IBA – IT NATIONAL TALENT

HUNT PROGRAM

BATCH 2022
IBA PAST TEST
PAPERS

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 CONTENT:

BOOKLET SEQUENCE WEBSITE SEQUENCE* PAGE #

1. Course Outlines (BBA, BS(CS/EM)……………………………………………………….1-8
2. SAMPLE TEST PAPERS – I…………………Paper-I(BBA)………………….………… 9-25
3. SAMPLE TEST PAPER –II………………….Paper-II(BBA/BS(CS).……..………….26-53
4. SAMPLE TEST PAPER –III…………………Paper-III(BBA/BS(CS)..……………….54-79
5. SAMPLE TEST PAPER –IV…………………Paper-IV(BBA)………..………………….80-94
6. SAMPLE TEST PAPER –V………………….Paper-V(BBA/BS(CS)..………………..95-125
7. SAMPLE TEST PAPER –VI…………………Paper-VI(BBA/BS(AF)/BS(SSLA)…126-140
8. SAMPLE TEST PAPER –VII……………….Paper-VII (BBA/BS(AF)/BS(SSLA)..141-163
9. SAMPLE TEST PAPER –VIII………………Paper-X (BBA/BS(AF)/BS(SSLA)….164-184
10. SAMPLE TEST PAPER –IX…………………Paper-XI(BBA/BS(AF)/BS(SSLA)…185-206
11. SAMPLE TEST PAPER –X………………….Paper-XII(BBA/BS(AF)..…………….207-226
12. SAMPLE TEST PAPER –XI…………………Paper-XIII (BS(CS/EM)….............227-246
13. SAMPLE TEST PAPER –XII…………………Paper-XIV (BS(CS/EM)……………..247-264
14. WRITING SECTION…………………………………………………………………………….265-269
15. SAMPLE TEST PAPER –XIII……………….Paper- 2018………………………………270-288

* Website Sequence: http://www.iba.edu.pk/past_entry_test_papers.php

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 Introduction

The career world is competitive. The competition and the opportunities in the
career world become a serious problem for students if they do not do well in
Mathematics, because then they are excluding themselves from the many career
paths that need Mathematics. We therefore expect that all our selected students
must have achieved a high level of excellence in a fundamental discipline like
Mathematics. This is highly desirable if they think they may go into any of the
Physical, Social, Health Sciences, Business, Medicine, or related areas.

Experience has shown that students who come to IBA with a poor grade in Math
(or who choose to skip Math in schools / colleges) have a difficult time progressing
at IBA. So we strongly recommend that the standard of our Mathematical portion
of the IBA ENTRY test should be raised significantly. This is in the student's best
interest.

The Aims & Objectives of the Mathematical Portion of the IBA Entry
Test

The objectives of testing Mathematics in the IBA Entry Test for Undergrad
students are as follows:
I. To check if the students have acquired the understanding of concepts of
Mathematics and are able to apply them to the problems of the world they
live in.
II. To check if a student has a sound basis in Mathematics, which is required
to apply it in business fields.
III. To check if a student is enable to reason consistently, to draw correct
conclusions for a given hypotheses; and to inculcate in them a habit of
examining any situation critically and analytically.
IV. To check if a student is enabling to communicate their thoughts through
symbolic expressions and graphs.
V. To check whether or not he/she has developed sense of distinction between
relevant and irrelevant data.
VI. To check the students’ basic understanding and awareness of the power of
Mathematics in generalization and abstraction.
VII. To check if a student has fostered the spirit of exploration and discovery.

To achieve these aims and objectives we should be examining our students in the
following areas of Mathematics:

1. Number
candidates should be able to:
use natural numbers, integers (positive, negative and zero), prime
numbers, common factors and common multiples, rational and
irrational numbers, real numbers; continue given number sequences,
recognise patterns within and across different sequences and generalise
to simple algebraic statements (including expressions for the nth term)
relating to such sequences.
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 2. Set language and notation
use set language and set notation, and Venn diagrams, to describe sets and
represent relationships between sets.

3. Function notation
use function notation,
e.g. f(x) = 7x − 9, to describe simple functions, and the notation
−1
f (x) = (x + 9) / 7 to describe their inverses.

4. Squares
square roots, cubes and cube roots calculate squares, square roots, cubes and
cube roots of numbers.

5. Decimal fractions and percentages

use the language and notation of decimal fractions and percentages in
appropriate contexts; recognise equivalence and convert between these forms.

6. Ordering
order quantities by magnitude and demonstrate familiarity with the symbols
=, ≠, >, <,  ,  .

7. The four operations

use the four operations for calculations with whole numbers, decimal
fractions including correct ordering of operations and use of brackets.

8. Estimation
make estimates of numbers, quantities and lengths, give approximations to
specified numbers of significant figures and decimal places and round off
answers to reasonable accuracy in the context of a given problem.

9. Limits of accuracy
obtain appropriate upper and lower bounds to solutions of simple problems
(e.g. the calculation of the perimeter or the area of a rectangle), provided the
appropriate upper and lower bounds for data has been given to a specified
accuracy (e.g. measured lengths).

10. Ratio, proportion, rate

an understanding of the elementary ideas and notation of ratio, direct and
inverse proportion and common measures of rate; divide a quantity in a given
ratio; use scales in practical situations, calculate average speed; −express
direct and inverse variation in algebraic terms and use this form of expression
to find unknown quantities.

11. Percentages
calculate a given percentage of a quantity; express one quantity as a
percentage of another, calculate percentage increase or decrease; carry out
calculations involving reverse percentages, e.g. finding the cost price given
the selling price and the percentage profit.

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 12. Exponential and Logarithmic Functions
definition of Exponential and Logarithmic Functions, and their elementary
characteristics.

13. Measures
use current units of mass, length, area, volume and capacity in practical
situations and express quantities in terms of larger or smaller units..

14. Money
solve problems involving money and convert from one currency to another.

15. Personal and household finance

use given data to solve problems on personal and household finance involving
earnings, simple interest, discount, profit and loss; extract data from tables
and harts.

16. Graphs in practical situations

demonstrate familiarity with cartesian coordinates in two dimensions; interpret
and use graphs in practical situations, draw graphs from given data.

17. Graphs of functions

n
construct tables of values and draw graphs for functions of the form y = ax
where n = −1, 0, 1, 2, and simple sums of not more than three of these and for
x
functions of the form y = ka where a is a positive integer; interpret graphs of
linear, quadratic, reciprocal and exponential functions; solve equations
approximately by graphical methods.

18. Straight line graphs

calculate the gradient of a straight line from the coordinates of two points on
it; interpret and obtain the equation of a straight line graph in the form y = mx
+ c; calculate the length and the coordinates of the midpoint of a line segment
from the coordinates of its end points.

19. Algebraic representation and formulae

use letters to express generalised numbers and express basic arithmetic
processes algebraically, substitute numbers for words and letters in formulae;
transform simple and more complicated formulae; construct equations from
given situations.

20. Algebraic manipulation

manipulate directed numbers; use brackets and extract common factors;
expand products of algebraic expressions; factorise expressions of the form
2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 2
ax + ay; ax + bx + kay + kby; a x − b y ; a – b ; a ± b ; ax + bx + c, by
splitting the middle term.

21. Indices/ Exponents

handling positive, fractional, negative and “zero” indices.

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 22. Solutions of equations and inequalities
solve simple linear equations in one unknown; solve fractional equations with
numerical and linear algebraic denominators; solve simultaneous linear
equations in two unknowns; solve quadratic equations by factorisation and
either by use of the formula or by completing the square; solve simple linear
inequalities.

23. Graphical representation of inequalities

represent linear inequalities in one or two variables graphically.

24. Geometrical terms and relationships

use and interpret the geometrical terms: point, line, plane, parallel,
perpendicular, right angle, acute, obtuse and reflex angles, interior and
exterior angles, regular and irregular polygons, pentagons, hexagons,
octagons, decagons.

use and interpret vocabulary of triangles, circles, special quadrilaterals.

solve problems and give simple explanations involving similarity and

congruence.

use and interpret vocabulary of simple solid figures: cube, cuboid, prism,
cylinder, pyramid, cone, sphere.

use the relationships between areas of similar triangles, with corresponding

results for similar figures, and extension to volumes of similar solids.

25. Geometrical constructions

measure lines and angles; construct simple geometrical figures from given
data, angle bisectors and perpendicular bisectors.

26. Symmetry
recognise line and rotational symmetry (including order of rotational
symmetry) in two dimensions, and properties of triangles, quadrilaterals and
circles directly related to their symmetries;

use the following symmetry properties of circles:

(a) equal chords are equidistant from the centre;
(b) the perpendicular bisector of a chord passes through the centre;
(c) tangents from an external point are equal in length.

27. Angle
calculate unknown angles and give simple explanations using the following
geometrical properties:
(a) angles on a straight line;
(b) angles at a point;
(c) vertically opposite angles;
(d) angles formed by parallel lines;
(e) angle properties of triangles and quadrilaterals;
(f) angle properties of polygons including angle sum;
(g) angle in a semi-circle;

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 (h) angle between tangent and radius of a circle;
(i) angle at the centre of a circle is twice the angle at the ircumference;
(j) angles in the same segment are equal;
(k) angles in opposite segments are supplementary.

28. Locus
use the following loci and the method of intersecting loci:
(a) sets of points in two dimensions
(i) which are at a given distance from a given point,
(ii) which are at a given distance from a given straight line,
(iii) which are equidistant from two given points;
(b) sets of points in two dimensions which are equidistant from two
given intersecting straight lines.

29. Mensuration
solve problems involving
(a) the perimeter and area of a rectangle and triangle,
(b) the circumference and area of a circle,
(c) the area of a parallelogram and a trapezium,
(d) the surface area and volume of a cuboid, cylinder, prism, sphere,
pyramid and cone,
(e) arc length and sector area as fractions of the circumference and
area of a circle.

30. Trigonometry
apply Pythagoras Theorem and the sine, cosine and tangent ratios for acute
angles to the calculation of a side or of an angle of a right-angled triangle
(angles will be quoted in, and answers required in, degrees and decimals of a
degree to one decimal place);

solve trigonometrical problems in two dimensions including those involving

angles of elevation and depression and bearings;

extend sine and cosine functions to angles between 90° and 180°; solve
problems using the sine and cosine rules for any triangle and the formula
1/2 ab sin C for the area of a triangle;

31. Statistics
collect, classify and tabulate statistical data; read, interpret and draw simple
inferences from tables and statistical diagrams;

construct and use bar charts, pie charts, pictograms, simple frequency
distributions and frequency polygons;

use frequency density to construct and read histograms with equal and
unequal intervals;

calculate the mean, median and mode for individual data and distinguish
between the purposes for which they are used;

construct and use cumulative frequency diagrams; estimate the median,

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 percentiles, quartiles and interquartile range;

calculate the mean for grouped data; identify the modal class from a grouped
frequency distribution.

32. Probability
calculate the probability of a single event as either a fraction or a decimal (not
a ratio);

calculate the probability of simple combined events using possibility

diagrams and tree diagrams where appropriate. (In possibility diagrams
outcomes will be represented by points on a grid and in tree diagrams
outcomes will be written at the end of branches and probabilities by the side
of the branches.)
33. Matrices
display information in the form of a matrix of any order; solve problems
involving the calculation of the sum and product (where appropriate) of two
matrices, and interpret the results; calculate the product of a scalar quantity
and a matrix; use the algebra of 2 x 2 matrices including the zero and identity
2 x 2 matrices; calculate the determinant and inverse of a non-singular matrix.

34. Vectors in two dimensions

 x
describe a translation by using a vector represented by   , a or a; add
 y
vectors and multiply a vector by a scalar; calculate the magnitude of a vector
(Vectors will be printed as a or a and their magnitudes denoted by modulus
signs, e.g. |a| or |a|.)

represent vectors by directed line segments; use the sum and difference of
two vectors to express given vectors in terms of two coplanar vectors; use
position vectors.

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5/24/2018 www.iba.edu.pk/News/BS_ecomth_EntryTestSyllabus.htm

The Entry Test will consist of two parts, English and Mathematics
English
An acceptable degree of proficiency in one of the languages of wider communication is a life-skill in the contemporary academic and professional
environment. The English part of the test is designed to assess candidates’ language proficiency and communicative competence.
Objectives:
The purpose of the test is to:

· determine whether students are equipped with the required language skills to succeed in a competitive degree program taught entirely in
English

· test students’ ability to comprehend university-level reading

· evaluate whether students are competent in using standard written English in academic context

· assess students’ usage of grammar and range of vocabulary.

The test focuses on the following areas:

· Grammar in context
· Vocabulary in context
· Reading comprehension

The English part of the test will consist of 45 multiple choice questions. These questions will be based primarily on grammar, vocabulary and reading
to test the application of knowledge.

Candidates may be tested on such grammatical concepts as tenses, modal verbs, subject-verb agreement, pronouns, prepositions etc. In case of
vocabulary, the candidates are required to demonstrate their competence as able readers by inferring meaning through context clues.

Active reading is a survival skill for undergraduate students. The Reading Comprehension Section will assess comprehension at all the three levels;
literal, inferential and critical. The candidates should demonstrate the ability to discern main ideas and concepts presented in texts, and identify and
assess evidence that supports those ideas. The texts may range from the descriptive and factual to the discursive and analytical.

Follow the link below to view the sample English test paper:
http://www.iba.edu.pk/News/Past_Entry_Test_Eng.html

Mathematics
The mathematics part of the test will consist of 50 multiple choice questions. These questions will cover the following topics:

1. Complex Numbers
2. Matrices and Determinants
3. Sequences and Series
4. Miscellaneous Series
5. Permutation combination and probability
6. Mathematical Induction and binomial theorem
7. Quadratic equation
8. Function and their graph
9. Trigonometric identities of sum and difference of angle
10. Application of trigonometry
11. Graph of trigonometric and inverse trigonometric functions and solution of trigonometric equations
12. Functions and limits
13. Partial Fractions
14. Plane analytical geometry (Straight Line)
15. Circles

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http://www.iba.edu.pk/News/BS_ecomth_EntryTestSyllabus.htm
5/24/2018 www.iba.edu.pk/News/BS_ecomth_EntryTestSyllabus.htm
16. Parabola
17. Ellipse

18. Hyperbola
19. Translation and Rotation
Follow the links below to view two sample mathematics test papers:
http://www.analyzemath.com/practice_tests/sat_subject/level_1_sample_1.html
http://www.analyzemath.com/practice_tests/sat_subject/level_2_sample_1.html

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http://www.iba.edu.pk/News/BS_ecomth_EntryTestSyllabus.htm
 Paper-I

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 Paper-II

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 Paper-III

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 Paper-IV

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 Paper-V
Program Applied For 1:BS (Accounting and Finance), 2:BBA
Entrepreneurship

Name Seat No.

Father’s Name Booklet No.

Candidate’s
Test Centre
Signature Room No. HALL

Exam. Centre

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Candidates will make sure that the seat number, test centre, candidate name on top of this question booklet;
on answer sheet and on the sticker on the chair are the same as in admit card issued to them.
2. Use of calculator is not allowed.
3. Candidates must carefully follow the instructions given in this booklet and by the instructor/announcer.
4. The test is divided into three parts (total duration of the test is two hours & 45 minutes):
 45 Multiple Choice Questions of English (from page 1 to 8) - Time allowed 45 minutes.
 45 Multiple Choice Questions of Mathematics (starting from page 9) - Time allowed 80 minutes.
 One essay question - Time allowed 40 minutes. Separate instructions for essay question will be given
later on.
Note: While working on an allowed part, candidates are not allowed to go forward or backward to
other parts.

5. Each question has only one correct answer. All answers must be given in CROSS SIGN on the answer
sheet.
6. During the test if candidates want to change any of their answers, they should erase their previous answer
clearly and completely and re-cross. It is very important that if they want to change the answer they
should clearly and completely erase the previous answer. In case candidates cross more than one
option for the same question, the answer will be treated as wrong. Overwriting is not accepted. Such
answers will also be treated as wrong.
7. If a candidate does not want to answer any question he / she MUST cross the
option E on the answer sheet.
8. There will be NEGATIVE MARKING in all parts of the test. Each correct question carries four points. For
each wrong answer, one point shall be deducted.
9. When the instructor/announcer says STOP, candidates must stop writing and cover their test booklets with
the answer sheets.
10. Any behavior leading to cheating or non-compliance with instructions, tearing pages or taking away the
booklet is prohibited. It will lead to disqualification from the test and legal action against the candidate.
The candidates should not mark answers on the question booklet, however they may do the rough work
on the question booklet, all answers must be given in CROSS SIGN on the answer sheet with the pencil
that has been provided to them. Candidates must ensure that they do not write anything other than their
signature and Cross signing of their answers on the answer sheet.

WAIT Do not turn over this page until

.

you are told to do so

Wish you the very best of luck

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 2 PAPER-V
ALL ANSWERS MUST BE GIVEN ON THE COMPUTERIZED ANSWER SHEET
BY CROSSING THE CORRESPONDING LETTER
English M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 45 (from 1 to 45) Time: 45Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 1 To 8 Negative markings: Yes

For questions 1 -14, select the best option (A, B, C or D).

If the habits of all known basal birds including Archaeopteryx, Jeholornis, Sapeornis, and Confuciusornis
are already too specialized to allow 1. ______________ regarding the habit of their 2. ______________,
then within the currently popular dinosaurian ancestry context we will have to 3. ______________ with
Witmer’s (2002) comment that ‘The question 4. ______________ comes down to the actual theropod
ancestor of birds: what it looked like and how it lived its life’.

Traditionally, dromaeosaurids have been depicted as being fast runners and dangerous 5. ___________ ,
as popularized in the film Jurassic Park. The evidence usually 6, ______________ includes the long and
stiffened tail and the 7. ______________ curved claws. Following the recognition of several

8. ______________ theropods and the arboreal nature of most basal birds, the large, curved and sharp
pedal claws of small sized dromaeosaurids are probably better explained as arboreal, rather than
predatory, 9. ______________

The elongated 10. ______________ phalanges of the manus of many theropods such as Deinonychus may
also 11. ___________ a climbing habit. Unfortunately little attention has been paid to his analysis,
probably because of the lack of modern 12. ______________ and because of the then predominant

13. ______________ that dinosaurs were 14. ___________ .

1. A. confirmation
B. inferences
C. ludicrous
D. conjecture

2. A. ancestor
B. descended
C. ascended
D. descended

3. A. cite
B. concur
C. refer
D. correspond

4. A. unswervingly
B. circuitously
C. ultimately
D. reliably

5. A. predators
B. assailant
C. iconoclast
D. assaulter

6. A. sighted
B. refer
C. refuted
D. cited

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 3
ALL ANSWERS MUST BE GIVEN ON THE COMPUTERIZED ANSWER SHEET
BY CROSSING THE CORRESPONDING LETTER
7. A. smoothly
B. strongly
C. ruggedly
D. terribly

8. A. arboresque
B. arboreal
C. dendriform
D. arborescent

9. A. adaptations
B. domestication
C. habituation
D. accommodation

10. A. dactyl
B. antepenult
C. phalarope
D. penultimate

11. A. reveal
B. denote
C. indicate
D. specify

12. A. Xerox
B. archetype
C. analogues
D. quantitative

13. A. review
B. exception
C. dogma
D. quiz

14. A. mortal
B. terrestrial
C. heavenly
D. global

For questions 15-17 (comprising a set of two sentences each), select the best answer (A, B, C, or D).

15. Depression is neither a choice nor a bad mood you can snap out of. No matter how much other
people try to help, only the victims can help themselves get better.

What does the second sentence do?

A. It gives an example.
B. It reinforces the opinion.
C. It proposes a solution.
D. It states an effect.

16. The glitz and glamour of new shops and restaurant can’t mask the poverty peeping out of every
corner; shiny cars aren’t enough to hide the over-crowded, broken-down buses; and the almost-
sturdy looking bridges can’t hide the dozens of slums in the city. For all its claims of being a
“world-class city,” advanced, metropolitan, and comparable to Dubai, Karachi remains where it
was a couple of decades ago.
(go on to the next page) the next p
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ALL ANSWERS MUST BE GIVEN ON THE COMPUTERIZED ANSWER SHEET
BY CROSSING THE CORRESPONDING LETTER
What does the second sentence do?

A. The second sentence draws a conclusion about what is stated in the first.
B. It provides an example of the first sentence.
C. It adds more detail to the first sentence.
D. It offers an exception to the information given in the first sentence.

17. One of the first steps to accomplishing great things in your life is to cease dwelling on the
negative things in your past. Carefully assess your present strengths, successes, and
achievements. Dwell on those positive events in your life, and quit limiting your potential by
constantly thinking about what you have done poorly.

What does the second and third sentence do?

A. state the cause of the first.

B. give solutions
C. draw conclusion.
D. emphasize what is stated in the first.

For questions 18- 29 , select the best option (A, B, C or D) .

In the privacy of our minds, we all talk to ourselves — 18. ______________ inner monologue that might
seem rather pointless. 19. ______________ one scientific paper on self-talk asks: “What can we tell
ourselves that we don’t already know?” 20. ______________as that study and others go on to show, the
act of giving ourselves mental messages 21. ______________ help us learn and perform at our best.
Researchers have identified 22. ______________ most effective forms of self-talk, collected here — so
that the next time you talk to yourself, you know exactly what you 23. ______________ say.

Over time, of course, giving yourself instructions becomes unnecessary — but 24. ______________
you’re learning, it does three important things. First, 25. ______________enhances our attention,

26. ______________ us on the important elements of the task and 27. ______________ distractions.
Second, it helps us regulate our effort and make decisions 28. ______________ what to do, how to do it,
and when. 29. ______________ third, self-talk allows us to control our cognitive and emotional reactions,
steadying us so we stay on task.

18. A. the
B. an
C. a
D. none of the above

19. A. As
B. Likewise
C. Similarly
D. Likely

20. A. Nevertheless
B. Contrary
C. But
D. So

21. A. must
B. should
C. shall
D. can

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ALL ANSWERS MUST BE GIVEN ON THE COMPUTERIZED ANSWER SHEET
BY CROSSING THE CORRESPONDING LETTER
22. A. the
B. a
C. from
D. of

23. A. can
B. could
C. should
D. must

24. A. when
B. while
C. during
D. simultaneously

25. A. it
B. these
C. that
D. this

26. A. focused
B. focusing
C. focuses
D. focus

27. A. screens out

B. screening in
C. screened out
D. screened in

28. A. around
B. as
C. on
D. about

29. A. Finally
B. Eventually
C. Therefore
D. And

For questions 30-33, first read the text, and then select the best option (A, B, C, or D).

Maps made by non-Native Americans to depict Native American land tenure, resources and
population distributions appeared almost as early as Europeans’ first encounters with Native
Americans and took many forms: missionaries’ field sketches, explorers’ drawings, and
surveyors’ maps, as well as maps rendered in connection with treaties involving land transfers.
Most existing maps of Native American lands are reconstructions that are based largely on
archaeology, oral reports, and evidence gathered from observers’ accounts in letter, diaries, and
official reports; accordingly, the accuracy of these maps is especially dependent on the
mapmakers’ own interpretive abilities.

Many existing maps also reflect the 150-year role of the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) in
administering tribal lands. Though these maps incorporate some information gleaned directly
from Native Americans, rarely has Native American cartography contributed to this official
record, which has been compiled, surveyed, and authenticated by non-Native American tribes and

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their migrations and cultural features, as well as territoriality and contemporary trust lands,
reflects the origins of the data, the mixed purposes for which the maps have been prepared, and
changes both United States government policy and in non-Native Americans’ attitudes towards an
understanding of Native Americans.

30. Which of the following best describes the content of the passage?
A. A chronology of the development of different methods for mapping Native Americans
B. A discussion of how the mapmaking techniques of Native Americans differed from those of
Europeans
C. An argument concerning the present-day uses to which historical maps of Native American
lands are put
D. An argument concerning the nature of information contained in maps of Native American
lands

31. The passage mentions each of the following as a factor affecting current maps of Native
American lands EXCEPT
A. United States government policy
B. non-Native Americans’ perspective on Native Americans
C. origins of the information utilized to produce the maps
D. changes in ways that tribal lands are used

32. The passage suggests which of the following about most existing maps of Native American
lands?
A. They do not record the migrations of Native American tribes.
B. They have been preserved primarily because of their connection with treaties involving land
transfers.
C. They tend to reflect archaeological evidence that has become outdated.
D. They are not based primarily on the mapmakers’ firsthand observations of Native American
lands.

33. All of the following are examples of the type of evidence used in creating “Most existing maps”
(line 7-8) EXCEPT

A. a nineteenth-century government report on population distribution of a particular tribe

B. taped conversations with people who lived on Native American tribal lands in the early
twentieth century
C. aerial photographs of geological features of lands inhabited by Native Americans
D. findings from a recently excavated site once inhabited by a certain Native American people

For questions 34-35, read the text, and then choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to the question.

Regular tune-ups of your heating system will cut heating costs and will most likely increase the lifetime
and safety of the system. When a service technician performs a tune-up, he or she should test the
efficiency of your heating system.

The technician should measure the efficiency of your system both before and after servicing it and
provide you with a copy of the results. Combustion efficiency is determined indirectly, based on some of
the following tests: 1) temperature of the flue (or chimney); 2) percent carbon dioxide or percent oxygen
in the atmosphere; 3) presence of carbon monoxide in the atmosphere; and 4) draft. Incomplete
combustion of fuel is the main contributor to low efficiency. If the technician cannot raise the combustion
efficiency up to at least 75% after tuning your heating system, you should consider installing a new
system or at least modifying your present system to increase its efficiency. (Adapted from Alex Wilson
and John Morrill, Consumer Guide to Home Energy Savings. ©1993 by the American Council for an
Energy-Efficient Economy.

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34. The passage suggests that the presence of carbon monoxide in the atmosphere:
A. can provide information regarding combustion efficiency.
B. is found in 75% of heating systems tested.
C. can be reduced by decreasing heating system draft.
D. is the main cause of low efficiency in heating systems.
35. According to the passage, when performing a tune-up of a heating system, the service technician
should:
A. ensure that the combustion efficiency is at least 25%.
B. modify the heating system before initially measuring efficiency.
C. measure combustion efficiency both before and after servicing the system.
D. provide his or her supervisor with a written report of the system’s efficiency.

For question 36-40, rearrange the sentence order by choosing the most appropriate sentence
sequence from the answer choices.

36. a. After giving away 45 runs off his seven-over spell in the second ODI against Ireland, and
coming into bat at 133 for seven, Wahab was probably hoping he had sat that one out too.

b. Wahab was then a last-minute inclusion for the Champions Trophy and did not feature against
Scotland and the first tie against Ireland.

c. He defended apprehensively and slashed unconvincingly in what seemed a lost cause then. Until
that late cameo that shocked all those watching.

d. Up until Thursday night, Wahab Riaz was not aware that he’d be taking the field against the
West Indies the following morning.

A. b, c, d, a

B. d, b, a, c

C. a, b, d, c

D. b, a, c, d

37. a. One summer weekend when I was a boy, my father took my brother and me camping.

b. I vividly remember the odor of cooking bass mixed with wood smoke, the splash of the Milky
Way in the heavens, and the burning ember of Dad’s unfiltered Lucky Strike against the night.

c. Even then, I knew how hard Dad was trying at this enormous thing, to be a father.

d. But I also recall the innumerable times he’d erupt in screaming fits after one of us kids did
something as innocuous as spilling water at dinner; sudden noises also triggered outbursts.

A. a, c, b, d

B. b, a, c, d

C. d, c, b, a

D. a, b, c, d

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38. a. In a new study, German researchers found that they could find substantial amounts of personal
information about people who weren’t Facebook members just by seeing what their friends who
were on Facebook posted about them.

b. Even if you are away from social-networking sites your personal information is not.

c. Think staying off social-networking sites will help you preserve your privacy?

d. Think again.

A. b, a, c, d

B. c, d, a, b

C. d, c, b, a

D. a, c, d, b

39. a. Those who find spelling difficult, and who do not naturally do much remembering and thinking
with mental ‘photographs,’ can try to develop that ability.

b. Some people seem to have no trouble with spelling; others have to work hard at it.

c. But there are other ways of overcoming the difficulties.

d. Those who find it easy generally have a natural ability to picture words mentally: they can see
the ‘look’ of a word in the mind’s eye.

A. d, c, b, a

B. b, d, a, c

C. d, b, a, c

D. b, a, d, c

40. a. Some people may excel in these areas and yet perform poorly in tests that are language based.
Similarly, some people who are poor at languages are excellent at computer sciences.

b. IQ tests only measure things that can be measured!

c. Many areas of human excellence, however, cannot easily be measured, such as artistic and
musical creativity, emotional maturity, keeping a cool head in emergencies, being able to
impersonate other people, and inventiveness.

d. Students who have failed in language or number based GCSEs often do very well on university
courses in the arts.

A. b, c, d, a

B. c, b, a, d

C. d, a, b, c

D. a, b, c, d

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For questions 41-45, select the best option (A, B, C or D).

41. In the snowy wastes of Siachen, where Pakistani and Indian soldiers face off in a high-altitude
battle zone ________________________________.

A. man the fight is against the mountain ringed by Himalayan peaks, not the man.
B. Himalayan peaks ringed and , not the man, the fight is against the mountain .
C. ringed by Himalayan peaks, the fight is against the mountain, not the man.
D. the fight ringed by Himalyan peaks is against the mountain, not the man.

42. When Facebook was ________________________________.

A. first launched and for a few years after it was truly a unique experience.
B. first launched (and for a few years after) it was truly a unique experience.
C. first launched, and after a few years, it was truly a unique experience.
D. first launched, and for a few years after, it was truly a unique experience.

43. Social networks ______________________________________________ everything from users’

entertainment preferences to locations.
A. have a vast trove of data encompassing in general, and Facebook in particular,
B. In particular have vast trove of data encompassing and Facebook in general has
C. in particular, and Facebook in general, have a vast trove of data encompassing
D. in general, and Facebook in particular, have a vast trove of data encompassing

44. It is important that discussion of the issues relating to avian influenza should differentiate
between the real problems ________________________________________of a human
pandemic which might not occur.
A. caused by the spread of the disease within the bird population and the theoretical risk
B. the spread of the disease caused by, within the bird population and the theoretical risk
C. within the bird population ,caused by the spread of the disease, and the theoretical risk
D. and the theoretical risk caused by the spread of the disease- within the bird population

45. In Robin Hood's _____________________________________about the exploits of our hero.

A. time, little was written down; consequently, few people could read or write
B. time, few people could read or write, and little was written down
C. time, few people could read or write and consequently little was written down
D. time, reading and writing was done by few people; consequently little was written down

STOP

Don’t turn to the next page until instructed by the invigilator

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Mathematics M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 45 (from 46 to 90) Time: 80 Minutes
Questions start from this page (page 9) Negative markings: Yes

Q46 If | 2x – 3 | = 7, which of the following could be the value of x?

A) 5 only
B) –2 only
C) both A) and B)
D) None of these
k
Q47 If ( = , what is the value of k

A) 8
B) 4
C) 2
D) 1

Q48 In the sequence 7, –9, , ..., the first term is 7 and each term after the first is equal to m
times the previous term. Which of the following is true about m?

A) m > –1
B) m < –2
C) m > 0
D) None of these
2
Q49 If 1 + = z – 3, what is the value of (z + 3) ?

A) 8 + 2
B) 14(4 + )
2
C) (2 + )
D) None of these

Q50 A number c is called a fixed point of the function f(x) if and only if f(c) = c. A set of all
3 2
fixed points is called a fixed set. The fixed set of f(x) = x + x – x is

A) { –2, 0}

B) {0, 1}

C) { –2, 0}∩{0, 1}

D) { –2, 0}∪{0, 1}

Q51 If |2x + 5| = 7 and |5y – 3| = 6, which of the following is not a possible value of 2x + 5y?

A) 11
B) –15
C) 15
D) –3

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Q52 If f(x) = x2 – 45, and f(2a) = –20, then what could be the value of a?

A) 2.5 only
B) −2.5 only
C) both A) and B)
D) None of these
Q53 If an identical coin is flipped under identical circumstances, what is the probability of
flipping heads five times in a row?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Q54 If x, y and z are three consecutive prime integers such that 10 < x < y < z < 20 , what is the
lowest possible value of z – y?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Q55 An integer is subtracted from its square. The result could be which of the following?
I. An even integer.
II. The product of two consecutive integers.
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II
D) None of these
Q56 If 15% of x is equal to 25% of y, what % is y of x?

A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%
2
Q57 For some constant α, the graph of the quadratic function f(x) = – x + 2α x is a parabola
with x-intercepts at A and B and vertex C. If the area of the triangle whose vertices are A, B, and
C equals 125, what is the value of α?

A) 3
B) 5
C) 3
D) 5

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Q58 The average of 20 numbers is 46. The average of eight of those numbers is 40. What is the
average of the remaining numbers?

A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60

Q59 Find the x-coordinate of (30, –20) when reflected over Y-axis.
A) 30
B) 20
C) –30
D) –20
Q60 If 0 < < < 10, which of the following is lowest in value?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Q61 If the equation of a line is given by x = 2y + 3, then which of the following equations
represents the equation of a line parallel to the given line?

A) y = 2x + 3

B) y = 2x

C) 2y = x + 3

D) x + 2y = 0

Q62 When the positive integer m is divided by 7, the remainder is 4. What is the remainder when
3m is divided by 7?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

Q63 We are arranging 4 digits from the set {0, 1, 2,..., 9} and not allowing repetition. The two
restrictions we must honor are that the digit 0 cannot appear in the thousands' position and that
the units’ digit be odd. Number of ways to achieve this is

A) 9000
B) 4500
C) 7759
D) 2240

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Q64 Find the equation of the straight line whose x intercept is and y intercept is – .
A) 4x + 9y + 6 = 0
B) –4x + 9y + 6 = 0
C) 4x – 9y + 6 = 0
D) –4x – 9y + 6 = 0

x –1 1 2
f(x) 729 9 1
−kx
Q65 The table above shows some values for the function f(x). If f(x) = g(3 ) for some
constants g and k, what is the value of g?
A) 1
B) 9
C) 81
D) 729
2
Q66 Which of the following is equivalent to 6x + 5x – 6?

A) (2x – 3)(3x + 2)
B) (2x – 3)(3x – 2)
C) (2x + 3)(3x – 4)
D) (3x – 2)(2x + 3)
th 2n
Q67 The value of the n term of a sequence is given by the expression b – 5. If the second
term of the sequence is 76, which of the following could be the value of b?

I. –3
II. 3
III. 9
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II only
Q68 Find the perimeter of the square in which a circle of area 144 is inscribed.
A) 12
B) 24
C) 48
D) 96
Q69 Suppose p is chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 11, 17, 19, 21, 27, 29, 31, 33}. What is
the probability that p is an odd prime?
A) 0.4
B) 0.5
C) 0.6
D) 0.7

Q70 Solve for :

A) 13 < < 14
B) –14 < < –13
C) –14 < < 13
D) –13 < < 14
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Q71 Which of the following number is between and ?
A) – 0.06
B) – 0.07
C) – 0.08
D) None of these

Q72 An operation ☼ is defined as follows: For any two integers x and y, x ☼ y = ,

which of the following is not an integer (note means positive square root of z)?

A) 25 ☼ 81
B) 11 ☼ 4
C) 67 ☼ 9
D) 36 ☼ 36

Q73 Which point doesn’t lie in the interior of the triangle whose vertices are (–10, 0), (10, 0) and
(0, 10)

A) (5, 4)
B) (–5, 4)
C) (0, 4)
D) (–5, 6)

Q74 If (the domain of is the set of all real numbers except 0 and 1),

then =

A)

B) 1 +

C) 1 +

D) 2 +

3
Q75 If a and b are integers such that ab < 0 and a2 = 81 and 5b = – 625. Find the value of |b – a|.

A) 14
B) 4
C) –14
D) –4

Q76 A bag contains mangoes that are either green or yellow. The ratio of green mangoes to
yellow mangoes in the bag is 3 to 5. When two green mangoes are removed and ten yellow
mangoes are added, the ratio becomes 2 to 5. How many green mangoes were originally in the
bag?

A) 32
B) 26
C) 18
D) 30
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Q77 In the figure above, two line segments in the x-y plane form a right triangle with the x-axis.
What is the area of the triangle?

A) 25
B) 20
C) 25
D) 20

Q78 The average of a particular set of nine numbers is 10. When one of the numbers is doubled,
the average of the set increases to 12. What is the number that was doubled?

A) 20
B) 18
C) 16
D) 14

Q79 In a certain committee, the ratio of women to men is 2:3. What percent of the members in
the committee are men?

A) 40
B) 50
C) 60
D) 70
Q80 How many integers between 199 and 599 are multiple of 3?

A) 130
B) 131
C) 132
D) 133

Q81 What is the average of the first 50 positive odd integers?

A) 50
B) 51
C) 52
D) 53

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2
Q82 If y = f(x) = 9 – x , and if the domain of x is all real numbers, which of the following sets
indicates the range of the function?

A) {y | y ≥ 9}
B) {y | y ≥ 3}
C) {y | y ≤ 9}
D) {y | y ≤ 3}

Q83 The base of triangle T is half of the length of rectangle R. The height of triangle T is twice
the width of rectangle R. Then,

A) the area of triangle T is same as the area of rectangle R

B) the area of triangle T is twice as large as the area of rectangle R
C) the area of triangle T is half of the area of rectangle R
D) None of these

Q84 What is the intersection of the set of all positive integers divisible by 8 and the set of all
positive integers divisible by 12?

A) All positive multiples of 8

B) All positive multiples of 12
C) All positive multiples of 24
D) All positive multiples of 48

Q85 Let f(x) = ax + b, where a and b are given constants. If f(–10) = –f(10) and the slope of the
graph of the f is –8, then

A) f(–8) = –8
B) f(6) = 0
C) f(4) < 0
D) None of these

Q86 Which term of the A.P. 2, 8, 14, 20 … will be 210 more than its 60th term?

A) 93
B) 94
C) 95
D) 96
th
Q87 Laiba's average score after 4 tests is 86. What score on the 5 test would bring Laiba's
average up to exactly 88?
A) 94
B) 95
C) 96
D) 97
Q88 A jar contains a number of jellybeans of which 27 are red, 87 are green, and the rest are

blue. If the probability of choosing a blue jellybean from this jar at random is , how many blue
jellybeans are in the jar?

A) 36
B) 54
C) 76
D) 98
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Q89 If the positive integer x leaves a remainder of 3 when divided by 7, what will the remainder
be when x + 11 is divided by 7?

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3

Q90 The area of a triangle with vertices (0, 0), (8, 0) and (12, 6) is
A) 12
B) 24
C) 36
D) 48

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This is the end of Part 1 and Part 2. Please, wait for the Part 3 (an essay question).
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English M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 45 (from 1 to 45) Time: 45 Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 1 To 7 Negative markings: Yes

For Questions 1-16, select the best option.

The youngster who reads 1___________ , though 2__________ , does not necessarily gain in wisdom
over the teenager who is more selective in his reading choices. A young man who has read the life story
of every 3 ________ athlete of the twentieth century, or a coed who has 4____________ herself in
every social-protest novel she can get her hands on, may very well be learning all there is to know in a
very limited area. But books are 5 __________with so many wonders that it is often discouraging to see
bright young people limit their own experiences.
The worlds of science-fiction 6 __________ with wonders. Yet modern 7 _________ progresses so
rapidly that what maybe today's wild dream may be next year's kitchen appliance. A British scientist
has 8 __________ that within ten years every suburban 9 _________ will have her own robot servant.
One task this domesticated 10 _______ will not have to contend with will be scouring the oven because
even today the newest ranges can be "programmed" to reduce their own baked-on grime to easily
disposed of ashes.
Speaking of inventions and discoveries, I just learned that an eminent scientist in Ohio has developed a
11 ________ that contains all the nutritive value of three complete meals. In addition to providing us
with the vitamins and minerals we need daily, this pill also gives a feeling of fullness. According to its
sponsors, the pill will nourish and satisfy. I hate to12 _________ such a 13 ________ achievement, but
to me it seems like a most objectionable discovery. Rather than a scientific triumph, I'd be inclined to
label it as an egregious blunder, a scientific disaster, a laboratory 14________ . Is there anyone in his
right mind who thinks that a pill can replace the pleasures of devouring hot corn bread, 15 _________
on a thick steak, biting into crisp French fries, or attacking a chocolate sundae? I'm afraid that this is one
pill I'll have to 16 _________ from chewing.
1.
A. avidly
B. sparingly
C. voraciously
D. generously
2.
A. accidently
B. indiscriminately
C. methodically
D. cautiously
3.
A. apathetic
B. mediocre
C. eminent
D. indifferent
4.
A. lived up
B. steeped
C. saturate
D. carried
5.

A. flawed
B. full
C. deficient
D. replete

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6.
A. abound
B. proliferate
C. diminished
D. declining

7.
A. growth
B. technology
C. knowledge
D. know-how

8.
A. predicted
B. revealed
C. prognosticated
D. found out

9.
A. matron
B. Service industry
C. household
D. worker

10.
A. device
B. android
C. machine
D. automaton

11.
A. pill
B. syrup
C. medicine
D. prescription

12.
A. to belittle
B. disparage
C. disparaging
D. belittle
13.
A. gallant
B. epic
C. laudable
D. valiant
14.
A. facade
B. fiasco
C. sensation
D. triumph

15.
A. gnaw
B. munching
C. masticating
D. crunch
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16.
A. eschew
B. steer clear of
C. shun
D. chip in

For Questions 17- 23, select the best option.

17. I saw an interesting advert in the newspaper and decided to __________ the job.
A. look for
B. get
C. apply for
D. grab

18. The company missed his wealth of experience when he chose __________ an early retirement.

A. to take
B. for
C. taking
D. preferred

19. The whole union ____________ strike in sympathy with the sacked workers.
A. called on a
B. decided for
C. wanted
D. went on
20. Extra skills training could ____________ your job prospects.
A. improve
B. enhance
C. increase
D. liven up
21. She felt that she wasn’t ____________ her full potential in her current job.
A. using
B. managing
C. getting
D. utilizing
22. The company had no choice but to ____________ her contract when she missed several
important deadlines.
A. terminate
B. end
C. renew
D. revisit
23. The failure of the business left him ___________ financial ruin.
A. with a
B. in a
C. bear a
D. for a
For Questions 24-31, select the best option.

24. A late fee will be applied to your account _______ payment is not received by March 31.
A. and
B. whether
C. but
D. if
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25. The award is given to an individual who has made _______ contributions to the community
through volunteer work.
A. detailed
B. significant
C. secure
D. updated

26. Last year, Andrea Choi _______ the Choi Economic Research Center at Upton University .
A. to establish
B. established
C. was established
D. establishing

27. Ms. Ikeda and Mr. Arroyo are the final candidates under _______ for the position of director of
A. development
B. consideration
C. elimination
D. recognition

28. Of the two animated films released today, _______ is certain to be popular with children, while
the other will appeal more to adults.
A. neither
B. it
C. one
D. another

29. As you know, the past year was a great success for us. To reward you for your excellent
performance, the Board of Directors has approved a bonus for all employees. This bonus will be
_______ in your next paycheck.
A. involved
B. joined
C. composed
D. included

30. _________, we are now calculating wage increases for the upcoming year. Each employee’s
performance
A. Instead
B. In addition
C. Beforehand
D. Otherwise

31. You will be examined carefully as we determine the appropriate increase. All full-time
employees are eligible for this increase. Your supervisor __________ you of the amount of your
increase during the first week of January.
A. informed
B. to inform
C. will inform
D. was informing

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For Questions 32- 37, select the best option.

LECTURE TRANSCRIPT

Today I’d like to introduce you to a novel that some critics consider the finest detective novel ever
written. It was also the first. We’re talking about The Moonstone by Wilkie Collins. Now, there are other
detective stories that preceded The Moonstone historically—Um, notably the work of Poe . . . Edgar
Allen Poe’s stories, such as “The Murders in the Rue Morgue” and . . . “The Purloined Letter.” Now
these were short stories that featured a detective . . . uh, probably the first to do that. But The Moonstone,
which follows them by about twenty years—it was published in 1868—this is the first full-length
detective novel ever written.
Now, in The Moonstone—if you read it as . . . uh, come to it as a contemporary reader—what’s
interesting is that most of the features you find in almost any detective novel are in fact already present.
Uh, its hard at this juncture to read this novel and realize that no one had ever done that before, because
it all seems so strikingly familiar. It’s, it’s really a wonderful novel and I recommend it, even just as a
fun book to read, if you’ve never read it. Um, so in The Moonstone, as I said, Collins did much to
establish the conventions of the detective genre. I’m not gonna go into the plot at length, but, you know,
the basic set-up is . . . there’s this diamond of great . . . of great value, a country house, the diamond
mysteriously disappears in the middle of the night, uh, the local police are brought in, in an attempt to
solve the crime, and they mess it up completely, and then the true hero of the book arrives. That’s
Sergeant Cuff.
Now, Cuff, this extraordinarily important character . . . well, let me try to give you a sense of who
Sergeant Cuff is, by first describing the regular police. And this is the dynamic that you’re going to see
throughout the history of the detective novel, where you have the regular cops—who are well-meaning,
but officious and bumblingly inept—and they are countered by a figure who’s eccentric, analytical,
brilliant, and . . . and able to solve the crime. So, first the regular police get called in to solve the
mystery—Um, in this case, detective, uh, Superintendent Seegrave. When Superintendent Seegrave
comes in, he orders his minions around, they bumble, and they actually make a mess of the
investigation, which you’ll see repeated—um, you’ll see this pattern repeated, particularly in the
Sherlock Holmes stories of a few years later where, uh, Inspector Lestrade, this well-meaning idiot, is
always countered, uh, by Sherlock Holmes, who’s a genius.
So, now Cuff arrives. Cuff is the man who’s coming to solve the mystery, and again he has a lot of the
characteristics that future detectives throughout the history of this genre will have. He’s eccentric. He
has a hobby that he’s obsessive about—in this . . . in his case, it’s the love of roses. He’s a fanatic about
the breeding of roses; and here think of Nero Wolfe and his orchids, Sherlock Holmes and his violin, a
lot of those later classic detective heroes have this kind of outside interest that they . . . they go to as a
kind of antidote to the evil and misery they encounter in their daily lives. At one point, Cuff says he
likes his roses because they offer solace, uh, an escape, from the world of crime he typically operates in.
Now, these detective heroes . . . they have this characteristic of being smart, incredibly smart, but of not
appearing to be smart. And most importantly, from a kind of existential point of view, these detectives
see things that other people do not see. And that’s why the detective is such an important figure, I think,
in our modern imagination. In the case of The Moonstone—I don’t want to say too much here and spoil
it for you—but the clue that’s key to . . . the solving of the crime is a smeared bit of paint in a doorway.
Of course, the regular police have missed this paint smear or made some sort of unwarranted assumption
about it. Cuff sees this smear of paint—this paint, the place where the paint is smeared—and realizes
that from this one smear of paint you can actually deduce the whole situation . . . the whole world. And
that’s what the hero in a detective novel like this . . . brings to it that the other characters don’t—it’s this
ability to, uh, see meaning where others see no meaning and to bring order . . . to where it seems there is
no order.

32. What is the lecture mainly about?

A. A comparison of two types of detective novels

B. Ways in which detective novels have changed over time
C. The Moonstone as a model for later detective novels
D. Flaws that can be found in the plot of The Moonstone

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33. In what way is The Moonstone different from earlier works featuring a detective?

A. In its unusual ending

B. In its unique characters
C. In its focus on a serious crime
D. In its greater length

34. According to the professor, what do roses in The Moonstone represent?

A. A key clue that leads to the solving of the mystery

B. A relief and comfort to the detective
C. Romance between the main characters
D. Brilliant ideas that occur to the detective

35. Why does the professor mention a smeared bit of paint in a doorway in The Moonstone?
A. To describe a mistake that Sergeant Cuff has made
B. To show how realistically the author describes the crime scene
C. To exemplify a pattern repeated in many other detective stories
D. To illustrate the superior techniques used by the police

36. What can be inferred about the professor when he says this: “Uh, it’s hard at this
juncture to read this novel and realize that no one had ever done that before, because it all
seems so strikingly familiar.”
A. He is impressed by the novel’s originality.
B. He is concerned that students may find the novel difficult to read.
C. He is bored by the novel’s descriptions of ordinary events.
D. He is eager to write a book about a less familiar subject.
37. What does the professor imply when he says this: “. . . well, let me try to give you
a sense of who Sergeant Cuff is, by first describing the regular police.”
A. Sergeant Cuff is unlike other characters in The Moonstone.
B. The author’s description of Sergeant Cuff is very realistic.
C. Sergeant Cuff learned to solve crimes by observing the regular police.
D. Differences between Sergeant Cuff and Sherlock Holmes are hard to describe.
For Questions 38-41, select the best option.
In our small town, Papa's soda shop was the most popular place for high school students to meet. Unlike
his brother, our military-minded, sullen principal, Papa was always relaxed, kind, interested, always
ready to add extra whipped cream and cherries to our sodas. He was tolerant of the noisy, boisterous
students who came to his shop after school. Everyone I knew in town, except our principal, loved Papa.

38. The passage implies reasons for

A. Papa's generosity.
B. ordering whipped cream and cherries on sodas.
C. the high volume of noise.
D. the popularity of the soda shop.
39. In the passage, the writer
A. contrasts the personality of the two men.
B. suggests that Papa was hypocritical.
C. explains why two brothers were different.
D. implies why people like sodas.

40. The writer's observations are apparently not based on

A. first hand experience.
B. reports from neighborhood friends.
C. gossip.
D. scholarly research.
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41. If the writer's principal and Papa simultaneously spotted a hundred dollar bill lying on the
sidewalk, what would be the most logical result?
A. They would fight each other for it.
B. Papa would let the principal keep it.
C. Neither one would want it.
D. The principal would take and give twenty of the one hundred to Papa.

For questions 42 through 45, your task is to compare various statements in the light of the questions
posed and select the best option.

42. In which of the following does the speaker express a feeling of nostalgia?
A. It makes me happy that I have lived a long, prosperous life: I need not worry about having
anything to prove.
B. Who needs to worry about what might have been?
C. I often think of my childhood friends; we were very happy.
D. I'll never be able to predict the bad times, because I never have.

43. Which of the following statements gives direct evidence about the speaker's feelings concerning
marriage to Paul?
A. Paul is certainly a handsome man.
B. I don't think Paul is as interested in starting a family as I am.
C. If Paul were the last man on earth, I might think of marrying him.
D. Paul is more mechanically inclined than I am.

44. Which of the following expresses a defeatist attitude?

A. I could have owned that store; old Mr. Grundy always treated me as a son.
B. All I thought about was playing football, when I was fourteen.
C. I only know how to clean house.
D. Nobody will ever be my friend because I am so stupid.
45. Which of the following sentences states Mr. Bishop's strangest characteristics as chairman of the
board?
A. Mr. Bishop's leadership has created no great problems for the club.
B. The club's funds have increased 12 percent during the past year.
C. The club's meetings are run efficiently and effectively.
D. Mr. Bishop knows how to win the trust of his fellow members.

STOP

Don’t turn to the next page until instructed by the invigilator

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Mathematics M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 45 (from 46 to 50) Time: 80 Minutes
Questions are starting from page number 8 Negative markings: Yes

Q46 What is the difference between the largest and smallest number in the set ?

A)

B)

C)
D) None of these
Q47 A line has parametric equations x = 2 – t and y = 3 + 2t, where t is the parameter. The slope of the
line is

A) –1
B) –2
C)

D)

3 2
Q48 Find the remainder when x + x + x + 6 is divided by x – 2.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) None of these
4 3
Q49 For which of the following values of x, x < x is a true statement?
A) 1
B) −1
C) 2
D) 0.5
Q50 Which of the following is one of the factors of the polynomial 3x2 + x – 2?

A) Only 3x – 2
B) Only x – 1
C) Only x + 1
D) Both A) and C)

Q51 The operation ф is defined by x ф y = x2 – y. If x ф 3 = 15, then x =

I 3
II –3
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) None of these
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Q52 If i = and if x = 5 – 4i, then =

A) 5 – 3i
B) 4 + i
C)

D)

Q53 For some real number t, the first three terms of an arithmetic sequence are 3t – 4, 2t + 3, and 6t – 2.
What is the numerical value of the fourth term?

A) 7.8
B) 12.4
C) 17.0
D) None of these

Q54 Two dice are tossed. What is the probability that the sum of the two dice is a prime number?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Q55 Which of the following is the equation of a line perpendicular to the line whose equation is 7x + 9y
= 63?
A) 9y + 7x = 10
B) 9x + 7y = 11
C) 9y – 7x = 12
D) 7y – 9x =13

Q56 The range of y = f( ) = is the set of all real numbers y such that

A) y > 1
B) y 1
C) y 0.01
D) y 0
Q57 The domain of f( ) = is the set of all real numbers x such that
A) x – 4, x ≠ 4
B) x – 4, x ≠ 4
C) x ≠ ± 4
D) None of these
Q58 The x-coordinate of y–intercept of a line containing the points (6, 10) and (6, –10) is
A) 6
B) 10
C) –10
D) None of these

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Q59 The diameter AB of a circle is 9 cm. A triangle is drawn with AB as the base and the third vertex is
on the circle. One side of the triangle is 7 cm. What is the length of the third side?
A) 4 cm
B) 4 cm
C) 2 cm
D) 4 cm

Q60 If a circle of radius r touches both axes, then for the centre (h, k), which one of these may not be
possible
A) h = k
B) h = –k
C) r = |h|
D) r = k

Q61 How many integers are in the solution set of |1 – 7x| < 20?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q62 If x, y and z are three consecutive prime integers such that 10 < x < y < z < 20 , what is the highest
possible value of z – y?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Q63 When the positive integer m is divided by 5, the remainder is 3. What is the remainder when 4m is
divided by 5?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Q64 If f(x) = for what value of x is f(x) defined?

A) 0

B)

C) 2

D)
3 2
Q65 If f(x) = x + 4x + 2, for how many real numbers h does f(h) = 5?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
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3 2
Q66 For what values of k the polynomial 4x + 3x + 2x + k is divisible by x – 2?
A) – 32
B) – 44
C) – 48
D) None of these

(1 – 2x)
Q67 If 2 = , then x =

A) 4.5
B) 4
C) –3
D) None of these
2
Q68 Let d and e denote the solutions of 2x – 7x +5 = 0. What is a possible value of (d +
1)(e – 0.5)?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q69 There are 7 orange disks and 5 green disks in bag X and there are 5 orange disks and 15 green disks
in bag Y. If one disk is selected at random from each bag, what is the probability that both disks selected
are green?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Q70 A number n is decreased by 16. If the cube root of that result equals – 0.125, what is the value of n?
A) 16.5
B) 15.5
C) –16.5
D) None of these

3 2
Q71 cos θ + cos θ – sin θ cos θ =
2
A) cos θ sin θ
3
B) 2 sin θ
3
C) 2 cos θ
D) cos 2θ

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Q72 If x – 1, x – 3 and x + 1 are all factors of a polynomial P(x) of degree 3, which of the following
must also be a factor of P(x)?
2
I) x +1
2
II) x – 1
2
III) x – 4x + 3

A) II and III only

B) I and II only
C) III only
D) II only

Q73 Tickets for a show cost R 500 or R 800. If 100 tickets were sold for a total of R 65000, how many
tickets were sold for 800?

A) 40
B) 50
C) 60
D) None of these

Q74 Find the sum

A) 300
B) 5050
C) 5300
D) 5350

Q75 What is the period of the function f(x) = 3sin2(2x + )?

A) 4
B)

C)

D) None of these

Q76 The sum of the two roots of a quadratic equation is 2 and their product is 10. Which of the
following could be the equation?
2
A) h + 2h + 10 = 0
2
B) h – 2h + 10 = 0
2
C) h + 7h + 10 = 0
2
D) h – 7h + 10 = 0

Q77 A certain triangle has two angles that have the same measure. If the lengths of two of the sides of
the triangle are 70 and 90, what is the largest possible value for the perimeter of the triangle?
A) 160
B) 230
C) 250
D) None of these
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Q78 A new pipeline is being constructed
to re-route its oil flow around the exterior
of a national wildlife preserve. The plan
showing the old pipeline and the new
route is shown on the right side. About
how many extra miles will the oil flow
once the new route is established?
A) 24 miles
B) 68 miles
C) 92 miles
D) 160 miles

Q79 Vectors u and v are given by u = (2, 0) and v = (–3 , 1). What is the length of vector w given by w =
–u – 2v?

A) 10
B) 6
C)
D) 2
Q80 What is the smallest distance between the point(–2, –2) and a point on the circumference of the
2 2
circle given by (x – 1) + (y –2) = 4?

A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6

Q81 The point (0, –2 , 5) lies on the

A) z axis
B) x axis
C) xy plane
D) yz plane

Q82 In the xy – coordinate plane, the distance between point B(8, x) and point A(–8, –x) is 100. What is
one possible value of x?
A) 3
B) 8
C) 11
D) None of these

Q83 Each person at a party shook hands with everyone else exactly once. There were 4950 handshakes.
How many people were at the party?
A) 98
B) 99
C) 100
D) 101

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Q84 The sum of the sixth and fourteenth term of an arithmetic progression is 40. What is the sum of the
first 19 terms of the arithmetic progression?
A) 360
B) 380
C) 400
D) 420

Q85 What is the maximum value of ?

A) 2
B) –2
C) 0
D) 1

Q86 =

A) 40
B) –5
C) –8
D) 60
333 1024
Q87 f(x) = –7x – 9x + 1; f(–1) = ?
A) –15
B) –1
C) 3
D) None of these
2
Q88 Which of the following is equivalent to 6x + 5x – 6?

A) (2x – 3)(3x + 2)
B) (2x – 3)(3x – 2)
C) (2x + 3)(3x – 4)
D) (3x – 2)(2x + 3)

Q89 Find the perimeter of the square in which a circle of area 144 is inscribed.

A) 12
B) 24
C) 48
D) 96

Q90 The number of terms in the finite geometric progression 3, 6, 12, 24, …., 12288 is
A) 11
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14

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Mathematics M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 50 (from 1 to 50) Time: 80 Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 1 To 8 Negative markings: Yes

Q1 In the xy coordinate plane, line L contains the points (0, 0) and ( 1, 3). If line M is perpendicular to L and
passes through the origin, then the equation of line M is

A) y = 3x
B) x = 3y
C) x+y=3
D) x = – 3y
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Q2 If > 0 satisfying = , then the value of w will be

A)

B)

C)

D)
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Q3 If w percent of 80 is 60 percent of h, what is the value of h in terms of w?

A)

B)
C)
D)
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Q4 If the modes of the set {1, 3, 6, 9, 12, 4x y, y x} are 6 and 9, then x + y is
I. 16
II. 19
III. 21
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and III
D) Both I and II
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Q5 The mode of a set of 4 positive integers is 7. What is the least possible value of the sum of these 4 integers?
A) 14
B) 16
C) 17
D) 18
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Q6 Which has the largest area?
A) Rectangle of dimensions 10.4×9.5
B) Square of side 10
C) Triangle of base 20 and height 10
D) Right-angled triangle of perpendicular sides 20 and 11
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Q7 If a2b 3c4d 5 > 0 and d < 0, which of the following must be true?

A) a < 0
B) b < 0
C) c < 0
D) ab < 0
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Q8 Aslam, Farid, and Majid are going to buy a shop that costs 54 million rupees. If Aslam pays 5 million rupees
more than Farid and Farid pays twice as much as Majid, then how much does Farid pay?
A) 9.8 million rupees
B) 19.6 million rupees
C) 24.6 million rupees
D) None of these
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Q9 =

A)
B)
C)
D)
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3 2
Q10 Let us consider a function f (x) = x – x – x – 8. If f (u) = – 8, how many real values of u are there?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
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Q11 At the start of each academic year the University of Knowledge increases the tuition fee by 10%. And that
increase is applicable to all students (new as well as old). If at the start of first year the annual tuition fee is Rs
100,000 (including recent 10% increase), how much will it be at the beginning of the third year?
A) Rs 110,000
B) Rs 120,000
C) Rs 121,000
D) Rs 130,000
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Q12 Find if .

A)

B)
C) 1
D) 0
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Q13 A scientist found that the number of bacteria in a sample doubles every 3 hours. If there were 48 bacteria in
the sample at the start of the experiment, how many bacteria were there after 15 hours?
A) 384
B) 768
C) 1536
D) 3072
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Q14 If G is divisible by 3, 6, and 10, which of the following is also divisible by these numbers?
A) G + 36
B) G + 90
C) G + 70
D) G + 40
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Q15 If = what is the value of ?

A)
B)
C)

D)
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Q16 If is a multiple of 11, which of the following must also be a multiple of 11?
A) Only
B) Only
C) Only
D) Both and
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Q17 Let x, 3, and 6 be the lengths of three sides of a triangle. How many such triangles are possible with x
being a positive integer?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
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Q18 The hypotenuse of my right triangle is 18 and one of the angles is 45 degrees. What’s the length of the side
adjacent to that angle?
A) 9
B)
C) 9

D)
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2
Q19 If the product of the two roots of the quadratic equation x + mx + m(m 1) = 0 is 2, then the value of m is
A) Only 2
B) Only – 1
C) Both 2 and – 1
D) None of these
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Q20 If the ages of players in a cricket team vary between 17 and 37 inclusive, which of the following describes
all possible ages x in this cricket team?
A) |x – 17| ≤ 27
B) |x + 27| ≤ 10
C) |x – 27| ≤ 10
D) |x – 37| ≤ 17
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Q21 If is a positive integer, then the remainder, when x is divided by 5 is

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
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2
Q22 Which of the following is equivalent to 3x + 2x – 5?
A) (5 – 3x)(2 – x)
B) (3x – 5)(x + 1)
C) (x + 5)(3x – 1)
D) (3x + 5)(x – 1)
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Q23 WXYZ is a quadrilateral such that WZ = 2XW, ZY = XW, XY = XW + WZ, and XY + ZY = 16. What is
the perimeter of WXYZ?
A) 48

B) 42

C) 36

D) 28
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Q24 The sum of the first 20 terms in an arithmetic progression is 200 and the sum of the next 10 terms is 400.
Find the fortieth term.
A) 49

B) 59

C) 69

D) 79
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Q25 The first three terms of a sequence are 8, 15, 22. Each term after the first is obtained by adding 7 to the
term immediately preceding it. Which term in the sequence is equal to 15 + 7(26 – 1)?
A) The 6th

B) The 7th

C) The 27th

D) The 28th

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Q26 A store is offering a 20% reduction of all regular prices such that the new price of a LED TV set is fifty
thousand rupees. What was the price, in rupees, of the LED TV set before the reduction?

A) 62500
B) 57500
C) 55000
D) 52500

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Q27 An increasing geometric progression has positive terms. The sum of the first eight terms is seventeen times
the sum of the first four terms. The seventh term is 960. The ninth term is

A) 30720
B) 7680
C) 3840
D) None of these
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Q28 There are 50 boys and 60 girls in the cafeteria. After x boys and x – 5 girls have left the cafeteria, the

probability of selecting a girl becomes , what is the value of x?

A) 30 B) 35
C) 40 D) 45
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Q29 Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the geometric series starting at 10 and decreasing by a factor of 2 each
time

A)

B)

C)

D)

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2
Q30 Given that u is directly proportional the cube of w. Find the value of w when u = 27, if u = 8 when w = 8.
A) 14 B) 16
C) 18 D) 20
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Q31 If M and N are negative integers and 5M – 4N = 20, which of the following CAN NOT be a value of M?

A) – 4 B) – 8
C) – 10 D) – 12
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Q32 If x = 2 – , then the value of – will be

A) 14
B) – 8
C) 7 – 4
D) 7 + 4
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Q33 Kamran ran from his house to the supermarket at an average speed of 6 KM per hour and returned along
the same route at an average speed of 4 KM per hour. If the total time it took him to run to the supermarket and
back was ninety minutes, how many minutes did it take him to run from the supermarket to her house?
A) 36
B) 54
C) 45
D) None of these
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Q34 How many 3 digit positive integers exist that when divided by 7 leave a remainder of 0?

A) 127
B) 128
C) 129
D) 142

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Q35 If is an integer chosen randomly from the set {6, 7, 8, 9} and β is an integer chosen randomly from the

set {36, 42, 56, 81}, what is the probability that is an integer?

A)

B)

C)

D)

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q36 The set Ѕ consists of all multiples of 8. Which of the following sets are contained within Ѕ?
I. The set of all multiples of 4
II. The set of all multiples of 16
III. The set of all multiples of 32
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) II and III only
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q37 If n is a positive integer divisible by 3, 4 and 6, which of the following is true?
I. n(n + 3) is divisible by 9
II. n + 12 is divisible by 12
III. n(n + 4) is divisible by 16
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
C) II and III only
D) I, II and III
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q38 The average of the first six data values of a data set is equal to 29. The average of the last four data values
of the set is equal to 33. What is the average of the ten data values?
A) 26.2
B) 28.4
C) 30.6
D) 32.8

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Q39 Find the missing terms in the following arithmetic sequence: ?, 10, ?, 70, ?, 130

A) 0, 20, 80
B) – 10, 30, 90
C) – 20, 40, 100
D) None of these
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Q40 If x2 + 72 = x4, then the value of x will be
A) Only ± 3
B) Only ±2
C) Both ± 3 and ±2
D) None of these
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q41 A geometric progression has a positive common ratio, and the sixth term is . The sum of the first
three terms and the sum of the third, fourth, and fifth terms are in the ratio 16 : 25. Find the sum of the first
three terms.
A) 4.76

B) 3.05

C) 1.95

D) None of these
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Q42 Jamil and Jalil together have 30 books. Both of them gifted 5 books each to a charity organization, and the
product of the number of books they now have is 91. How many books did they have at the beginning?
A) 15, 15

B) 7, 13

C) 12, 18

D) None of these
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Q43 A shopkeeper earns a profit of R70 for every 3 bags of wheat it sells. How many bags of wheat must the
shopkeeper sell in order to make a R1400 profit?
A) 75

B) 60

C) 45

D) 30
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Q44 Find the next 3 terms in the sequence: 256, – 64, 16, …
A) 8, – 4, 1
B) – 8, 4, –1
C) 4, – 1, 0.25
D) – 4, 1, – 0.25

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Q45 If = 0, what is the value of x?

A) Only 0
B) Only 3
C) Both 0 and 3
D) None of these
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Q46 If A is the set of all integers greater than –2π, and B is the set of all integers less than (–2π) 2, how many
integers are in both sets?
A) 40 B) 43
C) 46 D) 49
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Q47 A special lottery is to be held to select the student who will live in the only deluxe room in a boys hostel.
There are 150 seniors, 300 juniors, and 600 sophomores who applied. Each senior's name is placed in the lottery
4 times; each junior's name, 3 times; and each sophomore's name, 2 times. What is the probability that a junior's
name will be chosen?

A) B)

C) D) None of these

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Q48 Which of the following is the graph (not drawn to scale) for the line x – y = – 1?

A)

B)

C)

D) None of these
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q49 A list contains 20 consecutive odd integers. The average of these integers is 24. What is the largest odd
integer in the list?

A) 45 B) 43
C) 41 D) 39

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Q50 How many numbers from – 300 to 300 inclusive are equal to the cube of an integer?

A) 6

B) 7

C) 12

D) 13
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NTHP PAGE NO.135
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English M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 40 (from 51 to 90) Time: 45 Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 9 To 14 Negative markings: Yes

Grammar and Vocabulary Section

Qs 51-60 Choose the answer that is most appropriate to complete the sentence

51. The crew of the air balloon ____ the sand bags to help the balloon rise over the hill.
A. capsized
B. jettisoned
C. salvaged
D. augmented

52. We were not fooled by his ____ arguments; his plan was obviously ____ .
A. cogent - brilliant
B. hackneyed - banal
C. convoluted - labyrinthine
D. specious - untenable

53. Hawkins is ____ in his field; no other contemporary scientist commands the same respect.
A. disparaged
B. ignominious
C. preeminent
D. anachronistic

54. The model paraded in front of the celebrities with ____ ; it was impossible to tell that this was her first
assignment.
A. panache
B. opprobrium
C. shame
D. trepidation

55. The term lead pencil is a ____ ; pencils are filled with graphite not lead.
A. misnomer
B. misdemeanor
C. peccadillo
D. euphemism

56. The ____ weather forced us to stay indoors.

A. enticing
B. glorious
C. restorative
D. inclement

57. It will be hard to ____ Leonid now that you have so ____ him.
A. pacify - soothed
B. mollify - incensed
C. antagonize - irritated
D. anger - ruffled

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58. The lectures on quantum physics were invariably ____ ; the lecturer ____ his ill-prepared material in a
manner guaranteed to send even the most ardent student to sleep.
A. stimulating - delivered
B. pedestrian - enthused about
C. soporific - droned
D. scintillating - intoned

59. Edward was understandably upset that he had lost the position, but he was ____ by the conviction that he
had done nothing to ____ the dismissal.
A. consoled - merit
B. warmed - avoid
C. comforted - mar
D. miffed - delay

60. Elinor ____ to counteract her negative feelings, but only succeeded in ____ them.
A. tried - allaying
B. hoped - mitigating
C. desired – ameliorating
D. endeavored - intensifying
Qs 61 to 70 Choose the correct sentence
61. A conjunction is used to connect words and sentences together.
A. words and sentences together.
B. words or sentences together.
C. words and sentences.
D. words or sentences.

62. Antony, coming alongside Cleopatra's ship, climbed aboard without seeing or being seen by her.
A. climbed aboard without seeing or being seen by her.
B. climbed aboard without seeing Cleopatra or being seen by her.
C. climbs aboard without Cleopatra seeing him
D. boarded without being seen by her.

63. Bombast is when high sounding words for effect, not suitability, are used.
A. is when high sounding words for effect, not suitability, are used.
B. is the use of high-sounding words for effect rather than for suitability
C. is where high-sounding words are used for effect not suitability.
D. is the using of high-sounding words for effect only.

64. I would like to thank whoever it was that wrote that piece of music: it has given me so much pleasure.
A. I would like to thank whoever it was that wrote that piece of music:
B. I would like to thank whomever it was that has written that piece of music:
C. I would like to thank whomever it might be that wrote that piece of music
D. Whoever it was that wrote that piece of music, I would like to thank because

65. Your taking a loan to buy a car annoyed Father.

A. Your taking a loan to buy a car annoyed Father.
B. Your taking a loan to buy a car aggravated Father.
C. You taking a loan to buy a car irritated Father.
D. You taking a loan to buy a car annoyed Father.

66. In the initial stages of learning a new language we learn more through listening and attempting to copy
speech patterns and not through reading grammar books.
A. and attempting to copy speech patterns and not through reading grammar books.
B. and attempting to copy speech patterns than through reading grammar books.
C. and attempts to copy speech patterns than through reading grammar books.
D. and attempts at copying speech patterns than through reading grammar books.
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67. Between you and I, I doubt that he will come.
A. and I, I doubt that he will come.
B. and I, I doubt that he would come.
C. and me, I doubt that he will come.
D. and me, I doubt that he would come.

68. Work that is not finished is not work at all, it is merely a botch, a failure.
A. all, it is merely a botch, a failure.
B. all, it is a botch merely, and a failure.
C. all; it is merely a botch, a failure.
D. all; the work merely is a botch and a failure.

69. Pollution and degradation of the environment is, according to the commission's report, a matter of universal
concern.
A. is, according to the commission's report, a matter of universal concern.
B. is, according to the report by the commission, a matter of universal concern.
C. is, according to the report of the commission, matters of universal concern.
D. are, according to the commission's report, a matter of universal concern.

70. Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement as for their being practical work
clothes.
A. Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement as for their being practical work
clothes.
B. Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement but for their being practical work
clothes.
C. Denim jeans were originally worn not so much as a fashion statement but for being practical work clothes
D. Denim jeans were originally worn not as a fashion statement as for them being practical work clothes.

Qs 71-80 Find the word most SIMILAR in meaning to the given word.

71. Unprepossessing
A Ugly
B. Arrogant
C Personable
D. Didactic

22. Turbid
A. Shiny
B. Murky
C. Pellucid
D. Petrified

73. Potable
A. Bland
B. Unsavory
C. Drinkable
D. Fertile

74. Flagrant
A. Inauthentic
B. Unperturbed
C. Slanderous
D. Blatant

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75. Undermine
A. Impose
B. Apprehend
C. Glorify
D. Weaken

76. Tenuous
A. Dark
B. Playful
C. Weak
D. Unfathomable

77. Parochial
A. Cosmopolitan
B. Xenophobic
C. Parsimonious
D. Belligerent

78. Destitute
A. Impoverished
B. Desolate
C. Affluent
D. Meticulous

79. Tacit
A. Tenacious
B. Ostensible
C. Unspoken
D. Peaceful

80. Palliative
A. Tyrannical
B. Overt
C. Curative
D. Festive

Qs 81 to 90 Reading Comprehension

Passage 1
The pioneers of the teaching of science imagined that its introduction into education would remove the
conventionality, artificiality, and backward-lookingness which were characteristic; of classical studies, but they
were gravely disappointed. So, too, in their time had the humanists thought that the study of the classical
authors in the original would banish at once the dull pedantry and superstition of mediaeval scholasticism. The
professional schoolmaster was a match for both of them, and has almost managed to make the understanding
of chemical reactions as dull and as dogmatic an affair as the reading of Virgil's Aeneid.

The chief claim for the use of science in education is that it teaches a child something about the actual universe
in which he is living, in making him acquainted with the results of scientific discovery, and at the same time
teaches him how to think logically and inductively by studying scientific method. A certain limited success has
been reached in the first of these aims, but practically none at all in the second. Those privileged members of
the community who have been through a secondary or public school education may be expected to know
something about the elementary physics and chemistry of a hundred years ago, but the probably know hardly
more than any bright boy can pick up from an interest in wireless or scientific hobbies out of school hours. As
to the learning of scientific method, the whole thing is palpably a farce. Actually, for the convenience of
teachers and the requirements of the examination system, it is necessary that the pupils not only do not learn
scientific method but learn precisely the reverse, that is, to believe exactly what they are told and to reproduce it
when asked, whether it seems nonsense to them or not. The way in which educated people respond to such
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NTHP PAGE NO.139
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quackeries as spiritualism or astrology, not to say more dangerous ones such as racial theories or currency
myths, shows that fifty years of education in the method of science in Britain or Germany has produced no
visible effect whatever. The only way of learning the method of science is the long and bitter way of personal
experience, and, until the educational or social systems are altered to make this possible, the best we can expect
is the production of a minority of people who are able to acquire some of the techniques of science and a still
smaller minority who are able to use and develop them.

81. The author implies that the 'professional schoolmaster' has

A. no interest in teaching science
B. thwarted attempts to enliven education
C. aided true learning
D. supported the humanists

82. The author’s attitude to secondary and public school education in the sciences is
A. ambivalent
B. neutral
C. supportive
D. contemptuous

83. The word ‘palpably’ most nearly means

A. empirically
B. obviously
C. tentatively
D. markedly

84. The author blames all of the following for the failure to impart scientific method through the education
system except
A. poor teaching
B. examination methods
C. lack of direct experience
D. lack of interest on the part of students

85. If the author were to study current education in science to see how things have changed since he wrote the
piece, he would probably be most interested in the answer to which of the following questions?
A. Do students know more about the world about them?
B. Do students spend more time in laboratories?
C. Can students apply their knowledge logically?
D. Have textbooks improved?

86. Astrology is mentioned as an example of

A. a science that needs to be better understood
B. a belief which no educated people hold
C. something unsupportable to those who have absorbed the methods of science
D. the gravest danger to society

87. All of the following can be inferred from the text except
A. at the time of writing, not all children received a secondary school education
B. the author finds chemical reactions interesting
C. science teaching has imparted some knowledge of facts to some children
D. it is relatively easy to learn scientific method.

Passage 2
Erosion is regarded not merely as the physical removal of soil by water and wind, but rather as the deterioration
of all the component parts of the habitat in which man and his crops and livestock have to exist. Since there is
no conclusive evidence for any major climatic change in historic times to explain this deterioration, we must
conclude that the eroding of the total environment has been due primarily to thoughtless destruction of the

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vegetative cover. This has led to deterioration of the microclimate above and below the surface, generally in the
direction of a general drying out of the soil which has exposed it to erosive action of wind and rainfall of high
intensity or frequency, and to the loss of organic matter in the soil, thus reducing its capacity to resist erosion by
conserving the water that falls on the surface. If everything possible is done within the total environment to
conserve the naturally planted or cultivated vegetation, this will also ensure optimal conservation of soil and
water.

88. It is argued in the passage that the impoverishment of the world's habitat .......... .
A. is first and foremost due to man's irresponsible abuse of the vegetable cover of the earth
B. is largely due to gradual changes in climate over long years
C. became inevitable as soon as agricultural and animal husbandry developed
D. cannot be remedied

89. The definition of erosion given in this passage ............ .

A. is a strictly regional one

B. disregards man's role in it
C. concentrates on flooding
D. is a broad one

90. It is pointed out in the passage that the loss of organic matter in the soil ............ .

A. led to the destruction of the world's vegetative cover

B. is a direct result of insufficient rain
C. is an irreversible process
D. has made the soil more susceptible to erosion

This is the END of part 2. Please wait for part 3 (writing two essays).

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Essay Writing

Each part 20 minutes

I. Present your perspective on the topic below in three paragraphs, using relevant reasons and/or examples to
support your views based on your own readings, observations and experience. ( 400 words)

Is it true that acting quickly and instinctively is the best response to crisis? Or are there times when an urgent situation
requires a more careful consideration and a slower response? Plan your response and then write an essay ( 400
words)idea.

II. Discuss how well reasoned you find this argument. In your discussion be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and
the use of evidence in the argument. ( 250 words)

It is known that in recent years, industrial pollution has caused the Earth's ozone layer to thin, allowing an increase in
the amount of ultraviolet radiation that reaches the Earth's surface. At the same time, scientists have discovered, the
population of a species of salamander that lays its eggs in mountain lakes has declined. Since ultraviolet radiation is
known to be damaging to delicate tissues and since salamander eggs have no protective shells, it must be the case that
the increase in ultraviolet radiation has damaged many salamander eggs and prevented them from hatching. This
process will no doubt cause population declines in other species, just as it has in the salamander species

Stop. Please, do not turn over this page until you are told to do so.

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NTHP PAGE NO.142
 Paper-VII

Mathematics M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 50 (from 1 to 50) Time: 80 Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 1 To 12 Negative Markings: Yes

Q1 Sidrah is staying at a hotel in Dubai that charges Dhs 475 per night plus taxes for a room. A tax of
20% is applied to the room rate. Dhs 15 per room per night Tourism tax will be extra. Which of the
following represents Sidrah’s total charge, in Dhs for staying y nights?

A) 510y
B) 570y + 15
C) 570y
D) None of these
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q2 Which of the following equations represents a line that is parallel to the line with equation
y = 7x + 6?
1
I. 7x – y = 6 II. 2y = 14x + 6 III. x– y=1
7

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I, II and III
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24 12
Q3 Solution to the equation –
2𝑥+1 2𝑥−1
= 1?

I. 3.5 II. 2.5 III. 1.5

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
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Q4 In the xy-plane, the graph of function f has x-intercepts at −5, −4, and 2. Which of the following
could define f?
A) f(x) = (x− 5)(x− 4)(x + 2)
B) f(x) = (x + 5)( x + 4)2
C) f(x) = ( x− 5)(x – 4)(x – 2)
D) f(x) = (x2+ 2x – 8)(x + 5)2
NTHP PAGE NO.143
Q5 The measure E, in degrees, of an exterior angle of a regular polygon is related to the number of
sides, n, of the polygon by the formula nE = 360. If the measure of an exterior angle of a regular polygon
is greater than 80°, what is the greatest number of sides it can have?
I. 3 II. 4 III. 5

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I, II and III
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Q6 Suppose f(x) = x3 + 5x2 – 6 and g(x) = 2x2 – 5x – 31. Which of the following polynomials is divisible by
x – 2?
A) 2f(x) + 3g(x)
B) 2f(x) – 3g(x)
C) 3f(x) – 4g(x)
D) 3f(x) + 2g(x)
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Q7 It is estimated that the cost C, in rupees, of producing m items is C = 15 m + 600. The manufacturer
sells each item for 24 rupees. The manufacturer makes a profit when total income from selling a
quantity of items is greater than the total cost of producing that quantity of items. Which of the
following inequalities gives all possible values of m for which the manufacture will make a profit?

A) m > 67
B) m > 66
C) m < 67
D) m < 66
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2−3𝑖
Q8 Which of the following complex number is equivalent to (it may please be noted that i = √−1).
1+4𝑖
−10+11𝑖
A)
17
−10−11𝑖
B)
17
10+11𝑖
C)
17
10−11𝑖
D)
17
NTHP PAGE NO.144
Q9 If p is the average (arithmetic mean) of 3α and 7, q is the average of 4α and 22, and r is the average
of 5α and 13, what is the average of p, q, and r in terms of α?

A) 3α + 7
B) 4α + 10.5
C) 2α + 7
D) 12α + 42
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Q10 What is the sum of the first 45 terms of an arithmetic sequence if the sum of its 18th and 28th term
is 36?

A) 3240
B) 1620
C) 810
D) 405
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Q11 The function f is defined by f(x) = x2 + αx + β, where α and β are constants. In the xy-plane, the
graph of f intersects the x-axis at two points (1, 0) and (3, 0). What is the value of β – α?

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
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Q12 What is the 7th term of a geometric sequence if the difference between its 3rd and 1st term is 18
and that between its 4th and 2nd term is 9?

A) –3
B) –1.5
C) –0.75
D) –0.375
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Q13 What is the sum of all values of k that satisfy 3k2 – 27k + 10 = 0?
A) −10
B) 10
C) −9
D) 9

NTHP PAGE NO.145

Q14 The line l intersects the x-axis at x = – 4 and the y-axis at y = – 5. Find the slope of that line which
is perpendicular to l.
A) −1.25
B) 1.25
C) −0.8
D) 0.8
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Q15 The mean heights of all the female students in a first year class of a college is 160 cm, and the
mean heights of all male students is 170 cm. Which of the following must be true about the mean height
h (in cm) of the combined group of male and female students in the class?

A) h = 165
B) h > 165
C) 160 < h < 170
D) h < 165
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Q16 If two sides of the triangle have lengths 7 and 9, the perimeter of the triangle could be which of
the following?

I. 20 II. 24 III. 32
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
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Q17 On an average speed of 80 KM per hour, the new model of a certain car covers a distance of 7 KM
per liter of petrol. The car’s petrol tank has 40 liters of petrol at the beginning of a trip. If the car travels
at an average speed of 80 KM per hour, which of the following functions f models the number of liters
of petrol remaining in the tank 𝑡 hours after the trip begins?
80
A) f (𝑡) = 40 – 𝑡
7
7
B) f (𝑡) = 40 – 𝑡
80
40−80 𝑡
C) f (𝑡 ) =
7
D) None of these

NTHP PAGE NO.146

Q18 A radioactive substance decays at an annual rate of 37 percent. If the initial amount of the
substance is 97 grams, which of the following functions f models the remaining amount of the
substance, in grams, t years later?
A) f(t) = 97(0.63)t

B) f(t) = 97(0.37)t

C) f(t) = 0.63(97)t

D) f(t) = 0.73(97)t
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Q19 If m and n are integers such that n > m > 0 and n 2 – m2 = 15, which of the following cannot be the
value of n – m?
I. 3 II. 5 III. 15
A) II only
B) III only
C) II and III only
D) I, II, and III
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2
Q20 A line in the xy-plane passes through the point (1, 2) and has a slope of . Which of the following
3
points lies on the line?
I. (2, 1) II. (7, 6) III. (4, 4)

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
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Q21 Suppose m is the median of the 9 numbers which are 27, 33, 16, 18, 8, 16, 29, 16, and m. Which of
the following could be the value of m?
I. 16 II. 17 III. 18

A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I, II and III

NTHP PAGE NO.147

Q22 If n is divisible by 4, 5, and 6, which of the following is also divisible by these numbers?
A) n + 20
B) n + 24
C) n + 30
D) n + 60
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Q23 If (x, y) be a solution of the system x2 – y2 = 3x, y = – 2x, then (x, y) =

I. (0, 0) II. (– 1, 2) III. (2, – 1)

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
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Q24 If x and y are integers, |x| < 15, and xy = 100 , how many possible values are there for y?

A) five
B) six
C) eight
D) ten
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q25 The sum of three numbers is 952. One of the numbers, z, is 40% less than the sum of the other two
numbers. What is the value of z?

A) 272
B) 380.8
C) 357
D) 571.2
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3𝑥 2 𝑥
Q26 If the expression is written in the equivalent form + A. What is A in terms of x?
3𝑥−1 3𝑥−1
A) 3x
B) x
3𝑥 2 +1
C)
3𝑥−1
D) None of these

NTHP PAGE NO.148

Q27Two spheres one with radius 10 and one with radius 20, are tangent to each other. If P is any point
on one sphere and Q is any point on the other sphere what is the maximum possible length of 𝑃𝑄̅̅̅̅ ?

A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 60
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p
Q28 If p and q are nonzero integers and 81p = 27q, what is the value of ?
q

3
A)
4
4
B)
3
27
C)
7
7
D)
27

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𝜋
Q29 Which of the following is equal to cos ( ) ?
7

𝜋
A) sin ( )
7
5𝜋
B) sin ( )
14
5𝜋
C) cos ( )
14
5𝜋
D) – sin ( )
14

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q30 If two fair dice are thrown, what is the probability that at least one of them shows a number greater
than 3?
A) 0.2
B) 0.4
C) 0.6
D) 0.75
NTHP PAGE NO.149
Q31 In the system of equations below, u and v are constants. If the system has more than one solution,
u
what is the value of ?
v
–2x + uy = v
x – 2y = 3
−2
A)
3
−3
B)
2
2
C)
3
3
D)
2
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q32 The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 16 and one of the angles is 45 degrees. What’s the length of
the side opposite to that angle?

A) 8√2
B) 16√2
C) 32√2
D) None of these
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q33 Which of the following equations has a graph in the xy-plane for which y is always less than or
equal to 4?

A) y=x+4
B) y = 4 – |x|
C) y = − 6 + 2x2
D) y = 4(x – 3)2

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q34 Which of the following is an equation of a circle in the xy-plane with center (0, 5) and a radius with
endpoint (5, 0)?

A) x2 + (y – 5)2 = 50
B) (x – 5) 2 + (y – 5)2 = 50
C) (x + 5) 2 + (y – 5)2 = 50
D) (x – 5) 2 + y2 = 50
NTHP PAGE NO.150
Q35 What is the domain of f(𝑥 ) = √9 − 𝑥 2 ?

A) |𝑥|> 9
B) |𝑥|< 9
C) |𝑥|< 3
D) |𝑥|≤ 3
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q36 What’s the probability of selecting a number in random out of the range 1–17, inclusive, and
getting a prime number?
8
A)
17
7
B)
17
6
C)
17
5
D)
17
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q37 For a polynomial g(x), the value of g(5) is −9. Which of the following must be true about g(x)?

A) x + 9 is a factor of g(x)
B) x − 9 is a factor of g(x)
C) The remainder when g(x) is divided by x – 5 is −9
D) The remainder when g(x) is divided by x + 5 is −9
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q38 Find m if the sum of the consecutive integers from – 16 to m, inclusive, is 74.

A) 17
B) 18
C) 19
D) 20

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q39 In the xy-plane the line l passes through the points (5, 4) and (4, 5). Another line k passes through
the points (– 5, 4) and (6, α) and is parallel to l. What is the value of α?

A) 5
B) 4
C) −7
D) 15
NTHP PAGE NO.151
Q40 A unary operator ◊ is defined as ◊ x = x2 – 4x + 3. If ◊ β = ◊ (3 – 2β), what is the value of β?
A) 1 only
B) – 1 only
C) ±1
D) None of these
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q41 The graph of a line in the xy-plane has slope 4 and contains the point (7, 8). The graph of a second
line passes through the points (–7, –8) and (–8, –7). If the two lines intersect at the point (p, q), what is
the value of 3p – 2q?
A) 5
B) 15
C) 25
D) 35
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q42 One root of the equation x2 – 5x + k = 0 is 3 (where k is a constant). What are the roots of
x2 – 5x – k = 0?

A) 6 and –1
B) – 6 and 1
C) 6 and 1
D) – 6 and –1
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q43 In the xy-plane, the parabola with equation y = –(x + 3)2 intersects the line with equation y = 4x at
̅̅̅̅?
two points, P and Q. What is the length of PQ
A) 40
B) 8√17
C) 50
D) 10√5
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q44 What is the volume of a cube with surface area 60x2?

A) 180x3
B) 10√10x3
C) 15√15x3
D) None of these
NTHP PAGE NO.152
 6𝑥 2 −𝑎𝑥+𝑎
Q45 The equation = 6𝑥 − 7𝑎 is valid for all values of 𝑥 ≠ −𝑎, where 𝑎 is a constant. What
𝑥+𝑎
is the value of 𝑎?

6 1
I. 0 II. III. −
7 7

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q46 Two sides of a right-angled triangle are 6 and 8 cm respectively. What is the 3rd side of the triangle?

I. 10cm II. 7cm III. 2√7cm

A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and III only

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q47 The table below shows some values of the linear function f. Which of the following defines f?

x 1 2 3 4 5

f(x) 1 6 11 16 21

A) f(x) = 3x – 2
B) f(x) = 2x – 1
C) f(x) = 5x – 4
D) None of these

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q48 If a regular polygon has 20 diagonals, then it must be

A) Pentagon
B) Hexagon
C) Octagon
D) None of these

NTHP PAGE NO.153

Q49 If the larger sides of a rectangle are increased by 25% and the smaller sides are decreased by 20%,
then the area of the rectangle will

A) decrease by 20%
B) increase by 25%
C) decrease by 25%
D) remain the same
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q50 When the positive integer q is divided by 8, the remainder is 3. What is the remainder when
3q + 2 is divided by 4?

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Stop. This is the END of part 1. Please, do not turn over the next page until you are told to do so.

NTHP PAGE NO.154

 No Test Material on This Page

NTHP PAGE NO.155

 English s M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 49 (from 51 to 99) Time Allowed: 55 Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 13 To 20 Negative markings: Yes
For questions 51-58, select the answer that shows the best punctuation for the underlined part of the sentence.

51. Alina bought three new pairs of shoes even though she had put herself on a tight budget just last week.

a. shoes, even though, she

b. shoes, even though she
c. shoes. Even though she
d. shoes; even though she

52. Most residents of the building have air conditioners however I’ve always found that a ceiling fan is sufficient.

a. air conditioners however: I’ve

b. air conditioners, however, I’ve
c. air conditioners however, I’ve
d. air conditioners; however, I’ve

53. “Are you OK,” asked Rayan, “Are you sure you don’t want to sit down and rest for a while?”

a. OK?” asked Timothy. “Are

b. OK?” asked Timothy, “Are
c. OK,” asked Timothy? “Are
d. OK?” asked Timothy? “Are

54. The owners of the restaurant maintain that only organic ingredients are used in their kitchen.

a. maintain that only

b. maintain that, only
c. maintain: that only
d. maintain—that only

55. Before the student could be hired by the company, the students adviser had to provide a letter of recommendation.

a. company the students

b. company, the student’s
c. company, the students’
d. company the students’

56. The employees asked whether the company would be offering tuition reimbursement within the next three years?

a. reimbursement within the next three years!

b. reimbursement, within the next three years.
c. reimbursement within the next three years.
d. reimbursement, within the next three years?

57. This is the new restaurant you’ve been talking about, isn’t it?

a. about isn’t it?

b. about, is’nt it?
c. about, isn’t it.
d. about, isn’t it?

58. Turnips a root vegetable can be mashed, roasted, or used in casseroles.

a. Turnips, a root vegetable,

b. Turnips, a root vegetable
c. Turnips, a root vegetable —
d. Turnips a root vegetable,

NTHP PAGE NO.156

For questions 59-66, please complete the sentence by selecting the most logical word.

59. Ambreen wasn’t feeling well. _____________, she decided to stay home from work.

a. Therefore
b. Meanwhile
c. However
d. Anyway

60. ___________ he waited for the doctor to call him in, Sam sat in the waiting room and read the newspaper.

a. So that
b. While
c. Even if
d. Besides when

61. Sohail loves listening to qawaali, ________ his contrarian brother Imran will only listen to Bollywood film songs.

a. however
b. then
c. so
d. therefore

62. The ticket said the concert would start at 8:00, but the curtains didn’t go up _________ 8:30.

a. less than
b. until
c. about
d. since

63. My neighbor is deathly afraid of dogs; ___________, I never let my Golden Retriever, Sandy, outside without a leash.

a. moreover
b. yet
c. mainly
d. consequently

64. Ruby loves blueberry pie _________ it is made with freshly picked blueberries.

a. whether
b. because
c. when
d. as if

65. __________ our low annual fee, you will receive a 20% discount if you sign up this week.

a. Because
b. While
c. In spite of
d. In addition to

66. Aliha’s wedding outfit was designed as a sentimental way to make use of fabric taken ______________ dowry garments that
belonged to older couples in her family.

a. from
b. with
c. in
d. at

NTHP PAGE NO.157

For questions 67-78, replace the underlined portion with the phrase that best completes the sentence.

67. His was the fifth of the five speeches the Chief Minister gave during this the month of May.

a. This was the fifth of the five speeches the mayor gave during this the month of May.
b. Of the five speeches the mayor gave during May, this was the fifth one.
c. Thus far during the month of May, the mayor gave five speeches and this was the fifth.
d. This was the fifth speech the mayor has given during the month of May.

68. We enjoyed our trip to the desert where you could see the tall cactus, the blooming flowers, and the little desert animals.

a. desert where you could see

b. desert; you could see
c. desert; where we saw
d. desert; we saw

69. Opposite to what many financial analysts have predicted, the stock market rose by 22 points this month.

a. Opposite in what many financial analysts had predicted,

b. Contrary to the predictions of many financial analysts,
c. As against the predictions of many financial analysts,
d. Contrary with what many financial analysts predicted,

70. With her book Coming of Age in Samoa, anthropologist Margaret Mead emphasized the role of culture, rather than biology, in
shaping human behavior.

a. rather than biology, in shaping human behavior.

b. rather than biology with shaping human behavior.
c. in shaping human behavior, and not biology.
d. in shaping human behavior over biology.

71. Along with your membership to our health club and two months of free personal training.

a. Along with your membership to our health club, and

b. Along with your membership to our health club you receive
c. With your membership to our health club,
d. In addition to your membership to our health club being

72. Our contention is that a body of common knowledge shared by literate Indians of the late nineteenth century and that this
knowledge can be defined.

a. Our contention is that a body of common knowledge shared by

b. To contend that a body of common knowledge is shared by
c. That a common body of knowledge was shared is our contention with
d. It is our contention that a body of common knowledge was shared by

73. Whether they earn a BS degree, chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job.

a. Whether they earn

b. If they earn
c. Once earning
d. Since earning

74. If someone is looking for the best car loan, you should compare interest rates at several banks.

a. If someone is looking
b. When one is looking
c. If you are looking
d. When someone is about to look

NTHP PAGE NO.158

75. The residents of Gulshan-e-Iqbal have accused local body members with being careless with the spending of allocated tax
revenues.

a. with being careless with the spending of

b. as to carelessness in the spending of
c. of carelessness in the spending of
d. with spending carelessly of

76. The friendship between Zeeshan and Kumar began when he and his family moved to Hyderabad.

a. The friendship between Zeeshan and Kumar began when he and his
b. Zeeshan and Kumar’s friendship began when he and his
c. The friendship among the two boys began when he and his
d. The friendship between Zeeshan and Kumar began when Kumar and his

77. When making a mutton korma, only the freshest ingredients should be used.

a. only the freshest ingredients should be used.

b. you should use only the freshest ingredients.
c. the freshest ingredients only should be used.
d. one should be using only the freshest ingredients.

78. The relationships of the state and the broadcasting institutions is quite different from that which obtains between the state and
the press or between the state and the nascent film industry.

a. The relationships of the state and the broadcasting institutions is quite different from that which obtains between
b. The relationship between the state and broadcasting institutions differs in nature with the relationship of
c. The relationships between the state and broadcasting institutions are quite different from that which obtains between
d. The relationship of the state to the broadcasting institutions is different also that that which is between

For questions 79-99, please read each passage with care, and then select the most appropriate answer to each question.
Passage I

Although Victor Turner’s writings have proved fruitful for fields beyond anthropology, his definition of ritual is overly restrictive.
Ritual, he says, is “prescribed formal behavior for occasions not given over to technological routine, having reference to beliefs in
mystical beings or powers.” “Technological routine” here refers to the means by which a social group provides for its material
needs. Turner differentiates ritual from technology to help us recognize that some festivals and celebrations may have little purpose
other than play, but it obscures the practical aims of other rituals, practical aims such as making crops grow or healing patients.
Further, Turner’s definition implies a necessary relationship between ritual and mystical beliefs, but not all rituals are religious.
Some religions make no reference to mystical beings. In others, individuals may be required only to participate, but not necessarily
believe in the efficacy a ritual. Turner's assumption that the performance of rituals follows the development of belief thus limits the
usefulness of his definition in studying ritual across social and cultural formations.

79. According to the passage, Victor Turner is a

a. sociologist.
b. psychiatrist.
c. anthropologist.
d. physicist.

80. According to the passage, which of the following does Turner exclude from his conception of ritual?
a. Behavior based on beliefs
b. Behavior based on formal rules
c. Celebrations whose purpose is play
d. Routines directed toward practical ends
81. The passage suggests that Turner’s definition of ritual assumes that

a. anthropological concepts apply to other fields.

b. festivals and ceremonies are related cultural phenomena.
c. there is a relationship between play and practical ends.
d. rituals refer only to belief in mystical beings or powers.
NTHP PAGE NO.159
82. Readers of this passage can infer that this author believes each of the following about rituals EXCEPT:

a. Some are unrelated to religious belief.

b. Some are intended to serve practical purposes.
c. They are predominantly focused on agricultural ends.
d. They sometimes involve reference to mystical beings.

83. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

a. Factual data are presented and a hypothesis is proposed.

b. A definition is challenged, and two reasons for the challenge are given.
c. A distinction is introduced then shown not to be a true distinction.
d. A statement is quoted, and two assumptions on which it is based are clarified.

Passage 2

The earliest controversies about the relationship between photography and art centered on whether photography's fidelity to
appearances and dependence on a machine allowed it to be a fine art as distinct from merely a practical art. Throughout the nineteenth
century, the defense of photography was identical with the struggle to establish it as a fine art. Against the charge that photography
was a soulless, mechanical copying of reality, photographers asserted that it was instead a privileged way of seeing, a revolt against
commonplace vision, and no less worthy an art than painting.

Ironically, now that photography is securely established as a fine art, many photographers find it pretentious or irrelevant to label it
as such. Serious photographers variously claim to be finding, recording, impartially observing, witnessing events, or exploring
themselves— anything but making works of art. In the nineteenth century, photography's association with the real world placed it
in an ambivalent relation to art; late in the twentieth century, an ambivalent relation exists because of the Modernist heritage in art.
That important photographers are no longer willing to debate whether photography is or is not a fine art, except to proclaim that
their own work is not involved with art, shows the extent to which they simply take for granted the concept of art imposed by the
triumph of Modernism: the better the art, the more subversive it is of the traditional aims of art.

Photographers' disclaimers of any interest in making art tell us more about the harried status of the contemporary notion of art than
about whether photography is or is not art. For example, those photographers who suppose that, by taking pictures, they are getting
away from the pretensions of art as exemplified by painting remind us of those Abstract Expressionist painters who imagined they
were getting away from the intellectual austerity of classical Modernist painting by concentrating on the physical act of painting.
Much of photography's prestige today derives from the convergence of its aims with those of recent art, particularly with the
dismissal of abstract art implicit in the phenomenon of Pop painting during the 1960's. Appreciating photographs is a relief to
sensibilities tired of the mental exertions demanded by abstract art. Classical Modernist painting— that is, abstract art as developed
in different ways by Picasso, Kandinsky, and Matisse— presupposes highly developed skills of looking and a familiarity with other
paintings and the history of art. Photography, like Pop painting, reassures viewers that art is not hard, that photography is about the
subject photographed, not ambiguous, not self-referential, not about Art. Photography, however, has developed all the anxieties and
self-conscious doubts that eat at the heart of classic Modernist work. Many professionals privately have begun to worry that the
promotion of photography as an activity subversive of the traditional pretensions of art has gone too far, and that the glib responses
of a few will push the public to forget that photography is in fact a distinctive, disciplined activity with its own aesthetic methods,
strategies, and frames of resonant reference—in short, an art.

84. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with

a. defining the Modernist attitude toward art

b. explaining how photography emerged as a fine art after the controversies of the nineteenth century
c. explaining the attitudes of serious contemporary photographers toward photography as art and placing those attitudes in their
historical context
d. defining the various approaches that serious contemporary photographers take toward their art and assessing the value of each
of those approaches

85. Which of the following adjectives best describes “the concept of art imposed by the triumph of Modernism”?

a. paradoxical
b. mechanical
c. superficial
d. dramatic

NTHP PAGE NO.160

86. The author introduces Abstract Expressionist painters in order to

a. provide an example of artists who, like serious contemporary photographers, disavowed the traditionally accepted aims of
modern art.
b. call attention to artists whose works often bear a physical resemblance to the works of serious contemporary photographers.
c. develop an analogy between the Abstract Expressionist painters and classical Modernist painters.
d. provide a contrast to Pop artists and others who created works that exemplify the Modernist heritage in art.

87. According to the author, the nineteenth—century defenders of photography mentioned in the passage stressed that
photography was

a. an art that would eventually replace the traditional arts

b. a means of making people familiar with remote locales and unfamiliar things
c. a technology that could be used to observe the world impartially
d. an art comparable to painting

88. According to the passage, which of the following best explains the reaction of serious contemporary photographers to the
question of whether photography is an art?

a. A belief that their reliance on an impersonal machine to produce their art requires the surrender of the authority of their personal
vision.
b. A fear that contemporary viewers may not accept serious photography as an art.
c. A re-assessment of the influence of Abstract Expressionism and Pop Art on the subject matter of the modern photograph.
d. A belief that the best art subverts conventional definitions of art.

89. According to the passage, some contemporary photographers expressly make which of the following claims about their
photographs?

a. Their photographs could be created by almost anyone with a camera and time to devote to the activity.
b. Their photographs are not examples of art, but rather examples of the individual photographer’s' impartial observation of the
world.
c. Their photographs are important because of their subjects, but not because of the responses they evoke in viewers.
d. Their photographs exhibit the same ageless principles of form and shading that have been used in painting.

90. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most probably considers serious contemporary photography to be a

a. contemporary art that is struggling to be accepted as fine art.

b. craft requiring sensitivity but by no means an art.
c. modern art that displays the tendency of all Modernist art to become increasingly formal and abstract.
d. modern art that displays the Modernist tendency to try to subvert the prevailing aims of art.

91. According to the author of this passage, which of the following do not necessarily describe work that could be considered art.

a. discipline
b. refinement
c. distinct aesthetic
d. medium-specific language

Passage 3

A stout old lady was walking with her basket down the middle of a street in Petrograd to the great confusion of the traffic and with
no small peril to herself. It was pointed out to her that the pavement was the place for pedestrians, but she replied: ‘I’m going to
walk where I like. We’ve got liberty now.’ It did not occur to the dear old lady that if liberty entitled the pedestrian to walk down
the middle of the road, then the end of such liberty would be universal chaos. Everybody would be getting in everybody else’s way
and nobody would get anywhere. Individual liberty would have become social anarchy.

There is a danger of the world getting liberty-drunk in these days like the old lady with the basket, and it is just as well to remind
ourselves of what the rule of the road means. It means that in order that the liberties of all may be preserved, the liberties of everybody
must be curtailed. When the policeman, say, at Piccadilly Circus steps into the middle of the road and puts out his hand, he is the
symbol not of tyranny, but of liberty. You may not think so. You may, being in a hurry, and seeing your car pulled up by this
insolence of office, feel that your liberty has been outraged. How dare this fellow interfere with your free use of the public highway?
Then, if you are a reasonable person, you will reflect that if he did not interfere with you, he would interfere with no one, and the

NTHP PAGE NO.161

result would be that Piccadilly Circus would be a maelstrom that you would never cross at all. You have submitted to a curtailment
of private liberty in order that you may enjoy a social order which makes your liberty a reality.

Liberty is not a personal affair only, but a social contract. It is an accommodation of interests. In matters which do not touch anybody
else’s liberty, of course, I may be as free as I like. If I choose to go down the road in a dressing-gown who shall say me nay? You
have liberty to laugh at me, but I have liberty to be indifferent to you. And if I have a fancy for dyeing my hair, or waxing my
moustache (which heaven forbid), or wearing an overcoat and sandals, or going to bed late or getting up early, I shall follow my
fancy and ask no man’s permission. I shall not inquire of you whether I may eat mustard with my mutton. And you will not ask me
whether you may follow this religion or that, whether you may prefer Ella Wheeler Wilcox to Wordsworth, or champagne to shandy.

In all these and a thousand other details you and I please ourselves and ask no one’s leave. We have a whole kingdom in which we
rule alone, can do what we choose, be wise or ridiculous, harsh or easy, conventional or odd. But directly we step out of that
kingdom, our personal liberty of action becomes qualified by other people’s liberty. I might like to practice on the trombone from
midnight till three in the morning. If I went on to the top of Everest to do it, I could please myself, but if I do it in my bedroom my
family will object, and if I do it out in the streets the neighbors will remind me that my liberty to blow the trombone must not
interfere with their liberty to sleep in quiet. There are a lot of people in the world, and I have to accommodate my liberty to their
liberties.

We are all liable to forget this, and unfortunately we are much more conscious of the imperfections of others in this respect than of
our own. A reasonable consideration for the rights or feelings of others is the foundation of social conduct. It is in the small matters
of conduct, in the observance of the rule of the road, that we pass judgment upon ourselves, and declare that we are civilized or
uncivilized. The great moments of heroism and sacrifice are rare. It is the little habits of commonplace intercourse that make up the
great sum of life and sweeten or make bitter the journey.

92. The author might have stated his ‘rule of the road’ as

a. do not walk in the middle of the road

b. do not behave inconsiderately in public
c. do what you like in private
d. liberty is more important than anarchy

93. The author’s attitude to the old lady in paragraph one is

a. condescending
b. intolerant
c. objective
d. sardonic

94. The second sentence in the second paragraph, ‘It means....curtailed’ is an example of

a. hyperbole
b. cliché
c. simile
d. paradox

95. Which sentence best sums up the author’s main point?

a. There is a danger of the world getting liberty-drunk in these days like the old lady with the
basket, and it is just as well to remind ourselves of what the rule of the road means.
b. A reasonable consideration for the rights or feelings of others is the foundation of social conduct.
c. It is in the small matters of conduct, in the observance of the rule of the road, that we pass
judgment upon ourselves, and declare that we are civilized or uncivilized.
d. The great moments of heroism and sacrifice are rare.

NTHP PAGE NO.162

 96. A situation analogous to the ‘insolence of office’ described in paragraph 2 would be

a. a teacher correcting grammar errors

b. an editor shortening the text of an article
c. a tax inspector demanding to see someone’s accounts
d. an judge passing sentence in a courtroom

97. ‘Qualified’ in the third sentence of the penultimate paragraph most nearly means

a. accredited
b. improved
c. limited
d. educated

98. The author assumes that he may be as free as he likes in

a. all matters of dress and food

b. any situation which does not interfere with the liberty of others
c. anything that is not against the law
d. his own home

99. In the sentence ‘We are all liable to forget this, and unfortunately we are much more conscious of the
imperfections of others in this respect than of our own,’ the author is

a. pointing out a general weakness

b. emphasizing his main point
c. countering a general misconception
d. suggesting a remedy

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
This is the END of part 2. Please, wait for part 3 (writing one essay).

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

NTHP PAGE NO.163

 Name ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Seat No

English Essay Time Allowed: 45 minutes

Word Count: 1200 words

Advice to Youth

Mark Twain

Being told I would be expected to talk here, I inquired what sort of talk I ought to make. They said it should be something
suitable to youth-something didactic, instructive, or something in the nature of good advice. Very well. I have a few
things in my mind which I have often longed to say for the instruction of the young; for it is in one’s tender early years
that such things will best take root and be most enduring and most valuable.

First, then. I will say to you my young friends—and I say it beseechingly, urgently—

Always obey your parents, when they are present. This is the best policy in the long run, because if you don’t, they will
make you. Most parents think they know better than you do, and you can generally make more by humoring that
superstition than you can by acting on your own better judgment.

Be respectful to your superiors, if you have any, also to strangers, and sometimes to others. If a person offend you, and
you are in doubt as to whether it was intentional or not, do not resort to extreme measures; simply watch your chance
and hit him with a brick. That will be sufficient. If you shall find that he had not intended any offense, come out frankly
and confess yourself in the wrong when you struck him; acknowledge it like a man and say you didn’t mean to.

Yes, always avoid violence; in this age of charity and kindliness, the time has gone by for such things. Leave dynamite
to the low and unrefined.

Go to bed early, get up early -- this is wise. Some authorities say get up with the sun; some say get up with one thing,
others with another. But a lark is really the best thing to get up with. It gives you a splendid reputation with everybody
to know that you get up with the lark; and if you get the right kind of lark, and work at him right, you can easily train
him to get up at half past nine, every time -- it’s no trick at all.

Now as to the matter of lying. You want to be very careful about lying; otherwise you are nearly sure to get caught.
Once caught, you can never again be in the eyes to the good and the pure, what you were before. Many a young person
has injured himself permanently through a single clumsy and ill finished lie, the result of carelessness born of incomplete
training. Some authorities hold that the young out not to lie at all. That of course, is putting it rather stronger than
necessary; still while I cannot go quite so far as that, I do maintain, and I believe I am right, that the young ought to be
temperate in the use of this great art until practice and experience shall give them that confidence, elegance, and precision
which alone can make the accomplishment graceful and profitable. Patience, diligence, painstaking attention to detail -
- these are requirements; these in time, will make the student perfect; upon these only, may he rely as the sure foundation
for future eminence. Think what tedious years of study, thought, practice, experience, went to the equipment of that
peerless old master who was able to impose upon the whole world the lofty and sounding maxim that “Truth is mighty
and will prevail” -- the most majestic compound fracture of fact which any of woman born has yet achieved. For the
history of our race, and each individual’s experience, are sewn thick with evidences that a truth is not hard to kill, and
that a lie well told is immortal. There is in Boston a monument of the man who discovered anesthesia; many people are
aware, in these latter days, that that man didn’t discover it at all, but stole the discovery from another man. Is this truth
mighty, and will it prevail? Ah no, my hearers, the monument is made of hardy material, but the lie it tells will outlast
it a million years. An awkward, feeble, leaky lie is a thing which you ought to make it your unceasing study to avoid;
such a lie as that has no more real permanence than an average truth. Why, you might as well tell the truth at once and
be done with it. A feeble, stupid, preposterous lie will not live two years -- except it be a slander upon somebody. It is
indestructible, then of course, but that is no merit of yours. A final word: begin your practice of this gracious and
beautiful art early -- begin now. If I had begun earlier, I could have learned how.

NTHP PAGE NO.164

Never handle firearms carelessly. The sorrow and suffering that have been caused through the innocent but heedless
handling of firearms by the young! Only four days ago, right in the next farm house to the one where I am spending the
summer, a grandmother, old and gray and sweet, one of the loveliest spirits in the land, was sitting at her work, when
her young grandson crept in and got down an old, battered, rusty gun which had not been touched for many years and
was supposed not to be loaded, and pointed it at her, laughing and threatening to shoot. In her fright she ran screaming
and pleading toward the door on the other side of the room; but as she passed him he placed the gun almost against her
very breast and pulled the trigger! He had supposed it was not loaded. And he was right -- it wasn’t. So there wasn’t any
harm done. It is the only case of that kind I ever heard of.

Therefore, just the same, don’t you meddle with old unloaded firearms; they are the most deadly and unerring things
that have ever been created by man. You don’t have to take any pains at all with them; you don’t have to have a rest,
you don’t have to have any sights on the gun, you don’t have to take aim, even. No, you just pick out a relative and bang
away, and you are sure to get him. A youth who can’t hit a cathedral at thirty yards with a Gatling gun in three quarters
of an hour, can take up an old empty musket and bag his grandmother every time, at a hundred. Think what Waterloo
would have been if one of the armies had been boys armed with old muskets supposed not to be loaded, and the other
army had been composed of their female relations.

The very thought of it make one shudder.

There are many sorts of books; but good ones are the sort for the young to read. Remember that. They are a great, an
inestimable, and unspeakable means of improvement. Therefore be careful in your selection, my young friends; be very
careful; confine yourselves exclusively to Robertson’s Sermons, Baxter’s Saints' Rest, The Innocents Abroad, and works
of that kind.

But I have said enough. I hope you will treasure up the instructions which I have given you, and make them a guide to
your feet and a light to your understanding. Build your character thoughtfully and painstakingly upon these precepts,
and by and by, when you have got it built, you will be surprised and gratified to see how nicely and sharply it resembles
everybody else’s.

Essay Prompt

In 1882, Mark Twain was asked to deliver a speech to a class of young girls, a speech with instructive advice. The
challenge, as he well knew, was that young people heard such speeches often, and they mostly ignored the advice their
elders gave. Please read the speech above at least twice. Now write an essay that demonstrates how Twain manages,
or doesn’t manage to confront the challenge he faced. When considering your answer, please pay careful attention to
Twain’s tone and to his style of writing. How do these help or hurt his effort? Do you find his satirical approach more
successful than the kinds of instructive talks you have received from your elders? If yes, argue why you think this. If
no, argue the opposite.

NTHP PAGE NO.165

 Paper-VIII

Mathematics M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 50 (from 1 to 50) Time: 80 Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 1 To 10 Negative Markings: Yes
Q1 A binary operator ◊ is defined as:
𝑢 + 𝑣 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑢 > 𝑣
𝑢◊𝑣 = {
𝑢 − 𝑣 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑢 ≤ 𝑣
3◊5
The value of is
5◊3
A) 4
B) – 4
1
C)
4
1
D) –
4

Q2 The parabola y = 1 – x2 meets the line y = mx + c at two points, namely (2, α) and (–3, β). The value of m + c is:
A) 4
B) – 4
C) 1
D) – 5

10
Q3 A line in the xy-plane passes through the origin and has a slope of – . Which of the following points doesn’t lie
11
on the line?

A) (11, –10)

B) (11, 10)

C) (22, –20)

D) (–11, 10)
𝑥 2 +𝑥−12 −1
Q4 If = , then which of the following could be a value of x?
𝑥 2 +3𝑥−4 𝑥 2 −6𝑥+5
A) 4
B) –4
C) 2
D) –2

Q5 If the product of 2x2 – x – 3 and 3x2 – x – 4 is zero, then x could equal any of the following numbers EXCEPT
4
A)
3
B) – 1
3
C)
2
2
D) –
3
NTHP PAGE NO.166
Q6 Which of the following is the same as i 26? Note i = √−1.

A) –1
B) 1
C) i
D) –i

Q7 What is the area of a circle centered at (6, 9) that passes through the origin?

A) 117𝜋
B) √117𝜋
C) 234𝜋
D) 2√117𝜋

Q8 If the remainder is 5 when positive integer α is divided by 7, then what is the remainder when 9α + 3 is divided
by 7?

A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Q9 How many four-digit positive integers have digits that are all different and have both prime thousands and units
digits?
A) 1680
B) 1120
C) 672
D) None of these
4
Q10 What is the distance between the x-intercept and the y-intercept of the line y = − 5x + 8?
A) 164
B) 18
C) 2√41
D) None of these
2
Q11 A straight line passes through the points (5, j) and (j, 6). The slope of the line is . What is the value of j?
3
A) 6.5
B) 5.6
C) 11.11
D) None of these
Q12 A company pays R30000/= as maintenance charges for all the generators located in different places of the
company for one year. The charges were then increased by 12% each year thereafter. How much will the company
pay for the first four year as maintenance charges?
A) R93600/=
B) R97200/=
C) R101232/=
D) None of these
NTHP PAGE NO.167
Q13 A small shopkeeper sells Chicken patties for R40 each and Tuna patties for R50 each. The shopkeeper’s revenue
from selling a total of 30 Chicken patties and Tuna patties in one day was R1400. How many Tuna patties were sold
that day?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40

Q14 The area of a rectangle is 48 cm2. If the ratio of its diagonal to larger side is 5 : 4, then what is its circumefrence?

A) 56
B) 28
C) 14
D) None of these

Q15 Which of the following is the value of sin(270o)?

A) –1
B) 1
C) 0
D) None of these

Q16

The area of the above triangle is

A) 5√39
B) 2.5√39
C) 40
D) None of these

Q17 Which of the following is an equation of a circle in the xy-plane which touches both the axes and whose
center is (3, 3)?

A) (x – 3)2 + (y + 3)2 = 9
B) (x – 3)2 + (y – 3)2 = 9
C) (x + 3)2 + (y + 3)2 = 9
D) (x + 3)2 + (y – 3)2 = 9
NTHP PAGE NO.168
Q18

The area of the region shown above is

A) 211 m2
B) 295 m2
2
C) 239 m
D) None of these
Q19

A line is graphed in the xy-plane as shown above. Which of the following equations represents the line?
A) 2x + y = 2
B) x + 2y = 8
C) x + 2y = 4
D) None of these
Q20 In right triangle ABC, the longest side, AB, is w cm long, and angle BAC is twice the angle ABC. What is the area
of the triangle in cm2?
√3
A) w2
8
√3
B) w2
4
√3
C) w2
2

D) √3w2
NTHP PAGE NO.169
Q21 At the end of each semester Prof. Shafqat has to grade all the examination copies of those students who
appeared in the examination of the course he was teaching in that semester. The number of copies that he left to
grade can be estimated with the equation C = 63 – 15d, where C is the number of copies left and d is the number of
days he has devoted to grading. What is the meaning of the value 63 in this equation?

A) Prof. Shafqat will complete the grading within 63 days.

B) Prof. Shafqat starts each day with 63 copies to grade.
C) Prof. Shafqat has to grade 63 copies in all.
D) Prof. Shafqat has to grade 63 copies per day.
Q22
8x – 4y = α
4x – 2y = 1 – 2α
Consider the system of linear equations above. Which of the following choices of α will result in a system of equations
with more than one solution

A) 0.4
B) 0.5
C) 0.6
D) 0.7
𝑎𝑥 2 + 4
Q23 Let us consider the function h(x) defined by h(x) = , where 𝑎 is a constant and h(4) = 10. What is the
𝑥+𝑎
value of h(−4)?
A) –10
B) 10
C) 6
D) 50

Q24 Tickets to enter a museum were R30 for each child and R60 for each adult. In a particular day 100 adults brought
3 children each and the remaining adults brought 2 children each. Children alone were not allowed to enter the
museum. The total tickets sales from the children and adults was R25800. How many children and adults entered the
museum?

A) 270
B) 470
C) 670
D) None of these
Q25
5x + y = x + 200
x – y = 5y + 100
Based on the system of equations above, what is the value of the product xy?
A) 416
B) –416
C) 1184
D) –1184
NTHP PAGE NO.170
Q26 If (y + a)(5y + 3) = 5y2 + cy + 10 + b for all values of y, and ab = –8, then value of c
29
I. 2 II. 13 III.
3
A) II only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
Q27 Blue Cab Taxi charges a R250 flat rate in addition to R25 per KM. Khalida has no more than R800 to spend on a
trip. How many KMs can Khalida travel without exceeding her limit?
A) 32 KMs
B) 27 KMs
C) 22 KMs
D) None of these
5𝑢
Q28 If u – 2v = 3, what is the value of ?
25𝑣
A) 125
B) 25
C) 5
D) None of these

Q29 (2x + 3)(x – 3) = x – 1

What are all the solutions to the equation above?

A) x = –3 and x = 3
B) x = –1.5 and x = 3
C) x = 1 + √5 and x = 1 – √5
D) None of these
Q30
1 2
1
5− 3 ( ) − 5 =
25
17
A) 5 15
7
B) 5 15
17
C) 5− 15
7
D) 5− 15
Q31 The graph of y = (x + 4)(6 – 3x) is a parabola in the xy-plane. In which of the following equivalent equations do
the x- and y-coordinates of the vertex of the parabola appear as constants or coefficients?
A) y = –3x2 – 6x + 24
B) y = –3x(x + 2) + 24
C) y = 3(x + 4)(2 – x)
D) y = –3(x – (– 1))2 + 27

NTHP PAGE NO.171

 𝜋
Q32 Which of the following is equal to cos( )?
9
𝜋
A) – sin( )
9
7𝜋
B) cos( )
18
7𝜋
C) sin( )
18
𝜋
D) – cos( )
9
Q33 In a list of 17 integers, 8 is the lowest member, 37 is the highest member, the mean is 23, the median is 23, and
the mode is 19. If the numbers 6 and 40 are then included in the list, which of the following will change?
A) The mean
B) The median
C) The mode
D) Nothing will change
𝑥 𝑥+1
Q34 Suppose the expression is written in the equivalent form + A. What is A in terms of x?
𝑥−1 𝑥 2 −1
A) 1
B) –1
C) 0
D) None of these

Q35 A chord of a circle of radius 15 cm is parallel to the diameter of the same circle. The length of the chord is 20 cm.
The distance between chord and the diameter is

A) 5√5 cm
B) 5π cm
C) 10π cm
D) 1.5√2 cm
𝜋
Q36 It is given that sin θ = α where θ is the radian measure of an angle and < θ < π. If sin φ = – α, then which of the
2
following could be the value of φ?
I. π–θ II. θ–π III. 2π – θ
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) II and III only
9 3 4
Q37 A solution to the equation − =
𝑥−2 𝑥+2 11
I. 20 II. 3.5 III. –3.5
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and III only
NTHP PAGE NO.172
Q38 If the average of x, y, z, and 90 is 20 less than the average of y, z, w, and 100, what is the value of w – x?

A) 95
B) 70
C) –70
D) None of these

Q39 What is the area of a circle whose equation in the xy-plane is x2 + y2 – 4x + 6y = 1000?

A) 1013 π
B) 2016 π
C) √1013 π
D) None of these

Q40 Let y(x) = √𝑥 2 − 1. Which of the following is equivalent to y(y(x))?

A) √𝑥 2 − 2
B) √(𝑥 2 − 1)2 − 1
C) √𝑥 2 − 1 – 1
D) None of these
Q41 If 3x – 5y = 10, what is the value of 9x2 + 25y2 – 30xy + 0.6x – y?
A) 10
B) 100
C) 12
D) 102
Q42 For what value of n is |n2 − 1| – 1 equal to 0?
I. –√2 II. 0 III. √2
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I, II and III
Q43 A solution to the equation given below?
1−𝑤
4w + 3 =
𝑤
−1+√2 1+√2 1
I. w= II. w= III. w = −2
2 −2
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only

Q44 Which of the following numbers is NOT a solution of the inequality 2x − 7 > 5x − 10?
A) −2
B) −1
C) 0
D) 1
NTHP PAGE NO.173
Q45
|2x – 3| = 9
|3y – 2| = 7
For the equations shown above, which of the following is a possible value of x + y?

I. 9 II. 0 III. 6

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only

Q46

The complete graph of the function f is shown in the xy-plane above. For what value of x is the value of f(x) at its
maximum?
A) −5
B) −3
C) −2
D) 3
Q47 It is not possible to draw a triangle with sides of lengths

A) 10, 10, 10
B) 6, 8, 10
C) 9, 2, 11
D) 6, 7, 8

Q48 The sum of five consecutive positive odd integers is 5𝑦. In terms of 𝑦, what is the sum of the middle three
integers?

A) 2𝑦
2𝑦
B)
5
C) 3𝑦
3𝑦
D)
5

NTHP PAGE NO.174

Q49

The above histogram shows the marks of 15 students in a class, grouped into groups of width 10. How many students
secured marks greater than or equal to 60 but less than 90?

A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 13

Q50 What is the sum of the first 57 terms of an arithmetic sequence if the sum of its 16th and 42nd term is 80?

A) 2280
B) 2180
C) 2200
D) 2240

Stop. This is the END of part 1. Please, do not turn over the next page until you are told to do so.

NTHP PAGE NO.175

NTHP PAGE NO.176
 English s M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 44 (from 51 to 94) Time Allowed: 50 Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 11 To 20 Negative markings: Yes
Grammar and Vocabulary Section

Q. 51-66

Please choose the correct option to fill in the blank.

In the late summer of that year we _____ (51) in a house in a village that looked across the river and the plain
to the mountains. In the bed of the river there were pebbles and boulders, dry and white in the sun, and the
water was clear and swiftly moving and blue in the channels. Troops went by the house and down the road
and the dust they _____ (52) powdered the leaves of the trees. The trunks of the trees too _____ (53) dusty
and the leaves fell early that year and we _____ (54) the troops _____ (55) along the road and the dust rising
and leaves, _____ (56) by the breeze, falling and the soldiers marching and _____ (57) the road bare and
white _____ (58) for the leaves. The plain was rich with crops; there were many orchards of fruit trees and
beyond the plain the mountains were brown and bare. There _____ (59) in the mountains and at night _____
(60) see the flashes from the artillery. _____ (61) the dark it was like summer lightning, but the nights were
cool and there was not the feeling of a storm coming. Sometimes in the dark we heard the troops marching
under the window and guns going past pulled by motor-tractors. There was much traffic at night and many
mules on the roads with boxes of ammunition on each side of their pack-saddles and gray motor trucks _____
(62) men, and other trucks with loads covered with canvas that moved slower in the traffic. There were big
guns too that _____ (63) in the day drawn by tractors, the long barrels of the guns _____ (64) with green
branches and green leafy branches and vines laid over the tractors. To the north we could look across a valley
and see a forest of chestnut trees and behind it another mountain on this side of the river. There _____ (65)
for that mountain too, but it was not _____ (66), and in the fall when the rains came the leaves all fell from
the chestnut trees and the branches were bare and the trunks black with rain
51)
a) lived
b) would have been living
c) was living
d) will have been living
52)
a) was raising
b) rising
c) had risen
d) raised
53)

a) are
b) were
c) is
d) was
NTHP PAGE NO.177
54)
a) saw
b) seen
c) were seeing
d) will have seen

55)
a) would march
b) marched
c) marching
d) will march

56)
a) to stir
b) was stirred
c) stirred
d) will have been stirring

57)

a) prior
b) afterward
c) beforehand
d) earlier

58)

a) including
b) especially
c) particularly
d) except
59)
a) was fighting
b) fought
c) will have fought
d) would fight
60)
a) we could
b) we can
c) we should
d) did
NTHP PAGE NO.178
61)

a) below
b) in
c) at
d) on

62)

a) to carry
b) that carried
c) will have carried
d) carrying

63)

a) halted
b) flew
c) passed
d) settled

64)

a) covered
b) exposed
c) hosed
d) deposed

65)

a) fight
b) fought
c) were fighting
d) was fighting

66)

a) eventual
b) perpetual
c) unforunate
d) successful

NTHP PAGE NO.179

Q. 67-71
Please choose the correct option
The _____ (67) of drones is their ease of operation. Unlike most helicopters, hovering drones use multiple
rotors. Many drones are based _____ (68) a design called a quadcopter, _____ (69) employs four rotors on
arms set 90 degrees to each other. Each rotor is directly driven by an electric motor. By turning two of the
rotors clockwise and two anticlockwise it counters the twisting effects of torque produced by a single-rotor
helicopter (without a tailrotor to push against the torque, a helicopter would spin hopelessly round and round).
_____, (70) whereas a helicopter needs to vary the pitch of its blades (the angle at which they attack the air)
in order to manoeuvre, the multiple rotors on a drone have a fixed pitch. The drone instead manoeuvres by
independently changing the speed of one or more of its rotors under computer control. _____ (71) this set-
up requires fewer and less complex moving parts than a helicopter, it makes drones simpler, cheaper to build
and maintain, and potentially more reliable.
67)

a) disadvantage
b) attraction
c) throwback
d) aspect

68)

a) in
b) at
c) on
d) by
69)
a) which
b) that
c) what
d) where

70)
a) in addition to
b) moreover
c) although
d) on behalf of

71)
a) why
b) wherever
c) whether
d) as
NTHP PAGE NO.180
Q. 72-76
Please choose the correct option
_____ (72) 1993, the writer-psychiatrist Peter D. Kramer published Listening to Prozac, his best-selling
examination of a pill that promised to _____ (73) the treatment of anxiety and depression. In 2010, the
Harvard researcher and psychologist Irving Kirsch published The Emperor’s New Drugs: Exploding the
Antidepressant Myth, a data-fueled argument _____ (74) was lauded in a New York Review of Books essay
called “The Illusions of Psychiatry” and featured on 60 Minutes, as well as in a Newsweek cover story.
“Studies suggest,” the article reported, “that the popular drugs are no more effective than a placebo.” Can it
really be that Steve Martin’s routine from the 1970s—“If you _____ (75) chance to take these drugs, do it;
they’re called placebos!”—sums up the state of antidepressants in the 21st century? The short answer is no.
But a longer answer is required, and Kramer has written Ordinarily Well: The Case for Antidepressants to
address what he feels is a destructive level of ignorance and _____ (76) about the class of drugs known as
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, or SSRIs.
72)
a) in
b) on
c) from
d) by
73)
a) revolutionize
b) rise
c) advise
d) scrutinize
74)
a) where
b) which
c) that
d) of which
75)
a) shall get a
b) won’t get a
c) could get a
d) can get a
76)
a) clarity
b) confusion
c) coherence
d) comprehension
NTHP PAGE NO.181
Q. 77-86
Please choose the correct option.
“What I want is facts…facts alone are wanted in life.” Thomas Gradgrind’s grim message in Charles
Dickens’s “Hard Times” is echoed in the debate ahead of the referendum on June 23rd about whether Britain
should leave the European Union. Voters _____ (77) by claims made by opposing sides and in the media are
asking for plain facts on Britain’s EU membership so they can make up their minds. Sadly, hard facts are
hard to find. There is a good reason for this: nobody knows what would happen post-Brexit. That is especially
true of the trade deal that Britain would have to _____ (78) with the EU - and how long that might take (the
government this week suggested up to ten years). But there is also a bad reason: that the uncertainty lets all
sides distort, _____ (79) or simply make up their own facts. Three examples _____ (80) this. The first is an
old assertion that 3m jobs in Britain depend on trade with the EU. In fact, _____ (81) of the close links among
European economies, many economists reckon the true figure is higher. Yet the claim sometimes made by
pro-EU voices that all these jobs would be at risk post-Brexit is a nonsense. Nobody can _____ (82) argue
that all trade with the EU would cease. Anyway, job creation depends more on demand, wage levels and
labour laws than on membership of a trade block. The second example concerns the British _____ (83) to the
EU budget. Leavers _____ (84) that Britain pays an unfairly large amount of almost £20 billion ($28 billion)
a year to Brussels, or £55m a day. In fact this is the gross amount before deducting both the rebate won by
Margaret Thatcher in 1984 and the money the EU spends in Britain. _____ (85) for these, and for the
funnelling of some foreign-aid spending via Brussels, the net payment is less than one-third as big, at £17m
a day—and Britain is only the eighth-largest _____ (86) per head
77)
a) understood
b) confused
c) happy
d) saddened
78)
a) inform
b) argue
c) negotiate
d) create
79)
a) exaggerate
b) research
c) study
d) write
80)
a) hide
b) conceal
c) picture
d) illustrate
NTHP PAGE NO.182
81)

a) anyway
b) otherwise
c) because
d) well

82)

a) realistically
b) unrealistically
c) drastically
d) immeasurably

83)
a) amalgamation
b) loss
c) substitution
d) contribution

84)

a) pretend
b) claim
c) blame
d) abstain

85)

a) ignoring
b) boring
c) looking
d) adjusting

86)

a) realtor
b) contributor
c) distributor
d) spendthrift

NTHP PAGE NO.183

 Reading Comprehension Section

Q. 87 -94
Choose the best answer for each passage.
87)
The origins of today’s EU lie in the ashes of post-war Europe. Reconciliation between France and Germany,
urged by Winston Churchill in 1946, led to the creation of the six-member European Coal and Steel
Community (ECSC) in 1951 and the European Economic Community (EEC) in 1957. But a wary Britain,
keen to preserve links with the Commonwealth and America, stood aside from both. Only in the 1960s did
the British, impressed by the continent’s stronger economy, try to join, eventually doing so in 1973.
This passage states that:
a) France and Germany severed ties in 1946 because of Winston Churchill’s advice
b) The ECSC formed in 1957 and had six members including France and Germany
c) The British joined the EEC in 1960 because they were impressed by its economic growth
d) The British initially wanted to maintain their relationship with the Commonwealth and America
88)
There is something about these bloody squadron leaders that makes them think that if they lock you up in a
cell, put their stinking mouth to your ear and shout something about your mother they can find all the answers.
They are generally a sad lot, these leaders without any squadrons to lead. It's their own lack of leadership
qualities that stops them mid-career, nowhere for them to go except from one training institute to another,
permanent seconds in command to one commander or the other. You can tell them from their belts, loose and
low, straining under the weight of their paunches. Or from their berets, so carefully positioned to hide that
shiny bald patch. Schemes for part-time MBAs and a new life are trying hard to keep pace with missed
promotions and pension plans
The subject of the passage is:
a) Squadron leaders
b) Commanders
c) Berets
d) Paunches
89)
Sunday’s attack on the Pulse nightclub in Orlando, Florida was the deadliest mass shooting in American
history – but there were five other mass shootings in the US during that weekend alone. “We have a pattern
now of mass shootings in this country that has no parallel anywhere else in the world,” Barack
Obama said after the San Bernardino attack in December 2015. Data compiled by the Gun Violence
Archive reveals a shocking human toll: there is a mass shooting – defined as four or more people shot in one
incident, not including the shooter – on five out of every six days, on average.
The primary purpose of this passage is to:
a) persuade
b) inform
c) satirize
d) entertain
NTHP PAGE NO.184
90)

A jury is expected to leave a Los Angeles federal courtroom on Wednesday afternoon to deliberate the
question every rock fan has been forced to mull over for the past week: Did the British band Led
Zeppelin plagiarize the distinctive music that opens their most popular song "Stairway to Heaven" from
American rock band Spirit's 1967 instrumental "Taurus"? As rock fans prepare for the verdict, here's what
might — and might not — happen if Zeppelin loses. Firstly, this is a jury verdict. Unlike a judge's decision,
which may offer a new interpretation of the law for future courts to take into consideration, a jury verdict
sets no legal precedent.

Which category below describes the organizational method used in the passage above:

a) description
b) chronological
c) cause/effect
d) comparison/contrast

91)

It will probably be 10 years before anyone can say whether the Paris climate deal, which was agreed to with
much hoopla on December 12th, was a historic event that marked the moment when the human race finally
got serious about the fight against climate change, or just a United Nations therapy session whose main role
was to make us feel better about our headlong plunge toward climate catastrophe.

The author states that:

a) The Paris climate deal took ten years to broker and was a historic event
b) We need ten years before we can assess whether the Paris climate deal was effective
c) The Paris climate deal offered free therapy sessions to its participants
d) The United Nations said the human race needs to get serious about climate change

92)

Lemmings are small rodents of the Arctic areas that experience population explosions when food is plentiful.
Periodically, lemmings migrate in large groups when population densities peak. They swim across bodies of
water in search of new habitats and many drown if the distance is great, thus practising self-destruction. In
some respects, this emulates human behavior.

The author of this passage implies that:

a) Lemmings don’t like to eat
b) Human beings hate swimming
c) Lemmings hate migration
d) Human beings are self-destructive

NTHP PAGE NO.185

93)

Of course all life is a process of breaking down, but the blows that do the dramatic side of the work -- the big
sudden blows that come, or seem to come, from outside -- the ones you remember and blame things on and,
in moments of weakness, tell your friends about, don't show their effect all at once. There is another sort of
blow that comes from within -- that you don't feel until it's too late to do anything about it, until you realize
with finality that in some regard you will never be as good a man again. The first sort of breakage seems to
happen quick -- the second kind happens almost without your knowing it but is realized suddenly indeed.

Which of the following best describes the main idea of this passage?

a) When life gives you lemons, make lemonade

b) The early bird catches the worm
c) Life often presents you with setbacks
d) Birds of a feather flock together
94)
Pakistan has witnessed a rapid urbanization in the last three decades. This development comes alongside the
rise of the commercial and political significance of cities. Much like the rest of the world, land speculation
has played a key role in the high growth rates witnessed under the fourth army ruler, General Pervez
Musharraf–as well as in the rise of an upwardly mobile and politically assertive middle class. The
simultaneous rise in the value of urban land, and increased rural to urban migration is at the heart of the
complex processes that shape the urban experience in contemporary Pakistan.
Based on this passage Pakistan:

a) Has experienced decreasing urbanization

b) Has had its third military dictator
c) Has an assertive working class
d) Has experienced high growth rates
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
This is the END of part 2. Please, wait for part 3 (writing one essay).
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

NTHP PAGE NO.186

 Paper-IX
Mathematics M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 50 (from 1 to 50) Time: 80 Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 1 To 10 Negative Markings: Yes
Q1 In a right triangle, one angle measures x0, where cos x0= 0.8. Let y = 900 – x0. What is the
value of sin (y0)?
A) 0.8

B) 0.6

C) 0.5
D) None of these

Q2 The length of a rectangle with area 98 square centimeters is 14 centimeters. What is the diagonal
of the rectangle, in centimeters?

A) 14.65
B) 7√5
C) 10.5
D) 9.8

Q3 Let f(𝑥 ) = 𝑥 2 – 2𝑥 + 1. Find f(1 – √𝑥)

A) 𝑥 – 2√2𝑥 + 1

B) –𝑥

C) f(1 + √𝑥)
D) None of these

4
Q4 =
√28 − √20
A) √7 – √5
B) √7 + √5
C) √5 – √7
D) None of these
1 1
Q5 Which of the following number is not a solution of the inequality ≤ ?
3𝑥−8 8𝑥−3
A) 2

B) – 2

C) – 1
D) 0

NTHP PAGE NO.187

Q6 What is the sum of the reciprocals of the solutions to the equation

6
x2 – x = –
25
6
A) –
25
25
B) –
6
6
C)
25
25
D)
6
Q7 How many different products can be made by multiplying any two different integers from the
list given below?
1 2 3 4 8
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 9

Q8 The sum of 11 consecutive odd integers is 143. What integer has the least value in the list?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7

Q9 The sum of the first 19 terms of an arithmetic progression is equal to the twice of the value of 10th term. The value
of 10th term will be

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) None of these

4𝑥 2 +3𝑥−2 1
Q10 The equation = −4𝑥 + 1 − is true for all values of 𝑥 ≠ 𝛼1 , where ∝ is a
𝛼𝑥−1 𝛼𝑥−1
constant. What is the value of ∝?

A) 2

B) 0

C) – 1
D) 1

NTHP PAGE NO.188

Q11 The average (arithmetic mean) of 2, 6, 9, 16, and x is 5. The average (arithmetic mean) of 3,
6, 9, 18, 16, and y is 6. The average (arithmetic mean) of x and y is
A) – 12
B) – 24
C) 5
D) 6
3 5
Q12 What fraction lies exactly halfway between and ?
7 9
5
A)
7
1
B)
2
31
C)
63
15
D)
63
Q13 At a summer camp, 90 children take painting class, 45 children take sketching class, and 150
children do not take either sketching class or painting class. If 33 children take both painting class
and sketching class, how many total children are at the summer camp?

A) 252
B) 285
C) 135
D) None of these
Q14 If exactly one of the three integers x, y, and z is odd, which of the following expressions must
be odd?

I. x + yz II. x+y+z III. xyz

A) I only

B) I, II and III

C) II only

D) III only
5−𝑖
Q15 If =∝ +𝑖𝛽 where (𝑖 = √−1), then value of ∝ + 𝛽 is
3+𝑖
A) 0.6

B) 5.3

C) – 0.6
D) None of these
NTHP PAGE NO.189
 √𝑥 2 −9
Q16 Find the domain of the function f(𝑥 ) = :
(𝑥 2 −𝑥−2)
A) (−∞ , −3] U [3 , ∞)
B) (−∞ , −1) U (2 , ∞)

C) (−∞ , −3) U (3 , ∞)

D) None of these

Q17 What is the range of (2x – 3y) if 6 < x < 10 and –3 < y < –2?

A) 26 < 2x – 3y < 21

B) 0 < 2x – 3y < 6

C) 18 < 2x – 3y < 29
D) None of these

Q18 A number is randomly selected from the set {–3, –2, 7, 8, 30, 40}. What is the probability that
the number is a member of the solution set of both |x – 4| > 2 and |x – 2| < 6?

A) 0.6

B) 0.3

C) 0.5
D) None of these

Q19 What is the sum of the first 98 terms of the sequence?

1, 2, 3, 2, 1, 2, 3, 2, 1, 2, 3, 2, ...

A) 196

B) 200

C) 195

D) None of these

Q20 Suppose x is the average of p and 12, y is the average of 3p and 18, and z is the average of x,
y, and z. What is the average of x and y

A) p + 7

B) p + 8

C) z
D) None of these

NTHP PAGE NO.190

Q21 For some positive integer β, the first 3 terms of a geometric progression are 2 – β, 2β – 8 and
10β – 34. What is the value of fourth term?

A) – 1
B) – 2
C) – 4
D) – 8

Q22 Which of the following is the same as i 100? Note i = √−1.

A) –1
B) 1
C) i
D) – i

Q23 The equation of a circle in the xy-plane is x2 + y2 + 8x –10y = –5. What is the radius of the

circle?

A) √6
B) 6
C) 36
D) None of these

Q24 In the (x, y) plane, which of the following statements are true?

I. Line x + y = 1 is perpendicular to line x – y = 1.

II. Lines x+ y = 1 and x – y = 1 intersect each other on the y axis.

III. Lines x + y = 1 and x – y = 1 intersect each other on the x axis.

A) II only

B) I, II and III

C) I and II only

D) I and III only

Q25 The average (arithmetic mean) of 5 different integers is 100. If the largest integer is 120, what
is the least possible value of the smallest integer?

A) 6

B) 16

C) 26

D) None of these

NTHP PAGE NO.191

Q26 Mursaleen can deliver three newspapers every minute. At this rate, how many newspapers can
he deliver in 1.5 hours?

A) 330
B) 300
C) 270
D) None of these
1 1
Q27 If 𝑥 = 7 + , find the value of 𝑥4 +
𝑥 𝑥4
A) 119
B) 47
C) 123
D) None of these

𝑛!
Q28 If n is a positive integer such that = 756, find 𝑛.
(𝑛−2)!

A) 26
B) 27
C) 28
D) 29

Q29 If x:y = 7:6 and y:z = 8:5, what is the ratio of x:z?

A) 9:5
B) 28:15
C) 7:5
D) 3:4

Q30 On a certain multiple-choice test, 5 points are awarded for each correct answer, and 4 points
are deducted for each incorrect or unanswered question. Zakia received a total score of 10 points
on the test. If the test has more than 100 questions, how many questions are on the test?

I. 110 II. 114 III. 119

A) II only

B) I, II and III

C) I and III only

D) I only

NTHP PAGE NO.192

Q31

–2 –0.5 –0.25
(4) (16) (256) =

A) (4)–4
B) (16)–3
C) (256)–2
D) None of these

Q32 It is possible to draw a triangle with sides of lengths

I. 2, 8, 9 II. 2, 5, 8 III. 3, 4, 5

A) II only

B) I, II and III

C) I and III only

D) I only

Q33 6x + y = − 10

Y − x = 18

What is the solution (x, y) to the system of equations above?

A) (−3, 8)

B) (3, −28)

C) (28, −10)

D) (−4, 14)

Q34 Asghar drove 10 KM west, 12 KM north, 8 KM east, and 4 more KM north. How many KM was
Asghar from his starting point?

A) 34
B) 16
C) 2√65
D) None of these

Q35 Which of the following is an equation of a circle in the xy-plane with center (1, 2) and passing
through the point (2, 3).

A) (x – 1)2 + (y + 2)2 = 2
B) (x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = √2
C) (x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = 2
D) (x – 1)2 + (y + 2)2 =√2

NTHP PAGE NO.193

Q36 The inequality |3x – 4| > |3x + 10| must be true in which one of the following cases?

I. x < –1 II. x>1 III. –1 < x < 1

A) II only

B) I, II and III

C) I and II only

D) I only

Q37 7x = 4y

y = x2 – 9

How many ordered pairs (x, y) satisfy the system of equations shown above?

A) 0

B) 1

C) 2

D) Infinitely many
2
Q38 A line in the xy-plane passes through the point (1, 2) and has a slope of . Which of the following
3
points lies on the line?

A) (3, 2)

B) (2, 3)

C) (2, 1)

D) (4, 4)

Q39 Which of the following is equivalent to 144x4 + 72x2y2 + 9y4

A) (144x2 + 9y2)2
B) 9(4x2 + y2)2
C) (12x2 + 9y2)2
D) None of these

Q40 Which of the following is an equivalent form of the equation of the parabola, y = – x2 + 6x – 5,
from which the coordinates of vertex A can be identified as constants in the equation?

A) y = – (x – 1)(x – 5)
B) y = – x(x + 6) – 5
C) y = 4 – (x – 3) 2
D) None of these

NTHP PAGE NO.194

 Q41 A cube has a volume of 64 cubic centimeters. What is its total surface area?

A) 48 centimeter
B) 96 centimeter
C) 192 centimeter
D) None of these

Q42 If f(𝑛) = 𝑛 2 + 𝑛 + √𝑛, where 𝑛 is a positive integer, which of the following would be a value
of f(𝑛)?

I. 10 II. 22 III. 93

A) III only
B) II and III only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III

Q43 If y = 𝛼x2, where 𝛼 is a constant, and y = 4 when x = 8, what is the value of x when y = 12 ?

I. 192 II. 8√3 III. – 8√3

A) II only

B) I, II and III

C) II and III only

D) I only

Q44 In the xy-plane, the graph of function f has x-intercepts at −4, −2, and 2. Which of the following
could define f?

A) f(x) = (x + 4) + (x2 – 4)
B) f(x) = (x + 4)(x2 – 4)
C) f(x) = (x – 4)(x2 – 4)
D) None of these

1
Q45 For what value(s) of 𝑥 is the function h(𝑥) = 2 is undefined?
(𝑥−3) +2(𝑥−3)−8

I. –1 II. 3 III. 5

A) II only

B) I, II and III

C) I and III only

D) I only
NTHP PAGE NO.195
 8
Q46 What is 15% of , expressed as a percentage?
5

A) 23%

B) 24%

C) 25%

D) 26%

Q47 Jamil and Karim play in a basketball game. If the ratio of points scored by Jamil to points scored
by Karim is 5 to 4, which of the following could NOT be the total number of points scored by the two
boys (it may please be noted that during the game only integer points are earned by the players)?

A) 9

B) 18

C) 21

D) 27

Q48 If (ax + 4)(4x + b) = 4x2 + cx + 16 for all values of x, then the value of c will be

A) 16
B) 20
C) 4
D) 1

Q49 Consider the function f(x) = bx + 4, where b is a constant. If f(10) = f(20), find the average
of f(10) and f(20)

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) f(15)

Q50 What is the equation of a line that has a point (1, 4) and is perpendicular to the y-axis

A) x = 4

B) y = 4

C) x = 1

D) y = 1

NTHP PAGE NO.196

NTHP PAGE NO.197
 English s M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 45 (from 51 to 95) Time Allowed: 50 Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 11 To 21 Negative markings: Yes
Grammar and Vocabulary Section
Q. 51-66
Please choose the correct option to fill in the blank.
In my younger and more vulnerable years my father gave me some advice that _____ (51) turning over in my
mind ever since.
“Whenever you feel like criticizing any one,” he told me, “just remember that all the people in this world
_____ (52) the advantages that you’ve had.”
He _____ (53) any more, but we’ve always been unusually communicative in a reserved way, and I understood
that he meant a great deal more than that. In _____ (54), I’m inclined _____ (55) reserve all judgments, a habit
that has opened up many curious natures to me and _____ (56) made me the victim of not a few veteran bores.
The abnormal mind is quick to detect and attach itself to this quality _____ (57) it appears in a normal person,
and so it came about that in college I was _____ (58) accused of being a politician, because I was _____ (59)
to the secret griefs of wild, unknown men. Most of the confidences were _____ (60) — frequently _____ (61)
sleep, preoccupation, or a hostile levity when I realized _____ (62) some unmistakable sign that an intimate
revelation was quivering on the horizon; for the intimate revelations of young men, or at least the terms in
which they express them, are usually plagiaristic and _____ (63) _____ (64) obvious suppressions. _____ (65)
judgments is a matter of infinite hope. I am still a little afraid of missing something if I forget that, as my father
snobbishly suggested, and I snobbishly repeat, a sense of the fundamental decencies is parcelled out _____
(66) at birth.
51)
a) I shall be
b) I will be
c) I have been
d) I had been
52)
a) likely have had
b) have not had
c) perhaps have had
d) will not have
53)
a) insisted on saying
b) didn’t say
c) did say
d) doesn’t say

NTHP PAGE NO.198

54)
a) consequence
b) theory
c) cognito
d) certainty
55)
a) on
b) concerning
c) towards
d) to
56)
a) questionably
b) dubiously
c) unlikely
d) also
57)
a) when
b) where
c) why
d) wherewithal
58)
a) justly
b) unjustly
c) accurately
d) legitimately
59)
a) oblivious
b) unaware
c) privy
d) insensible

NTHP PAGE NO.199

60)
a) provoked
b) solicited
c) unsought
d) demanded
61)
a) I have feigned
b) I would’ve feigned
c) I shall’ve feigned
d) I can have feigned
62)
a) above
b) on
c) in
d) by
63)
a) mars
b) marring
c) mar
d) marred
64)
a) on
b) by
c) in
d) an
65)
a) reserving
b) reserve
c) reserved
d) reserves

NTHP PAGE NO.200

66)
a) inconceivably
b) unequally
c) inequally
d) conceivably
Q. 67-71
Please choose the correct option
On February 19th, in the shadow of the annual meeting of the American Association for the Advancement of
Science, Boston's Copley Square saw a small but _____ (67) pro-science rally by those worried about what
the newly _____ (68) President Trump might mean for the world's scientific superpower. “There is no Plan(et)
B” read one sign. That is true, for now. But although _____ (69) have yet to discover a twin of the Earth, they
have found several close cousins. On February 22nd, a team of researchers led by Michaël Gillon, from the
University of Liège, in Belgium, announced several more. As they outline in Nature, Dr Gillon's team believe
that seven _____ (70) Earth-sized worlds circle TRAPPIST-1, a tiny star that lies around 40 light years from
Earth (the star's rather striking name refers to the TRAPPIST telescope, in Chile, which did much of the planet-
hunting work). Several other solar systems have been found with Earth-like planets, but to find seven such
worlds orbiting a single star is _____ (71).
67)
a) determined
b) indeterminate
c) definite
d) indefinite
68)
a) installed
b) unhinged
c) uneasy
d) unstalled
69)
a) academics
b) anthropologists
c) astronomers
d) archaeologists

NTHP PAGE NO.201

70)
a) vaguely
b) sketchily
c) imprecisely
d) roughly
71)
a) unsurprising
b) unprecedented
c) expected
d) banal
Q. 72-76
Please choose the correct option
No issue _____ (72) America quite like immigration. Many politicians of both parties favour a “comprehensive
reform” that would secure the border, allow a _____ (73) number of newcomers in and offer a path to
citizenship for illegal migrants already _____ (74) the country. However, restrictionists have killed every
reform bill since 1986. Meanwhile, facts _____ (75) the ground have evolved rapidly. Population flows from
Mexico to America surged from the early 1990s to the mid-2000s. The number of _____ (76) immigrants in
America rose from 3.5m in 1990 to a high of 12.2m in 2007, on the eve of the financial crisis. Since then, this
figure has fallen slightly: net migration from Mexico to the United States is now negative.
72)
a) engulfs
b) divides
c) submerges
d) plunges
73)
a) realistic
b) inordinate
c) idealistic
d) immoderate
74)
a) betide
b) beside
c) outside
d) inside
NTHP PAGE NO.202
75)
a) in
b) on
c) from
d) by
76)
a) unsanctioned
b) inauthorised
c) unauthorised
d) informal
Q. 77-86
Please choose the correct option.
In the months following Donald Trump’s election, Russian media fell hard for their _____ (77) new beau.
Television anchors and columnists _____ (78) Mr Trump’s promises to rebuild relations with Russia. Dmitry
Kiselev, the Kremlin’s chief propagandist, fawned over Mr Trump on his flagship Sunday-night show,
declaring the new American president to be a “muzhik”, or a “real man”—a sharp shift for a programme that
had spent years _____ (79) anti-Americanism. (His praise became so _____ (80) that a fringe nationalist group
even staged a protest accusing Mr Kiselev of “Trumpomania”.) In January, Mr Trump was mentioned more
often in the Russian press than Vladimir Putin himself.
Yet just as suddenly as he appeared, the _____ (81) image of Mr Trump has largely _____ (82) from Russian
television sets. In the past week, as the Trump administration has issued increasingly _____ (83) signals on its
policy toward Russia, the country’s news programmes have overlooked his activities, and commentators have
taken up a decidedly more _____ (84) spirit. The firing of the Russia-friendly Michael Flynn as national
security adviser may have caused some _____ (85) in the Kremlin. So too did the White House’s statement
last week that it _____ (86) Russia to “return” Crimea to Ukraine.
77)
a) brash
b) temperate
c) timorous
d) reticent
78)
a) lambasted
b) castigated
c) lauded
d) chastised

NTHP PAGE NO.203

79)
a) croaking
b) stoking
c) brokering
d) staking
80)
a) effusive
b) reclusive
c) inclusive
d) abusive
81)
a) abundant
b) redundant
c) elephantine
d) triumphant
82)
a) tarnished
b) brandished
c) banished
d) vanished
83)
a) conflicting
b) unstinting
c) unflinching
d) clear
84)
a) skinflint
b) skeptical
c) skillful
d) skittish

NTHP PAGE NO.204

85)
a) conversation
b) constipation
c) consternation
d) contraband
86)
a) regretted
b) excoriated
c) expected
d) unanticipated
Reading Comprehension Section
Q. 87 - 95
Choose the best answer for each passage.
87. The recent spate of terrorist attacks across the country has brought into question the National Action Plan
(NAP) and the need for military courts. After being lulled into a false sense of security with the military success
of Operation Zarb-e-Azb, the nation is once again engulfed in insecurity while the government tries to find an
easy ‘fix’ through another constitutional amendment reviving the military courts for another three years. Once
again, the government wants us to believe that this time around they will actually move towards implementing
judicial reforms, especially of the criminal judicial system, during the new three-year period of military courts.

The passage states that:

a) Military courts lulled the country into a false sense of security
b) the NAP lulled the country into a false sense of security
c) the NAP was a success but Operation Zarb-e-Azb was not
d) Operation Zarb-e-Azb was a success but the NAP was not
88.
Nowadays, traffic jams and congestion have become very usual in Pakistan, particularly in Lahore and Karachi.
The reasons for this are many: the increasing number of vehicles on the roads, irresponsible driving,
bottlenecks on the streets, construction work on roadsides, lack of implementation of traffic rules and protests
and rallies on roads.
The primary purpose of the passage is:
a) To provide reasons for traffic jams
b) To provide reasons for noise pollution
c) To explain why traffic jams are inevitable
d) To explain that noise pollution is inevitable

NTHP PAGE NO.205

89.
We know that extremist thinking, the ongoing war against the state and its machinery and the contempt for the
religious philosophy propounded by the Sufi mystics who spread the faith across the region, are all factors that
contribute towards the massacres. But are we familiar enough with the thinking of people, teenagers and even
children who are confused by what is happening? Yes, we read the social media posts, the expressions of
outrage and agony. But most of these come from people we know – at least indirectly.
The primary purpose of this passage is to:
a) entertain
b) inform
c) reflect
d) satirize
90.
Pakistan will turn 70 on August 14, 2017. It has been a tumultuous journey. Exciting. Adventurous.
Unpredictable. Sometimes uplifting. Often heartbreaking. And, often, rash and dangerous. But never has there
been a dull moment.
What category below describes what the author is doing:
a) description
b) chronological
c) cause/effect
d) comparison/contrast
91.
Some 70 years after it came into existence, Pakistan still struggles with issues of identity and ethnicity. World
Mother Language Day observed globally this Tuesday – on February 21 – indicated some of the problems with
discussions and debates held from many platforms on what constituted a mother language and what place it
had compared to a national language. Recently a Senate Standing Committee on Law, Human Rights and
Justice met to discuss two separate bills moved by parliamentarians on giving other language the same status
as Urdu and counting them as national language. One bill suggested that Punjabi, Pashto, Sindhi and Balochi
be given this status while the other recommended that Seraiki, Brahvi and Hindko also be included in this
category. The issue of language is already being mentioned as one of the more sensitive issues that will come
up during the census due to begin in a few weeks’ time. Indeed the problems of language have persisted almost
throughout Pakistan’s history and contributed to the violent division of the nation in 1971. Many of the
country’s regional languages and dialects have faced either neglect or ridicule.
The passage indicates that:
a) Language is a pecuniary issue
b) Language is a polarizing issue
c) Language is a pedestrian issue
d) Language is a piddling issue
NTHP PAGE NO.206
92.
The annual Munich Security Conference, like the gatherings at Davos and Bonn, is a jamboree of self-
congratulation for the world’s political and business elite. It is at events such as these that the Western powers
set the agenda for the rest of the world. But this time, the focus was on a man who wasn’t even present at the
event: US President Donald Trump. More than any other individual, Trump has threatened to shake up the
comfortable status quo of the West. During his campaign, Trump repeatedly called Nato obsolete and
threatened to pull out of the alliance. Many of his criticisms of Nato such as its confrontational attitude with
Russia – a cold-war relic that acts as an enforcer of Western will around the world – were on point but, as is
usually the case with Trump, he is making things worse.
The passage implies that
a) Donald Trump has abolished Nato
b) The Munich Security Conference does not cater to the majority of the world’s population
c) Davos and Bonn are more successful than Munich
d) Russia is a cold-war relic
93.
The PSL is essential for the long-term health of Pakistan cricket. We need it to compete with the likes of India
and Australia, who have many years of progress on us with their long-running IPL and Big Bash League, in
the most popular format of the game. The PSL will ideally lead to the modernisation of cricket in Pakistan, not
just by bringing in more money but through the professionalism of the coaches and data analysts being brought
in. If the PCB and the government feel ready to stage a match in Lahore then it should go ahead; the country
will be grateful for an opportunity to see our heroes in such a high-profile final.
The purpose of this passage is to:
a) conclude
b) entertain
c) inform
d) persuade
94.
Next month’s census is going to be the blueprint for public policy over the next decade and as such it is
important that as many details as possible are collected. Funds for everything from welfare payments to health
and education will be apportioned and allocated on the basis of the census. The effectiveness of such
programmes is dependent on knowing exactly where money needs to be spent. This is why the medical
community is suggesting the government collect data on five major diseases — diabetes, hypertension, obesity,
hepatitis and cardiac illness — in the census. A petition filed in the Supreme Court has also asked for the
census to include information about disabled people. The government and Supreme Court should follow
through since collecting and analysing information on physical and mental health issues will give it a better
idea of emerging health problems and reveal if there are regional differences in the incidence of these problems,
thus allowing it to distribute resources based on that data. Diabetes, in particular, is believed to be
disproportionately prevalent in Pakistan, with more than seven percent of the population thought to suffer from
the disease. But such figures are only a rough estimation since no systemic data has been collected. The census
is the best opportunity to rectify that.
NTHP PAGE NO.207
The passage demonstrates that:
a) Health problems are endemic to the region
b) Efficient education spending can be determined through the census
c) Efficient healthcare spending can be determined through the census
d) Diabetes has been eradicated in Pakistan
95.
Almost 20 per cent of the food made available to consumers worldwide is lost through over-eating or wastage,
according to a new study. The world population consumes around 10 per cent more food than it needs, while
almost nine per cent is thrown away or left to spoil, researchers said. Efforts to reduce the billions of tonnes
lost could improve global food security - ensuring everyone has access to a safe, affordable, nutritious diet -
and help prevent damage to the environment.
The theme of the passage can be best summarized by the following proverb
a) Waste not, want not.
b) No man is an island
c) Hope for the best but prepare for the worst
d) There’s no such thing as a free lunch.

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
This is the END of part 3. Please, wait for part 4 (writing one essay).
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

NTHP PAGE NO.208

 Paper-X
Program Applied For

Name Seat No.

Father’s
Application No.
Name
Candidate’s Room No.
Signature
Test Centre

Leadership and Ideas for Tomorrow GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. Please compare & check that the Seat Number, your Name & Other information given on the
answer sheet and on the sticker on your chair are correct and identical to those given on the Admit
Card issued to you. Please also write these information in the boxes given above.
2. Use of calculator / mobile phone is not allowed.
3. Candidates must carefully follow the instructions given in this booklet and by the instructor /
announcer.
4. The test is divided into Four parts. (Total duration of the test is Three Hours).

 Title Page. All Instructions Should Be Examined Carefully. Time : 05 minutes.

 Mathematics Multiple Choice Questions 50 (from 01 to 50) of (from page 1 to 10) –

Time allowed 80 minutes.

 English Multiple Choice Questions 45 (from 51 to 95) of (from page 11 to 19) –

Time allowed 50 minutes.

 One essay question - Separate instructions for essay questions will be given later on.
Time allowed 45 minutes
Note: While working on an allowed part, candidates are not allowed to go forward or backward to other parts.
These parts should be attempted in the order given above.
5. Each question has only one correct answer (A / B / C / D). All answers must be given by marking a X
CROSS SIGN at the concerned option on the answer sheet. There will be NEGATIVE MARKING in all parts of
the test.
6. Each Correct Answer carries four points. One point shall be deducted for every wrong answer.
7. If candidates want to change any of their answers, they should erase their previous answer clearly, completely
and re-mark with a X Cross. In case candidates cross more than one option for the same question, the answer
will be treated as wrong. Over writing is not acceptable. Such answers will be treated as wrong answers.
8. If a candidate does not want to answer any question he / she MUST X CROSS the
option E on the answer sheet.
9. When the instructor says STOP, candidates must close their test booklets and cover it with the answer sheet.
10. Any evidence of cheating or non-compliance with instructions or tearing pages will lead to disqualification from
the test and legal action.
11. Taking away of the question booklet or answer sheet is prohibited.
The candidates should not mark answers on the question booklet, however they may do the rough work on the question
booklet, and all answers must be given in X CROSS SIGN on the answer sheet with the pencil. Make sure you do not write
anything other than your signature and marking of X Cross against your answers on the answer sheet .

WAIT..Do not turn over this page until you are told to do so
.

Wish you the very best of Luck

NTHP PAGE NO.209
 Mathematics M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 50 (from 1 to 50) Time: 80 Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 1 To 10 Negative Markings: Yes

Q1 Let us consider two functions f and g, defined by f(x) = 4 – (x – 2)2and g(x) = 6 – x. What is
one possible value of a such that f(a) = g(a)?

I. 1 II. 2 III. 3
A) I only
B) II only
C) II and III only
D) I and III only

Q2 In the xy-plane, the point (u, v) lies on the line with equation y = mx + 1, where m is a constant.
The point with coordinates (5u, 4v) lies on the line with equation y = 2mx + 1. What is the value of
v?
A) 1.5
B) 2.5
C) 3.5
D) None of these

Q3 For the function y = f(x) given on the

right, the value of f(f(2)) is
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3

Q4 Which of the following could be the equation of the graph of y = f(x) given in Q3 above?

A) y = 4 + 0.25(x – 2)2

B) y = 4 – 0.25(x – 2)2

C) y = 4 + 0.25(x + 2)2

D) y = 4 – 0.25(x + 2)2
2
Q5 In the equation 𝑥 + 1 = , which of the following is a possible value of x + √3 ?
𝑥−1
I. 0 II. √3 III. 2√3
A) I only
B) II only
C) II and III only
D) I and III only

NTHP PAGE NO.210

 1
Q6 Which of the following is a value of x for which the expression is undefined?
4𝑥 2 +16𝑥+15
I. –0.5 II. –1.5 III. –2.5
A) I only
B) II only
C) II and III only
D) I and III only

Q7 In the xy-plane above, a point (not shown) with

coordinates (α, β) lies on the graph of the linear
function shown on the right. If β is greater than one
1+𝛼
and α is positive, what is the value of ?
1–𝛽

A) 1
B) –1
C) 2
D) 3

Q8 A circle in the xy-plane has equation x2 + y2 + 2x – 4y = 20. Which of the following points does

NOT lie in the interior of the circle?

A) (1, 2)
B) (−3, 1)
C) (0, 0)
D) (2, 6)

Q9 If p and q are two solutions of the equation z2 + 16z – 4 = 0 and q > p, which of the following

is the value of q – p?
A) 4√17
B) –4√17
C) √17
D) None of these

Q10 On 14th JUNE 2017, England crashed out in Cardiff after emphatic defeat by magnificent
Pakistan. Score card of Pakistani Batsmen are given below. The batsman with highest strike rate
(runs / ball) is?
Batting Runs Balls
A) BABAR AZAM
AZHAR ALI 76 100
B) AZHAR ALI
FAKHAR ZAMAN 57 58
C) MOHAMMAD HAFEEZ
BABAR AZAM 38 45
D) FAKHAR ZAMAN
MOHAMMAD HAFEEZ 31 21
NTHP PAGE NO.211
Q11 A typical forklift in a warehouse is capable of moving boxes that weigh either 50 KG or 60 KG
each. Let x be the number of 50-KG boxes and y be the number of 60-KG boxes. The forklift can
carry up to either 40 boxes or a weight of 2,000 KGs. Which of the following systems of inequalities
represents this relationship?
A) 5 x + 6 y ≤ 2000; x + y ≤ 40
B) 5 x + 6 y ≤ 40; x + y ≤ 2,000
C) 5 x + 6 y ≤ 200; x + y ≤ 40
D) 50 x + 60 y ≤ 200; x + y ≤ 40

Q12 In a hospital there is a consumption of 2100 litres of milk for 93 patients in the last month.
How many patients will consume 4200 litres of milk in the current month?
A) 186
B) 184
C) 182
D) 180

Q13 y2 = x2 + 5x – 27; x + 5 = y2.

How many real solutions are there to the system of equations above?
A) There are exactly 4 solutions
B) There are exactly 2 solutions
C) There is exactly 1 solution
D) There are no solutions

Q14 Two functions β(x) and θ(x) are related by two equations β(x) = x + 2 θ(x) and
θ(x) = x – β(x). What is the value of β(10)?
A) −20
B) 0
C) 10
D) 20

ℎ3
Q15 The volume of a cube is , where ℎ is a positive constant. Which of the following gives the
125
surface area of the cube?
ℎ2
A)
25
2ℎ2
B)
25
4ℎ2
C)
25
6ℎ2
D)
25

NTHP PAGE NO.212

Q16 The mean score of 10 players in a cricket match was 20.3 runs. If the highest individual score
is removed, the mean score of the remaining 9 players becomes 17 runs. What was the highest
score?
A) 40
B) 44
C) 45
D) 50

Q17 Let f(𝑥 ) = 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 – 1. Find f(𝑥 + √𝑥)

A) 𝑥 2 + 10𝑥√𝑥 + 3𝑥 + 2√𝑥 – 1

B) 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 √𝑥 + 3𝑥 + 2√𝑥 – 1

C) f(𝑥 – √𝑥)
D) None of these
Questions 18 and 19 refer to the following information. The quantity of chocolate supplied and the quantity of the
chocolate demanded in an economic market are functions of the price of the product. The functions D(p) = – 20p + 160
and S(p) = 20p – 40 are the estimated supply and demand functions for the chocolate. The function D(p) gives the
quantity of the chocolate demanded (in pounds) by the market when the price is p dollars, and the function S(p) gives
the quantity of the chocolate supplied to the market (in pounds) when the price is p dollars. It is further assumed that
2 ≤ p ≤ 8.
Q18 Suppose that the government set the price of chocolate at $6 per pound. Which of the following
statements best describes an effect of this price control?
A) There would be a surplus of 40 pounds of chocolate.
B) Less chocolate would be demanded at $4 than at $6.
C) Producers of chocolate would want the price set at $4.
D) There would be a shortage of 20 pounds of chocolate.

Q19 At what price will the quantity of the chocolate supplied to the market equal the quantity of the
chocolate demanded by the market?
A) $3
B) $5
C) $7
D) None of these
𝑤
𝑘𝑢 (𝑘 3 )
Q20 For the equation =𝑘 8
and =1. If k > 0, what is the value of u?
𝑘 2𝑤 𝑘𝑢
A) 26
B) 9
C) 8
D) 24
NTHP PAGE NO.213
Q21 Let m be an integer and the quadratic equation x2 + mx + 12 = 0 has two distinct integer

roots. Which of the following is a possible value of m?

I. –8 II. –7 III. 7 IV. 8

A) I and IV only

B) II and III only

C) I and II only

D) I, II, III and IV

4−𝑖
Q22 If =∝ − 𝑖𝛽 where (𝑖 = √−1), then value of ∝ + 𝛽 is
4+𝑖
8
A)
17
15
B)
17
23
C)
17

D) None of these

Q23 A car traveled at an average speed of 100 KM per hour for 5 hours and consumed fuel at a rate
of 13 KM per liter. What is the approximate cost of 5-hour trip if the price of fuel is R78 per liter?
A) R2000
B) R3000
C) R4000
D) None

Q24 The area of the triangle shown is 50√3 square units.

The perimeter of the triangle is
A) 10(3 – √3)
B) 10(3 + √3)
C) 30√3
D) None of these

Q25 The area of a rectangle is u square centimeters. The length of two non-parallel sides are b and
c respectively. The ratio of u to b is

A) 1 : c
B) c : 1
C) u : c
D) c : b

NTHP PAGE NO.214

Q26 What is the 6th term of a geometric sequence if the difference between its 4th and 2nt term is

120 and that between its 5th and 3rd term is 480?
A) 2048
B) 1024
C) 512
D) 128

Q27 The first term of an arithmetic sequence is 5 and the sum of its first 7 terms is 98. What is the
sum of the first 21 terms of the arithmetic sequence?
A) 798
B) 735
C) 385
D) None of these

Q28 If x is an integer such that 3x < 14 and 15x > 21, what is the value of x?
I. 2 II. 3 III. 4
A) I only
B) II only
C) II and III only
D) I, II and III

Q29 If a is an integer chosen randomly from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and b is an integer chosen
randomly from the set {1, 7, 9, 11, 13}, what is the probability that ab is a prime integer?
7
A)
25
6
B)
25
5
C)
25
D) None of these

Q30 The graphs of the functions f and g are

shown in the xy-plane. For which of the following
values of x does f(x)+ g(x) = 0?
A) 0 only
B) −4 only
C) 4 only
D) all values of x

NTHP PAGE NO.215

Q31 If 2 and 4 are the roots of the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c =0, a ≠ 0, then the roots of

quadratic equation cx2 + bx + a =0 are

A) – 0.5 and 0.25

B) 0.5 and – 0.25
C) 0.5 and 0.25
D) – 0.5 and – 0.25

Q32 If the product of x2 + x – 6 and x2 – 5x +6 is zero, then x could equal any of the following

numbers except
A) –3
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Q33 On Monday, 540 adults and children visited a museum. The ratio of adults to children was 2
to 3. How many adults visited the museum?
A) 108
B) 216
C) 324
D) 432

Q34 If 𝑛 is an integer that satisfies the relation, 10 < √𝑛 ≤ 100, what is the sum of the largest

possible value of n and the smallest possible value of 𝑛?

A) 10100
B) 10101
C) 10099
D) None of these

Q35 A professor has to submit the result of 154 exam scripts. On the first day he graded 9 scripts,
second day he graded 10 scripts, third day he graded 11 scripts etc. The trend continued until he
finished grading all the scripts. The average number of scripts graded / day by him is

A) 12
B) 13
C) 14
D) 15
NTHP PAGE NO.216
Q36 In the triangle shown, AC = BC and ACB =

1200. If AC = 8, what is the area of the triangle ABC?

A) 48√3

B) 32√3

C) 16√3
D) None of these

Q37 How many solutions to the equation |2x – 1| = |x – 2|?

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3

3 5
Q38 What fraction lies exactly halfway between and ?
8 6
11
A)
48
29
B)
48
15
C)
48
D) None of these

√𝑥 2 − 𝑥
Q39 Find the domain of the function f(𝑥) = :
(𝑥 2 + 𝑥 − 2)

A) (−∞ , −2) U (– 2, 0] U (1, ∞)

B) (−∞ , 1) U (1 , ∞)

C) (−∞ , −2) U (– 2, 0) U (1, ∞)

D) None of these

Q40 If – 10 < x < 20 and |y – 2| < 10, then which one of the following is a valid statement:

A) xy > 0
B) –54 < 3x – 2y < 76
C) |x – 5| > 15
D) None of these

NTHP PAGE NO.217

Q41 If exactly one of the three integers x, y, and z is even, which of the following expressions must
be odd?
I. x + yz II. x+y+z III. xyz
A) I only
B) I, II and III
C) II only
D) None of these

Q42 In the (x, y) plane, which of the following statements are true?

I. The line x – y = 1 is parallel to the line y = –x.

II. The line x – y = 1 and the line y = –x intersect each other at (0.5, –0.5).
III. The line x – y = 1 doesn’t pass through second quadrant.

A) II only
B) I, II and III
C) I and II only
D) II and III only

Q43 In the xy-plane, the graph of function f has x-intercepts at −9, −3, and 3. Which of the following
could define f?

A) f(x) = (x + 9) + (x2 – 9)
B) f(x) = (x + 9)(x2 – 9)
C) f(x) = (x – 9)(x2 – 9)
D) None of these

Q44 At a certain bookstore, hardcover books cost 900 rupees each, and paperback books cost 400
rupees each. If Rizwan purchase 8 books and spent a total of 5700 rupees, how many paperback
books did he buy?

A) one

B) two

C) three
D) four

Q45 Rubina is 12 years younger than Shaista. Five years ago, Rubina was half Shaista’s age. How
old will Rubina be next year?

A) 16
B) 18
C) 20
D) None of these

NTHP PAGE NO.218

Q46 The length of a rectangle is two less than twice the width, and the area of the rectangle
is 144. What is the rectangle’s perimeter?

A) 44
B) 50
C) 56
D) None of these

Q47 Jamil has 6 more candies than Murad. If Jamil gives Murad 6 candies, Murad will then
have 3 times as many candies as Jamil. How many candies does Murad have?

A) 9
B) 6
C) 3
D) None of these

Q48 If x ☺ y = x + 2y and x ☼ y = x(x − y), find (5 ☼ −4) ☺ 3

A) −18
B) 27
C) 18
D) None of these

Q49 Which of the following is the same as i 103? Note i = √−1.

A) –1
B) 1
C) i
D) – i

1 1
Q50 If 𝑥= – 4, find the value of 𝑥8 +
𝑥 𝑥8
A) 7
B) 17
C) 47
D) None of these
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(Stop. Do not turn over this page until you are told to do so.)
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

NTHP PAGE NO.219

 English s M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 45 (from 51 to 95) Time Allowed: 50 Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 11 To 19 Negative markings: Yes

For questions 51-58, decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each blank.
Each morning from 8:30 to 9:05 a.m. at our company’s headquarters, in San Francisco, we serve free breakfast
to every employee. And I’m not talking about stale muffins and dry bagels. Today I ate a sloppy joe, cheesy
scrambled eggs, home fries, crispy bacon, and sausage links. Healthy, I know. Tomorrow, I’m definitely going
to grab a yogurt and some fruit. And don’t forget all the vegetarian, vegan, and gluten-free options. After all,
this is California.
I know what you’re thinking. Free food is the cost of admission to the Silicon Valley tech scene. Our startup,
Pivotal, calls the South of Market (SOMA) neighborhood home, alongside companies like Airbnb, Dropbox,
Adobe, Slack, Salesforce, and Uber. (51) ___________. It’s just expected.
While that’s true, even if no other startup around us did this, we still (52) ___________. To explain why, I first
need to explain how Pivotal works. Our approach (53) ___________ in extreme programming and agile
processes, and the foundation of our work environment is a pair programming culture. In other words, two
software developers always work together. It’s a rule.
The pair has two monitors, two keyboards, and two mice, but only one computer. It’s a lot like a pilot and
copilot working together. (54) ___________ own controls, but they’re flying the same plane. So let’s say
Developer A is typing, and Developer B gets an idea. (55) ___________ handing over the keyboard and mouse,
Developer A simply stops typing and lifts their hands. Developer B starts typing immediately. There’s no break
in flow or train of thought.
This kind of collaboration means that there’s always two people available to help solve an engineering
problem. If Developer A wins the lottery and (56) ___________ the next day, Developer B was there for every
step of the way and knows the code. Which brings me back to breakfast.
Free food, during a limited, half-hour window, both saves people some hassle and gets them to (57)
___________ at the same time to kick off the workday.
To understand why this is so important, picture Pivotal (58) ___________ free breakfast. Let’s start with the
obvious. Most developers would sleep late if it were up to them. They’d roll into the office around 10 or 11
a.m. Which means they’d grab a coffee, maybe respond to a few emails, and then sync up with the team.
Reference: Hum, J. 2017. Why My Company Serves Free Breakfast to All Employees. From
https://hbr.org/2017/05/why-my-company-serves-free-breakfast-to-all-employees
51
A) So, of course, Pivotal serves free, catered meals
B) So of course Pivotal serves free, catered meals
C) So, of course Pivotal serves free catered meals
D) So, of course, Pivotal serves free, catered, meals

NTHP PAGE NO.220

 52
A) might B) will
C) would D) should
53
A) roots B) is rooted
C) was rooted D) is rooting
54
A) They each has their
B) They each have their
C) They have each their
D) Each of them have their
55
A) Instead of B) Other than
C) Rather than D) Even though
56
A) quit B) quits
C) will quit D) will be quitting
57
A) wind up B) catch up
C) warm up D) show up
58
A) at B) during
C) without D) between
For questions 59-72, decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each blank.
How to Work with Someone Who Isn’t a Team Player
Carolyn O’Hara
April 21, 2017
Do you work with someone who isn’t a team player? Maybe they’re (59) ___________ focused on completing
and promoting their own work. Or they don’t chip in when everyone else is (60) ___________ to meet a
deadline or pulling a presentation together. This isn’t simply frustrating; it can affect your entire group’s
performance. How do you work with this person in a way that encourages them to think more about the team?
When a team member (61) ___________ or displays a bad attitude, there’s a real risk of social contagion that
drags down the (62) ___________ and productivity of those around them. “We all pick up on (63)
___________ cues from other people, and that affects our behaviors and actions,” says Susan David, founder
of the Harvard/McLean Institute of Coaching and author of Emotional Agility. “That leads to poor team
efficiency, lower levels of commitment, and less focus on the shared goal.” Ignoring the issue often ends up
only making it more (64) ___________. “There are a lot of negative consequences to somebody not carrying
his or her load on a team,” says Allan Cohen, a professor of management at Babson College and author of
Influence Without Authority. “The longer it goes on, the worse it gets in terms of how frustrated other members
of the group will become.” Here’s how to work with a coworker who isn’t a team player.

NTHP PAGE NO.221

Don’t jump to conclusions
It’s human nature to make assumptions about the reasons behind someone else’s behavior, even when we lack
real evidence, says Cohen. “That’s how our brains work,” he explains. But this shortcut doesn’t always lead
us to the right conclusions. Instead of assuming that someone is just a (65) ___________ or lacks commitment,
“do a little exploration first,” he says. The roots of the person’s behavior may surprise you. It could be that
they are dealing with a stressful situation at home that is leading to distraction at the office. Or they may be
feeling work pressures that you are unaware of. Or they’re not sure how to best contribute. You want to avoid
writing the person off or “(66) ___________ an explanation for their behavior, especially if it involves
attributing bad motives to them,” Cohen says.
Invite them in
More serious problems arise on a team when members (67) ___________ someone who isn’t carrying their
weight. So take the lead and make sure you’re not (68) ___________ the person. Consider taking your
colleague out to coffee or lunch just to get to know them better, and bring along a couple of colleagues to
promote cohesion. More interactions will promote friendlier group relations. “It’s really hard to (69)
___________ somebody you understand better,” says Cohen.
Revisit the team’s mission
Sometimes a team member who is being uncooperative may actually help identify underlying issues by serving
as a kind of ‘(70) ___________’ indicating that something is off with the group. It may be that your team’s
approach isn’t working, says Cohen, or that your mission isn’t clear enough. Use this opportunity to have a
conversation with the entire team about what the group’s shared vision should be and the best methods for
getting there. That clarity should help (71) ___________ everyone’s sense of purpose and productivity. “A lot
of people go into team meetings focused only on what’s been done and what hasn’t been done,” says David.
“Teams who (72) ___________ the earlier questions about mission often tend to get into the weeds of, ‘She
didn’t do this,’ and, ‘He didn’t do that,’ which leads to frustration.
Adapted from Harvard Business Review
59
A) over B) overly
C) overtly D) covertly
60
A) placating B) swarming
C) scrambling D) vindicating
61
A) attenuates B) adulterates
C) commensurates D) procrastinates
62
A) moral B) morale
C) mettle D) temperament
63
A) subtle B) tenuous
C) convenient D) understated

NTHP PAGE NO.222

 64
A) acute B) austere
C) deterrent D) gregarious
65
A) pedantic B) laconic
C) slacker D) misanthrope
66
A) refuting B) rescinding
C) concocting D) envisioning
67
A) shun B) eschew
C) exalt D) dodge
68
A) expelling B) ostracizing
C) disparaging D) excommunicating
69
A) venerate B) welter
C) reticent D) resent
70
A) damp squib B) canary in the coal mine
C) all mouth and no trousers D) pot calling the kettle black
71
A) boost B) boast
C) broast D) broach
72
A) bypassed B) circumvented
C) detoured D) departed
For questions 73-82, decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each blank.
Do We Mistake Inaccessibility for Brilliance?
By Zoe Heller and Leslie Jamison
August 25, 2015
At school, we’re taught to approach difficult literature in a spirit of humility. When we encounter a word we
don’t understand, or a snaky paragraph that we find hard to follow, we’re urged to hesitate before throwing up
our hands and denouncing the language as willfully (73) ___________. We’re told to take it (74) ___________,
trust that the author has something interesting to say and that with enough persistence we can make his
language surrender its meaning.
(75) ___________, this is useful counsel. Without it, few adolescents would make it through As I Lay Dying.
And none of us would ever make it through a Jorie Graham poem. Naturally, it doesn’t follow that all
challenging, complicated literature will reward our effort. Some writers compose convoluted, hard-to-read
sentences because they don’t have the (76) ___________ to make simpler ones. Some use 10-cent words just
to show that they know them. The reader who assumes that abstruse prose is clever prose, or that there is a
reliable correlation between (77) ___________ and depth, is bound to waste a lot of time on writing that doesn’t
deserve it. She is also liable to end up praising works that (78) ___________ her, for fear of being revealed as
NTHP PAGE NO.223
a dimwit if she confesses her perplexity. (As a college student I would rather have died than admit how few of
the jargon-filled sentences in Fredric Jameson’s The Political Unconscious I really understood.)
Still, I don’t see knee-jerk deference to (79) ___________ cleverness being a very widespread problem in
contemporary culture. On the contrary, in these focus-impaired times, we seem a lot less likely to overvalue
abstruseness than to prematurely dismiss it as not worth the trouble. (The mission statement of the Baileys
fiction prize actually specifies “accessibility” as one of the literary virtues it seeks to champion.) We like to
think that we live in an emperor’s-new-clothes world — full of pretentious people lavishing praise on high-
toned fakes. But we actually live in a sour-grapes world — full of people (80) ___________ at what they can’t,
or can’t be bothered to, reach.
Recently, when I read Christine Schutt’s short story “You Drive” with a graduate writing class, several of the
students complained that they found the story baffling. They couldn’t make out the chronology of the events
it described; they weren’t always sure which character was speaking; the story, they concluded, “didn’t work.”
The fact that they had trouble following Schutt’s elliptical prose was not in itself a surprise. What did take me
aback was their (81) ___________ — their certainty that the story’s difficulty was a needless imposition on
readerly good will. It was as if any writing that didn’t welcome them in and offer them the literary equivalent
of a (82) ___________ had failed a crucial hospitality test.
Adapted from the New York Times
73
A) concealed B) disparate
C) obscure D) dogmatic
74
A) in B) from
C) with D) on
75
A) By and large B) As a result
C) Furthermore D) On the other hand
76
A) cubes B) chops
C) hacks D) cleaves
77
A) opacity B) adversity
C) plasticity D) propensity
78
A) abash B) deplore
C) confute D) confound
79
A) sham B) phony
C) pseudo D) counterfeit
80
A) scoffing B) deriding
C) ridiculing D) discerning

NTHP PAGE NO.224

 81
A) rage B) fury
C) wrath D) indignation
82
A) sofa B) recliner
C) divan D) mattress
For questions 83-88, fill in the gap with the best sentences (A, B, C or D).
You Still Need Your Brain
By Daniel T. Willingham
May 19, 2017
Most adults recall memorizing the names of rivers or the Pythagorean theorem in school and wondering,
“When am I ever going to use this stuff?” Kids today have a high-profile spokesman. Jonathan Rochelle, the
director of Google’s education apps group, said last year at an industry conference that he “cannot answer”
why his children should learn the quadratic equation. He wonders why they cannot “ask Google.” (83)
___________
Google is good at finding information, but the brain beats it in two essential ways. (84) ___________ Consider
vocabulary. Every teacher knows that a sixth grader, armed with a thesaurus, will often submit a paper studded
with words used in not-quite-correct ways, like the student who looked up “meticulous,” saw it meant “very
careful,” and wrote “I was meticulous when I fell off the cliff.”
(85) ___________ Consider “Trisha spilled her coffee.” When followed by the sentence “Dan jumped up to
get a rag,” the brain instantly highlights one aspect of the meaning of “spill” — spills make a mess. Had the
second sentence been “Dan jumped up to get her more,” you would have thought instead of the fact that “spill”
means Trisha had less of something. Still another aspect of meaning would come to mind had you read, “Dan
jumped up, howling in pain.”
The meaning of “spill” depends on context, but dictionaries, including internet dictionaries, necessarily offer
context-free meanings. (86) ___________ Perhaps internet searches will become more sensitive to context,
but until our brains communicate directly with silicon chips, there’s another problem — speed.
Quick access is supposed to be a great advantage of using the internet. Students have always been able to look
up the quadratic equation rather than memorize it, but opening a new browser tab takes moments, not the
minutes required to locate the right page in the right book. (87) ___________
Speed matters when the quadratic equation is part of a larger problem. Imagine solving 397,394 x 9 if you
hadn’t memorized the multiplication table. (88) ___________ That’s why the National Mathematics Advisory
Panel listed “quick and effortless recall of facts” as one essential of math education.
Adapted from the New York Times
83
A) After all, this is what Google is designed for.
B) If Mr. Rochelle cannot answer his children, I can.
C) This goes to show that even the smartest people can be totally ignorant.
D) One would expect a person of Mr Rochelle’s caliber to be able to answer any question.

NTHP PAGE NO.225

 84
A) Proponents of Google overlook the fact that its application is finite.
B) One, the neurons in our brains transmit signals much faster than any machine.
C) People have forgotten the fact that the brain processes information much faster than
Google.
D) Champions of Google underestimate how much the meaning of words and sentences
changes with context.
85
A) What most search engines do not offer is the slight variation in meanings.
B) This is not to say that technology is subservient to the human brain.
C) With the right knowledge in memory, your brain deftly puts words in context.
D) You need your memory to correctly remember all the various meanings of words.
86
A) This is not the only drawback of internet searches.
B) That’s why kids fall off cliffs meticulously.
C) There are numerous ways to characterize this phenomenon.
D) Nevertheless, we keep on relying on it relentlessly.
87
A) Yet “moments” is still much slower than the brain operates.
B) Still, in this day and age nobody has that kind of time.
C) But when it comes to information retrieval, speed does not trump accuracy.
D) This is a constant challenge that our children have to face today – something the
previous generation did not have to deal with.
88
A) That’s why computers were invented to assist us.
B) So, memorization is required whether you like it or not.
C) It would be impossible to do it without the super computer.
D) Sure, you could look up 4 x 9, but you could easily lose the thread of the problem as
you did so.
For questions 89-95, read the following text and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best answers the given
questions.
1. From Blade Runner to I, Robot, the big screens of Hollywood have predicted the rise of the machine.
Automated intelligences will wait our tables and drive our cabs. They will serve us by performing
menial tasks. But fact is now surpassing fiction. Automation has moved beyond the factory assembly
line as computers are diagnosing illnesses, providing legal counsel, and making financial and political
decisions. And if artificial intelligence really is faster, smarter and more reliable, what are we left with?
2. The answer is precisely that element which makes us less efficient and slower. Our humanity. But
rather than being seen as a weakness, this is actually our strongest suit. It’s one we need to empower,
because studies show that as the world becomes increasingly automated, computerized and digitalized,
we are losing the very skills that define us as human. Just when we need them the most.
3. Our empathy is something that computers will always struggle to emulate. We need to celebrate what
makes us different from even the smartest of the machines. While the future belongs to those who are
able to navigate this increasingly digitalized world of ours, the choicest spoils will fall to those who
can combine technological fluency with emotional intelligence.
NTHP PAGE NO.226
4. In the fourth industrial revolution, humans are not making the most of this potential advantage. Satya
Nadella, the CEO of Microsoft, said at Davos this year that in a world with a surfeit of AI and machine
learning, “human values such as common sense and empathy will be scarce.” A finding by Sara
Konrath at Michigan University shows that young people are becoming less empathic than ever;
American College students showed a 48% decrease in empathic concern and a 34% drop in their ability
to see other people’s perspectives.
5. The figures indicate that precisely now, when our powers to engage with others could make the
difference between ourselves and our automated counterparts, we are allowing our empathy muscles
to atrophy. We are, to put it simply, disengaging.
6. Some 87% of millennials admitted to missing out on a conversation because they were distracted by
their phone. Ironically, in a world that is increasingly connected, we as individuals, as families, as a
society, are becoming less connected. A Gallup poll shows that families eat together less and less, while
51% of teens would rather communicate digitally than in person (even with friends). And 43% of 18-
24 year-olds say that texting is just as meaningful as an actual conversation with someone over the
phone.
7. So at a time when we should be flexing our empathic muscles and becoming more emotionally
intelligent we are actually dumbing down. We have become empathic slobs and this is a problem that
needs to be addressed. 1 MIT is one of the few institutions that understand the importance of honing
its students’ emotional intelligence as well as their technical skills. 2 Their undergraduates — soon to
be the world’s elite technologists — can attend a “Charm School,” a long-running, tongue-in-cheek
program which includes advice on everything from when to make eye contact and how to kindly break
bad news.
8. 3 But by the time young people reach tertiary education it might already be too late. 4 We need to build
empathy into our entire education system and create corporate environments that value skills that have
previously been labelled as “soft” add-ons.
9. In many ways the problem is a historical one. Our education system is still rooted in the values of the
industrial era. The so-called 3 Rs — reading, writing and arithmetic — which prepared students for
factory and clerical tasks, concentrated on so-called “hard” skills at the expense of creativity,
imagination or emotional intelligence. While education systems do foster empathy through subjects
like foreign languages, literature and the arts, these are not always seen as crucial. In the words of
Teresa Cremin, a professor of education at the U.K.’s Open University, by failing to develop resilience,
imagination (linked to empathy), creativity and resourcefulness, the British National Curriculum is
“educating for the past, not the rapidly changing and unknown future.” Other countries face a similar
disconnect.
10. The skills associated with empathy need to become core values in our homes, our schools and the
workplace. They need to be embedded at all levels of society. This is not a box-ticking exercise. These
are not soft skills, they are the skills of the future, because while technology is crucial, it will be far
more powerful when in the hands of the emotionally literate geek. And to provide a future generation
with high levels of emotional literacy we need to institutionalize empathy — to systematize it, making
it a part of the foundations of our learning both at work and as school.
11. MIT is not the only institution to have woken up to this: SAP now have a ‘Empathy to action’ program
for their sales teams, Facebook have an Empathy Lab, Johnson and Johnson have a new business
direction with empathy at the heart of it. These initiatives recognize the fundamental shifts that society
is undergoing and the need to prepare for the changes that are still to come.
NTHP PAGE NO.227
 12. It is a cliché of science fiction that as AI advances, the computers become more humanized until it is
almost impossible to tell us apart. So it is a monumental irony that in the real world, the advance of AI
has resulted in a human race that is becoming increasingly automated, digitized and computerized. We
always thought the threat of machines was that they would emulate us so well they would replace us.
We never considered that it could go in the other direction.
Reference: Parmar, B. 2017. The One Crucial Skill Our Education System Is Missing. From
https://www.forbes.com/sites/worldeconomicforum/2017/04/24/the-one-crucial-skill-our-education-system-
is-missing/#7b4775830b89
89 In paragraph 1, the author mentions which of the following as a task AI is performing in reality?
A) working as cab drivers
B) electing political officials
C) working as servers in restaurants
D) offering advice on matters relating to law
90 According to paragraph 2, the author is most likely to agree with which of the following
statements?
A) Our humanity is our biggest asset.
B) Our humanity is our biggest weakness.
C) Our humanity is diminishing alarmingly.
D) Our humanity is increasing exponentially.
91 In paragraph 4, first sentence, the word “this”, refers to
A) humans’ sense of empathy
B) humans’ technological knowhow
C) humans’ ability to survive the odds
D) humans’ ability to overcome their weaknesses
92 In paragraph 7, the author cites the example of MIT to
A) prove the superiority of the institution
B) identify the area where the majority of the graduates lack the most
C) advertize the unique programs offered by the institution
D) argue that the best institutes realize the necessity of enhancing emotional intelligence
93 Read paragraphs 7 and 8 and look at 1, 2, 3 and 4 that indicate spaces. Where can the following
sentence be inserted?
MIT have hit on an invaluable point, realizing the need to fill a crucial gap in their students’ educations.
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
94 The author’s main point in paragraph 9 is to
A) distinguish between hard and soft skills
B) explain why soft skills have been traditionally ignored
C) argue why hard skills are more important than soft skills
D) enumerate ways in which the industrial movement impacted our educational system
95 The author is mainly advocating that
A) we need to understand AI better
B) we need to revamp our school curriculum
C) we need to inculcate empathy in our students
D) the survival of the human race will depend solely on empathy

NTHP PAGE NO.228

 Paper-XI

Mathematics M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 45 (from 1 to 45) Time: 80 Minutes
Questions on page number 1 to 9 Negative Markings: No
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q1 A line has parametric equations x = 1 – 2t and y = 4 + t, where t is a parameter. The slope of the line is
A) –2
B) – 0.5
C) 0.5
4+𝑡
D)
1−2𝑡

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2
lim 2𝑥 −3𝑥−2
Q2 Find
𝑥 → 2 𝑥−2
A) 0
B) 1
C) 3
D) 5
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q3 If x – α is a factor of αx2 – 3x + α, then α =
I. 0 II. √2 III. – √2
A) I only
B) II only
C) II and III only
D) I, II and III
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q4 Find the remainder when 2x3 – x2 – x + 5 is divided by x + 3.
A) 47
B) 55
C) – 55
D) – 47
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q5 The equation of the perpendicular bisector of the segment joining L (10, 0) to M (0, –10) is
A) y = −x + 10
B) y = −x
C) y = 2x
D) None of these

NTHP PAGE NO.229

 1
Q6 The function f(x) = which is defined for all x < – 5, is
(𝑥 + 5)
A) a periodic function
B) an increasing function
C) a decreasing function
D) a function which attains positive values only
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q7 Which of the following is a factors of the polynomial 2x2 – x – 1?
I. x–1 II. 2x + 1 III. x + 0.5

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I, II and III
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q8 How many integers are in the solution set of |5x – 1 | < 25?

A) 13
B) 12
C) 11
D) 10
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5 −ℎ
Q9 For what value(s) of h the determinant of the matrix M = [ ] is zero?
ℎ ℎ − 10
I. 5 II. –5 III. –10
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
𝑥–𝑦
Q10 The operation ◊ is defined by x ◊ y = for all those x and y such that x + y ≠ 0. If x ◊ 3 = 3 ◊ x, then
𝑥+𝑦
x=
I. 3 II. –3 III. 0
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) I, II and III

NTHP PAGE NO.230

 1
Q11 If x = 4 + 5i, where i = √−1, then =
𝑥 2 +1
A) 5 – 4i
B) 26 + 5i
1−5𝑖
C)
208
−1−5𝑖
D)
208
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q12 In the xy – plane, what is the area of a triangle whose vertices are (√10, 0) , (√40, 0), and (√10 , 6)?
A) 10
B) 6√10
C) 3√10
D) 5
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q13 For some real number u, the first three terms of an arithmetic sequence are 2u – 3, 3u + 2, and 5u – 1.
What is the sum of first six terms of the sequence?

A) 273
B) 195
C) 130
D) 78
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q14 A point of intersection of two parabolas y2 = 9 – x and x2 = y – 3 is given by

I. (0, 3) II. (0, – 3) III. (9, 0)

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I, II and III
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
𝑥
Q15 If x and y are positive integers with x y = 144, then cannot be
𝑦
1
A)
36
9
B)
16
1
C)
2
16
D)
9
NTHP PAGE NO.231
Q16 The line L passes through the points (10, 20) and (20, 10). Which of the following is the equation of a
line perpendicular to L?
I. x+y=1 II. x – y =1 III. y–x=1
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1
Q17 What is the range of the function defined by f (𝑥) = − 3?
|𝑥−2|
A) All real numbers
B) All real numbers except 2
C) All real numbers greater than or equal to – 3
D) All real numbers greater than – 3

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
𝑥 2 −9
Q18 The domain of f(𝑥 ) = is the set of all real numbers x such that
√𝑥+3
A) x≥–3
B) x>–3
C) x≠3
D) x≠–3

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q19 The diameter AB of a circle is 25 cm. An isosceles triangle is drawn with AB as the base and the third
vertex is on the circle. What is the perimeter of the triangle?
A) 5(5 + √2 ) cm
B) 5(5 – √2 ) cm
C) 25(1+ √2 ) cm
D) 25(1 – √2 ) cm
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1 1
Q20 Find third term of a geometric progression whose fourth term is and sixth term is .
54 486
1 1 1
I. II. − 18 III.
18 6

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
NTHP PAGE NO.232
Q21 If x and y are two consecutive prime integers such that 20 < x < y < 40, what is the lowest possible value
of x – y?
A) – 2
B) – 6
C) – 8
D) – 14
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q22 Let m be a positive integer. When m + 3 is divided by 5, the remainder is 4. What is the remainder when
2m + 6 is divided by 5?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1
Q23 If sin x = , what is (sin x) * (cos x) * (cot x)? (Here * is the usual multiplication operator.)
5
4
A)
5
24
B)
25
1
C)
25
D) None of these
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q24 If the triangle shown in the adjacent graph
(not drawn to scale) is rotated around the y-
axis, what is the volume of the generated solid?

A) 74 π
B) 96 π
C) 128 π
D) 160 π

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q25 If 3(3x – 2) = 27(2 – 3x), then x =

1
A)
3
2
B)
3
4
C)
3
D) None of these
NTHP PAGE NO.233
Q26 What is the shortest distance between the lines y = x + 5 and x = y + 5?

A) 5 √2
B) 10 √2
C) 5
D) None of these
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q27 A cube has a surface area of 24 cm2. What is the volume of the cube?
A) 8 cm3
B) 16 cm3
C) 32 cm3
D) 64 cm3
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q28 If quadratic equation x2 + δx + λ = 0 has only one root which is 2, then the quadratic equation
x2 + λx – δ = 0
A) has also one root only which is 2
B) has also one root only which is – 2
C) has two roots
D) None of these
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q29 An integer i between 200 and 300, inclusive, is to be chosen at random. What is the probability that i is
a multiple of 4 as well as a multiple of 6?
17
A)
101
26
B)
101
34
C)
101
43
D)
101
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q30 Three coins are flipped together. Find the probability of getting at most 2 heads.
1
A)
4
3
B)
4
7
C)
8
D) None of these

NTHP PAGE NO.234

Q31 A number n is increased by 25. If the cube root of that result equals – 3, what is the value of n?
A) 52
B) 2
C) –52
D) None of these
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q32 sin3 θ + sin θ – cos2 θ sin θ =
A) sin θ cos2 θ
B) 2 cos3 θ
C) 2 sin3 θ
D) sin 2θ
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q33 A rectangular solid with length l, width w, and height h has a volume of 35. What is the volume of a
𝑤 6ℎ
rectangular solid with length 2l, width and height ?
3 5
A) 7
B) 14
C) 21
D) 28

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q34 Tickets for a show cost R 900 or R 700. If 500 tickets were sold for a total of R 425200, how many tickets
were sold for 700?

A) 438
B) 62
C) 250
D) None of these
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q35 The sum of the two roots of a quadratic equation is 10 and their product is – 20. Which of the following
could be the equation?

A) x2 – 20 x + 10 = 0
B) 2x2 + 20 x – 40 = 0
C) x2 + 10 x + 20 = 0
D) x2 – 10 x – 20 = 0

NTHP PAGE NO.235

Q36 There are four values of x in the interval [0, 3π] where the function f(x) = cos (βx) attains its maximum
value. What is the value of β?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) None of these
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1
Q37 If f(x) = (domain is all real values except –1) and if f – 1 is the inverse function of f, what is f – 1(9)?
𝑥 +1
1
A)
9
−8
B)
9
10
C)
9
D) None of these
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8𝑥 + 𝜋
Q38 What is the period of the function f(x) = cos ( )?
6
3𝜋
A)
2
8𝜋
B)
3
𝜋
C)
3
D) None of these
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q39 Vectors α and β are given by α = (1, 5) and β = (–5, 4). What is the length of vector γ given by
γ = β – 3α?
A) √41
B) √185
C) √26
D) None of these
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q40 If points A, B, and C lie on a circle and if the center of the circle lies on segment AC, then Δ ABC must
be?
A) isosceles
B) acute
C) obtuse
D) right

NTHP PAGE NO.236

 𝜋
Q41 The point (5, ) in polar coordinates is how far from the y-axis?
6

5√3
A)
2
5
B)
2
5
C)
√2
D) None of these

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q42 What are the coordinates of the vertex of the parabola defined by the equation y = – x2 + 6x – 10?
A) (3, – 1)
B) (– 1, 3)
C) (3, 1)
D) (1, 3)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q43 What is the minimum value of 𝑓(𝑥 ) = 4𝑥 2 + 8𝑥 − 5?
A) –1
B) – 9
C) 8
D) 0
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q44 What is the smallest distance between the point (–2, 2) and a point on the circumference of the circle
given by (x + 3)2 + (y –5)2 = 26?

A) √10 – √26
B) √26 – √10
C) √26
D) √10
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
p
Q45, For i = √−1, and p is any prime integer, the value of i cannot be

A) 𝑖
B) – 𝑖
C) 1
D) – 1

NTHP PAGE NO.237

 English M.C.Q’s

No. of Questions: 45 (from 46 to 90) Time: 50 Minutes

Questions on page number 10 to 20 Negative Markings: No

For questions 46-52, read the text below and then decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each blank.

To make money and please its shareholders, Facebook is dependent on the ads tucked away in your News
Feed. Facebook’s success lives and dies on its ability to bring you, the Facebook user, 46) _____________
tailored perfectly to your interests – it needs you to keep coming back and keep looking at its ads. For the
advertisers that Facebook must satisfy 47) _____________ turn a profit, your time spent on the platform is
worth a lot. Measuring your engaged time shows not just that 48) _____________ there, but also paying
attention. And by figuring out more precisely what 49) _____________ your attention, Facebook is
presumably hoping it can show you ads closer to the very things you pay attention to, too.

50) _____________, it’s hard not to think that the shift to measuring your scrolling and stopping isn’t also a
little bit creepy. Facebook is watching to see how you spend your time – to figure out what you want 51)
_____________ you don’t say so with a click, “like,” or comment. Sure, you knew Facebook was tracking
your comments, but you 52) _____________ to write them. The clock is ticking for all of us.

Greenberg J. (June 16, 2015). Forget the click? Online, time may be more meaningful. Retrieved from
http://www.wired.com/2015/06/forget-click-online-time-may-meaningful/

46
A an experience engaging consistently
B a consistently engaging experience
C an engaging consistently experience
D a consistent experience engaging
47
A to
B by
C with
D from
48
A you
B your
C you’re
D youre
49
A capture
B captures
C captured
D had captured

NTHP PAGE NO.238

 50
A Overall
B Therefore
C Furthermore
D Nonetheless
51
A so that
B even if
C in case
D provided that
52
A choose
B chose
C chosen
D choosing
For questions 53-63, read the text below and then choose the best replacement (A, B, or C) for the
underlined part in each sentence. If the underlined part is correct as it is, choose D.

The Economist Explains

What Countries Want from Their Diasporas

June 25, 2015

Not so long ago, countries mostly ignored their diasporas. But, rather like alumni relations offices, diaspora
ministries and departments 53) are now popping up around the world. 54) In 2009, Ireland struggled, it
convened an expat conference aimed at convincing the well-to-do Irish diaspora to help the country get back
on its feet.

What do countries want from their expats?

First, soft power. 55) Government believes its citizens living abroad can improve the country’s reputation,
increasing tourism, consumption of exports and more. They can also 56) lobby their lived-in countries to
pursue their interests. 57) Mexican-Americans, for example: strongly oppose tightening immigration
controls in America. But this doesn’t always 58) work, in some cases emigrants left their home countries in
the first place because they were unhappy there.

Second, diasporas can benefit their home countries financially. Most obviously, emigrants send remittances
to their families back home. 59) $70bn was received a year by India, and they make up half of Tajikistan’s
GDP. This money flows steadily, even through recessions. And remittances are particularly useful because
they are a form of foreign exchange and 60) can so help improve the credit rating of a country. They are
vulnerable to exchange-rate fluctuations though: when the rouble dropped in 2014, remittances sent to
surrounding countries were hit hard in dollar terms. Now countries want their diasporas to do more. 61)
Countries like Israel; which claim all Jews as its diaspora; sell infrastructure bonds overseas, hoping expats
will invest in the home country. They also count on business tips that could help create more jobs at home.

NTHP PAGE NO.239

Finally, countries want their diasporas to help them develop. 62) By bringing back skills, culture and new
ideas acquired abroad, they can lead the way in modernisation. In China, professors living abroad are
offered 63) vastly higher salary than their local counterparts to convince them to return. Unfortunately,
expats are much more likely to return to home countries that are rich and developed, meaning the countries
that need this assistance most don’t get it – one study found that scientists are five times more likely to
return to Taiwan than to China. The answer to this may be further incentives, such as those already being
rolled out – these include visa support, voting rights and tax breaks.

Last year, the American branch of India’s BJP sent volunteers to help campaign in the country’s election.
When the party’s candidate, Narendra Modi, won, the group promptly sent him a list of demands. If
countries want to harness the potential benefits of their diaspora, this kind of quid pro quo may become
increasingly common.

53
A will now pop up
B is now popping up
C are popping up now
D No correction needed
54
A When Ireland was struggling in 2009,
B Even though Ireland was struggling in 2009,
C Ireland have been struggling in 2009,
D No correction needed
55
A Governments believe their citizens living abroad
B Governments believe their abroad-living citizens
C Governments believed that their citizens living abroad
D No correction needed
56
A lobby the country they live
B lobby the country they live in
C lobby the countries they live in
D No correction needed
57
A Mexican Americans, for example,
B Mexican-Americans, for example,
C Mexican Americans for example
D No correction needed
58
A work; in some cases,
B work, in some cases,
C works; in some cases
D No correction needed
NTHP PAGE NO.240
 59
A India receive $70bn a year,
B $70bn a year was received by India,
C India receives $70bn a year,
D No correction needed
60
A so can helped improve country credit rating
B so can help improve a country’s credit rating
C so can help improve a country credit rating
D No correction needed
61
A Countries like Israel, which claims all Jews as its diaspora,
B A country like Israel, that claims as its diaspora all Jews
C Countries like Israel which claims as its diaspora all Jews
D No correction needed
62
A By bringing back skill, culture and new idea acquired abroad
B To bring back skill culture, and new idea abroad acquired
C To bring back skills, culture and ideas newly acquired abroad,
D No correction needed
63
A vastly higher salaries then their local counterparts
B vast high salary than their local counterpart
C vastly higher salaries than their local counterparts
D No correction needed
For questions 64-74, read the text below and then decide which word (A, B, C or D) best fits each blank.

FCC Just Slammed AT&T With a $100 Million Fine

Jeff John Roberts

Fortune

June 17, 2015

The Federal Communications Commission announced on Wednesday it will impose a whopping $100
million fine on AT&T to punish the phone carrier for severely slowing down the data speeds of customers
who have “unlimited data plans.”

According to the FCC, it received thousands of 64) _____________ over AT&T’s slow mobile internet, and
that the carrier failed to notify subscribers it was providing slower-than-advertised speeds.

NTHP PAGE NO.241

“The Enforcement Bureau’s investigation 65) _____________ that millions of AT&T customers were
affected. The customers who were subject to speed reductions were slowed for an average of 12 days per
billing cycle, significantly 66) _____________ their ability to use common data applications such as GPS
mapping or streaming video,” said the FCC in a news release.

AT&T said in a statement that it will fight the fine and that it “vigorously 67) _____________ the FCC’s
assertions.”

The FCC investigation relates to “unlimited” data plans that AT&T first began to offer in 2007, and has
since 68) _____________. Customers who signed up for the plan, however, complained that AT&T began
69) _____________ a cap in 2011, and then severely slowing down speeds when they exceeded that cap.
Many also expressed frustration about being locked into long-term “unlimited” contracts 70)
_____________ the caps, and being forced to pay termination fees if they wanted to change plans.

“Unlimited means unlimited,” said FCC Enforcement Bureau Chief Travis LeBlanc. “As today’s action 71)
_____________, the Commission is committed to holding accountable those broadband providers who fail
to be fully transparent about data limits.”

The FCC’s announcement comes after another agency, the Federal Trade Commission, already 72)
_____________ a lawsuit against the phone giant over the same issue. That lawsuit 73) _____________
refunds for consumers, and is going forward after a judge in April ruled that the FTC had jurisdiction to sue
phone phone carrier.

The other big phone carriers – Verizon, Sprint and T-Mobile – have also engaged in throttling, but have
done so less systemically, and 74) _____________ ease network congestion.

64
A complaints
B accusations
C charges
D criticisms
65
A confessed
B revealed
C uttered
D imparted
66
A terminating
B stopping
C clogging
D impeding
67
A feuds
B quarrels
C disputes
D discords
NTHP PAGE NO.242
 68
A closed
B finished
C discontinued
D surrendered
69
A imposing
B appointing
C inflicting
D establishing
70
A unless
B despite
C nevertheless
D though
71
A determines
B demonstrates
C maintains
D falsifies
72
A booked
B dropped
C filed
D recorded
73
A yearns
B chases
C pursues
D seeks
74
A in order to
B in spite of
C in favor of
D for the sake of
For questions 75-77, read the text below and answer the questions that follow.

Sending a robot into space to gather information is a viable option, but should only be regarded as that – an
option. Even the most technologically advanced robots cannot and should not replace manned missions to

NTHP PAGE NO.243

outer space. Certainly it is cheaper and less dangerous to launch a computer probe that can gather reams of
data, but often the information obtained by a machine only serves to produce more questions than it answers.
Therefore, the space program should allow manned missions to follow up on those initial information-
gathering robotic ventures.

While manned missions are more costly than are unmanned missions, they are also more successful. Robots
and astronauts use much of the same equipment in space, but a human is more capable of calibrating those
instruments correctly and placing them in appropriate and useful positions. A computer is often neither as
sensitive nor as accurate as a human in managing the same terrain or environmental circumstances. Robots
are also not as equipped as humans to solve problems as they arise, and robots often collect data that is not
helpful or even desired. A human, on the other hand, can make instant decisions about what to explore
further and what to ignore.

75 The passage supplies information to answer which of the following questions?

A What type of information can safely be ignored when exploring outer space?
B How much information can a computer probe gather in outer space?
C What is the next level in space exploration?
D Are unmanned space missions more economical than manned space missions?
76 According to the passage, all of the following are advantages of humans over robots EXCEPT
A humans can more accurately manage the data collected
B humans can apply critical thinking skills to new situations
C humans can only caliber instruments designed by robots
D humans are more sensitive to environmental changes
77 The second paragraph establishes the argument by
A using compare and contrast strategy
B exposing the logical fallacies of the opposing viewpoint
C presenting analogies
D None of the above

For questions 78-80, read the text below and answer the questions that follow.

Nine times as many Americans died in the farmlands near Antietam Creek in the fall of 1862 than died on
the beaches of Normandy on D-Day, the so-called longest day of World War II. The bloodiest single day of
war in the nation’s history came when General Robert E. Lee’s Confederate Army undertook its first
engagement on northern soil. According to the Antietam National Battlefield park service, when the fighting
had subsided, more than 23,000 soldiers lay dead or wounded, more than all of the dead or wounded
Americans in the Revolutionary War, War of 1812, Mexican War, and Spanish-American War combined.

Just a week after his army’s victory in the Second Battle of Bull Run, Lee resolved to advance the front into
Northern territory. The vast farm fields of western Maryland were ready for harvest, and Lee saw in them an
opportunity to nourish his soldiers, replenish his supplies, and turn the residents of the undecided border
state to his cause.

NTHP PAGE NO.244

 78 Which of the following most logically completes the first paragraph?
A How then did this terrible battle come about?
B The Confederacy was famous for the tactical genius of its generals.
C Clearly the battle strategy on both sides was ineffective.
D Despite these casualties, the war dragged on for another three years.
79 Which of the following statements about Maryland can be inferred from the passage?
A Numerous farmers in Maryland had freed their slaves before the commencement of
the Civil War.
B While Maryland was not a Confederate state, some residents were sympathetic to the
Southern cause.
C General Lee intended to pillage the farms of Maryland in order to feed his troops.
D Many Southern fighters were originally from Maryland.
80 In the last sentence of the first paragraph, the author is most likely suggesting that
A the Antietam National Battlefield park service is an unreliable source of information
B the Battle at Antietam was the most significant battle of the American Civil War
C General Lee was overly encouraged by his success in the Second Battle of Bull Run
D the troops at Antietam suffered catastrophic losses compared to other battles in that
century
For questions 81-90, read the text below and answer the questions that follow.

A great place to start with book retention is with understanding some key ways our brain stores information.
Here are three specific elements to consider: Impression, Association, and Repetition.

Let’s say you read Dale Carnegie’s How to Win Friends and Influence People, one of our favorites here at
Buffer. You loved the information and want to remember as much as possible. Here’s how:

Impression – Be impressed with the text. Stop and picture a scene in your mind, even adding elements like
greatness, shock, or a cameo from yourself to make the impression stronger. If Dale Carnegie is explaining
his distaste for criticism, picture yourself receiving the Nobel Prize for Peace and then spiking the Nobel
Prize onto the dais. (Another trick with impression is to read an important passage out loud. For some of us,
our sensitivity to information can be greater with sounds rather than visuals.)

Association – Link the text to something you already know. This technique is used to great effect with
memorization and the construction of memory palaces. In the case of Carnegie’s book, if there is a particular
principle you wish to retain, think back to a time when you were part of a specific example involving the
principle. Prior knowledge is a great way to build association.

Repetition – The more you repeat, the more you remember. This can occur by literally re-reading a certain
passage or in highlighting it or writing it down then returning to it again later.

Practicing these three elements of remembering will help you get better and better. The more you work at it,
the more you’ll remember.

NTHP PAGE NO.245

Focus on the four levels of reading

Mortimer Adler’s book, How to Read a Book, identifies four levels of reading:

1. Elementary
2. Inspectional
3. Analytical
4. Syntopical

Each step builds upon the previous step. Elementary reading is what you are taught in school. Inspectional
reading can take two forms: 1) a quick, leisurely read or 2) skimming the book’s preface, table of contents,
index, and inside jacket.

Where the real work (and the real retention begins) is with analytical reading and syntopical reading.

With analytical reading, you read a book thoroughly. More so than that even, you read a book according to
four rules, which should help you with the context and understanding of the book.

1. Classify the book according to subject matter.

2. State what the whole book is about. Be as brief as possible.
3. List the major parts in order and relation. Outline these parts as you have outlined the whole.
4. Define the problem or problems the author is trying to solve.

The final level of reading is syntopical, which requires that you read books on the same subject and
challenge yourself to compare and contrast as you go.

As you advance through these levels, you will find yourself incorporating the brain techniques of
impression, association, and repetition along the way. Getting into detail with a book (as in the analytical
and syntopical level) will help cement impressions of the book in your mind, develop associations to other
books you’ve read and ideas you’ve learned, and enforce repetition in the thoughtful, studied nature of the
different reading levels.

Keep the book close (or at least your notes on the book.)

One of the most common threads in my research into remembering more of the books you read is this: Take
good notes.

Scribble in the margins as you go.

Bookmark your favorite passages.

Write a review when you’ve finished.

Use your Kindle Highlights extensively.

And when you’ve done these things, return to your notes periodically to review and refresh. Shane Parrish of
Farnam Street is a serial note taker, and he finds himself constantly returning to the books he reads: “After I
finish a book, I let it age for a week or two and then pick it up again. I look at my notes and the sections I’ve
marked as important. I write them down. Or let it age for another week or two.”

NTHP PAGE NO.246

Even Professor Pierre Bayard, the author of How to Talk About Books You Haven’t Read, identifies the
importance of note-taking and review: “Once forgetfulness has set in, he can use these notes to rediscover
his opinion of the author and his work at the time of his original reading. We can assume that another
function of the notes is to assure him that he has indeed read the works in which they were inscribed, like
blazes on a trail that are intended to show the way during future periods of amnesia.”

I’ve tried this method for myself, and it has completely changed the way I perceive the books I read. I look
at books as investments in a future of learning rather than a fleeting moment of insight, soon to be forgotten.
I store all the reviews and notes from my books on my personal blog so I can search through them when I
need to remember something I’ve read. (Kindle has a rather helpful feature online, too, where it shows you a
daily, random highlight from your archive of highlights. It’s a great way to relive what you’ve read in the
past.)

It’s not important which method you have for note-taking and review so long as you have one. Let it be as
simple as possible to complete so that you can make sure you follow through.

Lee, K. (June 18, 2015). Buffer.

81 The word ‘cameo’ in paragraph 3, line 2 means:

A a small appearance
B an anecdote
C a witty saying
D a short piece of description
82 The word ‘distaste’ in paragraph 3, line 3 can be replaced with:
A aversion
B unwillingness
C approval
D torment
83 Real retention begins
A at any level of reading
B at the last two levels of reading
C from the first level of reading
D at the last level of reading
84 At which level of reading will you apply a problem-solving approach?
A Elementary
B Inspectional
C Analytical
D Syntopical

NTHP PAGE NO.247

 85 Sorting a book on the basis of its topic will be considered as which level of reading?
A Elementary
B Inspectional
C Analytical
D Syntopical
86 A person who identifies similarities and differences between different literary works can be said
to be at which level of reading?
A Elementary
B Inspectional
C Analytical
D Syntopical
87 The word ‘fleeting’ in the second last paragraph, line 2 means:
A lasting only a short time
B past recollection
C to command a group of people
D significant and permanent
88 The word ‘archive’ in the second last paragraph, line 5 means:
A to succeed in reaching a particular goal
B a collection of records
C an index of books consulted
D a list of chapters in a book
89 The author mentions which of the following benefits of note-taking?
A It can help you score a better grade in exam.
B It can sharpen your memory.
C It can help you remember your opinions at the time of first reading.
D None of the above.
90 Select the most appropriate title for the given text.
A How to Remember What You Read
B Best Ways to Read a Text
C All About Reading
D Reading: The most important skill
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

END of TEST

NTHP PAGE NO.248

 Paper-XII

Mathematics M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 45 (from 1 to 45) Time Allowed: 90 Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 1 To 8 Negative Markings: No
Q1 If a and b are real numbers, i2 = –1, and, a – bi = 12 + ai + bi, what is the value of a + b?
A) 12
B) – 6
C) 6
D) 12 – 6i
3 2
Q2 Find the remainder when 2y + 3y – y + 5 is divided by y + 3.
A) 23
B) 13
C) –13
D) –19
Q3 A bag contains marbles that are either green or red. The ratio of green marbles to red marbles in the bag is 6 to 5.
Removing six green marbles and five red marbles doesn’t change the ratio. All of the following could be a possible
value of green marbles originally in the bag, EXCEPT

A) 24
B) 18
C) 12
D) 6

Q4 The polar coordinates of a point Q are (√2, 225°). The rectangular coordinates of Q are

A) (1, 1)
B) (1, –1)
C) (–1, –1)
D) (–1, 1)
sin 3𝑥 cos 3𝑥
Q5 – =
sin 𝑥 cos 𝑥

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q6 What are all values of x for which 9 – 10x + 15x2 > 79 + 5x – 10x2?
I. x>2 II. x < – 1.4 III. – 1.4 < x < 2

A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II only

NTHP PAGE NO.249

Q7 The mean and standard deviation for SAT math scores are shown in the table below for five high schools in a
large city. A particular score for each city is also shown (in the right column).
School Mean Standard Deviation Single Score
1 540 25 610
2 490 25 570
3 520 30 580
4 400 35 490

Which single score has the highest z-score?

A) 610
B) 570
C) 580
D) 490

Q8 The number of integers that satisfy the inequality –x2 + 4 > –6x is

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) None of these

Q9 If f(x) = |x + 4| and g(x) = x + 4, which of the following statements are true about the graphs of f and g in the xy-
plane?

I. f(x) + g(x) = 2f(x) for x ≥ –4 II. The graphs are the same for x > – 4

III. f(x) + g(x) = 0 for x ≤ –4

A) I only
B) II only
C) II and III only
D) I, II and III
Q10 The y-coordinate of x–intercept of a line containing the points (5, 8) and (–8, –5) is
A) 3
B) 0
C) –3
D) None of these
Q11 S is a set of seven consecutive odd integers. Let a be the least integer of the set S and m be the median of the
set S. Which of the following is true?

A) a=m+6
B) m=a+6
C) m = 7a
D) None of these

NTHP PAGE NO.250

 𝑥 2 −4𝑥
Q12 If f(𝑥 ) = 2 , what value does f(𝑥 ) approach as 𝑥 gets infinitely larger?
𝑥 +4𝑥
A) 4
B) –4
C) 1
D) –1

Q13 The area bound by the relation |x| + |y| = 4 is

A) 16
B) 32
C) 64
D) None of these
Q14 In how many ways can the letters of the word ABACUS be rearranged such that the vowels always appear
together?

A) 18
B) 24
C) 72
D) None of these

Q15 For some integer n, the first, the third and the fifth terms of an arithmetic sequence are respectively 3n, 5n – 6,
and 11n + 8. What is the fourth term?

A) – 23
B) – 30
C) – 31
D) – 39

Q16 A monotonic integer is made of digits 1, 2, …, 9, such that each subsequent digit is equal to or greater than the
previous digit. Examples: 1189, 13369, 123456 etc. How many positive two-digit monotonic integers are there?

A) 45
B) 36
C) 55
D) None of these

Q17 An arithmetic progression has 3 as its first term. Also, the sum of the first 8 terms is twice the sum of the first 5
terms. The common difference is

A) 0.75
B) 1.33
C) – 0.75
D) None of these
Q18 If h(x, y) = (3x – 2y, 2x –y) for every pair (x, y) in the plane, for what points (x, y) is it true that h(x, y) = h(y, –x)?
A) (0, 0)
B) The set of points (x, y) such that x = 5y
C) The set of points (x, y) such that y = 0
D) The set of points (x, y) such that x = 3y

NTHP PAGE NO.251

Q19 How many positive factors does 1024 have?

A) 5
B) 7
C) 9
D) 11
1 2 3
𝑤 8
Q20 If | | = |3 0 1|, then 𝑤 =
2 𝑤
2 0 2

I. 2√2 II. – 2√2 III. 2√6

A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II only
√3
Q21 If cos(α) = , then cos(π – α) =
2
√3
A)
2
√3
B) –
2
√3
C) 1 –
2
D) None of these

Q22 When the positive integer m is divided by 7, the remainder is 6. What is the remainder when 6m is divided by
21?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) None of these

Q23 A unit vector perpendicular to vector (1, 2) is

2 1 2 1 2 1
I. ( ,− ) II. ( ,− ) III. (− , )
√3 √3 √5 √5 √5 √5
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) II and III only
𝑥+1 𝑥−1
Q24 If f(𝑥) = and g(𝑥) = , then f(g(𝑥))=
𝑥−1 𝑥+1

A) 𝑥
B) –𝑥
1
C)
𝑥
1
D) – 𝑥

NTHP PAGE NO.252

Q25 What is the equation of a line that contains the point (a, −b) and is parallel to the y-axis and perpendicular to the
x-axis?
A) y = −b
B) x = a
C) x = −a
D) y = −a
𝑢 𝑣 𝑤
+ =
4 5 6

Q26 In the equation shown above, u, v, and w are integers. All of the following could be a possible value of v EXCEPT

A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 18

Q27 If w + 5 is a factor of w3 + hw2 – hw + 5, then h =

A) – 6.5
B) 4
C) 6.5
D) – 4
Q28 The area of a rectangle is 660 square inches. The sides are in 3:5 ratio. What is the length of the diagonal of the
rectangle?
A) 1496 inches
B) 2√374 inches
C) 4√374 inches
D) None of these

t 0 1 2
P(t) 27 243 P(2)

Q29 The table above shows values for the function P(t) = K3 + at. What is the value of P(2)?
A) 2187
B) 729
C) 243
D) 81
1 1
Q30 Let α and β denote the solutions of x2 – 6x +5 = 0. The quadratic equation whose roots are and is
α 𝛽
A) 5x2 + 6x – 11 = 0
B) 5x2 + 6x – 1 = 0

C) 5x2 – 6x + 1 = 0
D) None of these

NTHP PAGE NO.253

Q31 What is the minimum value of𝑓 (𝑥) = 5𝑥 2 + 6𝑥 − 13?
A) 0.6
B) –0.6
C) 1.67
D) None of these

𝑥 1 5 𝑥 11
Q32 Find [𝑦] if [ ][ ] = [ ]
2 9 𝑦 20

1
A) [ ]
2
−1
B) [ ]
−2
20
C) [ ]
11
D) None of these

Q33 If x – α is a factor of αx3 – 2x2 + αx, then

I. α = –1 II. α=0 III. α=1
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I, II, and III
𝑦
Q34 If x and y are positive integers with xy = 216, then 𝑥 cannot be
3
A)
2
27
B)
8
2
C)
3
16
D)
9

√4−𝑥
Q35 What is the domain of the function defined by f(𝑥) = ?
𝑥−4
A) All real numbers
B) All real numbers except 4
C) All those real numbers which are greater than 4
D) All those real numbers which are less than 4

7
Q36 Let us consider the function y = f(𝑥) = 7 – whose domain is x ≥ 6, then the range of f(x) is
5+4𝑥−𝑥 2
A) y >7
B) y≤8
C) 7<y≤8
D) None of these

NTHP PAGE NO.254

Q37 If 5(125x – 2) = 125(5 – 3x), then x =
134
A)
14
17
B)
134
3
C)
32
D) None of these

Q38 If 2 and −3 are both roots of a given polynomial, then which of the following must be a factor of the polynomial?
A) x2 − x − 6

B) x2 + x − 6
C) x − 3
D) x + 2

Q39 If four distinct lines lie in a plane, and exactly two of them are parallel, what is the greatest possible number of
points of intersection of the lines?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

Q40 A cylinder is inscribed in a sphere. If the radius of the sphere is 5 and the height of the cylinder is 6, then what is
the volume of the cylinder?

A) 24𝜋
B) 48𝜋
C) 72𝜋
D) 96𝜋

1 1
Q41 If cos α = , cos β = 2 and α, β are in first quadrant, find cos(α – β)
√2
1−√3
A)
2 √3
1+√3
B)
2√ 3
1−√3
C)
2√ 2
1+√3
D)
2 √2

NTHP PAGE NO.255

Q42 The x coordinates of all the points of intersection of the parabola x2 = –2y + 6 and the circle x2 + y2 = 6 are given
by

A) –√6, – √2, √2, √6

B) –√6, √6
C) – √2, √2
D) –√6, √2

Q43 In the xy – plane, what is the area of a triangle whose vertices are (−√10, √8) , (−√32, 8), and (√10 , √8)?

A) (8 −√8)√10
B) (√8 − 8)√10
C) 2(8 −√8)√10
D) None of these

Q44 A triangle with sides 3, 4, and 5 is rotated about the smaller side. What is the volume of the solid formed?
A) 36𝜋
B) 24𝜋
C) 12𝜋
D) None of these

Q45 Circle C1 is centered at (5, 6) and has a radius of 5. Circle C2 is centered at (6, –6) and has a radius of r. If circle C1
is externally tangent to circle C2, then what is the value of r?
A) 145
B) 140
C) √145
D) √145 – 5

Stop. This is the END of part 2. Please, do not turn over the next page until you are told to do so.

NTHP PAGE NO.256

NTHP PAGE NO.257
 English M.C.Q’s
No. of Questions: 45 (from 46 to 90) Time Allowed: 50 Minutes
Questions on Page Numbers: 9 To 17 Negative Markings: No

For questions 46-61, read the article below written by Elizabeth Preston which appeared in Discover magazine in
May, 2016, and then decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each blank.
“Dance like nobody’s watching” is fine advice, unless somebody is watching, and she needs to translate your dance
steps into instructions to find food. That’s the case 46) ___________ honeybees. But even though the rest of the
colony must interpret their dance moves carefully, it turns out honeybees are pretty 47) ___________ dancers.
When honeybees return to the hive after finding nectar or other food, they famously do a “waggle dance” to tell 48)
___________ sisters where the food was. The waggle is a shimmying run that the bee repeats over and over on a
vertical comb inside the hive. The angle of her run, compared to vertical, tells the other bees 49) ___________
direction to fly in (compared to the direction of the sun). And the length of the run tells them how far to go.
You’d think these dances would be precisely calibrated since bees use them to keep the whole colony fed. But in
earlier research, University of Sussex husband-and-wife team Roger Schürch and Maggie Couvillon saw that wasn’t
the case. The dancing code 50) ___________ from one bee to the next.
“Our previous experiment was showing us a puzzling amount of 51) ___________,” Schürch says. Older studies by
other researchers had also shown individual differences in how bees 52) ___________ the dance code. So Schürch,
Couvillon and their coauthors decided to use a larger group of bees, and a greater range of distances, to find the
answer.
The researchers trained bees from three different 53) ___________ to visit five artificial boxes for food. The boxes
were at 54) ___________ long distances from the hive, ranging from 200 meters to 400 meters. The scientists gave
the bees individual 55) ___________ so they could tell them apart. Then they 56) ___________ the bees out to gather
sugar water from these boxes, and watched to see what each bee told her sisters when she came home.
In total, the researchers observed 753 dances from 75 bees. They focused on the length of each waggle dance, which
should 57) ___________ the distance of a nectar box from the hive. The researchers saw that each bee possesses her
own calibration.
For example, one bee visited a nectar box 210 meters away, then performed a waggle dance 0.4 seconds long. But
based on how a second bee translated distance to waggling time, she might interpret that dance as pointing to nectar
320 meters away – a 50 percent 58) ___________ flight.
It’s possible that the bees in 59) ___________ study had an especially inconsistent dance code. But experiments with
other bees have also found that waggle dances aren’t very 60) ___________. “The 61) ___________ of the dance
communication is very low,” Schürch says.
46
A of
B in
C on
D for
47
A graceful
B sloppy
C elegant
D disheveled

NTHP PAGE NO.258

48
A one’s
B its
C it’s
D their
49
A that
B what
C which
D whose
50
A didn’t seem to consist
B didn’t seem consistent
C didn’t seems consistent
D didn’t seemed consistent
51
A variation
B similarity
C differentiation
D commonalities
52
A said
B talked
C spoke
D wrote
53
A vicinities
B colonies
C monarchies
D communities
54
A set
B obstinate
C stubborn
D steadfast
55
A names
B markings
C patterns
D arrangements
56
A sent
B send
C sends
D will send
NTHP PAGE NO.259
 57
A take after
B agree with
C go toward
D correspond to
58
A far
B farther
C further
D furthermore
59
A this
B that
C these
D those
60
A rigid
B precise
C interesting
D categorical
61
A rhythm
B expertise
C efficiency
D thoroughness
For questions 62-71, read the text below and then decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each blank.
When meeting Lena Okajima, nothing indicates that she is a person with a plan that at first sounds almost Bond-
villainesque. The initial worry only lasts until the smiling, soft-spoken PhD in Astrophysics explains the reasons
behind her vision of launching thousands of artificial meteors at Earth.
62) ___________ the exact composition of the meteors is a closely guarded secret, the result is not. Their chemical
makeup means that they will 63) ___________ the night sky in several distinct colors – all the while doing their bit
for science. 64) ___________
The idea 65) ___________ the project came to her in 2001 in the form of the Leonid meteor shower. It 66)
___________ that would later lead her to found Star ALE, a startup that aims to launch its first artificial meteors in
2018. “I went with friends to see the meteors fall as shooting stars. The way they shot across the skies was very
beautiful, and I thought to myself ‘it would be 67) ___________ if we could create something like that’. I told my
friends about my idea, and they thought the same way. They just didn’t think that I 68) ___________ really go and
make one; they thought I was crazy,” Okajima says with a laugh.
After graduating in 2008, she joined Goldman Sachs Japan. Her time there was 69) ___________ by the financial
crises. It led to a 70) ___________ of the question that had stayed with her since 2001 – ‘would it be possible to
create artificial meteors?’
Over the years, Lena Okajima had spoken to members of the Japanese scientific community about her idea. She
started 71) ___________ to some of them, asking if they would collaborate with her on calculating whether it would
be possible to create and launch artificial meteors. The numbers showed it would – the question then became how.
NTHP PAGE NO.260
Retrieved on May 23, 2016, from http://www.forbes.com/sites/prossermarc/2016/05/22/meet-the-japanese-
entrepreneur-scientist-planning-to-bombard-earth-with-artificial-meteors/2/#3e61795477a8
62
A While
B Besides
C Until
D Nonetheless
63
A glow up
B blow up
C light up
D make up
64
A “I hope the meteors: or shooting stars if you will, will be both mesmerizing and inspiring.”
B “I hope the meteors – or shooting stars, if you will – will be both mesmerizing and
inspiring.”
C “I hope the meteors; or shooting stars if you will; will be both mesmerizing and inspiring.”
D “I hope the meteors, or shooting stars if you will; will be both mesmerizing and inspiring.”
65
A at
B in
C of
D for
66
A planted a seed
B was the last straw
C hit the nail on the head
D killed two birds with one stone
67
A bemusing
B accolade
C incredible
D counterfeit
68
A must
B would
C might
D should
69
A cut short
B called off
C broke down
D brought down

NTHP PAGE NO.261

 70
A debunking
B portending
C rekindling
D incorporating
71
A checking out
B cheering up
C coming across
D reaching out
For questions 72-80, read the editorial below which appeared in Dawn on July 9, 2016, and then choose the best
replacement (A, B or C) for the underlined part in each sentence. If the underlined part is correct as it is, choose D.
The government has moved one step closer to sealing the deal on legalizing the blocking or removal of online content
with the Prevention of Electronic Crimes Bill, 2015 – a step that is largely symbolic, as the blocking of the internet by
the PTA has been an ongoing process, despite the regulatory body’s lack of clear rules to do so. 72) A recent
subcommittee meeting of the Senate Standing Committee on Information Technology, senators and stakeholders
discussed Section 34 of the bill, which deals with new powers being granted to the PTA to regulate online content. It
is unfortunate that the discussion drifted from this most critical aspect of the PECB, as mass online censorship – from
banning Baloch separatist websites to blocking YouTube – 73) had been one of the most misguided contribution of
the government to internet governance.
Thousands of experts have written about the distributed nature of the internet 74) is making censorship a futile, costly
effort. Even the PTA, in a response to the Supreme Court last year over petitions seeking a ban on objectionable
websites, 75) stated it was helpless in blocking all websites, and that such a process would lead to “deterioration in
internet quality in terms of speed and availability.” 76) Even the regulator when submitting reports stating it is
playing a game of whack-a-mole when it comes to internet censorship, why is it being further empowered to continue
such a pointless job and prevent free speech and access to information, contravening the UN Universal Declaration of
Human Rights of which Pakistan is a signatory?
Such an approach suggests we are actively moving towards a regressive approach to internet regulation such as that
taken by China and Saudi Arabia, 77) where citizens were left came up with new and inventive means to bypass state
censorship. Both China and Saudi Arabia have taken technological and institutional steps to censor the internet that
go beyond law and now extend to societal norms, business practices and other areas. 78) Even though in Pakistan, we
may see censorship extend beyond the government’s desire to control information to negatively impact society, e.g.,
increased instances of online blasphemy accusations used – as seen in the real world – not only to censor information
on the internet, but also to target minority groups and ordinary citizens. The PECB has no answer to the impact of the
internet censorship it 79) will bring into law. It is unfortunate that a lack of internet penetration and thereby an
understanding of the internet among the general population and leaders 80) leave the country vulnerable from new
policies that once passed will be hard to reverse and damaging to the very people who approved them.
72
A A subcommittee meeting held recently of the Senate Standing Committee on Information
Technology
B During a recent subcommittee meeting of the Senate Standing Committee on Information
Technology
C After a subcommittee meeting held recently of the Senate Standing Committee on
Information Technology
D No correction needed

NTHP PAGE NO.262

 73
A was one of the most misguided contribution
B have been one of the most misguided contributions
C has been one of the most misguided contributions
D No correction needed
74
A that makes censorship a futile, costly effort
B have made censorship a futile, costly effort
C that makes censorship an effort that is costly, futile
D No correction needed
75
A states it was helpless
B was stated it was helpless
C was stating it was helpless
D No correction needed
76
A When even the regulator had been submitting reports that state
B When the regulator has even submitted reports that have been stating
C When even the regulator has submitted reports stating
D No correction needed
77
A where citizens were left to come up with
B where citizens are left coming up with
C where citizens are left come up with
D No correction needed
78
A Similarly
B Although
C Therefore
D No correction needed
79
A has brought on law
B will bring with law
C will bring up with law
D No correction needed
80
A leave the vulnerable country policies new
B leaves the country vulnerable to new policies
C leave the country vulnerable to new policies
D No correction needed
For questions 81-90, read the article below and insert the best headings (A, B, C or D) for the paragraphs in the
blanks.
Decades of research now point to emotional intelligence as being the critical factor that sets star performers apart
from the rest of the pack. Emotional intelligence is the “something” in each of us that is a bit intangible. It affects how
NTHP PAGE NO.263
we manage behavior, navigate social complexities, and make personal decisions to achieve positive results. Despite
the significance of EQ, its intangible nature makes it difficult to measure and to know what to do to improve it if
you’re lacking. You can always take a scientifically validated test, but unfortunately, most such tests aren’t free. So,
we’ve analyzed the data from the million-plus people who have been tested in order to identify the behaviors that are
the hallmarks of a high EQ. Following are sure signs that you have a high EQ:
81) ___________ All people experience emotions, but it is a select few who can accurately identify them as they
occur. Our research shows that only 36 percent of people can do this, which is problematic because unlabeled
emotions often go misunderstood, which leads to irrational choices and counterproductive actions. While many
people might describe themselves as simply feeling “bad,” emotionally intelligent people can pinpoint whether they
feel “irritable,” “frustrated,” “downtrodden,” or “anxious.” The more specific your word choice, the better insight you
have into exactly how you are feeling, what caused it, and what you should do about it.
82) ___________ It doesn’t matter if they’re introverted or extroverted, emotionally intelligent people are curious
about everyone around them. This curiosity is the product of empathy, one of the most significant gateways to a high
EQ. The more you care about other people and what they’re going through, the more curiosity you’re going to have
about them.
83) ___________ Emotionally intelligent people are flexible and are constantly adapting. They know that fear of
change is paralyzing and a major threat to their success and happiness. They look for change that is lurking just
around the corner, and they form a plan of action should these changes occur.
84) ___________ Emotionally intelligent people don’t just understand emotions; they know what they’re good at and
what they’re terrible at. They also know who pushes their buttons and the environments (both situations and people)
that enable them to succeed. Having a high EQ means you know your strengths and how to lean into and use them to
your full advantage while keeping your weaknesses from holding you back.
85) ___________ Much of emotional intelligence comes down to social awareness; the ability to read other people,
know what they’re about, and understand what they’re going through. Over time, this skill makes you an exceptional
judge of character. People are no mystery to you. You know what they’re all about and understand their motivations,
even those that lie hidden beneath the surface.
86) ___________ If you have a firm grasp of who you are, it’s difficult for someone to say or do something that gets
your goat. Emotionally intelligent people are self-confident and open-minded, which creates a pretty thick skin. You
may even poke fun at yourself or let other people make jokes about you because you are able to mentally draw the
line between humor and degradation.
87) ___________ Emotional intelligence means knowing how to exert self-control. You delay gratification and avoid
impulsive action. Research conducted at the University of California, San Francisco, shows that the more difficulty
that you have saying no, the more likely you are to experience stress, burnout, and even depression. Saying no is a
major self-control challenge for many people, but “No” is a powerful word that you should be unafraid to wield.
When it’s time to say no, emotionally intelligent people avoid phrases such as “I don’t think I can” or “I’m not
certain.” Saying no to a new commitment honors your existing commitments and gives you the opportunity to
successfully fulfill them.
88) ___________ When someone gives you something spontaneously, without expecting anything in return, this
leaves a powerful impression. For example, you might have an interesting conversation with someone about a book,
and when you see them again a month later, you show up with the book in hand. Emotionally intelligent people build
strong relationships because they are constantly thinking about others.
89) ___________ The negative emotions that come with holding onto a grudge are actually a stress response. Just
thinking about the event sends your body into fight-or-flight mode, a survival mechanism that forces you to stand up
and fight or run for the hills when faced with a threat. When the threat is imminent, this reaction is essential to your
survival, but when the threat is ancient history, holding onto that stress wreaks havoc on your body and can have

NTHP PAGE NO.264

devastating health consequences over time. In fact, researchers at Emory University have shown that holding onto
stress contributes to high blood pressure and heart disease. Holding onto a grudge means you’re holding onto stress,
and emotionally intelligent people know to avoid this at all costs. Letting go of a grudge not only makes you feel
better now but can also improve your health.
90) ___________ When your sense of pleasure and satisfaction are derived from the opinions of other people, you are
no longer the master of your own happiness. When emotionally intelligent people feel good about something they’ve
done, they won’t let anyone’s opinions or snide remarks take that away from them. While it’s impossible to turn off
your reactions to what others think, you don’t have to compare yourself to others, and you can always take people’s
opinions with a grain of salt. That way, no matter what other people are thinking or doing, your self-worth comes
from within.
Bradberry, T. (2016). Are you emotionally intelligent? Here’s how to know for sure. Retrieved from
http://www.inc.com/travis-bradberry/are-you-emotionally-intelligent-here-s-how-to-know-for-sure.html?cid=sf01002
81
A You are in control of your emotions
B You rarely make irrational decisions
C You can quickly identify your feelings
D You have a robust emotional vocabulary
82
A You’re a little nosy
B You lack in empathy
C You’re curious about people
D You like helping other people
83
A You plan ahead
B You embrace change
C You deal with fear head on
D You constantly seek change
84
A You know your success factors
B You capitalize on your weaknesses
C You know your strengths and weaknesses
D You know how to exploit people and situations to your advantage
85
A You constantly judge people
B You’re a good judge of character
C You’re not fazed by mysterious people
D You are good at detecting people’s secrets
86
A You’re difficult to offend
B You enjoy making fun of yourself
C You don’t let people make fun of you
D You don’t care what people think of you

NTHP PAGE NO.265

87
A You don’t make quick decisions
B You can easily decline invitations
C You don’t let people draw undue favors from you
D You know how to say no (to yourself and others)
88
A You like giving surprises to people
B You like giving people books as gifts
C You give and expect nothing in return
D You firmly believe in the give-and-take principle
89
A You have good health
B You don’t hold grudges
C You easily forgive people
D You can effectively manage stress
90
A You won’t let anyone limit your joy
B You don’t care what people think of you
C You draw pleasure from pleasing other people
D You don’t diminish your happiness by comparing yourself to others

End of Entry Test

NTHP PAGE NO.266

NTHP PAGE NO.267
NTHP PAGE NO.268
 15
ALL ANSWERS MUST BE GIVEN ON THE COMPUTERIZED ANSWER SHEET
BY CROSSING THE CORRESPONDING LETTER

Essay Writing

Each part 20 minutes

I. Present your perspective on the topic below in three paragraphs, using relevant reasons and/or examples to
support your views based on your own readings, observations and experience. ( 400 words)

Is it true that acting quickly and instinctively is the best response to crisis? Or are there times when an urgent situation
requires a more careful consideration and a slower response? Plan your response and then write an essay ( 400
words)idea.

II. Discuss how well reasoned you find this argument. In your discussion be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and
the use of evidence in the argument. ( 250 words)

It is known that in recent years, industrial pollution has caused the Earth's ozone layer to thin, allowing an increase in
the amount of ultraviolet radiation that reaches the Earth's surface. At the same time, scientists have discovered, the
population of a species of salamander that lays its eggs in mountain lakes has declined. Since ultraviolet radiation is
known to be damaging to delicate tissues and since salamander eggs have no protective shells, it must be the case that
the increase in ultraviolet radiation has damaged many salamander eggs and prevented them from hatching. This
process will no doubt cause population declines in other species, just as it has in the salamander species

Stop. Please, do not turn over this page until you are told to do so.

(go on to the next page)

NTHP PAGE NO.269
NTHP PAGE NO.270
 15
ALL ANSWERS MUST BE GIVEN ON THE COMPUTERIZED ANSWER SHEET
BY CROSSING THE CORRESPONDING LETTER

Essay Writing

Each part 20 minutes

I. Present your perspective on the topic below in three paragraphs, using relevant reasons and/or examples to
support your views based on your own readings, observations and experience. ( 400 words)

Is it true that acting quickly and instinctively is the best response to crisis? Or are there times when an urgent situation
requires a more careful consideration and a slower response? Plan your response and then write an essay ( 400
words)idea.

II. Discuss how well reasoned you find this argument. In your discussion be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and
the use of evidence in the argument. ( 250 words)

It is known that in recent years, industrial pollution has caused the Earth's ozone layer to thin, allowing an increase in
the amount of ultraviolet radiation that reaches the Earth's surface. At the same time, scientists have discovered, the
population of a species of salamander that lays its eggs in mountain lakes has declined. Since ultraviolet radiation is
known to be damaging to delicate tissues and since salamander eggs have no protective shells, it must be the case that
the increase in ultraviolet radiation has damaged many salamander eggs and prevented them from hatching. This
process will no doubt cause population declines in other species, just as it has in the salamander species

Stop. Please, do not turn over this page until you are told to do so.

(go on to the next page)

NTHP PAGE NO.271
Page No. as
per Book
Page 9‐25 Page 26‐53 Page 54‐79 Page 80‐94 Page 95‐125

Paper No. Sample Paper‐I Sample Paper‐II Sample Paper‐III Sample Paper ‐ IV Sample Paper ‐ V
Sample Paper I: Sample paper II: Sample Paper III: BBA ‐ 2012 BBA ‐ 2013 ‐ Verbal
ENGLISH ENGLISH ENGLISH ENGLISH Maths ENGLISH
1) A 1) C 1. C Q# Ans Q# Ans Q# Ans
2) B 2) A 2. C 1 C 46 B 1 B
3) A 3) B 3. A 2 C 47 D 2 A
4) C 4) C 4. A 3 D 48 B 3 B
5) C 5) A 5. B 4 B 49 B 4 C
6) C 6) D 6. C 5 A 50 B 5 A
7) B 7) A 7. C 6 D 51 B 6 D
8) D 8) A 8. B 7 A 52 B 7 A
9) D 9) C 9. B 8 A 53 B 8 B
10) B 10) B 10. D 9 A 54 B 9 A
11) D 11) C 11. A 10 B 55 D 10 A
12) C 12) D 12. C 11 B 56 C 11 C
13) B 13) A (NOT SURE) 13. D 12 C 57 D 12 C
14) C 14) B 14. D 13 A 58 B 13 C
15) B 15) A 15. A 14 A 59 A 14 B
16) D 16) D 16. A 15 A 60 C 15 B
17) A 17) A 17. B 16 B 61 C 16 A
18) C 18) C 18. C 17 D 62 B 17 D
19) B 19) A 19. C 18 A 63 D 18 B
20) A 20) C 20. C 19 B 64 B 19 A
21) C 21) A 21. C 20 C 65 B 20 C
22) C 22) D 22. B 21 C 66 D 21 D
23) D 23) D 23. A 22 A 67 D 22 A
24) C 24) A 24. D 23 D 68 B 23 C
25) B 25) B 25. (B) but it’s unclear 24 C 69 A 24 B
26) E 26) A 26. B 25 C 70 C 25 A
27) A 27) C 27. C 26 A 71 B 26 C
28) C 28) D 28. D 27 B 72 B 27 A
29) D 29) C 29. A 28 D 73 C 28 D
30) D 30) B 30. D 29 B 74 D 29 D
31) C 31) C 31. D 30 B 75 C 30 D
32) B 32) D 32. D 31 C 76 B 31 D
33) B 33) D 33. C 32 C 77 C 32 D
34) A 34) A 34. D 33 C 78 D 33 C
35) D 35) C 35. A 34 A 79 C 34 A
36) B 36) A 36. C 35 B 80 C 35 C
37) B 37) D 37. D 36 D 81 D 36 B
38) C 38) D 38. A 37 B 82 B 37 A
39) D 39) B 39. D 38 A 83 B 38 B
40) C 40) C 40. D 39 A 84 D 39 B
41) B 41) B 41. B 40 B 85 B 40 A
42) B 42) B 42. D 41 A 86 B 41 C
43) C 43) C 43. C 42 C 87 B 42 D
44) B 44) B 44. D 43 D 88 D 43 D
45) C 45) C 45. C 44 B 89 D 44 A
Maths Maths Maths 45 C 90 C 45 A

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Page No. as
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Page 126‐140 Page 141‐163 Page 164‐184 Page 185‐206

Paper No. Sample Paper ‐ VI Sample Paper ‐ VII Sample Paper ‐ VIII Sample Paper ‐ IX
BBA ‐ 2014 ‐ Round‐ I Sample Paper VII: Sample Paper VIII: BBA ‐ 2017‐ Round ‐ 1
Maths ENGLISH ENGLISH ENGLISH Maths ENGLISH
Q# Ans Q# Ans 51. B 51 A Q# Ans Q# Ans
1 B 51 B 52. D 52 A 1 D 51 51. C
2 B 52 D 53. A 53 B 2 D 52 52. B
3 A 53 C 54. A 54 D 3 C 53 53. B
4 D 54 A 55. C 55 C 4 D 54 54. A
5 C 55 A 56. C 56 D 5 C 55 55. D
6 D 56 D 57. D 57 B 6 D 56 56. D
7 B 57 B 58. A 58 C 7 B 57 57. A
8 B 58 C 59. A 59 A 8 B 58 58. B
9 C 59 A 60. B 60 A 9 C 59 59. C
10 D 60 D 61. C 61 C 10 C 60 60. C
11 C 61 C 62. B 62 D 11 C 61 61. A
12 A 62 B 63. D 63 B 12 D 62 62. D
13 C 63 B 64. C 64 A 13 D 63 63. D
14 B 64 A 65. D 65 B 14 A 64 64. B
15 B 65 A 66. A 66 D 15 C 65 65. C
16 D 66 B 67. B 67 B 16 B 66 66. B
17 B 67 C 68. D 68 C 17 A 67 67. A
18 A 68 C 69. B 69 A 18 A 68 68. A
19 C 69 D 70. A 70 B 19 C 69 69. C
20 C 70 A 71. B 71 D 20 D 70 70. D
21 C 71 A 72. D 72 A 21 D 71 71. B
22 D 72 B 73. C 73 A 22 D 72 72. B
23 D 73 C 74. C 74 C 23 C 73 73. A
24 C 74 D 75. C 75 D 24 D 74 74. D
25 C 75 D 76. D 76 B 25 C 75 75. B
26 A 76 C 77. B 77 B 26 B 76 76. C
27 C 77 B 78. B 78 C 27 D 77 77. A
28 C 78 A 79. C 79 A 28 A 78 78. C
29 D 79 C 80. D 80 D 29 B 79 79. B
30 C 80 C 81. D 81 C 30 D 80 80. A
31 C 81 B 82. C 82 A 31 A 81 81. D
32 B 82 D 83. B 83 D 32 A 82 82. D
33 B 83 B 84. C 84 B 33 B 83 83. A
34 B 84 D 85. A 85 D 34 A 84 84. B
35 C 85 C 86. A 86 B 35 D 85 85. C
36 D 86 C 87. D 87 C 36 B 86 86. C
37 D 87 B 88. B 88 A 37 C 87 87. D
38 C 88 A 89. B 89 B 38 D 88 88. A
39 C 89 D 90. D 90 A 39 C 89 89. C
40 C 90 D 91. B 91 B 40 C 90 90. A
41 B 92. C 92 D 41 D 91 91. B
42 C 93. A 93 C 42 A 92 92. B
43 B 94. D 94 D 43 B 93 93. D
44 D 95. B 44 B 94 94. C
45 A 96. C 45 C 95 95. A
46 C 97. C 46 D 96
47 A 98. B 47 C 97 C
48 D 99. A 48 C 98 B
49 B 49 D 99 A
50 D 50 D
NTHP PAGE NO.273
Page No. as
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Page No. 207‐226 Page no.227‐264 Page no.247‐264

Paper No. Sample Paper‐ X Sample Paper ‐ XI Sample Paper ‐ XII

Maths ENGLISH Maths ENGLISH
KEY NOT AVAILABLE
Q# Ans Q# Ans Q# Ans Q# Ans
1 B 46 B 1 C 46 D
2 D 47 Ans 2 D 47 B
3 D 48 C 3 D 48 D
4 C 49 B 4 C 49 C
5 B 50 D 5 B 50 B
6 B 51 B 6 D 51 A
7 D 52 B 7 B 52 C
8 D 53 C 8 C 53 B
9 D 54 A 9 D 54 A
10 A 55 A 10 B 55 B
11 D 56 C 11 B 56 A
12 C 57 B 12 C 57 D
13 A 58 A 13 B 58 B
14 A 59 C 14 C 59 A
15 C 60 B 15 D 60 B
16 D 61 A 16 A 61 C
17 D 62 D 17 A 62 A
18 B 63 A 18 A 63 C
19 C 64 A 19 D 64 B
20 C 65 B 20 D 65 D
21 D 66 D 21 B 66 A
22 C 67 C 22 B 67 C
23 B 68 C 23 C 68 B
24 B 69 A 24 B 69 A
25 B 70 B 25 B 70 C
26 A 71 B 26 D 71 D
27 A 72 C 27 B 72 B
28 B 73 D 28 B 73 C
29 ‐ 74 A 29 A 74 A
30 C 75 D 30 C 75 D
31 C 76 C 31 D 76 C
32 C 77 A 32 A 77 B
33 D 78 A 33 D 78 A
34 D 79 C 34 D 79 D
35 D 80 B 35 D 80 C
36 A 81 D 36 C 81 D
37 B 82 A 37 B 82 C
38 A 83 B 38 B 83 B
39 B 84 C 39 D 84 C
40 D 85 C 40 D 85 B
41 A 86 D 41 D 86 A
42 A 87 A 42 A 87 D
43 B 88 C 43 A 88 C
44 B 89 D 44 D 89 B
45 C 90 A 45 D 90 A

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 Answer Key to IBA
Sample Test Paper III –
English Portion shared by
Ms. Tazeen Erum.
Paper-III (Page No.54 to 60)
29-31
1 to 10
29. A
1. C
30. D
2. C
31. D
3. A
4. A 32-34
5. B
6. C 32. D
7. C 33. C
8. B 34. D
9. B
35-45
10. D
35. A
36. C
11-20 37. D
38. A
11. A 39. D (The conditional clause (the if clause)
12. C does not require would. Also we should
13. D write in the garden to be parallel to
14. D in the greenhouse.
15. A 40. D
16. A 41. B
17. B 42. D
18. C 43. C
19. C 44. D
20. C 45. C

21-28

21. C
22. B
23. A
24. D
25. (B) but it’s unclear
26. B
27. C
28. D

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Answer Key to IBA Sample Paper IV

1. C

2. C
Page No. 80-94
3. D
Paper-IV
4. C

5. A

6. D

7. B

8-22

8. A

9. D

10. B

11. D

12. C

13. A

14. A

15. A

16. A

17. A

18. A

19. B

20. C

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 21. B

22. B

23-28

23. B

24. C

25. C

26. D

27. A

28. D

29-39

29. B

30. B

31. C

32. C

33. C

34. D

35. D

36. D

37. B

38. A

39. A

40-42

40. B

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 41. A

42. C

43-45

43. D

44. B

45. C

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Answer key to IBA sample test paper IX

51. C

52. B

53. B

54. A

55. D

56. D
Page No.196 -206
57. A Paper-IX
58. B

59. C

60. C

61. A

62. D

63. D

64. B

65. C

66. B

67. A

68. A

69. C

70. D

71. B

72. B

73. A

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74. D

75. B

76. C

77. A

78. C

79. B

80. A

81. D

82. D

83. A

84. B

85. C

86. C

87. D

88. A

89. C

90. A

91. B

92. B

93. D

94. C

95. A

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ANSWER KEY TO IBA SAMPLE TEST PAPER V

1-16

1. C

2. B

3. C

4. B
Paper-V
5. D Page No.96-103
6. A

7. B

8. C

9. A

10. D

11. A

12. B

13. C

14. B

15. B

16. C

17-23

17. C

18. A

19. A

20. A

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 21. D

22. A

23. B

24-31

24. D

25. B

26. B

27. B

28. C

29. D

30. B

31. C

32-37

32. C

33. D

34. B

35. C

36. A

37. A

38-41

38. D

39. A

40. D

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 41. B

42-45

42. C

43. C

44. D

45. D

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Answer key to IBA sample test paper VI

51. B

52. D

53. C

54. A

55. A
Paper-VI
56. D Page No. 134-139
57. B

58. C

59. A

60. D

61. D

62 B

63. B

64. A

65. A

66. B

67. C

68. C

69. D

70. A

71. A

72. B

73. C

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74. D

75. D

76. C

77. B

78. A

79. C

80. C

81. B

82. D

83.B

84. D

85. C

86. C

87. D

88. A

89. D

90. D

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Answer Key to IBA sample test paper VII

51. A

52. B

53. A

54. C

55. D
Paper-VII
56. C

57. B
Page No.154 - 161
58. D

59. A

60. B

61. B

62. A

63. C

64. D

65. D

66. D

67. A

68. B

69. B

70. D

71. C

72. A

73. C

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74. A

75. D

76. C

77. C

78. D

79. A

80. A

81. C

82. D

83. C

84. B

85. C

86. A

87. A

88. C

89. A

90. A

91. B

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Answer key to IBA sample test paper VIII

51. B

52. D

53. A

54. A

55. C

56. C
Paper No.VIII
57. D Page No. 175-184
58. A

59. A

60. B

61. C

62. B

63. D

64. C

65. D

66. A

67. B

68. D

69. B

70. A

71. B

72. D

73. C

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74. C

75. C

76. D

77. B

78. B

79. C

80. D

81. D

82. C

83. B

84. C

85. A

86. A

87. D

88. B

89. B

90. D

91. B

92. C

93. A

94. D

95. B

96. C

97. C

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98. B

99. A

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