0% found this document useful (0 votes)
78 views7 pages

Bhilai Steel Plant SAIL (Various Posts) IH Eng 2024

Uploaded by

paragramteke27
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
78 views7 pages

Bhilai Steel Plant SAIL (Various Posts) IH Eng 2024

Uploaded by

paragramteke27
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 7

ONLINE EXAMINATION FOR THE RECRUITMENT OF VARIOUS POSTS

INFORMATION HANDOUT

This handout contains details pertaining to various aspects of the online exam you are going to undertake and
important instructions about related matters. You are advised to study the handout carefully as it will help you in
preparing for the examination.
The on-line examination will comprise the following objective type multiple choice tests as stated below :

Structure of the test for Medical Officer (OHS)

Sr. Number of
Name of the Test Max. Marks Version Duration
No. Questions
1 Professional Knowledge 60 60
2 Reasoning Ability 10 10 Bilingual
3 Quantitative Aptitude 10 10 i.e. Hindi 120 Minutes
4 General Awareness 10 10 and
English
5 General English 10 10
Total 100 100

Structure of the test Mines Foreman


Sr. Name of the Test No. of Max. Marks Version Duration
No. Questions
1 Professional Knowledge 30 60
2 General Awareness 10 10 Bilingual i.e.
3 Current Affairs 10 10 Hindi and
120 Minutes
4 Reasoning 10 10 English
5 Numerical Ability 10 10
Total 70 100

Test structure for the post of Jr. Engineering Associate (Electrical Supervisor)
and Technical Associate (Boiler Operation)

Sr. Number of
Name of test Max. Marks Version Duration
No. Questions
1 Professional Knowledge 60 60
2 General awareness 10 10 Bilingual i.e.
3 Current affairs 10 10 Hindi and
English 120 minutes
4 Reasoning 10 10
5 Numerical ability 10 10
Total 100 100

The total time for the test is 120 minutes; however, you may have to be at the venue for approximately 180 minutes
including the time required for logging in, collection of the Admit Cards, going through the instructions etc. All tests
except test of General English will be provided in English and Hindi. You can attempt any question at any point of time
within these 120 minutes. All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one
will be the correct answer. You have to select the most appropriate answer and „mouse click‟ that alternative
which you feel is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/option that you have clicked on will be treated as your
answer to that question. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For every wrong answer
th
marked by you, 1/4 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

1
The Scores of Online Examination will be obtained by adopting the following procedure :
(i) Number of questions answered correctly by a candidate in each objective test is considered.
(ii) The Scores so obtained by a candidate are made equivalent to take care of the minor difference in difficulty level,
if any, in each of the objective tests held in different sessions to arrive at the Equated Scores*,

*Scores obtained by candidates on any test are equated to the base form by considering the distribution of scores of
all the forms.
(iii) Testwise scores and scores on total is reported with decimal points upto two digits.

Note : Cutoffs may be applied in two stages :


(i) On scores in individual objective tests
(ii) On Total Score of objective tests

Please note that the types of questions in this handout are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In the actual
examination you will find questions of a higher difficulty level on some or all of these types and also
questions on the types not mentioned here.

Some sample questions are given below.


SAMPLE QUESTIONS

PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE

Questions in this test will be based on the area of specialization for the respective post/s.

GENERAL AWARENESS
Q.1. Who among the following is the director of the film “Lagaan” ?
(1) Sanjay Leela Bhansali (2) Vasant Govarikar (3) Karan Johar
(4) B. R. Chopra (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. Why we cannot see the objects in the dark ?
(1) These objects emit light
(2) These objects absorb light
(3) There is no light coming to our eyes from these objects
(4) The light gets obstructed by the darkness.
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. Which of the following samples of water can be termed as pure water ?
(1) Water in which alum is added (2) Clean water
(3) Filtered water (4) No other substance added to it
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.4. Which of the following marketing strategies is NOT suitable for rural markets?
(1) Economy pricing (2) Classy packaging (3) Promotional pricing
(4) Small unit/low pricing (5) Value for money pricing
Q.5. Which of the following theories of Personal Selling emphasizes that the buyer‟s needs or problems receive
major attention, and the salesperson‟s role is to help the buyer to find solutions?
(1) “Impulse buying” theory of selling (2) „AIDAS‟ theory of personal selling
(3) “Buying Formula” theory of selling (4) “Behavioural Equation” theory of selling
(5) “Right Set of Circumstances” theory of selling

REASONING / REASONING ABILITY


Q.1. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the last letter of
that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer and if no such word can
be formed, X is the answer.
(1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X

2
Q.2. „Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader.‟ Which of the following inferences definitely follows from
these statements ?
(1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest
(3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest
(5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest
Q.3. If „A ” B‟ means „add B to A‟, „A ‟ B‟ means „subtract B from A‟, „A # B‟ means „divide A by B‟ and „A  B‟ means
„multiply A by B; which of the following gives the average sales of two days where S1 and S2 are the sales of the
first and the second day respectively ?
(1) (S1 ‟ S2) # 2 (2) 2 # (S1 ” S2) (3) (S1 ” S2 # 2)
(4) (S1  S2) # (S1 ” S2) (5) Other than those given as options
Q.4. Every person above eighteen years of age who is registered as a voter, can vote. To find out whether Madhu,
who was born twenty years ago, can vote, which of the following further information is needed ?
(I) Madhu‟s date of birth (II) Whether Madhu is registered as a voter
(1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Either I or II (4) Neither I nor II (5) Both I and II
Q.5. In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts,
consider the two conclusions; together and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from
the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements : All machines are windows. All windows are clouds.
Conclusions : I. All machines are clouds.
Conclusions : II. All clouds are machines.
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Both I & II follow
(4) Only II follows (5) Either I or II follows

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE / NUMERICAL ABILITY


Q.1-3. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below ________
Distribution of 1000 candidates as regards their marks in written examination
out of 300 and interview out of 100 in a selection examination
Written INTERVIEW MARKS
Examination
Marks Below 30 30-39 40-49 50-59 60-69 70 & above
260 & above 8 18 26 18 26 4
210 to 259 5 4 30 22 10 9
160 to 209 16 10 45 56 18 9
110 to 159 28 42 100 190 15 5
60 to 109 35 115 20 8 7 5
Below 60 32 32 20 4 6 2

Q.1. How many candidates did obtain more than 69 percent marks and above in both written examination and
interview ?
(1) 22 (2) 49 (3) 13 (4) 9 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. If approximately 325 candidates were to be qualified in the written examination, what should be the percentage of
the qualifying marks ?
(1) above 20 (2) above 70 (3) above 36
(4) above 63 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. About 42 percent of the candidates fall in which of the following ranges of the interview marks ?
(1) 110-159 (2) 110 & below (3) 50 to 70
(4) 50 & above (5) Other than those given as options
Q.4. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 610 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) Other than those given as options

3
GENERAL ENGLISH
Q.1. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be
in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is „5‟. (Ignore
the errors of punctuation, if any).
Most of the third world / country are experiencing / the ethnic or communal problem /
(1) (2) (3)
in varying degrees. No error
(4) (5)
Q.2. Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below the sentence to complete it
meaningfully.
Continuous unemployment has induced in the people a kind of ________ which is most depressing.
(1) laziness (2) encouragement (3) satisfaction (4) anger (5) awakening
Q.3. Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below the sentence to complete it
meaningfully.
He quickly glanced ________ the book to find what it said about the Indian economy.
(1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to (5) over
Q.4-6. Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word most
opposite in meaning of the word given in capitals.
Q.4. LIVELY
(1) simple (2) weak (3) dull (4) angry (5) moron
Q.5. INADVERTENT
(1) adequate (2) available (3) sluggish (4) negligent (5) intentional
Q.6. INEPT
(1) accurate (2) skilful (3) sensible (4) artistic (5) apt
Q.7. Select from the five alternatives the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals.
CENTENARY
(1) a guard (2) a hundred years (3) a very old man
(4) a hundred runs (5) a hundredth anniversary

CURRENT AFFAIRS
Q.1. In which of the following states is the number of people living below poverty line the maximum ?
(1) Bihar (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Rajasthan (5) Orissa
Q.2. Who among the following is the current Prime Minister of India ?
(1) Shri Ram Nath Kovind (2) Dr. Manmohan Singh (3) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(4) Shri Narendra Modi (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. Which Team won the Vijay Hazare Trophy 2019-20 ?
(1) Karnataka (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Chhattisgarh (4) Punjab (5) Gujarat

(A) Details of the On-line Examination Pattern

(1) The examination would be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.


(2) All tests except test of General English will be in English and Hindi.
(3) All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct
answer. The candidate has to select the correct answer and „mouse click‟ that alternative which he/she
feels is correct. The alternative/option that is clicked on will be treated as the answer to that question.
Answer to any question will be considered for final evaluation, only when candidates have submitted
the answers by clicking on “Save & Next” or “Mark for Review & Next”.
(4) The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen will display
the time remaining for you to complete the exam. When the clock runs out the exam ends by default - you are
not required to end or submit your exam.
(5) The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of
the following symbols:

4
The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that question again.
If a question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question will be considered in the
evaluation.
(6) To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
(a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that numbered
question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the current question.
(b) Click on „Save & Next‟ to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in sequence.
(c) Click on „Mark for Review and Next‟ to save answer to current question, mark it for review, and to go to
the next question in sequence.
(7) To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.

(8) To change your answer, click another desired option button.

(9) To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.

(10) To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button.

(11) To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a question that is
Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.
(12) To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the new answer option followed
by a click on the Save & Next button.
(13) Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will ONLY be considered for evaluation.
(14) Test name(s) will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a test can be viewed by clicking on the
test name. The test you will view will be highlighted.
(15) After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a test, you will automatically be taken to the first
question of the (next) test.
(16) You can move the mouse cursor over the test names to view the status of the questions for that test.
(17) You can attempt any question at any point of time within these 120 minutes.
(18) The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the “Test Administrator” carefully. If any candidate
does not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/ adoption of unfair means
and such a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for examinations for a period as decided by
Bhilai Steel Plant.
(19) The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the commencement
of the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the examination.
(20) After the expiry of the allotted time, the candidates will not be able to attempt any question or check their
answers. The answers of the candidate would be saved automatically by the computer system even if he/ she
has not clicked the “Submit” button.
(21) Please note :
(a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual test time.
(b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the „keyboard keys‟ once the exam
starts as this will lock the exam.

5
B] General Instructions:

(1) Please note date, reporting time and venue address of the examination given in the Admit Card.
(2) You may visit the venue one day before the Online Examination to confirm the location so that you are able to
report on time on the day of the examination. Late comers will not be allowed.
(3) The Admit Card should be brought with you to the examination venue along with your recent passport size
photograph duly pasted on it.
(4) You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and Bhilai Steel Plant Representative at
the examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and will be asked to leave the
examination venue.
(5) Biometric data (thumb impression) and photograph will be captured at the examination venue before the start of
examination. Decision of the Biometric data verification authority with regard to its status (matched or
mismatched) shall be final and binding upon the candidates. Refusal to participate in the process of
biometric data capturing / verification on any occasion may lead to cancellation of candidature. With
regards to the same, please note the following :
(a) If fingers are coated (stamped ink/mehndi/coloured...etc.), ensure to thoroughly wash them so that coating
is completely removed before the examination day.
(b) If fingers are dirty or dusty, ensure to wash them and dry them before the thumb impression (biometric) is
captured.
(c) Ensure fingers of both hands are dry. If fingers are moist, wipe each finger to dry them.
(d) If the primary finger (thumb) to be captured is injured/damaged, immediately notify the concerned authority
in the test centre.
(Any failure to observe these points will result in non-admittance for the examination).
(6) No use of calculators (separate or with watch), books, note books or written notes, cell phones (with or without
camera facility), or any other electronic device will be allowed during the examination.
(7) Please bring the Admit card with your photograph affixed thereon, currently valid Photo identity proof in original
and a photocopy of the same ID proof which you bring in original - THIS IS ESSENTIAL. Please hand over this
call-letter alongwith photocopy of photo identity proof duly stapled together to the invigilator. Currently
valid photo identity proof may be PAN Card/Passport/Driving License/Voter‟s Card with photograph/ Bank
Passbook with photograph/Photo Identity proof issued by a Gazetted Officer on official letterhead /Photo Identity
proof issued by a People‟s Representative on official letterhead/Valid recent Identity Card issued by a
recognised College/ University/Aadhar/E-Aadhar Card with a photograph/Employee ID/Bar Council Identity card
with photograph. Please Note - Ration Card and Learner‟s Driving License will NOT be accepted as valid
ID proof for this exam. Please note that your name as appearing on the Admit card (provided by you during
the process of registration) should exactly match the name as appearing on the photo identity proof. Female
candidates who have changed first/last/middle name post marriage must take special note of this. If there is any
mismatch between the name indicated in the Admit card and Photo Identity Proof you will not be allowed to
appear for the exam. In case of candidates who have changed their name will be allowed only if they produce
Gazette notification/their marriage certificate/affidavit in original and a copy.
(8) Your responses (answers) will be analysed with other candidates to detect patterns of similarity of right and
wrong answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is inferred/concluded that the responses
have been shared and scores obtained are not genuine/valid, your candidature may be cancelled. Any
candidate who is found copying or receiving or giving assistance or engaging in any behaviour unbecoming of a
candidate will not be considered for assessment. Bhilai Steel Plant may take further action against such
candidates as deemed fit by it.
(9) You must bring a ball-point pen with you. You are allowed to bring your own ink stamp pad (blue/black) with you.
A sheet of paper will be provided which can be used for rough work or taking down the question number you
would like to review at the end of the test before submitting your answers. After the test is over you MUST hand
over this sheet of paper to the Test Administrator before leaving the venue.
(10) The possibility of occurrence of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot be ruled out
completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In that event, every effort will be
made to rectify such problem, which may include movement of candidates, delay in test. The conduct of a re-
exam is at the absolute discretion of test conducting body. Candidates will not have any claim for a re-test.
Candidates not willing to move or not willing to participate in the delayed process of test delivery shall be
summarily rejected from the process. Bhilai Steel Plant (SAIL) reserves the right to postpone/cancel the Online
Test or alter the date/time/venue of the Online Test at its discretion.
(11) Anyone found to be disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or facilitating transmission and
storage of test contents in any form or any information therein in whole or part thereof or by any means verbal or
written, electronic or mechanical or taking away the papers supplied in the examination hall or found to be in
unauthorised possession of test content is likely to be prosecuted.

6
(12) Instances for providing incorrect information and/or process violation by a candidate detected at any stage of the
selection, process will lead to disqualification of the candidate from the selection process and he/she will not be
allowed to appear in any Bhilai Steel Plant recruitment process in the future. If such instances go undetected
during the current selection process but are detected subsequently, such disqualification will take place with
retrospective effect.
(13) Candidates are advised to take note of “The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024”.

WISH YOU GOOD LUCK

You might also like

pFad - Phonifier reborn

Pfad - The Proxy pFad of © 2024 Garber Painting. All rights reserved.

Note: This service is not intended for secure transactions such as banking, social media, email, or purchasing. Use at your own risk. We assume no liability whatsoever for broken pages.


Alternative Proxies:

Alternative Proxy

pFad Proxy

pFad v3 Proxy

pFad v4 Proxy