen deposits biological oxygen demand blooms of diatoms

1005. W) X) Y)

Water that is hypoxic has ________ oxygen. excessive no little

Z) exactly enough

1006. W) X) Y) Z)

Water that is anoxic has ________ oxygen. excessive no little exactly enough

1007. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Eutrophication is usually due to excessive _______. oxygen hydrogen nutrients organisms heat

1008. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Heavy metal pollutants include _______. lead magnesium mercury tin A and C

1009. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Most of the metals that occur naturally in seawater were supplied by _______. heavy industry mining sewage rivers solution from the ocean floor

1010. W) X) Y) Z) E)

CH3Hg + is named _______. ethyl chloride bleach methyl mercury mercuric oxide Chlorox

1011. The concentration of a pollutant in the body of an organism can increase over time, in a process termed _______. W) biotic concentration X) physiological loading Y) bioaccumulation Z) biomagnification E) trophic enhancement

1012. The process by which a pollutant becomes more concentrated at higher steps in the food web is called _______. W) biotic concentration X) physiological loading Y) bioaccumulation Z) biomagnification E) trophic enhancement

1013. Neurological dysfunctions and kidney malfunctions may occur in humans who eat fish and shellfish tainted with _______. W) phosphate X) nitrate Y) lead Z) mercury E) carbonates

1014. W) X) Y) Z) E)

DDT and PCB's are both members of a group called _______. Organohydrides Organochlorines Organomercurates Inert gasses Chlorinated ethylamines

1015. W) X) Y) Z)

Dichloro-diphenyl-trichloro-ethane is better known as _______. PCB STP DDT Chlorox

E) Mercuric chloride

1016. W) X) Y) Z) E)

DDT has been detected in _______. the runoff from agricultural lands ice in Antarctica deep sea muds all of the above none of the above

1017. DDT and PCB's ________ readily degraded by bacteria or by chemical reaction. W) are X) are not

1018. W) X) Y)

The world production of DDT has ________ since it was banned in the West. increased decreased not changed

1019. W) X) Y) Z) E)

PCB's are NOT used in the manufacturing of _______. paint electrical equipment adhesives insecticides plastics

1020. Fishing for bluefish, eels, and striped bass has been prohibited in the New York Bight area because of ________ contamination. W) DDT X) sewage Y) PCB Z) mercury E) pesticide

1021. The world has roughly ________ km of shoreline. W) 45,000

X) 4,500 Y) 450,000 Z) 4,500,000

1022. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Quahogs are types of _______. water pigs fish eels clams snails

1023. What oil tanker broke up off the coast of Great Britain in 1967 after running aground on a Rock reef? W) Exxon Valdez X) Torrey Canyon Y) Shell Voyager Z) Aarco Princess E) Glomar Challenger

1024. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Using microorganisms to degrade contaminants is termed _______. biomagnification bioaccumulation bioremediation eutrophication aquaculture

1025. The oil tanker which ran aground and broke up on a rock reef off the coast of Alaska in 1989 was the _______. W) Exxon Valdez X) Torrey Canyon Y) Shell Voyager Z) Aarco Princess E) Glomar Challenger

1026. The main problem associated with the dredging and dumping of sand and gravel is _______.

W) X) Y) Z)

smothering of organisms at the dump site toxic effects of contaminants in the dredge spoils advection of dredge spoils to sites outside of the dumping area increased turbidity in the water column due to the presence of particulate matter

1027. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Manganese nodules are also important sources of _______. copper and nickel magnesium and iron cobalt and iridium iron and copper tin and cobalt

1028. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Which of the following is/are NOT used in calculating maximum sustainable yield? food web information water temperatures spawning success current pattern B and D

1029. The reproductive success of yellowtail flounder off New England is affected by _______. W) nutrient levels in the water X) winter temperatures Y) summer temperatures Z) predation on eggs E) the timing of the spring phytoplankton peak

1030. Some people estimate that the amount of fish discarded due to their small size or inferior quality is as high as __________ of the reported global annual harvest of fish. W) 33% X) 15% Y) 40% Z) 27% E) 12%

1031. Some scientists are proposing a new model for fishery management. This new model, based on the __________, advocates restraints on fishing practices that inadvertently reduce fish stocks for future generations. W) maximum sustainable yield X) minimum harvest principle Y) economic-ecological model Z) precautionary principle E) single-species stock assessment

1032. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the modern atmosphere are attributed to _______. the burning of fossil fuels and deforestation the respiration of increased populations of animals release of carbon dioxide from the oceans to the atmosphere a shift in the pH of the oceans reductions in plant populations due to nutrient depletion

1033. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have increased by about _________ since 1850. 75% 30% 45% 60% 15 %

1034. W) X) Y) Z) E)

Global warming will lead to a rise in mean sea level via _______. thermal expansion of water increased precipitation melting of polar ice increased and larger storms A and C

1035. There is a 10% chance that during the next century mean sea level will rise by about ________ cm. W) 15 cm X) 100 cm Y) 150 cm Z) 65 cm E) 46 cm

Answer Key

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38.

(No Wnswer ProviZeZ) X Z Z E Y Z W Y Z W Z Y W E Y X Y X Z Y E W E Y E Z Y W X X Y W Y X W Y E

39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78.

X X Y W E X W E E E Z Z Y Y W X Z W Y Z Y E X Y W X W Z W X Y Z X E Y W Z Y X W

79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118.

Y Y Z X Y Y Z X W W X Y Z E Y X E Y Y W X Z E X Y Z W Y X W X W X E W Z W Y X E

119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158.

X Y X E X Y E Z E E Y Y X Y W W W Y Y Z X Z E X X W Z Y Y Z W Z W Z X X E X W Z

159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198.

X Y E Y E E Z W X Y Z X X W E Z W X W X Y Y Z X W E Y W Y E W Y X Y X Z X Z Z Y

199. 200. 201. 202. 203. 204. 205. 206. 207. 208. 209. 210. 211. 212. 213. 214. 215. 216. 217. 218. 219. 220. 221. 222. 223. 224. 225. 226. 227. 228. 229. 230. 231. 232. 233. 234. 235. 236. 237. 238.

X Y X Z Z W X W Z Z W W W Z Y X W Z E X Y E W Y W E Y Z X Y E Z Y Z E X X Z E W

239. 240. 241. 242. 243. 244. 245. 246. 247. 248. 249. 250. 251. 252. 253. 254. 255. 256. 257. 258. 259. 260. 261. 262. 263. 264. 265. 266. 267. 268. 269. 270. 271. 272. 273. 274. 275. 276. 277. 278.

X Z X Y E Y E Y X Z E Z W Y Z W Z Y X Z X Y Z Z W Z W X E Y X W X Y X Z Z X X W

279. 280. 281. 282. 283. 284. 285. 286. 287. 288. 289. 290. 291. 292. 293. 294. 295. 296. 297. 298. 299. 300. 301. 302. 303. 304. 305. 306. 307. 308. 309. 310. 311. 312. 313. 314. 315. 316. 317. 318.

W Z Z E X X X X W Y Y X Y Z E Y W Y Z Y Z Y E Z X X Y Z W Y Z W Y Z Z W Z Z Y X

319. 320. 321. 322. 323. 324. 325. 326. 327. 328. 329. 330. 331. 332. 333. 334. 335. 336. 337. 338. 339. 340. 341. 342. 343. 344. 345. 346. 347. 348. 349. 350. 351. 352. 353. 354. 355. 356. 357. 358.

E W Y E X Z W Y W W X X Y Z W Y Z Z Z X Y Z Y W X Z Z Z W X Y Y Y W Z X Z W Y W

359. 360. 361. 362. 363. 364. 365. 366. 367. 368. 369. 370. 371. 372. 373. 374. 375. 376. 377. 378. 379. 380. 381. 382. 383. 384. 385. 386. 387. 388. 389. 390. 391. 392. 393. 394. 395. 396. 397. 398.

Y W E X Z X Z Y X Z Y W W Y W Z X Y X W W W Y W X Z Y Z W X X E Y Z X Y Y X Y W

399. 400. 401. 402. 403. 404. 405. 406. 407. 408. 409. 410. 411. 412. 413. 414. 415. 416. 417. 418. 419. 420. 421. 422. 423. 424. 425. 426. 427. 428. 429. 430. 431. 432. 433. 434. 435. 436. 437. 438.

X Y W Z E W Y Z E X Y E Z Z W X Y Z Y Y X W X E E W X Y Z X W E W X Y Z Y E Z X

439. 440. 441. 442. 443. 444. 445. 446. 447. 448. 449. 450. 451. 452. 453. 454. 455. 456. 457. 458. 459. 460. 461. 462. 463. 464. 465. 466. 467. 468. 469. 470. 471. 472. 473. 474. 475. 476. 477. 478.

Z X X W Y X Z X Z X W Y W Y Z E Y Z W X E Y Z X Y Y Z W X X W Y X Y E X W Z X Y

479. 480. 481. 482. 483. 484. 485. 486. 487. 488. 489. 490. 491. 492. 493. 494. 495. 496. 497. 498. 499. 500. 501. 502. 503. 504. 505. 506. 507. 508. 509. 510. 511. 512. 513. 514. 515. 516. 517. 518.

Z W W X W Y E X E X W Z Z Z W X Y X W Y Z X Y W X X W Y Z X Y Z Y W W Y W X X Z

519. 520. 521. 522. 523. 524. 525. 526. 527. 528. 529. 530. 531. 532. 533. 534. 535. 536. 537. 538. 539. 540. 541. 542. 543. 544. 545. 546. 547. 548. 549. 550. 551. 552. 553. 554. 555. 556. 557. 558.

W W Y X E X E X Y W X X Y W Z W Z W X Y W X X X E Y Y Z Z Z W W X X W Y Y X Y W

559. 560. 561. 562. 563. 564. 565. 566. 567. 568. 569. 570. 571. 572. 573. 574. 575. 576. 577. 578. 579. 580. 581. 582. 583. 584. 585. 586. 587. 588. 589. 590. 591. 592. 593. 594. 595. 596. 597. 598.

Y E Y Y Z W Y Z W Z Y X Y X Y W Y Y W X Z E Y X Z W E Y X Y E Z X Y Z W E X Z Y

599. 600. 601. 602. 603. 604. 605. 606. 607. 608. 609. 610. 611. 612. 613. 614. 615. 616. 617. 618. 619. 620. 621. 622. 623. 624. 625. 626. 627. 628. 629. 630. 631. 632. 633. 634. 635. 636. 637. 638.

W Z E X Z Y Y W Y W X Z E W X Y X X Z Z E W Y X W Z Y X W X E X X Y X Y W Y W Y

639. 640. 641. 642. 643. 644. 645. 646. 647. 648. 649. 650. 651. 652. 653. 654. 655. 656. 657. 658. 659. 660. 661. 662. 663. 664. 665. 666. 667. 668. 669. 670. 671. 672. 673. 674. 675. 676. 677. 678.

E E W E Y Y X Z W Y W Z Y Z E W X Z Y W Y Z X X W W X W Y Z Z Y X Z Y W X Z Z X

679. 680. 681. 682. 683. 684. 685. 686. 687. 688. 689. 690. 691. 692. 693. 694. 695. 696. 697. 698. 699. 700. 701. 702. 703. 704. 705. 706. 707. 708. 709. 710. 711. 712. 713. 714. 715. 716. 717. 718.

Y Y Y Y Z Y W X Y Z X E Y X Y Z W Y Z W X Z W X Y Z E X E W Z W X W Y X E Z E E

719. 720. 721. 722. 723. 724. 725. 726. 727. 728. 729. 730. 731. 732. 733. 734. 735. 736. 737. 738. 739. 740. 741. 742. 743. 744. 745. 746. 747. 748. 749. 750. 751. 752. 753. 754. 755. 756. 757. 758.

Y Z Z X Y E Y W E X Z Y Z X X Y E X Z X Y Y W Y W Z X Y Z X W X Z Z X W Y Y Z Y

759. 760. 761. 762. 763. 764. 765. 766. 767. 768. 769. 770. 771. 772. 773. 774. 775. 776. 777. 778. 779. 780. 781. 782. 783. 784. 785. 786. 787. 788. 789. 790. 791. 792. 793. 794. 795. 796. 797. 798.

Z E Y E X Z X Y Z Y Z X Z Y W X Z Z W Y Z W E Z W Z W W Z E E W E Y X Z E X E Y

799. 800. 801. 802. 803. 804. 805. 806. 807. 808. 809. 810. 811. 812. 813. 814. 815. 816. 817. 818. 819. 820. 821. 822. 823. 824. 825. 826. 827. 828. 829. 830. 831. 832. 833. 834. 835. 836. 837. 838.

Z W Y W E X Y E W Y Y X Y W Y W Z E W X Y W X Z Z Y Y E Y X W E Z W Z Y Y W Y W

839. 840. 841. 842. 843. 844. 845. 846. 847. 848. 849. 850. 851. 852. 853. 854. 855. 856. 857. 858. 859. 860. 861. 862. 863. 864. 865. 866. 867. 868. 869. 870. 871. 872. 873. 874. 875. 876. 877. 878.

E Y E W Y E X W Z Z Y Y E E X Y X Z X E W X Z Y X Y Z Z Y Z Z Y X E X W Y X Z W

879. 880. 881. 882. 883. 884. 885. 886. 887. 888. 889. 890. 891. 892. 893. 894. 895. 896. 897. 898. 899. 900. 901. 902. 903. 904. 905. 906. 907. 908. 909. 910. 911. 912. 913. 914. 915. 916. 917. 918.

Y Z Z Y E Y W X X Y Z W X Y W Y Z W E E Z E X X Z W W X X W Y Y E X Y Y X X Y Y

919. 920. 921. 922. 923. 924. 925. 926. 927. 928. 929. 930. 931. 932. 933. 934. 935. 936. 937. 938. 939. 940. 941. 942. 943. 944. 945. 946. 947. 948. 949. 950. 951. 952. 953. 954. 955. 956. 957. 958.

X E W E W W W Y W X E Z X X Z X Z W Y Y Y Z X X E Y X Z Y Z W Y X Z Y E X Z E X

959. 960. 961. 962. 963. 964. 965. 966. 967. 968. 969. 970. 971. 972. 973. 974. 975. 976. 977. 978. 979. 980. 981. 982. 983. 984. 985. 986. 987. 988. 989. 990. 991. 992. 993. 994. 995. 996. 997. 998.

X Y Z E X Y E W Y X W Y E W E E W E Y Z Y X Z X Z Y Z Y Y Z Z Y E X E X Z W W Z

999. 1000. 1001. 1002. 1003. 1004. 1005. 1006. 1007. 1008. 1009. 1010. 1011. 1012. 1013. 1014. 1015. 1016. 1017. 1018. 1019. 1020. 1021. 1022. 1023. 1024. 1025. 1026. 1027. 1028. 1029. 1030. 1031. 1032. 1033. 1034. 1035.

Z X E E X Y Y X Y E Z Y Y Z Z X Y Z X W Z Y Y Z X Y W X W E X W Z W Y E Z