NBTS-02 [OYM]

Question 1
The resonant frequency in a series LCR AC circuit is
1
1) √
2π√ LC
2)2π LC
3) √2π
LC
4) 1
L
2π C

Question 2
Consider a series LCR circuit in which L = π2 H, C = 100
π μF and resistance R = 100 Ω. When circuit is connected with an a.c. source 220 V, 50
Hz. The current drawn from the source will be
√
1) 2√ A
11 2
2) A
√10
3) 5√ A
11 5
4) A
10

Question 3
Power factor of series LCR circuit at resonance is

1) √1
√2
3
2)
2
3)1
4)Zero

Question 4
An electromagnetic wave is propagating in vacuum along x-axis. If the electric field component is given by Ez = 2E0 sin (kx – ωt), then magnetic field
component is given by

E
1) Bx = c0 sin kx − ωt

2E
2) Bz = c 0 sin kx − ωt

3) By = 2E0sin kx − ωt
2E
4) By = – c 0 sin kx − ω t
Question 5
Velocity of light in a medium with electrical permittivity ε and magnetic permeability µ is given by
μ
1)
ε
√
2) με
3) √1
με
4) εμ

Question 6
A capacitor having a capacity of 4 pF. Potential difference across the capacitor is changing with a value of 1012 V s–1. The displacement current is

1)1 A
2)2 A
3)3 A
4)4 A

Question 7
The focal length of the double convex lens with refractive index 2 and radius of curvature of two surfaces respectively 30 cm and 45 cm is

1)16 cm
2)18 cm
3)30 cm
4)40 cm

Question 8
A concave mirror of focal length f (in air) is immersed in water (μ = 4 ). The focal length of the mirror in water will be
3
1)f
2) 4f
3
3) 3f
4
4) 7f
3

Question 9
If focal length of a converging lens is 50 cm, then its power is

1)5 D
2)6 D
3)4 D
4)2 D
Question 10
An unpolarised light of intensity I0 is incident on a system of polariser and a analyser. If angle between polariser and analyser is 60°, then intensity of
light that comes out from the analyser will be

1)I0/2
2)I0/4
3)3 I0/8
4)I0/8

Question 11
Polaroid glass is used in sun glasses because

1)It has good colour

2)It is easy to clean
3)It reduces light intensity to half on account of polarisation
4)It is having high refractive index

Question 12
The refractive index of medium having critical angle 45° will be
√
1) 3
2)2
3) √2
√3
4) 2

Question 13
There are three metal plates A, B and C and their work function are related as ɸA > ɸB > ɸC. If the graph is drawn between the maximum kinetic
energy of electron vs frequency of incident radiation and slope of the three curves for A, B and C is found to be mA, mB and mC respectively, then

1)mA > mB > mC

2)mA < mB < mC
3)mA = mB = mC
4)mA = 2mB = mC

Question 14
In single slit diffraction, wavelength used is 5000 Å, slit width is 0.2 mm and distance between slit and screen is 2 m. The distance of first secondary
maxima from principal maximum is

1)2.5 mm
2)3 mm
3)4.5 mm
4)7.5 mm
Question 15
Assertion (A) : In photoelectric effect, on increasing the intensity of light, kinetic energy of fastest electron increases.

Reason (R) : Kinetic energy of fastest electron is directly proportional to intensity.

1)Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2)Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3)Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
4)Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

Question 16
A particle of mass M at rest decays into two particles of masses m1 and m2 having non-zero velocities. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths of the
particles λ1 : λ2 is

1)m1 : m2
2)m2 : m1
3)1 : 1
4) √ m2 : √ m1

Question 17
Bohr’s model is applicable for

1)He+
2)Li3+
3)Li+
4)He

Question 18
The total energy of an electron in its nth excited state of hydrogen atom is K. Its kinetic energy in this state is

1)–K
2)K/2
3)2K
4) 2K
3

Question 19
Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
a. Frequency of incident radiation increases (i) Stopping potential decreases
b. Number of incident photons increases (ii) Stopping potential increases
c. Intensity of incident radiation decreases (iii) Saturation current increases
d. Maximum K.E. of photoelectrons decreases (iv) Number of photoelectrons emitted per second decreases

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1)a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

2)a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
3)a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
4)a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
Question 20
If the radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen orbit is 5×10–11m, then radius of the 5th orbit is

1)2×10–12 m
2)1.25×10–10 m
3)2.5×10–10 m
4)1.25×10–9 m

Question 21
In the α-particle scattering experiment, if impact parameter b is very large, the angle of deviation θ of α-particle is

1)0º
2) π
2
3) 2π
3
4)π

Question 22
Light from a point source in air falls on a spherical glass surface (μ = 1.5 and radius of curvature = 40 cm). If image is formed at infinity, then distance
of the light source from the glass surface is

1)20 cm
2)40 cm
3)80 cm
4)Infinity

Question 23
Consider three thin lenses A, B and C which are placed as shown below with object at point O (where symbols have their usual meaning).

Consider the following statements about this combination.

(A) Focal length of combination is given by 1 = 1 + 1 + 1

f f1 f2 f3

(B) Power of combination, P = P1 + P2 + P3

(C) Total magnification of combination, m = m1m2 m3

Correct statements among the above are

1)(A) and (B) only

2)(B) and (C) only
3)(C) only
4)(A), (B) and (C)
Question 24
In a Young’s double slit experiment in front of one of the slits a thin transparent sheet of thickness t and refractive index μ is inserted. The entire fringe
pattern will be shifted by a distance (d – separation between slits; D – distance of screen from the slits and λ – wavelength of light used)

( μ − 1) tD
1)
λ
( μ − 1) λD
2)
d
( μ − 1) tD
3)
d
( μ − 1) td
4)
D

Question 25
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer:

Statement (A) : When monochromatic light is incident on a surface separating two media, the reflected and refracted light both have the same
frequency as the incident frequency.

Statement (B) : When light travels from a denser to rarer medium, the speed increases.

1)(A) is correct but (B) is incorrect

2)(A) is incorrect but (B) is correct
3)Both (A) and (B) are correct
4)Both (A) and (B) are incorrect

Question 26
Identify the incorrect maxwell’s equation in vacuum.

1)Gauss’s law for magnetism is B . dA ≠ 0

– d ϕB
2)Faraday’s law is E .d l =
dt
dϕE
3)Ampere–Maxwell law is B . dl = μ0ic + μ0ε0
dt
4)Both (2) and (3)

Question 27
The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by Ey = (4×107) N/C sin(100πx + 3π×1010t) where x is in m and t is in s. Wavelength of this
wave is

1)1 cm
2)2 cm
3)3.14 cm
4)3.14 m

Question 28
A container is filled with water upto a height H. The apparent depth of a coin lying at the bottom of the container is found to be 9 cm. If refractive index
4
of water is , then H is
3
1)6 cm
2)6.75 cm
3)12 cm
4)13.5 cm
Question 29
When light moves through an optical fibre, it undergoes

1)Interference
2)Diffraction
3)Total internal reflection
4)Polarisation

Question 30
The magnifying power of a simple microscope when the final image is formed at D = 25 cm from eye is 2. Then its focal length f is

1)+12.5 cm
2)–12.5 cm
3)+25 cm
4)–25 cm

Question 31
A light beam of wavelength 6400 Å is incident on two slits of same size which are at d = 0.8 mm apart. Fringes are obtained on a screen at a distance
`D' from the double slits. If the fifth interference minimum is observed 3.60 mm from central maximum, then fringe width is equal to

1)0.8 mm
2)0.4 mm
3)1 mm
4)1.8 mm

Question 32
The minimum energy needed by an electron to come out from a metal surface is called the metal’s

1)Stopping potential
2)Work function
3)Both (1) and (2)
4)Neither (1) nor (2)

Question 33
The correct method of detection for different types of electromagnetic waves are:

(A) Receiver’s aerials for microwaves

(B) Our eyes for visible light

(C) Photocells for infra-red waves

(D) Ionisation chamber for X-rays

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1)(A) and (C) only

2)(B) and (D) only
3)(A), (B) and (D) only
4)(A), (B), (C) and (D)
Question 34
If the plot of angle of deviation (δ) versus angle of incidence (i) for a triangular prism is shown below, then prism angle is

1)45º
2)60º
3)75º
4)90º

Question 35
A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates each of radius R = 5 cm has a capacitance C = 50 pF. The capacitor is connected to a 220 V AC
supply with an angular frequency of 50 rad s–1. Then the RMS value of displacement current across the plates is (in μA)

1)0.275
2)0.55
3)1.1
4)2.2

Question 36
Instantaneous value of electric current varies in a wire according to i = [8 + 15sin(200 π t)] ampere. Its average value over one complete cycle is given
as

1)6 A
2)8 A
3)23 A
4)2.3 A

Question 37
An electromagnetic pulse having intensity of 1200 W/m2 is incident on a metal surface. If pulse after normal incidence over the plate reflects back
completely, then force applied by pulse on the metal surface will be (Given surface area of metal is 2 m2)

1)0.8 × 10–5 N
2)0.8 × 105 N
3)1.6 × 105 N
4)1.6 × 10–5 N

Question 38
The oscillating magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave is given by By = 4 × 10–6 sin(2000πx – 6 × 1011πt) T. The frequency of the electromagnetic
wave is

1)6 × 1011 Hz
2)3 × 1011 Hz
3)6 π × 1011 Hz
4)3 π × 1011 Hz
Question 39
A compound microscope has a magnifying power 30. Focal length of its eye piece is 5 cm. If the final image formed at least distance of distinct vision
then magnification produced by the objective is

1)2
2)6
3)5
4)3

Question 40
The coherence of two light sources means that the light waves emitted have

1)Same wavelength
2)Same intensity
3)Constant phase difference
4)Same velocity

Question 41
Work function of a metal is 2.2 eV. A photon of energy 3.8 eV is incident on it. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron will be

1)1 eV
2)2 eV
3)1.6 eV
4)2.6 eV

Question 42
Which of the following transition for He+ atom will have shortest wavelength?

1)n = 3 to n = 2
2)n = 15 to n = 4
3)n = 2 to n = 1
4)n = 15 to n = 2

Question 43
In which of the following physical processes, electron emission occurs from metal surface?

1)Thermionic emission
2)Field emission
3)Photoelectric emission
4)All of these
Question 44
Let I0 be the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polariser P1 and it also passes through polaroids P2 and P3. If θ is the angle
π
between pass axes of P1 and P2 while –θ is angle between pass axes of P2 and P3, then transmitted intensity of emergent light from P3 will be
2
I0
1) sin 2 2θ
4
I0 2
2) cos 2θ
4
I0 2
3) sin 2θ
2
I0 2
4) cos 2θ
2

Question 45
Monochromatic light of frequency 1.5×1018 Hz is produced by a source. If 2×1015 photons per second (on an average) are emitted by the source, then
power of the source is nearly

1)2 mW
2)2 W
3)2 kW
4)2 MW

Question 46
The average power consumed by an inductor over one complete cycle in an AC circuit is [symbols have their usual meaning]
i V
1) m m
2
2)imVm
3)Zero
im Vm
4)
4

Question 47
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion (A) : In a purely inductive or capacitive circuit, cos ϕ = 1

Reason (R) : In a purely inductive or capacitive circuit no power is dissipated even though a current is flowing in the circuit.

In the light of the above statements, the correct option is

1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3)(A) is true but (R) is false
4)(A) is false but (R) is true
Question 48
The impedance of the given circuit is

1)5 Ω
2)9 Ω
3)6 Ω
4)Zero

Question 49
The inductive reactance is

1)Directly proportional to inductance

2)Inversely proportional to inductance
3)Directly proportional to frequency of current
4)Both (1) and (3)

Question 50
The instantaneous value of current for I = I0sinωt at t =
T is
8
√
1) 2I0
√
2) 3I0
3)2I0
I
4) √0
2

Question 51
If, on increasing the temperature from 310 K to 320 K, the rate of the reaction gets doubled, then the activation energy of the reaction is

1)9527 R ln2
2)8250 R ln2
3)10982 R ln2
4)9920 R ln2

Question 52
50% of a first order reaction was completed in 6.93 min, then 75% of the same reaction would be completed in

1)2.303 min
2)13.86 min
3)69.09 min
4)23.03 min
Question 53
The rate of a first order reaction is 2.5 × 10–3 mol L–1 min–1 at 0.25 M concentration of reactant. The half life (in min) of the reaction is

1)69.3
2)43.5
3)76.6
4)38.7

Question 54
200
If rate constant ‘k’ of a reaction varies with temperature as Ink = 2 – , then Arrhenius constant (A) and activation energy (Ea) of the reaction
T
respectively are

1)100, 200 R
2)100, 20 R
3)e2, 200 R
4)e2, 20 R

Question 55
If rate of disappearance of H2O2 during its decomposition is 0.2 mol L–1s–1 then rate of appearance of O2 is (given : H2O2 → H2O + 1/2 O2)

1)0.2 mol L–1s–1

2)0.1 mol L–1s–1
3)0.3 mol L–1s–1
4)0.4 mol L–1s–1

Question 56
Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction?

1)C6H5CH2Br
2)(C6H5)2CHBr
3)(C6H5)3CBr
4)C6H5Br

Question 57

Products A and B respectively are

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 58
Consider the following reaction

Major product P is

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 59
Among the following which methyl halide is of maximum dipole moment?

1)CH3F
2)CH3Cl
3)CH3Br
4)CH3I

Question 60
(i) Mg , ether
In the following reaction, C6H5Br A , the product (A) is
(ii) C2H5OH

1)C6H6
2)C6H5 – C2H5
3)C6H5 – OH
4)C6H5OC2H5
Question 61

on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 predominantly forms

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 62
Which of the following reaction mixtures does not produce 1° alcohol?

1)HCHO + RMgX; followed by hydrolysis

2)R – CHO + H2; over palladium
3)R – CHO + RMgX; followed by hydrolysis
4)CH3 – CH = CH2 + B2H6; followed by oxidation in the presence of H 2O 2 /OH ⊖

Question 63
The alcohol which reacts fastest by conc. HCl and ZnCl2 is

1)
2)

3)

4)

Question 64

Major products A and B are

1)(CH3)3C – OH and CH3OH

2)(CH3)3C – I and CH3I
3)(CH3)3C – I and CH3OH
4)(CH3)3C – OH and CH3I
Question 65
Olefin which on reductive ozonolysis gives

and

is

1)2, 3-Dimethylpent-1-ene
2)1, 3-Dimethylpent-1-ene
3)2, 3-Dimethylpent-2-ene
4)2, 4-Dimethylpent-2-ene

Question 66
The pair of compound which can be distinguished by I2/NaOH is

1)HCHO and CH3OH

2)CH3CHO and C2H5OH
3)C2H5OH and PhCHO

4)CH3OH and

Question 67
Given below are two statements

Statement I: Ethanal is miscible with water in all proportions.

Statement II: Ethanal forms hydrogen bonding with water.
In light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

2)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3)Both statement I and statement II are correct
4)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Question 68

Products C and D are

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 69
Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
Reactions Order of reaction
a. (i) Zero

b. (ii) 1

c. (iii) Pseudo first

d. (iv) 1.5

The correct match is

1)a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

2)a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
3)a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
4)a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

Question 70
In the following reaction sequences

The major product (B) and name of reaction from A → B formation respectively will be

1)Toluene and Wurtz-Fittig reaction

2)Chlorobenzene and Wurtz-Fittig reaction
3)Toluene and Wurtz reaction
4)Chlorobenzene and Wurtz reaction
Question 71
Given below are two statements

Statement-I : Reaction of tert-butyl bromide with aqueous KOH yields tert-butyl alcohol as a major product.

Statement-II : Reaction of tert-butyl bromide with aqueous KOH follows the SN2 mechanism

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1)Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

2)Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
3)Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
4)Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

Question 72
In the following reaction
NaI in
CH3 – CH = CH2 + HCl ( A) ( B)
( Major) dry acetone ( Major)

The product (B) will be

1)CH3 – CH2 – CH2 –I

2)

3)

4)

Question 73
In the following compounds

The correct order of bond angle will be

1)a > c > b

2)c > b > a
3)a > b > c
4)b > c > a

Question 74
Which of the following reaction gives crotonaldehyde as a major product?

1)

2)
3)
4)
Question 75
Arrange the following compounds in their decreasing order of pKa values

1)(a) > (d) > (b) > (c)

2)(b) > (c) > (d) > (a)
3)(a) > (b) > (d) > (c)
4)(b) > (d) > (c) > (a)

Question 76
Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Reaction of ethyl chlorides with sodium ethoxide majorly gives diethyl ether.

Statement-II : Williamson synthesis reaction involves SN1 attack of an alkoxide ion on primary alkyl halide

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1)Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

2)Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
3)Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
4)Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

Question 77

The major product (P) will be

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 78
In the following reaction sequence

The compound (B) will be

1)Benzene
2)Phenol
3)Toluene
4)Benzoquinone

Question 79
Given below are two statements

Statement-I : Acetaldehyde is more reactive than acetone towards nucleophilic addition reaction.

Statement-II : Benzaldehyde is less reactive than propanal towards nucleophilic addition reaction.

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1)Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

2)Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
3)Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
4)Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

Question 80
In the following reaction sequences
SOCl2 i KCN P2O5, Δ
CH3OH ( A) ( B) ( C)
+ –
( ii) H or OH
H2O, Δ

The major product (C) will be

1)CH3 – COOH
2)CH3 – CH2 – Cl
3)CH3 – CH2 – OH

4)
Question 81
In the following reaction sequences
Hg 2 + /H + i NH2 – NH2
CH3 – C ≡ CH + H2O ( A) ( A) ( B)
333 K ii KOH /ethylene glycol, heat ( Major)

The compound (B) and name of reaction from A → B respectively are

1)CH3 – CH2 – CH3 and Wolff-Kishner reduction

2) and Wolff Kishner reduction

3)CH3 – CH2 – CH3 and clemmensen reduction

4) and clemmensen reduction

Question 82
Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A) : Boiling points of acetone is higher than the propan-1-ol

Reason (R) : Acetone has stronger intermolecular hydrogen bonding than the propan-1-ol.

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3)Both (A) and (R) are false
4)(A) is true but (R) is false

Question 83
In the following reaction sequence
i CrO3 – H2SO4
CH3 – CH2 – OH ( A)
( ii) Cl2 /Red phosphorus Major
( iii) H2O

The compound (A) is

1)CH3 – CHO

2)

3)

4)
Question 84
An organic compound (A) does not reduce Tollen’s reagent but forms an addition compound with sodium hydrogen sulphite and gives positive iodoform
test. On vigorous oxidation it gives ethanoic and propanoic acid. The possible structure of the compound (A) will be

1)

2)

3)
4)CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CHO

Question 85
Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Carboxylic acids are higher boiling liquids than aldehydes.

Statement-II : Most carboxylic acids exist as dimer in the vapour phase or in the aprotic solvents.

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1)Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

2)Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
3)Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
4)Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

Question 86
A zero order reaction has initial concentration of reactant 0.1 M and rate constant 0.002 mol L–1 s–1. Left concentration of reactant after 30 seconds is

1)0.02 M
2)0.08 M
3)0.04 M
4)0.03 M

Question 87
A substance decays by first order kinetics. If the half life of the substance is 16 min then what percentage of the substance remains unchanged after 64
min?

1)16.25%
2)6.25%
3)12.25%
4)93.75%

Question 88
Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction 2A3 → 3A2 is given below

(i) A3 ⇌ A2 + A (fast)

(ii) A3 + A → 2A2 (slow)

The overall order of the reaction will be

1)0
2)3
3)1
4)2
Question 89
The rate of a gaseous reaction is given by the expression r = k[A][B]2. If concentrations of A and B increases by factor of 2 then rate of reaction
becomes

1)2 times
2)4 times
3)8 times
4)16 times

Question 90
Arrange the following molecules in decreasing order of their Ka values

(I)

(II) CH3COOH
(III) HCOOH
(IV) CH3OH
1)I > II > III > IV
2)III > II > I > IV
3)II > I > III > IV
4)I > III > II > IV

Question 91
Major products A and B in the following reactions respectively are,

1)CH2 = CH2 and CH3CH3

2)CH2 = CH2 and C2H5OC2H5
3)C2H5OC2H5 and CH2 = CH2
4)CH2 = CH2 and CH3OCH3

Question 92
Benzaldehyde on reaction with HNO3/H2SO4 at 273 – 283 K majorly gives

1)

2)

3)

4)
Question 93
Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A) : Boiling points of methyl halides decreases in the order : CH3I > CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F

Reason (R) : With the increase in size and mass of halogen atom, the magnitude of vander Waal forces increases.

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3)Both (A) and (R) are false
4)(A) is true but (R) is false

Question 94
In the following reaction sequences

The major product (B) and (C) respectively are

1)p-hydroxybenzoic acid and Aspirin

2)m-hydroxybenzoic acid and Acetophenone
3)o-hydroxybenzoic acid and Aspirin
4)p-hydroxybenzaldehyde and Acetophenone

Question 95
Reaction of propanone with methyl magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis gives compound (P). Compound (P) on treating with 20% H3PO4 at 358
K gives compound (Q). Compound (Q) with Bayer’s reagent gives compound (R). The compound (R) will be

1)2-Methyl propane-1, 2-diol

2)2-Methyl propan-1-ol
3)Butan-2-one
4)2-Methyl propane-1, 3 diol

Question 96
Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : At 273K, reaction of phenol with bromine in CS2 majorly gives p-bromophenol.

Statement-II : Phenol is treated with bromine water majorly gives 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1)Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

2)Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
3)Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
4)Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
Question 97
Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
Reactions Name of reaction
a. (i) Fittig

b. (ii) Stephen

c. (iii) Etard

d. (iv) Swarts

Choose the correct match

1)a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

2)a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
3)a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
4)a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

Question 98
Select the incorrect reaction among the following:

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 99
Given below are two statements

Statement-I : Benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde can be distinguished by Fehling’s test.

Statement-II : Both benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde give Cannizzaro reaction

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1)Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

2)Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
3)Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
4)Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
Question 100
In the following reaction sequences
i CO2, dry ether i SOCl2
CH3 – CH2 – MgCl ( A) ( B)
ii H3O + ( ii) H2, Pd − Major
BaSO4
( iii) dil. NaOH
( iv) Δ

The compound (B) will be

1)3-hydroxy-4-Methyl pentanal
2)2-Methyl pent-3-enal
3)2-Methyl pent-2-enal
4)Propanal

Question 101
Which of the following traits of pea plant will be expressed only in the homozygous form?

1)Violet flower colour

2)Tall stem height
3)Inflated pod shape
4)Terminal flower position

Question 102
Among the given options, an example of test cross is

1)RrYy × RRYY
2)Tt × Tt
3)RrYy × rryy
4)Tt × TT

Question 103
The below given scientists independently rediscovered Mendel’s work on inheritance of characters, except

1)de Vries
2)Correns
3)R.C. Punnett
4)von Tschermak

Question 104
Which of the following will not be observed in a dinucleotide?

1)N-glycosidic linkage
2)3'-5' phosphodiester linkage
3)Hydrogen bonds
4)Phosphoester linkage
Question 105
In the double helix structure of DNA, the pitch of the helix is (A) and there are roughly (B) bp in each turn.

Select the correct option for (A) and (B) respectively.

(A) (B)
(1) 3.4 A° 11 bp
(2) 0.034 nm 9 bp
(3) 0.34 nm 10 bp
(4) 3.4 nm 10 bp
1)(1)
2)(2)
3)(3)
4)(4)

Question 106
Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t double helical structure of DNA?

1)The two chains of DNA have anti-parallel polarity

2)Apart from the hydrogen bonds, the stacking of one base pair over the other in the double helix provides stability to the helical structure
3)It is made up of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is constituted by sugar-phosphate and the bases project outside.
4)The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bonding.

Question 107
Single stranded DNA is the genetic material in

1)Bacteriophage λ
2)E. coli
3)Bacteriophage ϕ ×174
4)Drosophila melanogaster

Question 108
Match List I with List II

List I List II
a. Incomplete dominance (i) Phenylketonuria
b. Codominance (ii) Myotonic dystrophy
c. Autosomal dominant trait (iii) Phenotype that did not resemble either of the two parents and was in between the two
d. Pleiotropy (iv) F1 generation resembles both parents

Select the correct answer from the following options.

1)a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

2)a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
3)a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
4)a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
Question 109
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by

1)Walter Sutton
2)Theodore Boveri
3)T.H. Morgan
4)Alfred Sturtevant

Question 110
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t polygenic inheritance.

1)Such traits are generally controlled by three or more genes

2)Human skin colour is a classic example of this type of inheritance
3)Human with genotype, AABBCC will have the darkest skin colour and aabbcc will have the lightest skin colour
4)Only the dominant allele determines the phenotype of an individual

Question 111
If a man with ‘A’ blood group marries a woman with ‘B’ blood group. Which of the following is not true?

1)The 1st child can have an AB or O blood group

2)The 2nd child can have blood group with IAIO or IBIO genotype
3)If the mother has IBIB genotype then ‘O’ blood group is not possible in any of the children.
4)Their child can have ‘A’ blood group with IAIA genotype.

Question 112
Law of independent assortment cannot be observed in a

1)Monohybrid cross
2)Dihybrid cross
3)Trihybrid cross
4)Tetrahybrid cross

Question 113
Which of the following organism shows the haplodiploid sex-determination?

1)Bird
2)Drosophila
3)Grasshopper
4)Honey bee

Question 114
Select the incorrect match

1) Discovery of X body – Henking

2) XO type of sex determination – Chicken
3) Alfred Sturtevant – Mapping of the position of genes on the chromosome
4) Mendelian disorder – Cystic fibrosis
Question 115
Central Dogma of molecular biology was proposed by

1)James Watson
2)Francis Crick
3)Frederick Griffith
4)Walter Sutton

Question 116
Read the following statements regarding the “Packaging of DNA”

(a) In prokaryotes, such as E.coli, DNA is scattered throughout the cell.

(b) The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops held by proteins.

(c) Nucleosomes are formed by wrapping of negatively charged DNA around the histone octamer.

(d) In eukaryotes, chromatin fibres are further coiled and get fully condensed at interphase stage to form chromosomes.

(e) The packaging of chromatin in “beads-on-string” structures requires additional set of proteins called the non-histone chromosomal proteins.

Choose the correct ones.

1)(a), (c) and (e) only

2)(b), (c) and (d) only
3)(a), (c) and (d) only
4)(b) and (c) only

Question 117
Heterochromatin is

1)Loosely packed region of DNA

2)Lightly stained region of DNA
3)Transcriptionally active chromatin
4)Transcriptionally inactive chromatin

Question 118
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement (A) : Mendel’s work suggested that factors were discrete units, he could not provide any physical proof for their existence.

Statement (B) : A cross between red flower and pink flower of snapdragon, results into red and pink flowers in the ratio of 3 : 1 respectively.

1)Both statement (A) and statement (B) are correct

2)Both statement (A) and statement (B) are incorrect
3)Statement (A) is correct but statement (B) is incorrect
4)Statement (A) is incorrect but statement (B) is correct

Question 119
How many different types of gametes will be produced by an organism having genotype AaBb?

1)1
2)2
3)4
4)6
Question 120
Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t Drosophila as suitable material for genetic experiments?

1)It could be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory

2)The fly has short life cycle of about two weeks
3)A single mating could produce very small number of progeny
4)There is a clear differentiation of the male and female sex

Question 121
The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of

1)Erwin Chargaff
2)Sutton and Boveri
3)Frederick Griffith
4)Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

Question 122
E.coli was grown in the medium containing 14NH4Cl and after growing for many generations, it was transferred into a medium containing N15. What
will be ratio of light, hybrid and heavy DNA respectively at the end of third generation of E.coli?

1)0 : 1 : 4
2)0 : 1: 3
3)0 : 1 : 6
4)1 : 1 : 4

Question 123
The average rate of polymerisation of DNA during the process of DNA replication in E. coli is approximately

1)1000 bp/sec
2)2000 bp/sec
3)500 bp/sec
4)500 bp/min

Question 124
State True (T) or False (F) and select the correct answer from the following options.

(a) In pleiotropy, a single gene affects multiple metabolic pathways.

(b) In birds, females have a pair of Z chromosomes, whereas male has one Z and one W chromosome.

(c) Frame-shift mutations are caused by deletions and insertions of one or two bases of DNA.

(d) Mendelian disorders are caused due to failure of segregation of chromatids during cell cycle resulting in the gain or loss of a chromosome.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) T F T F
(2) F T T F
(3) T F F F
(4) T F T T
1)(1)
2)(2)
3)(3)
4)(4)
Question 125
Chromosome complement of an individual, suffering from Klinefelter’s syndrome is

1)47, XXX
2)45, X0
3)47, XXY
4)46, XY

Question 126
Read the following statements, where one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Honey bees do not have father and thus cannot have sons.

Reason (R) : In honey bees, males produce sperms by the process of mitosis.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer

1)(A) is true but (R) is false

2)(A) is false but (R) is true
3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 127
Select the incorrect match

1) – Sex unspecified

2) – Consanguineous mating

3) – Affected male

4) – Male child having affected parents

Question 128
A male having sickle cell anemia marries to a female, who is the carrier of this disease. What percentage of the progeny will have this disorder?

1)75%
2)50%
3)25%
4)0%

Question 129
All of the following features make DNA better genetic material, except.

1)DNA is chemically less reactive

2)DNA is more stable as it has thymine at the place of uracil
3)It provides scope of rapid changes
4)It express itself in the form of Mendelian characters
Question 130
Taylor and colleagues proved semiconservative mode of replication in Vicia faba using

1)N15 labelled DNA

2)Radioactive labelled thymidine
3)P32 labelled DNA
4)S35 labelled DNA

Question 131
In a mendelian dihybrid cross of pea plants when F1 generation is selfed, the probability of getting seeds with genotype Rryy, RrYy and rrYy in F2
generation respectively will be

1) 1 : 1 : 1
4 8 8
2 2 2
2) : :
16 16 16
3) 4 : 4 : 2
16 16 16
1 1 1
4) : :
8 4 8

Question 132
Physical association of genes on the chromosome is called

1)Sex determination
2)Recombination
3)Crossing over
4)Linkage

Question 133
How many of the following are Mendelian disorders?

Phenylketonuria, Sickle cell anemia, Colour blindness, Down’s syndrome, Thalassemia, Turner’s syndrome

1)3
2)4
3)2
4)1

Question 134
Read the following statements w.r.t the process of replication

(a) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates, serve dual purpose of acting as substrates and providing energy for the polymerization reaction.

(b) DNA polymerases can initiate the process of replication on their own.

(c) A failure in cell division (cytokinesis) after DNA replication results into aneuploidy.

(d) DNA polymerases require a DNA template to catalyse the polymerization of ribonucleotides.

(e) Energetically replication is a very expensive process.

Select the correct ones.

1)(a), (c) and (e) only

2)(b) and (d) only
3)(a) and (e) only
4)(b), (c) and (d) only
Question 135
In the experiments, conducted by Griffith, which of the following caused the death of the mice?

(a) Injecting S strain into live mice

(b) Injecting R strain into live mice

(c) Injecting S strain (Heat killed) and live R strain into mice

Select the correct ones.

1)(a) and (b) only

2)(b) and (c) only
3)(a) and (c) only
4)(a), (b) and (c) only

Question 136
During replication of DNA, the discontinuously synthesized fragments are later joined by an enzyme

1)DNA ligase
2)DNA polymerase
3)RNA polymerase
4)DNase

Question 137
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement (A) : The gene controlling starch grain size in pea shows incomplete dominance.

Statement (B) : Morgan united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with mendelian principles and called it chromosomal theory of inheritance.

1)Both statement (A) and statement (B) are correct

2)Both statement (A) and statement (B) are incorrect
3)Statement (A) is correct but statement (B) is incorrect
4)Statement (A) is incorrect but statement (B) is correct

Question 138
In the experiments of Morgan conducted on Drosophila, the observed percentage of recombinant types obtained when cross is performed between
white eyed miniature winged male and wild type female was

1)13%
2)37.2%
3)50%
4)25%
Question 139
Which of the following characteristics of inheritance is shown by blood groups in humans?

(a) Dominance

(b) Polygenic inheritance

(c) Multiple allelism

(d) Co-dominance

Select the correct ones.

1)(a) and (b) only

2)(b) and (c) only
3)(a), (c) and (d) only
4)(c) and (d) only

Question 140
According to the Chargaff’s rule, in a double stranded DNA, if number of adenine = 20%, what is the corresponding percentage of guanine?

1)30%
2)60%
3)35%
4)40%

Question 141
Read the following statements and select the correct ones w.r.t sickle cell anaemia

(a) It is an autosome linked recessive trait.

(b) It is caused due to a point mutation.

(c) The defect is caused due to substitution of valine by glutamic acid.

(d) There is a base substitution from GUG → GAG.

(e) There is a change in the shape of RBC from biconcave disc to sickle like structure.

1)(a), (c) and (e) only

2)(b), (c) and (d) only
3)(a), (b) and (e) only
4)(b), (c) and (e) only

Question 142
Select the incorrect one for Down’s syndrome

1)Autosomal trisomy
2)There is an additional copy of chromosome number 21
3)It was first described by Langdon Down
4)The individual is short statured and have large head

Question 143
β Thalassemia is caused due to

1)HBA2 gene on chromosome 16

2)HBA2 gene on chromosome 11
3)HBB gene on chromosome 11
4)HBB gene on chromosome 16
Question 144
Histones are rich in

1)Arginine and histidine

2)Glycine and alanine
3)Arginine and lysine
4)Lysine and alanine

Question 145
Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : In bacteria, many times the translation can begin much before the mRNA is fully transcribed.

Reason (R) : In bacteria, mRNA does not require processing to become active and there is no separation of cytosol and nucleus.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer

1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3)Both (A) and (R) are false
4)(A) is true but (R) is false

Question 146
State True (T) or False (F) with respect to the labels and their stated function and select the correct option

A – Mostly monocistronic in prokaryotes

B – It is located towards 5' end, with respect to the polarity of the coding strand.

C – In eukaryotes, this strand is used as template for formation of mRNA.

D – It defines the end of the process of transcription.

ABCD
(1) T F F T
(2) F T F T
(3) T F T F
(4) T T F T
1)(1)
2)(2)
3)(3)
4)(4)

Question 147
The contribution of Avery, MacLeod and McCarty is

1)Discovery of nuclein in the nucleus

2)Elucidation of DNA packaging process
3)Discovery of transformation
4)Biochemical characterization of transforming principle
Question 148
If the sequence of template strand is

5'ATGCGCTATACG 3'

What will be the corresponding mRNA sequence?

1)5' AUGCGCUAUACG 3'

2)5' CGUAUAGCGCAU 3'
3)5' TACGCGATATGC 3'
4)5' CGATATCGCGTA 3'

Question 149

The pedigree given above shows

1)X-linked dominant inheritance

2)X-linked recessive inheritance
3)Autosomal dominant inheritance
4)Y-linked inheritance

Question 150
A genotypic and phenotypic ratio of 1 : 2 : 1 is observed in case of

1)Cross between white and violet flowered pea plants

2)Cross between pea plant with inflated pods and with constricted pods.
3)Dihybrid test cross
4)Incomplete dominance

Question 151
An extra-testicular, highly coiled duct which receives openings of vasa efferentia, structurally leads to the

1)Rete testis
2)Vas deferens
3)Epididymis
4)Seminiferous tubules

Question 152
In humans, one of the cell types present in the intertubular spaces outside the seminiferous tubules are

1)Sustentacular cells
2)Immature male germ cells
3)Spermatogonium
4)Immunologically competent cells
Question 153
In human females, the widest part of the oviduct, lined by the ciliated columnar epithelium is

1)Isthmus
2)Ampulla
3)Infundibulum
4)Fimbriae

Question 154
During labor and childbirth, coordinated contractions of the _______ in response to birth hormone released from the _______ pituitary help to expel out
the human foetus from the uterus.

Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks respectively.

1)Endometrium, anterior
2)Perimetrium, intermediate
3)Myometrium, anterior
4)Myometrium, posterior

Question 155
The enlarged end of the human male external genitalia is covered by a loose fold of skin called

1)Clitoris
2)Foreskin
3)Glans penis
4)Hymen

Question 156
Choose the correct option w.r.t Nirodh.

1)It’s spermicidal in nature

2)It prevents the entry of ejaculated semen into female reproductive tract
3)It suppresses the sperm motility in the female genital tract
4)It releases copper ions

Question 157
Due to encouragement from governmental and non-governmental agencies in reproduction-related areas, which of the following organisations
developed a new oral contraceptive for females in India that is chemically non-steroidal?

1)CDRI
2)EFB
3)NACO
4)WHO

Question 158
Removal of both the ovaries in an adult human female may lead to

1)Increase in the number of mammary ducts in breasts

2)Sudden increase in height by several inches
3)Increased resorption of bones
4)Increased proliferation of the endometrium
Question 159
Which of the following is the correct statement?

1)Spermicidal jelly is used along with CuT by females to increase its contraceptive efficiency.
2)Vault is used with spermicidal foams to cover the penis.
3)Cervical caps along with spermicidal creams prevent conception by blocking the entry of sperms via cervix.
4)Diaphragm along with foams is used to cover urethral meatus in males.

Question 160
Consider the following statements w.r.t humans:

(a) The mitotic division starts as the zygote moves through the isthmus of the oviduct.

(b) The size of 8-celled morula is larger than the size of a zygote.

(c) Trophoblasts are inner group of embryonic cells that are totipotent in nature.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

1)Only (b)
2)(a) and (c)
3)Only (a)
4)(b) and (c)

Question 161
All of the following can be the grounds for medical termination of pregnancy in India, except

1)To get rid of unwanted pregnancy due to failure of contraceptive used during coitus
2)When continuation of pregnancy could be fatal to the mother
3)When no significant movement of foetus is yet observed by the end of first 8 weeks of pregnancy
4)Due to the substantial risk that the child born would suffer from mental abnormalities

Question 162
Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged to provide information to the young children

1)To encourage them for believing in myths about sex-related aspects

2)About reproductive organs and practicing unsafe and unhygienic sexual practices
3)To make them not believe in misconceptions about adolescence and sex related changes
4)To encourage them to be casual about STIs as they are always curable

Question 163
Read the following statements w.r.t. humans:

Statement (A) : The mature sperm exhibits a remarkable degree of structural and functional specialization.

Statement (B) : The plasma membrane of sperm encloses the head and neck but not the middle piece and the tail.

Select the correct option.

1)Both statements (A) and (B) are correct

2)Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
3)Only statement (A) is incorrect
4)Only statement (B) is incorrect
Question 164
Menopause in human females is most likely due to the

1)Sudden decrease in the levels of GnRH

2)Degeneration of ovarian follicles and decline in the levels of estrogen
3)Increased production of ovarian hormones
4)Increased amount of prolactin in plasma due to decrease in GnRH

Question 165
Select the correct match w.r.t humans.

1)Spermiogenesis – Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids

2)Spermiation – Release of spermatozoa into the seminiferous tubules
3)Parturition – Initiated by decrease in estrogen and progesterone ratio
4)Menstruation – Middle layer of uterus undergoes maximum changes

Question 166
How many of the contraceptive devices mentioned below do(es) not require expert nurses/doctors for its/their insertion?

Condoms, Implants, LNG-20, Lippes loop, Diaphragm

Choose the correct option.

1)Five
2)Three
3)One
4)Two

Question 167
As compared to the spermatozoa, the spermatids are/possess

1)An altered nucleus and a tail

2)Non-motile cells
3)Small and diploid cells
4)Cap-like structure called acrosome

Question 168
Select the incorrect one w.r.t amniocentesis.

1)It is a pre-natal diagnostic test

2)Involves analysis of foetal cells present in amniotic fluid
3)Completely banned in India
4)Can determine the survivability of foetus by testing the presence of genetic disorders

Question 169
The cell formed in the female gonads which possesses only one sex chromosome is

1)Second polar body

2)Primary oocyte
3)First polar body
4)Oogonium
Question 170
Assertion (A): During pregnancy, the levels of hormones like estrogen, progesterone, thyroxine, cortisol, etc., are increased several folds in the
maternal blood.

Reason (R): In pregnant women, increased production of hormones is essential for supporting the foetal growth, metabolic changes in mother and
maintenance of pregnancy.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
4)Both (A) and (R) are false.

Question 171
Observe the given flow chart.

Select the correct option for A and B w.r.t hormonal regulation in human females.

1)A = GH, B = FSH

2)A = GnRH, B = Prolactin
3)A = GnRH, B = LH
4)A = GH, B = Estrogen

Question 172
Choose the correct option to complete the analogy.

Viral STI : Hepatitis-B : : Protozoan STI : _______

1)Genital warts
2)Chlamydiasis
3)Genital herpes
4)Trichomoniasis

Question 173
In a healthy adult female with 28 days of menstrual cycle, if the ovum is not fertilised then the corpus luteum starts to degenerate about

1)7 days before ovulation

2)4 days before next menstruation
3)4th day after ovulation
4)10 days before next menstruation
Question 174
According to 2011 census report, our population is expanding rapidly. To check this growth rate, the Government of India has taken up measures such
as

(a) Motivate small families to increase in size by using various conception methods.

(b) Statutory raising of marriageable age of females and males.

(c) Incentives given to couples with small families

Select the correct option.

1)(a) and (b)

2)Only (a)
3)(b) and (c)
4)Only (c)

Question 175
The world population around the year 2000 was about ______times than the world population around year 1900.

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.

1)Three
2)Seven
3)Six
4)Two

Question 176
Which of the following hormones can delay menstruation if taken continuously throughout the menstrual cycle?

1)Oxytocin
2)Progesterone
3)Estrogen
4)Prolactin

Question 177
All of the following are incorrect w.r.t placenta, except

1)Secretes luteinizing hormone

2)Develops from the interdigitation of yolk sac and myometrium
3)Allows direct mixing of maternal and foetal blood
4)Formed by chorionic villi on foetal side

Question 178
Voluntary termination of pregnancy is risky at 22nd week of pregnancy, thus, it is

1)Not recommended in any condition

2)Done by unqualified quacks legally
3)Done after mandatory recommendation of 4 medical experts
4)Done after opinion of 2 registered medical practitioners
Question 179
A proteinaceous female gonadal hormone

1)Interacts with intracellular receptors

2)Has similar mechanism of action as testosterone
3)Is secreted in the later phase of pregnancy to facilitate the delivery of foetus
4)Constricts the cervix and thickens the cervical mucus

Question 180
If a human male is unable to inseminate his female partner due to erectile dysfunctioning, then which of the following ARTs should be recommended to
the couple that also involves in-vitro fertilization?

1)GIFT
2)AI
3)IUI
4)ICSI

Question 181
Select the odd one w.r.t features of androgen in males.

1)Stimulates gametogenesis
2)LH stimulates its secretion
3)It increases the pitch of the voice
4)It is secreted by interstitial cells of testis

Question 182
To attain reproductive health as a social goal, India first initiated the action plans and programmes at a national level in the year

1)1951
2)1971
3)2000
4)2011

Question 183
An ideal contraceptive should not

1)Be user-friendly
2)Be easily available to the user
3)Be reversible
4)Interfere with the sexual drive of user
Question 184
Read the following statements

Statement (A) : A female condom is a barrier contraceptive device that provides protection against STIs and constitutes two rings at both the ends,
one of which is open unlike the other.

Statement (B) : All barrier contraceptives provide privacy and are reusable.

Select the correct option.

1)Both the statements (A) and (B) are correct

2)Both the statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
3)Only statement (A) is correct
4)Only statement (B) is correct

Question 185
Which of the following graphs correctly depicts one of the causes of ovulation in human females?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Question 186
During fusion of a human sperm with an ovum in ampulla region of fallopian tube, the sperm firstly comes in contact with

1)Zona pellucida
2)A cellular layer
3)An acellular layer
4)Basement membrane

Question 187
Lactational amenorrhea is based on the fact that

1)Increased hPL inhibits the secretion of TSH

2)Decreased suckling action provides negative feedback to GnRH
3)Increased PRL inhibits the secretion of GnRH
4)Increased secretion of oxytocin from anterior pituitary inhibits GnRH secretion
Question 188
Assertion (A): Levonorgestrel-20 is a contraceptive which makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.

Reason (R): It contains synthetic progesterone which causes thinning of cervical mucus.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
2)Both (A) and (R) are false.
3)(A) is true but (R) is false.
4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 189
Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II
a. Syphilis (i) Protozoan STI
b. IUT (ii) In-vivo fertilisation
c. IUI (iii) In-vitro fertilisation
d. Genital warts (iv) Bacterial STI
(v) Viral STI

Select the correct option

1)a(v), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

2)a(v), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
3)a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
4)a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(v)

Question 190
Multiload 375 is

1)Inserted into the vagina and is fixed at the opening of cervix

2)A non-medicated IUD
3)Placed under the skin, where it secretes progestogen at intervals
4)Capable of releasing Cu ions which alters the fertilising capacity of sperms

Question 191
During parturition, release of oxytocin and strength of uterine contractions exhibit

1)Positive feedback loop

2)Negative feedback loop
3)Both negative feedback and positive feedback loop
4)Neither negative feedback nor positive feedback loop
Question 192
The mammary glands of human females can undergo structural differentiation under the effect of steroidal hormones

(a) Progesterone

(b) Estrogen

(c) Oxytocin

Select the correct option.

1)(a), (b) and (c)

2)Only (a) and (c)
3)(a) and (b)
4)Only (b) and (c)

Question 193
Which of the following will not occur after vasectomy?

1)Transport of sperm from testis to ejaculatory duct

2)Presence of sperms in epididymis
3)Production of androgens
4)Spermiogenesis

Question 194
Which among the following is more susceptible to HIV infection?

1)One who avoids sex with unknown partners

2)One who uses condoms during coitus
3)One who uses Saheli during coitus
4)One who does not share injection needles with others

Question 195
Contraceptives are

1)Regular requirements for maintenance of reproductive health

2)Capable of causing breast cancer in some cases, if taken for a prolonged period
3)Neither used to prevent pregnancy nor to delay pregnancy
4)Used widely to promote uncontrolled growth of population
Question 196
In the figure given below, ‘X’ represents

1)Placental villi
2)Embryo
3)Yolk sac
4)Umbilical cord

Question 197
Read the following statements

(a) Implantation usually occurs when embryo contains 8-16 blastomeres.

(b) Sickle-cell anaemia, haemophilia and down syndrome are genetic disorders that can be detected via amniocentesis. .

(c) Indian population reached to the billion mark by the time of independence.

(d) Ectopic pregnancy and still birth can occur due to untreated STIs.

How many of the above given statements is/are correct?

1)Four
2)Two
3)Three
4)One

Question 198
Select the incorrect option w.r.t uterus of human female.

1)Inverted pear-shaped
2)Present in pelvis between bladder and rectum
3)Outer most layer of its wall is thin and membranous
4)Fundus is its lower narrow part

Question 199
In humans, secondary follicle and tertiary follicle are present in

1)Inner medulla of ovarian stroma

2)Isthmus of oviducts
3)Cortex region of ovarian stroma
4)Fundus of uterus
Question 200
Select the incorrect option w.r.t. sex accessory glands present in human males.

1)Secrete seminal plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
2)Secretions of bulbourethral glands help in the lubrication of penis
3)Seminal vesicle and prostate are paired glands
4)Seminal plasma along with sperms constitute semen