JEE Main Test-30 Primus a,B,C Paper
JEE Main Test-30 Primus a,B,C Paper
JEE Main Test-30 Primus a,B,C Paper
Section – I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Answer Type
1. In a photoelectric effect measurement, the stopping potential for a given metal is found to be V0
volt when radiation of wavelength 0 is used. If radiation of wavelength 20 is used with the
same metal then the stopping potential (in volt) will be
V hc hc
(A) 0 (B) 2V0 (C) V0 (D) V0
2 2e0 2e0
2. An artificial Earth satellite is moved from a circular orbit with radius R to a circular orbit with
radius 2R. During this move
(A) The gravitational force does negative work, the kinetic energy of the satellite increases, and
the potential energy of the Earth-satellite system decreases.
(B) The gravitational force does positive work, the kinetic energy of the satellite increases, and
the potential energy of the Earth-satellite system decreases.
(C) The gravitational force does positive work, the kinetic energy of the satellite decreases, and
the potential energy of the Earth-satellite system increases.
(D) The gravitational force does negative work, the kinetic energy of the satellite decreases, and
the potential energy of the Earth-satellite system increases.
3. A stationary He ion emitted a photon corresponding to the first line of its Lyman series. That
photon liberated a photoelectron from a stationary hydrogen atom in the ground state. The
kinetic energy of the photoelectron emitted is
(A) 1.1 1018 J (B) 2.2 1018 J (C) 4.4 1018 J (D) 6.6 1018 J
1 q 1 q q 1 q q q
(A) Zero (B) (C) (D)
4 0 d 4 0 d R1 4 0 d R1 R2
5. The maximum value attained by the tension in the string of a swinging pendulum is four times
the minimum value it attains. There is no slack in the string. The angular amplitude of the
pendulum is
(A) 90° (B) 60° (C) 45° (D) 30°
kr 2 , r R
7. Given a spherically symmetric charge density r (k being a constant), the
0 , r R
electric field for r R is (take the total charge as Q)
Qr 3 3Qr 2 5Qr 3 Q
(A) rˆ (B) rˆ (C) rˆ (D) rˆ
4 0 R5 4 0 R 4 8 0 R5 4 0 r 2
9. A human bone has a Young's modulus of about 1010 N / m 2 . It fractures when the compressive
strain exceeds 1%. The maximum load that can be sustained by a bone of cross-sectional area
3cm 2 is
(A) 10 4 N (B) 3 104 N (C) 3 106 N (D) 6 104 N
10. Intensity of sunlight is observed as 0.092 Wm 2 at a point in free space. What will be the peak
value of magnetic field at that point? 0 8.85 1012 C2 N 1 m 2
(A) 2.77 108 T (B) 1.96 108 T (C) 8.31 T (D) 5.88 T
11. A wooden block floating in seawater has two thirds of its volume submerged. When the block is
placed in mineral oil, 80.0% of its volume is submerged. If the density of seawater is 1.02 g / cm3
then the density of the mineral oil, is
(A) 0.68g / cm3 (B) 0.77 g / cm3 (C) 0.85g / cm3 (D) 0.88g / cm3
12. Visible light of wavelength 6000 108 cm falls normally on a single slit and produces a
diffraction pattern. It is found that the second diffraction minimum is at 60° from the central
maximum. If the first minimum is produced at 1 , then 1 is close to
(A) 45° (B) 30° (C) 25° (D) 20°
13. When sunlight is incident on water surface at a glancing angle of 37°, the reflected light is found
to be completely plane-polarized the refractive index of water and angle of refraction are
respectively
4 5 4 5
(A) and 53° (B) and 37° (C) and 37° (D) and 53°
3 4 3 4
14. If a million tiny droplets of water of the same radius coalesce into one larger drop the ratio of the
surface energy of the large drop to the total surface energy of all the droplets will be
(A) 1 : 10 (B) 1 : 102 (C) 1 : 104 (D) 1 : 106
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15. A two-slit interference experiment uses coherent light of wavelength 5.00 107 m . Rank the
following points in the interference pattern according to the intensity at each point, from highest
to lowest.
(i) a point that is closer to one slit than the other by 4.00 107 m.
(ii) a point where the light waves received from the two slits are out of phase by 4.00 rad.
(iii) a point that is closer to one slit than the other by 7.50 107 m.
(iv) a point where the light waves received by the two slits are out of phase by 2.00 rad.
(A) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (B) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) (C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii) (D) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
17. The figure shows a particle (carrying charge +q) at the origin. A uniform
magnetic field is directed into the plane of the paper. The particle can be
projected only in the plane of paper and along positive or negative x-
or y-axis. The particle moves with constant speed and has to hit a target
located in the third quadrant. There are two direction of projections,
which can make it possible, these are
(A) +x and +y (B) +x and –y (C) –x and +y (D) –x and –y
18. A rigid spherical body is spinning around an axis without any external torque. Due to
temperature its surface area increases by 3%. The percentage change in its angular speed is
(A) –2% (B) –1% (C) –3% (D) 1%
19. In the given figure, each diode has a forward bias resistance of 30 and
infinite resistance in reverse bias. The current I1 will be
20. A sample of radioactive material decays simultaneously by two processes A and B with half-
1 1
lives and hours respectively. For first half-hour, it decays with process A, next one hour
2 4
with process B and for a further half an hour with both A and B. If originally there were N 0
nuclei, find the number of nuclei after 2 hours of such decay
N N N N0
(A) 08 (B) 04 (C) 06 (D)
(2) (2) (2) (2)5
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Section - II
Non-Negative Integer Type Answer
21. A body of mass 1 kg initially at rest, explodes and breaks into three fragments of masses in the
ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The two pieces of equal mass fly-off perpendicular to each other with a speed of
30 m / s each. If the velocity of heavier fragment is n m / s, then n is ____.
22. In an ac generator, a rectangular coil of 100 turns each having area 14 102 m 2 is rotated at
180 rev / min about an axis perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 1.5 T. The
22
maximum value of the emf produced will be ___ V. [Take ]
7
23. Three dielectric slabs P, Q and R filling the space between plates of a
parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and separation d as shown
have following specifications.
Slab Face- area Thickness Dielectric constant
P A/3 d 3
Q 2A/3 d/3 12
R 2A/3 2d/3 8
The arrangement of slabs can be thought as a single dielectric slab of thickness d, face area A and
effective constant K. The value of K is _____.
24. Three 2.0 resistors are connected as in figure. Each can dissipate a maximum power of 32 W
without being excessively heated. The maximum power that the network can dissipate (in watts)
is _____.
25. The circuit shown here is in a uniform magnetic field that is acting
into the page and is decreasing at the rate of 150 T / s. The ammeter
i
reads 0 A. The value of i0 is _____.
100
Section – I (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Answer Type
26. Which of the following molecules has the maximum number of A–X bonds of identical length,
where ‘A’ is the central atom and ‘X’ is the surrounding atom?
(A) SF6 (B) IF7 (C) PF5 (D) ClO4
27. Assertion (A): Among H 2 O, HF and NH 3 ; H 2 O is having the maximum boiling point.
Reason (R): Boiling point depends upon strength of H-bonding.
(A) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
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28. Which of the following is the CORRECT order of relative O – O bond stability?
(A) O2 O 2 O 2 O 2 2 (B) O 2 2 O 2 O 2 O 2
(C) O2 2 O 2 O 2 O 2 (D) O 2 O 2 2 O 2 O 2
30. The common positive oxidation states for an element with atomic number 24 are
(A) +3 and +6 (B) +1 and +3 to +6 (C) +1 and +3 (D) +1 to +6
31. Many transition metals form interstitial compounds. The characteristics of these interstitial
compounds are:
(i) They have high melting points, higher than those of pure metals.
(ii) They are very hard.
(iii) They retain metallic conductivity.
(iv) They are chemically more reactive than the pure metals.
Select the CORRECT statement(s).
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i), (iii) (C) (ii), (iv) (D) Only (iv)
32. Match the orbital overlap figures shown in List-I with the description given in List-II and select
the CORRECT answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I List-II
33. Which one of the following conversion involves change in both hybridization and shape?
(A) CH 4 C2 H 6 (B) NH3 NH 4 (C) BF3 BF4 (D) H 2 O H3 O
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37. Which of the following compounds is formed, when a mixture of K 2 Cr2 O 7 and NaCl is heated
with conc. H 2SO 4 ?
(A) CrO2 Cl2 (B) CrCl3 (C) Cr2 (SO 4 )3 (D) Na 2 CrO4
38. A sodium salt of an unknown anion when treated with MgCl 2 give white precipitate only on
boiling. The anion is
(A) SO 4 2 (B) HCO3 (C) CO32 (D) NO3
39. Statement-I : First group basic radicals are precipitated as their chlorides.
Because
Statement-II : The solubility product of these chlorides are more than the solubility product of
other basic radical chlorides.
(A) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true; Statement-II is correct explanation for Statement-I.
(B) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true; Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-I.
(C) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false.
(D) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true.
40. The brown ring test for NO2 and NO3 is due to the formation of complex ion with formula
(A) [Fe(H 2 O)6 ]2 (B) [Fe(NO) (CN)5 ]2
(C) [Fe(H 2 O)5 NO]2 (D) [Fe(H 2 O) (NO)5 ]2
41. How many moles of sodium sulphite are oxidized by three moles of potassium permanganate in
acidic medium?
(A) 7.5 (B) 1.5 (C) 4.5 (D) 1.25
42. Rate constant of a first order reaction is 0.0693min 1 . The time taken to reduce 20 mol L1
concentration of reactant to 2.5 mol L1 is
(A) 10 min (B) 20 min (C) 30 min (D) 40 min
Section - II
Non-Negative Integer Type Answer
46. The number of species below can show the disproportionation reactions is(are) ______.
Cl , Cl2 , H 2 O2 , SO3 , SO 4 2 , PO 43 , P4 , Cu 2 O, SO 2 , MnO2
47. The number of planar species among the following is(are) _______.
XeF2 , ClF3 , H 2 O, XeF5 , I3 , BCl3 , XeF4 , SF4 , PCl5 , SF6 , IF7
48. On analysis, a certain compound was found to contain 254 g of iodine (atomic mass 127) and
80g oxygen (atomic mass 16). If the formula of the compound is I m O n , then value of m n is ____.
49. At 80°C vapour pressure of pure benzene is 750 mmHg. At this temperature, vapour pressure is
lowered by 10 mmHg on dissolving 2g non-volatile solute in 156 g benzene then molar mass of
solute is _______.
50. The difference in the oxidation number of Cl in product [X] and [Y] is _____.
Section – I (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Answer Type
2
51. If the tangent at 1, 1 on y 2 x 2 x meet the curve again at P, then P is
9 3
(A) 4, 4 (B) 1, 2 (C) , (D) 0, 0
4 8
52. Let a, b R. If the mirror image of the point P a, 6, 9 with respect to the line
x 3 y 2 z 1
is 20, b, a 9 , then a b is
7 5 9
(A) 88 (B) 86 (C) 84 (D) 90
53. The area of smallest region bounded by the line y 3x 7 and the parabola y x 2 2x 7 is
81 243 343
(A) (B) 23 (C) (D)
2 2 2
54. The point 2m, m 1 is an interior point of the smaller region bounded by circle x 2 y2 4
and the parabola y 2 4x then the complete range of values of m is given by
3
(A) 1 m 5 2 6 (B) 1 m
5
(C) 0 m 4 (D) 5 2 6 m 1
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x 2 y2 16 then R is
(A) Symmetric, but not reflexive, transitive (B) Reflexive, transitive but not symmetric
(C) Reflexive, symmetric but not transitive (D) Reflexive, symmetric and transitive
58. Let be a real number for which the system of linear equations x yz 6,
4x y z 2, 3x 2y 4z 5 has infinitely many solutions. Then is a root of the
quadratic equation
(A) 2 3 4 0 (B) 2 3 4 0 (C) 2 6 0 (D) 2 6 0
(A) y y 2 (B) y y 2
4 4 4 4
2
(C) y y 2 (D) y y 2
4 4 2 4 4
60. The distance of the point having position vector ˆi 2ˆj 6kˆ from the straight line passing
through the point (2, 3, –4) and parallel to the vector, 6iˆ 3jˆ 4kˆ is
(A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 2 13 (D) 4 3
61. A person is assigned to 3 jobs A, B and C. The probabilities of his doing the jobs A, B and C are
1
p, q and respectively. He gets the full payment only if he either does the jobs A and B or the
2
1
jobs A and C. If the probability of his getting the full payment is , then p is equal to
2
(A) q 1 (B) q 1
1 1
(C) (D)
q 1 q 1
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62. A box contain 24 identical balls of which 12 are white and 12 are black. The balls are drawn at
random from the box one at a time with replacement. The probability that a white ball is drawn
for the 4 th time on the 7 th draw is
5 27 5 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64 32 32 2
10
63. Let xi 1 i 10 be ten observations of a random variable X. If (xi p) 3 and
i 1
10
(xi p)2 3 where 0 p R , then the standard deviation of these observations is
i 1
3 4 9 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 10 10
3z i 3
66. If
2z 3 4i 2
, then locus z represent i 1 and z C
(A) straight line (B) circle
(C) half of plane (D) parabola
67. From a point ‘P’ perpendicular tangent PQ and PR are drawn to ellipse x 2 4y 2 4, then locus
of circumcenter of triangle PQR is
16 2 2 5 2 2
(A) x 2 y 2
5
x 4y 2 (B) x 2 y 2
16
x 4y 2
16 2 5 2 2
(C) x 2 4y 2
5
x 2 y2 (D) x 2 4y 2
16
x y2
68. If A is non-singular square matrix where B AT and A B2 I such that A3 I kA then k is
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 3
1 1 2 1 0 1
69. Let Z and A are two 3 3 matrices such that Z 2 3 5 and A 2
1 0 if Z AB1
4 1 0 0 3 1
28
where B is a square matrix of order 3 and t = trace of A adj B , then is
t
(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 14 (D) 5
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70. The equation of the ellipse whose axes are coincident with the coordinate axes and which
x 2 y2
touches the straight lines 3x 2y 20 0 and x 6y 20 0, is 1 then a b
a 2 b2
(A) 50 (B) 5 10 (C) 3 10 (D) 30
Section - II
Non-Negative Integer Type Answer
1 1 1
71. 50 tan 3 tan 1 2 cos1
2
5 2
1
4 2 tan tan 2 2 is ____.
ˆ b 3iˆ 3jˆ kˆ and a c ˆi c ˆj c kˆ are coplanar vectors and a c 5, b c,
72. If a 2iˆ ˆj 3k, 1 2 3
x 2
2
x 0
73. If the value of lim 2 cos x cos 2x
x is _____.
y y y
74. Consider a differential equation x tan y sec 2 dx x sec 2 dy 0 with initial
x x x
y
condition y 1 , then the value of x tan is _____.
4 x
1
7
29 1 x 4 dx
0
75. The value of 1
______.
6
1 x
4
dx
0
____________________
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