Question Paper [CODE - 25250]

Common Test Part Test-5

12th NEET - Phase 1
KOTA

Date:15-Dec-2024 Duration: 3 Hours 20 Mins Max Marks: 720

 SYLLABUS

Biology
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants,Principles of Inheritance and Variation,Molecular Basis of
Inheritance,Organisms and Populations,Ecosystem,Biodiversity and its Conservation,Morphology of
Flowering Plants,Photosynthesis in Higher Plants,Respiration in Plants,Plant Growth and
Development,Human Reproduction,Reproductive Health,Evolution,Human Health and
Diseases,Microbes in Human Welfare,Biotechnology - Principles and Processes,Biotechnology and its
Application,Breathing and Exchange of Gases,Body Fluids and Circulation,Excretory Products and
their Elimination,Locomotion and Movement

Physics
Electrostatics,Current Electricity,Capacitance,Magnetism-1(Magnetic effect of current),Magnetism-
2,EMI,Alternating Current,EMW,Ray Optics,Wave Optics,Photoelectric effect(Modern-1),Matter Waves
(Modern-1),Atomic Structure(Modern-1),Nuclear Physics(Modern-2),Semi Conductor (Modern-
2),Logic Gates (Modern-2),One- D motion,Motion in plane,NLM Friction,Rotational
Motion,Calorimeter (Heat-1),Heat Transfer (Heat-1),KTG (Heat-2),Thermodynamics (Heat-2)

Chemistry
Chemical Kinetics,Electrochemistry,Liquid Solution,Chemical Bonding(11th and 12th),Coordination
Chemistry,D&F Block Element,P Block Element,Salt Analysis,Optical Isomerism IUPAC,GOC - II
Hydrocarbon and Halogen Derivative,Oxygen Containing Compound_I,Oxygen Containing
Compound_II Nitrogen Containing Compound,Biomolecule,GOC – I,Thermodynamics &
Thermochemistry,Redox Reaction,Chemical Equilibrium,Ionic Equilibrium,Periodic Properties
 BIOLOGY

1. Which statement is incorrect ? 6. Select the correct statement for ADA gene
theory-
(1) Intine is the inner wall of pollen grain and
exhibit fascinating array of patterns and designs (1) Lymphocytes are not immortal, the patient
(2) The mature pollen grains has two cells, require periodic infusion of such genetically
the bigger is vegetative cell and the smaller engineered lymphocytes.
is generative cell which floats in cytoplasm (2) Enzyme is useful for maintenance of RBC
of vegetative cell membranes.
(3) Carrot grass pollens cause pollen allergy (3) Gene isolated from bone marrow cells
producing ADA introduced into cells at early
(4) Pollen grains of pea and rose maintain embryonic stage could be a temporary Cure.
viability for months.
(4) Both (1) and (3)
2. Mendel's law apply only when -
7. Natality refers to :
(1) In monohybrid cross shows two types of
individuals (1) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(2) The characters are linked (2) Birth rate
(3) Parents are pure breeding (3) Death rate
(4) First pair of contrasting character is (4) Number of individuals entering a habitat
dependent upon other pairs
3. Assume that there are 6 types of nitrogen bases 8. Consider the pyramid of energy of an ecosystem
available and 40 types of amino acid are available given below:
for protein synthesis, then in genetic code each
codon made up by minimum how many nitrogen
bases?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
If T4 is equivalent to 1000 J, what is the value at
(4) 2 T1:
4. Read the following statements regarding cytokinin (1)
10000
J
10
–
(2)
10000
4J
i) Kinetin occurs naturally in plants 10

ii) Kinetin was discovered from coconut milk (3) 10,000 J

iii) Zeatin does not occur naturally in plants
iv) Zeatin was isolated from human DNA (4) 10,00,000 J
How many of the statements are incorrect – 9. What is biodiversity reffered to as ?
(1) 1 (1) Species in a region
(2) 2 (2) Genes and species in region
(3) 3 (3) Genetic, species and ecological diversity in a
(4) 4 region
(4) Genes and species in an ecosystems
5. Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic
engineering to form-
(1) DNA Designing
(2) Amplification of DNA fragment
(3) Recombinant molecules of DNA
(4) Joining two DNA segments
10. Choose the given statement which is suitable for 13. Match the columns I and II, and choose the
following figure correct combination from the options given.
Column-I Column-II
The cells of this region are Region of
a. very small, thin walled and i. meristematic
with dense protoplasm. activity
The cells of this region
Region of
b. undergo rapid elongation and ii.
elongation
enlargement
The cells of this region
Region of
c. gradually differentiates and iii.
maturation
mature
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
14. Match the columns I, II and III and choose the
correct combination from the options given.
Column- Column-
(1) It comprises of primary & secondary root I
Column-II
III
(2) Such roots are observed in mustard
a. i. Parallel venation K. Dicots
(3) These roots are replace by large number of
root
(4) 1 & 2 both
11. Read the following statements : b. ii. Reticulate venation L. Neem
(i) Stem develops from the plumule of spore
(ii) Stem bears nodes and internodes
(iii) The region of stem where leaves are borne
are internodes Pinnately compound Slik
c. iii. M.
(iv) The stem bears terminal or axillary buds leaf Cotton
(v) Some stems performs the function of storage
of food, support, protection and vegetative
propagation.
How many of the above statements are correct? Palmately compound
d. iv. N. Monocots
leaf
(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four (1) a-iii-M, b-ii-K, c-iv-L, d-i-N

(4) Five (2) a-iv-M, b-i-N, c-iii-L, d-ii-K

12. Which of the following is true for different types (3) a-iii-L, b-i-N, c-iv-M, d-ii-K
of phyllotaxy:
(4) a-iv-M, b-ii-K, c-iii-L, d-i-N
15. How many plants among China rose, Ocimum,
sunflower, mustard, Alstonia, guava, Calotropis
and Nerium (Oleander) have alternate phyllotaxy
?
(1) Two
(2) Three
A B C (3) Four
(1) A–Opposite, B–Whorled, C– Alternate
(4) Five
(2) A–Whorled, B–Opposite, C– Alternate
(3) A–Alternate, B–Opposite, C–Whorled
(4) A–Opposite, B–Alternate, C– Whorled
16. The term staminode is applied to : 20. Identify the correct set of statements:
(a) Increases in incident light beyond a point
(1) Immature stamen
cause the breakdown of chlorophyll and a
(2) Sterile stamen decrease in photosynthesis.
(b) The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is a 3-
(3) Both of 1 and 2 C molecule phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) and is
(4) None of these present in bundle sheath cells.
(c) To make one molecule of glucose, 6 turns of
17. Which of the following statements is true? calvin cycle are required.
(1) The protons accumulate towards outer side of (d) The regeneration step require two ATP for
membrane in photosynthesis phosphorylation to form RuBP.
Choose the correct answer from options given
(2) The protons accumulate towards inner side
below:
(lumen) of thylakoid in respiration.
(3) The protons accumulate towards outer side of (1) a, b and c only
membrane of thylakoid in respiration (2) a and c only
(4) The proton accumulate towards inner side
(lumen) of thylakoids in photosynthesis (3) b and d only
18. Observe the given figure. Identify the different (4) a, b, c and d
stages labelled with alphabets by selecting the
correct option:- 21. Which of the following are required for the light
reaction of Photosynthesis?
A. CO2
B. O2
C. H2O
D. Chlorophyll
E. Light
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A, C, D and E only
(2) C, D and E only
(3) A and B only
(4) A, C and E only
22. Assertion :- Photorespiration is one of the
(1) A-Carboxylation, B-Regeneration, C-Reduction wasteful processes.
Reason :- In Photo respiration there is no
(2) A-Reduction, B-Decarboxylation, C-
synthesis of ATP and NADPH.
Regeneration
(3) A-Carboxylation, B-Reduction, C-Regeneration (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(4) A-Reduction, B-Carboxylation, C-Regeneration (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
19. The ‘law of limiting factors’ was given by _______ reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
in the year_______. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(1) Blackman, 1905 (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(2) Blackman, 1804 23. Except for plants in shade or in dense forests,
light is rarely a limiting factor in nature. This
(3) Engelmann, 1909
statement is supported by which of the following
(4) Warburg, 1920 facts?
(1) Light causes the excitation of chlorophyll
(2) Light causes the splitting of water
(3) Light saturation occurs at 10 percent of the
full sunlight
(4) Light causes the breakdown of chlorophyll at
low light intensity
24. Given below are two statements: 28. Statement -I : The complete oxidation of
one pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the
Statement-I: C3 plants respond to higher CO₂
Hydrogen atom, leaving 3 mole of CO2.
concentration by showing increased rates of
photosynthesis leading to higher productivity. Statement -II : In TCA cycle, isocitrate is
followed by three successive decarboxylation,
Statement-II : C4 plants respond to lower
leading to the formation of α–(alpha)
temperature and show higher rate of
ketoglutarate and then succinyl-CoA.
photosynthesis.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
In the light of the above statements, choose
incorrect.
the most appropriate answer from the options
given below: (2) Statement I is correct but statemnt II is
incorrect.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
incorrect.
correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect.
correct.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
29. Assertion :- The product of the first reaction of
correct.
the Kreb's cycle is citric acid, a six carbon
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are compound.
correct. Reason:- The first reaction of the Kreb's cycle is
25. Assertion :- Calculation of the net gain of ATP the condensation of acetyl CoA with oxaloacetate.
for every glucose molecule oxidised, is a
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
theoretical calculation.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Reason:- Owing breakdown of glucose sequential
orderly functioning of pathway is not necessary. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
30. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. correct combination from the options given
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. below.
Column-I Column-II
26. Assertion :- Fermentation accounts for only a
Electron
partial breakdown of glucose. Cytoplasm of the
(a) transport (i)
Reason:- In fermentation there is use of O2 so cell
system
final e– acceptor is any of the organic Inner
intermediate. (b) Glycolysis (ii) mitochondrial
Membrane
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
Partial breakdown
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (c) Fermentation (iii)
of glucose
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but Respiration Amphibolic
(d) (iv)
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. pathway pathway
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

27. In the balance sheet of fermentation, net gain (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
is:-
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(1) 12 ATP molecules
31. Assertion (A) : In areobic respiration, the role of
(2) 38 ATP molecules oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
Reason (R) : presence of oxygen is vital in
(3) 2 ATP molecules aerobic respiration as it drives the whole process
(4) 8 ATP molecules by removing hydrogen from the system as final
hydrogen acceptor.
(1) Both A and R are ture but, R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(2) A is true, but R is false.
(3) A is false, but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
32. Match List-I with List-II: 34. Below diagram shows the parallel line technique
which is used:-
List-I List-II
A. ETS Complex I I. NADH Dehydrogenase.
B. ETS Complex II II. Cytochrome bC1
C. ETS Complex III III. Cytochrome C oxidase
D. ETS Complex IV IV. Succinate Dehydrogenase
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (1) to ensure the germination of seeds.

(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) to detect the zone of elongation.

(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (3) to measure the growth rate

33. Identify the given figure: (4) to measure the length of plant
35. The given figure show –

(1) Figure shows geometric growth with

formula Lt = Lo + rt (1) Developmental heterophylly in buttercups
(2) Figure shows geometric growth with (2) Environmental heterophylly in larkspur
formula W1 = Wo ert
(3) Environmental heterophylly in buttercup
(3) Figure shows arithmetic growth with formula
Lt = Lo + rt ​ (4) Developmental heterophylly in Larkspur
(4) Figure shows arithmetic growth with formula
W1 = Wo ert
 BIOLOGY

36. Ethylene causes _(i)_ growth of seedling, swelling 41. Photorespiration is favoured by:
of axis and apical hook formation in _(ii)_
(1) Low light and high O2
seedling
(2) Low O2 and high CO2
(1) (i) - Horizontal, (ii) - Monocot
(3) Low temperature and high O2
(2) (i) - Vertical, (ii) - Dicot
(4) High O2 and Low CO2
(3) (i) - Horizontal, (ii) - Dicot
42. Match the column:
(4) (i) - Vertical, (ii) - Monocot
Column-I Column-II
37. Abscisic acid is useful in
Peripheral
(1) Cell division (a) membrane protein (i) Complex-III
of ATP synthase
(2) Seed development Pyruvate
(b) dehydrogenase (ii) F0
(3) Germination of peanut seeds complex
(4) Increasing length of stalks in grapes Integral
(c) membrane protein (iii) F1
38. Abscisic acid was independent discovered by of ATP synthase
three different researchers, and named as – Mitochondrial
(d) Cytochrome bc1 (iv)
matrix
(1) Inhibitor-A, abscission-III, dormin (1) (a) = (i),(b)= (ii),(c)= (iii),(d)= (iv)
(2) Inhibitor-C, abscission-II, dormane (2) (a) = (ii),(b)= (iv),(c)=(iii),(d)= (i)
(3) Inhibitor-B, abscission-II, dormin (3) (a) = (iii), (b)=(iv),(c)= (i),(d)= (ii)
(4) Inhibitor-B, abscission-II, dormane (4) (a) = (iii), (b)= (iv),(c)=(ii),(d)= (i)
39. Read the following statement about cellular 43. The genes C, M, P and S are linked, crossover
respiration : map distance determined by two point cross axis
(a) Fermentation doesn't requires O2 P–C = 7, S–M = 10, C–M = 8, S–C = 2 & P–S =
5. The relative positions of these four linked loci
(b) Kreb's cycle is also called as citric acid cycle are :
because 1st product is citric acid.
(1) PSCM
(c) Kangaroo Rat could utilise metabolic water,
released after oxidation of metabolic fuel. (2) SCPM
(d) Produces carbon skeleton to synthesize (3) PCSM
various organic compound like Fatty acids and
Amino acids. (4) SCMP

(e) 1-3 BPGA and DHAP are isomer of each 44. Given below are two statements:
other. Statement-I: Process of translation is easy to
conceptualise on the basis of complementarity.
(1) a and e statements are false. Statement-II: Nirenberg's cell-free system for
(2) a, c, d, e statements are true. protein synthesis finally helped the code to be
deciphered.
(3) a, c, and e statements are false.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) a, b, c & d statements are true. most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
40. CF0 is –
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(1) Embedded in chloroplast inner membrane
incorrect.
(2) Protruding on outer surface of chloroplast (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Protruding on inner surface of chloroplast
membrane (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct.
(4) None of these
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct.
45. A piece of gene used to hybridize with vector is 49. Match the column :-
called as-
Column-I Column-II
(1) Marker Obvious reasons
Nile Perch in
(I) (A) for biodiversity
(2) Gene of interest Lake victoria
conservation
(II) Narrowly utilitarian (B) Habitat destruction
(3) Palindrome
Main cause
(4) Nuclease (III) for biodiversity (C) High endemism
loss
46. Exploitation of patent biological resources of a (IV) hot spots (D) Alien species
country by another country is known as : (1) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
(1) biopatent (2) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
(2) biopiracy (3) I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
(3) biowar (4) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(4) all of these 50. Given below are some statements about plant
47. When will the population density increase, under growth regulators.
special conditions ? A. All GAs are acidic in nature.
When the number of : B. Auxins are antagonists to GAs.
(1) deaths exceeds number of births and also C. Zeatin was isolated from coconut milk.
number of emigrants equals number of
D. Ethylene induces flowering in Mango.
immigrants
(2) births plus number of immigrants equals E. Abscisic acid induces parthenocarpy.
number of deaths plus number of emigrants Choose the correct set of statements from the
(3) births plus number of emigrants is more than option given below:
the number of deaths plus number of immigrants
(1) A,C,D
(4) births plus number of immigrants is more
than the sum of number of deaths and number of (2) B, E
emigrants
(3) A,B,C
48. Humification is :
(4) B, D, E
(1) The accumulation of humus
(2) The breakdown of humus to release minerals
(3) The loss of nutrients from humus
(4) Breakdown of detritus into smaller fragments
 BIOLOGY

51. I. It is double layered and covers the lungs 55. Statement-I : Mechanisms of breathing vary
among different groups of animals.
II. Fluid between the layers reduces friction on
Statement-II : Animals which are found in
lung-surface
different habitats, having different levels of
III. Outer layer is in contact with thoracic wall organisations has different breathing
IV. Inner layer is in contact with lungs mechanisms.

The above features refer to – (1) Both statement I and II are correct

(1) Pericardium (2) Both statement I and II are incorrect

(2) Peritoneum (3) Statement I is correct and II incorrect

(3) Pleura (4) Statement II is correct and I is incorrect

(4) None 56. Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions

of respiratory rhythm centre by :
52. Match the following and mark the correct options:
(1) Reducing the duration of inspiration
Column- Column-II (Respiratory
I (Animal) organ) (2) Increasing the duration of inspiration only
(A) Earthworm (i) Moist cuticle
(3) First increasing and then reducing the
(B) Arthropods (ii) Gills
duration of expiration
(C) Fishes (iii) Lungs
(D) Birds/Reptiles (iv) Trachea (4) Increasing the duration of expiration only
(1) A = ii, B = i, C = iv, D = iii 57. How many statements are not correct-
(2) A = i, B = iv, C = ii, D = iii (A) Pharynx is common for air and food.
(B) Larynxes is modified form of trachea that are
(3) A = i, B = iii, C = ii, D = iv made up of cartilage.
(C) During swallowing of food, glottis covered by
(4) A = i, B = ii, C = iv, D = iii
a bony epiglottis to prevent entry of food into
53. Approximately, how much percentage of the larynxes.
oxygen in the blood is bound to haemoglobin (D) Branching network of bronchi, bronchioles,
from lung surface to tissue : and alveoli comprise the lungs
(1) 92% (1) 4

(2) 90% (2) 3

(3) 97% (3) 2

(4) 99. 5% (4) 1

54. Read the following four statements (a-d) : 58. Assertion :- In open circulatory system blood
is pumped by heart passes through large vessels
(a) Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers
into open spaces or body cavities called sinuses.
approximately 4mL of CO2 to the alveoli.
Reason :- This distribution of blood to different
(b) Every 100 mL of oxygenated blood delivers organs, is well regulated.
around 5 mL of O2 to the tissue.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(c) Nearly 20 − 25% of CO2 is transported by reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
blood plasma as bicarbonate. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(d) About 97% of O2 is transported by RBC in the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
blood. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
How many of the above statements are wrong? (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(1) Four 59. Which is not true for cardiac muscles
(2) Three (1) Presence of intercalated disc
(3) Two (2) Striated nature
(4) One (3) Involuntary
(4) Voluntary
60. Which of the following would have the same O2 64. Match the List-I with List-II
content?
List-I List-II
(1) Blood entering the lungs-Blood leaving the Bicuspid Between right
lungs. (a) (mitral) (i) atrium and right
valve ventricle
(2) Blood entering the right side of the heart -
Aortic Between left
blood leaving the right side of the heart (b) semilunar (ii) atrium and
(3) Blood entering the right side of the heart - valve left ventricle
blood leaving the left side of the heart Between right
(4) Blood entering the tissue capillaries -blood Tricuspid ventricle
(c) (iii)
valve and pulmonary
leaving the tissue capillaries artery
61. The part of conducting system present in Pulmonary Between left
ventricular wall of human heart is:- (d) semilunar (iv) ventricle and
valve aorta
(1) Sinoatrial node
Choose the correct answer from the options
(2) Atrioventricular node given below :

(3) Purkinje fibres (1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

(4) Internodal pathways (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

62. Heart failure means (3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

(1) When the heart stops beating (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

(2) When the heart muscle is suddenly damaged 65. Which of the following nitrogenous substance is
highly toxic
(3) The state of heart when it is not pumping
blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the Or
body If liver from body is removed then which
(4) Deposition of cholesterol in the lumen of component of blood increases
coronary artery (1) Urea
63. Which of the following is the diagramatic
representation of standard electrocardiogram (2) Uric acid
(ECG)? (3) Amino acid
(4) Ammonia
(1)
66. The diameter of afferent arteriole is more than
the diameter of efferent arteriole which helps in:–

(2) (1) Creating lower pressure in glomerulus

(2) More blood flow to efferent arteriole
(3) Creating higher pressure in glomerulus
(3)
(4) Tubular secretion
67. Which segment does not play a role in the
maintenance of pH and ionic balance of blood by
(4) selective secretion ?
(1) PCT
(2) Henle's loop
(3) DCT
(4) Collecting duct
68. How many statements are correct about counter 73. Identify correct statement:-
current mechanism.
(1) Muscle contraction is intiated by a signal sent
(a) The loop and vasa recta flow it in opposite
by PNS.
direction to form a counter current mechanism
(b) NaCl is transported by descending limb of (2) Junction between sensory neuron &
Henle’s loop which is exchanged by ascending sarcolemma is called neuromascular junction.
limb of vasa recta (3) Binding of Ca++ on subunit of troponin on
(c) Small amount of urea enter in the thin actin filaments helps in removing masking of
segments of the ascending limb of Henle’s active site for myosin.
(d) NaCl is returned to the interstitium by the (4) Utilizing energy from ATP hydrolysis, myosin
descending limb of vasa recta head binds to exposed actin binding sites on actin
(1) a and b are correct filament to form cross bridge.
74. Troponin is distributed at the regular intervals on
(2) b and c are correct the :
(3) a and c are correct (1) Tropomysin
(4) c and d are correct (2) F-actin
69. Statement-I : ADH facilitates water reabsorption (3) G-actin
from latter parts of the tubules thereby
preventing diuresis. (4) None
Statement-II : An decrease in body fluid volume 75. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D in given
can switch off of osmoreceptors and suppress the diagram and select the right option about them.
ADH release to complete the feedback.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
(2) Statement-I is false but the Statement-II is
true.
(3) Statement-I is true but the Statement-II is
false.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
70. Dialysis fluid contain all the constituents as in
plasma, except ______:
(1) Glucose
(2) NaCI
(3) Amino acids (1)
Part A Part B Part C Part D
(4) Urea
Pubis Femur Patella Tibia
71. Statement-I : A fall in glomerular blood (2)
pressure can activate the JG cells to release Part A Part B Part C Part D
Aldosterone. Ischium Tibia Fibulla Tarsals
Statement-II : An increase in blood flow to (3)
the ventricle of the heart can cause the release of Part A Part B Part C Part D
Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) which acts as Ischium Fibula Tibia Tarsals
vasodilator.
(4)
(1) Both statement I and II are correct. Part A Part B Part C Part D
Pubis Fibula Tibia Meta Tarsals
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II
is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct and Statement I
is incorrect.
72. Amoeboid movement is found in :-
(1) Limbs, Jaw
(2) Macrophages, Leucocytes
(3) Fallopian tube
(4) Tongue
76. The characteristics and an example of a synovial 80. AIDS can be transmitted by-
joint in humans is:-
(1) Hugging
Characteristics Examples
A. Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited (2) Handshake
Knee joint
movements
B. Fluid filled between two joints, provides (3) Courtship
Skull bones
cushion
C. Fluid filled synovial cavity between two Joint between atlas and (4) Blood transfusion
bones axis
81. Which of the following organic acid is produced by
D. Lymph filled between two bones, limited Gliding joint between
movement carpals the fermentation of sugar syrups by Aspergillus
(1) B niger and Mucor species?
(1) Gluconic acid
(2) A
(2) Lactic acid
(3) D
(3) Citric acid
(4) C
(4) Acetic acid
77. Which point is incorrect about Myasthenia gravis
disease? 82. Passage of effluents into oxidation tank is for:
(1) Neuromuscular junction is affected. (1) Primary treatment
(2) Auto-immune disorder (2) Secondary treatment
(3) Secretion of Neurotransmitter from nerve (3) Both (1) and (2)
terminal is reduced
(4) Tertiary treatment
(4) Can lead to fatigue, weakening and paralysis
of skeletal muscle 83. Which of the following is not a natural
78. Match List I with List II : contraceptive methods:

List-I List-II (1) Periodic abstinence

Adjacent vertebrae, (2) Coitus interruptus

A. Fibrous joints I.
limited movement
(3) Lactational amenorrhoea
Cartilaginous Humerus and pectoral
B. II. (4) M.T.P.
joints girdle, rotational
Skull, don’t allow any 84. The functional unit of testis is :-
C. Hinge joints III.
movement (1) Uriniferous tubules
Ball and socket (2) Malpighian tubules
D. IV. Knee, Help in locomotion
joints
(3) Seminiferous tubules
Choose the correct answer from the options give
below : (4) Acini or lobules
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV 85. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (1) Opening of vagina is often partially covered
by membrane called – hymen
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) Clitoris is a tiny finger like structure which lies
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV at upper junctions of labia majora
79. Match List – I with List – II : (3) Only myometrium undergo cyclic changes
during menstrual cycle
List – I List- II
(4) Cervical canal is called birth canal
A. Gene pool I. Stable within a generation
B. Genetic drift II. Change in gene frequency by chance
Transfer of genes into or out of
C. Gene flow III.
population
Gene
D. IV. Total number of genes and their alleles
frequency
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) А-ІIІ, В-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) А-IV, В-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) А-II, В-IIІ, С-IV, D-I

BIOLOGY
 BIOLOGY

86. Which sequence is correct into male genital 89. Which option is correct about antibiotics?
tract? (i) Antibiotics are chemical substances, which are
produced by some microbes and can kill or retard
(1) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis →
the growth of other disease-causing microbes
Vasa efferentia → Ejaculataory Duct → Urethra
only.
(2) Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Rete testis (ii) Penicillin is obtained by Alexander Fleming
→ Vas deferens → Ejaculataory Duct → Urethra
from mould Penicillium notatum.
(3) Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis (iii) Fleming. Chain and Florey were awarded the
→ Vas deferens → Ejaculataory Duct → Urethra Nobel Prize in 1945, for discovery of Penicillin.
(4) Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis (iv) Antibiotics have greatly improved our
→ Urethra → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory Duct capacity to treat deadly diseases
87. How many lobes are found in each breast : (v) Plague, whooping cough (kali khansi),
diphtheria (gal ghotu) and leprosy (kusht rog),
(1) 15-20 are deadly diseases which kill millions of people
all over the globe are treated by antibiotics.
(2) 30 − 40
(vi) Antibiotics also obtain from bacteria, fungi
(3) 10 − 12 and some other microbes.
(4) 5 − 8 (1) (i), (iii) and (vi) are incorrect

88. Read the following statements : (2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi) are correct
(a) Foams are usually used along with vaults to (3) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) are correct
increases the contraceptive efficiency.
(4) All statements are correct
(b) IUDs are inserted into the uterus through
vagina by doctors or expert nurses. 90. How many given statements are correct ?
(i) Microbes are diverse- protozoa, bacteria, fungi
(c) LNG-20 makes the uterus unsuitable for and microscopic plant viruses, viroids and also
implantation. prions that are proteinaceous infectious agents.
(d) IUDs are a ideal contraceptive devices for the (ii) Microbes like bacteria and many fungi can be
females who want to delay pregnancy and / or grown on nutritive media to form colonies, which
space children. cannot be seen by the naked eyes.
(iii) During growth, the LAB produce acids that
Select the correct option : coagulate and partially digest the milk lactose.
(1) (a) and (b) are correct (iv) A small amount of curd added to the fresh
milk as inoculum or starter contain millions of
(2) (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect lactic acid bacteria (LAB), which converting milk
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct to curd.
(v) Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) also improves its
(4) (a) and (d) are incorrect nutritional quality of curd by increasing vitamin
B2.
(vi) In our stomach too, the LAB play very
beneficial role in checking disease causing
microbes.
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) None of these
91. Choose the correct answer from the options given 94. Match List – I with List-II :
below
List-I List-II
Statement-I : The disease which are easily
transmitted from one person to another, are Maximum volume of air that
Residual
called infectious disease. A. I. can be breathed in after
volume
Statement-II : Infectious disease are very forced expiration
common and everyone of us suffers from these at
Volume of air inspired or
some time or other. Vital
B. II. expired during normal
Capacity
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are respiration
incorrect.
Expiratory Volume of air remaining in
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II C. III.
Capacity lungs after forcible expiration
is incorrect.
Tidal Total volume of air expired
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II D. IV.
volume after normal inspiration
is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Choose the correct answer from the options
correct. given below :
92. Match the list-I with List-II (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
List-I List-II
Selection of (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
pest resistant
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
varieties due
Adaptive
(a) (i) to excessive (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
radiation
use of
herbicides and 95. An ECG gives information of
pesticides
Bones of (1) Brain
Convergent forelimbs in
(b) (ii) (2) Ventricle
evolution man and
whale (3) Auricle
Wings of
Divergent
(c)
evolution
(iii) butterfly and (4) Both (2) and (3)
bird
Evolution by 96. Match List I with List II :
Darwin
(d) anthropogenic (iv)
Finches List I List II
action
Choose the correct answer from the options given Heart muscles are
A. P wave I.
below. electrically silent.
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i QRS Depolarisation of
B. II.
complex ventricles.
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
C. T wave III. Depolarisation of atria.
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Repolarisation of
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii D. T-P gap IV.
ventricles.
93. Select the sequence of steps in Respiration:- Choose the correct answer from the options given
(A) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2 ) across below:
alveolar membrane. (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(B) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
tissues.
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(C) Transport of gases by the blood.
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(D) Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric
air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is
released out.
(E) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic
reactions and resultant release of CO2 .
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) (D), (A), (C), (B), (E)
(2) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)
(3) (B), (C), (E), (D), (A)
(4) (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
97. How many statements are true and how many of 99. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
them are false about hemodialysis as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(a) Accumulation of urea in blood can be removed Reason (R).
by process called hemodialysis Assertion (A) : Osteoporosis is characterised by
(b) Blood is drained from a convenient vein is decreased bone mass and increased chances of
pumped into a dialysing unit after adding fractures.
anticoagulant like heparin. Reason (R) : Common cause of osteoporosis is
(c) The unit contain cellophane tube surrounded increased levels of estrogen.
around dialysing fluid the same having In the light of the above statements, choose the
composition of plasma and nitrogenous wastes most appropriate answer from the options given
(d) Porous cellophane tube allows the passage below :
molecules based on concentration gradient.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(1) a-T, b-F, c-T, d-F correct explanation of (A)
(2) a-T, b-F, c-F, d-F (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(3) a-T, b-T, c-F, d-T (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(4) a-T, b-F, c-F, d-T (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
98. How may statements correct about regulation of 100. Match List – I with List – II :
kidney functions.
(a) JG cells release renin which convert List- II (Type of
List – I (Location of Joint)
Joint)
angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin I and
Joint between humerus and
further to angiotensin-II. A. I. Gliding joint
pectoral girdle
(b) Angiotensin-II being a powerful vasodilater
Ball and Socket
which decrease the glomerular blood pressure B. Knee joint II.
joint
and GFR. C. Joint between atlas and axis III. Hinge joint
(c) ANF can causes vasodilation and there by D. Joint between carpals IV. Pivot joint
decrease the blood pressure. Choose the correct answer from the options given
(d) Aldosterone cause reabsorption of K+ and below:
water from the proximal part of the tubules
(1) А-ІІ, В-III, C-IV, D-I
(1) a and b are correct
(2) А-III, В-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) a and c are correct
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) a and d are correct
(4) А-II, В-І, С-III, D-IV
(4) b and c are correct
 PHYSICS

101. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In 105. Following figures show the arrangement of bar
which direction will it move? magnets in different configuration. Each magnet
→
has magnetic dipole moment m . Which
configuration has highest net magnetic dipole
moment ?

(1) towards the right as its potential energy will

increase.
(2) towards the left as its potential energy will (1) (c)
increase. (2) (d)
(3) towards the right as its potential energy will
(3) (a)
decrease.
(4) towards the left as its potential energy will (4) (b)
decrease.
106. The magnetic flux linked to a circular coil of
102. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted radius R is -
and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its ϕ = (2t
3
+ 4t
2
+ 2t + 5) Wb
new resistance will be
The magnitude of induced emf in the coil at
(1) nR t = 5 s is -

(2)
R

n
(1) 192 V

(3) 2
n R (2) 108 V

(4) R
2
(3) 197 V
n

103. In the following circuit, the equivalent (4) 150 V

capacitance between terminal A and terminal B is
107. A step down transformer connected to an ac
:
mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V,
44W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the
transformer, what is the current in the primary
circuit.
(1) 4A
(2) 0.2A

(1) 0. 5 μF (3) 0.4 A

(2) 4 μF (4) 2A

(3) 2 μF 108. The ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field

and electric field intensity of a plane
(4) 1 μF
electromagnetic wave in free space of
104. The incorrect relation for a diamagnetic material permeability μ0 and permittivity ε0 is (Given that
(all the symbols carry their usual meaning and ε c is the velocity of light in free space)-
is a small positive number) is: μ0 ε 0
(1) √
(1) μ < μ0 c

(2) c
(2) 0 ≤ μr < 1

(3) –1 ≤ χ < 0
(3) 1

(4)
c

(4) 1 < μr < 1 + ε μ0 ε 0

109. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a 114. The binding energy per nucleuon of 7
Li and
3
concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the 4
He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV,
object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm 2

towards the mirror, the displacement of the image respectively. In the nuclear reaction
He + Q, the value of
7 1 4 4
will be- 3
Li +
1
H →
2
He +
2

energy Q released is :-
(1) 30 cm away from the mirror
(1) 19.6 MeV
(2) 36 cm away from the mirror
(2) - 2.4 MeV
(3) 30 cm towards the mirror
(3) 8.4 MeV
(4) 36 cm towards the mirror
(4) 17.3 MeV
110. In a Young’s double slit experiment, a student
observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen 115. The truth table for the given logic circuit is :
when a monochromatic light of 600 nm
wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is
changed to 400 nm, then number of fringes he
would observe in the same region of the screen
is:
(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 12
(1)
(4) 6
111. When the energy of the incident radiation is
increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface
increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work
function of the metal is -
(1) 0.65 eV (2)
(2) 1.0 eV
(3) 1.3 eV
(4) 1.5 eV
112. If the momentum of an electron is changed by P,
then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it
changed by 0.5%. The initial momentum of (3)
electron will be -
(1) 200 P
(2) 400 P

(3)
P

200

(4) 100 P
(4)
113. Let R1 be the radius of the second stationary and
R2 be the radius of the fourth stationary orbit of
R1
an electron in Bohr’s model. The ratio R2
is :-

(1) 4 116. A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the

ground with a certain momentum P. If the same
(2) 0.25
stone is dropped from a height 100% more than
(3) 0.5 the previous height, the momentum when it hits
the ground will change by :
(4) 2
(1) 68%
(2) 41%
(3) 200%
(4) 100%
117. An energy of 484 J is spent increasing the speed 122. A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of 280
of a flywheel from 60 rpm to 360 rpm. The ms–1 in the direction 30° above the horizontal.
moment of inertia of the flywheel is :- The maximum height attained by the bullet is (g
= 9.8 ms–2 , sin 30° = 0.5) :
(1) 0. 07 kg − m
2

(1) 200 m
(2) 0. 7 kg − m
2

(2) 1000 m
(3) 3. 22 kg − m
2

(3) 3000 m
(4) 30. 8 kg − m
2

(4) 2800 m
118. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts
completely. Only one–quarter of the heat 123. Two rods A and B of different materials are
produced is observed by the ice and all energy of welded together as shown in figure. Their thermal
ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The conductivities are K1 and K2. The thermal
value of h is : conductivity of the composite rod will be
[Latent heat of ice is 3. 4 × 105 J/ kg and
g = 10 N/ kg]

(1) 34 km

(2) 544 km

3(K1 +K2 )
(3) 136 km (1) 2

(4) 68 km (2) K1 + K2

119. A vehicle travels half the distance with speed v (3) 2(K1 + K2 )
and the remaining distance with speed 2v . Its K1 +K2
average speed is : (4)
2

(1)
2v 124. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a
3
volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V
(2) 4v

3
and then adiabatically to a volume 16V. The final
pressure of the gas is : (take γ = 3 )
5

(3) 3v

(4) v
(1) 64P
3

120. In the diagram shown, the normal reaction force (2) 32P
between 2 kg and 1 kg is (Consider the surface,
(3)
P

to be smooth) : Given g = 10 ms−2 64

(4) 16P
125. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any
time are x = 5t – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively,
where x and y are in meters and t in seconds.
The acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is
(1) 0

(2) 5m/s
2

(1) 10 N
(3) – 4 m/s
2

(2) 25 N
(4) – 8 m/s
2

(3) 39 N
126. The molecules of a given mass of a gas have
(4) 6 N r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms
−1
at 27°C and
121. A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume
5
1. 0 × 10 Nm
−2
pressure. When the temperature
V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127°C
The mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which and 0. 05 × 10 Nm , the r.m.s. velocity of its
5 −2

of the following gives the density of the gas? molecules in ms−1 is :

(1) P
(1) 100√2
kTV

(2) mkT (2)

400

√3

(3) P
100√2
kT
(3) 3
(4)
Pm

kT
(4) 100

3
127. In thermodynamic processes which of the 131. Two rods are connected as shown. The rods are
following statement is not true of same length and same cross sectional area. In
steady state, the temperature (θ) of the interface
(1) In an adiabatic process PV γ = constant
will be -
(2) In an adiabatic process the system is
insulated from the surroundings
(3) In an isochoric process pressure remains
constant
(4) In an isothermal process the temperature
remains constant (1) 60°C
128. A particle shows position-time curve as given in
this figure. The maximum instantaneous velocity (2) 73.3°C
of the particle is around the point :- (3) 46.7°C
(4) 37.3°C
132. A thermodynamic system is taken through the
cyle ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected by
the gas during the cycle is :-

(1) D
(2) A
(3) B
(4) C (1) 2PV
129. If amount of heat supplied is Δ Q work done is Δ (2) 4PV
W and change in internal energy is mCV dT. Than
the relation among them is & (Cv = gm specific (3)
1
PV
2
heat)
(4) PV
(1) mCV dT = Δ Q + Δ W
133. Match Column-I and Column-II and choose the
(2) Δ Q = Δ W + mCV dT correct match from the given choices.
(3) Δ Q + mCV dT = Δ W Column-I
(A) Root mean square speed of gas molecules
(4) Δ Q + mCV dT = Δ U
(B) Pressure exerted by ideal gas
130. According to the law of equipartition of energy,
(C) Average kinetic energy of a molecule
the number of vibrational modes of a polyatomic
gas of constant γ =
Cp
is (where Cp and Cv are (D) Total internal energy of 1mole of a diatomic
Cv
gas
the specific heat capacities of the gas at constant
pressure and constant volume, respectively): Column-II
4+3γ (P) 1
nm v̄
2

(1) γ−1
3

(2)
3+4γ
(Q) √
3 RT

M
γ−1

4–3γ
(3) γ−1
(R) 5

2
RT

3–4γ
(4) (S) 3
kB T
γ−1 2

(1) (A→R), (B→Q), (C→P), (D→S)

(2) (A→R), (B→P), (C→S), (D→Q)
(3) (A→Q), (B→R), (C→S), (D→P)
(4) (A→Q), (B→P), (C→S), (D→R)
134. One mole of monoatomic gas is brought from (3) 4T0
state A to state B. The initial temperature at A is
T0. The temperature at B will (4) 9T0
135. If the root mean square velocity of hydrogen
molecule at a given temperature and pressure is
2 km/s, the root mean square velocity of oxygen
at the same condition in km/s is :
(1) 1.0
(2) 1.5
(3) 2.0
(1) 3T0
(4) 0.5
(2) 6T0
 PHYSICS

136. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as 139. A system consists of three masses m1 , m2 and
shown in the figure. The coefficient of static m3 connected by a string passing over a pulley P.
friction between the block and the cart is μ. The The mass m1 hangs freely m2 and m3 are on a
acceleration α of the cart that will prevent the rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction
block from falling satisfies- = μ). The pulley is frictionless and is of negligible

mass. The downward acceleration of mass m1

is (Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)

g
(1) α <
μ

mg
(2) α >
μ g(1−2μ)

g (1)
(3) α >
μm
9

2gμ
g (2)
(4) α ≥
μ
3

g(1−2μ)

137. An automobile moves on a road with a speed of (3) 3

. The radius of its wheels is 0 .45 m and

−1
g(1−2μ)
54 kmh
(4)
the moment of inertia of the wheel about its axis 2

of rotation is 3 kgm . If the vehicle is brought to

2
140. The quantities of heat required to raise the
rest in 15s, the magnitude of average torque temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii
transmitted by its brakes to wheel is : r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the
ratio :
(1) 2 .86 kg
2
m s
−2

(1)
3

2
(2) 6 .66 kg
2
m s
−2

(2)
5

(3) 8 .58 kg
2
m s
−2 3

(3)
27

(4) 10 .86 kg m s
2 −2 8

(4)
9

138. Two rods of equal length and area of cross- 4

section are kept parallel and lagged between 141. Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the
temperatures 20°C and 80°C. The ratio of the opposite ends of a rigid rod of length L, and
effective thermal conductivity to that of the first negligible mass. The rod is to be set rotating
rod is (the ratio of
K1
:
3
) :- about an axis perpendicular to it. The position of
K2 4
point P on this rod through which the axis should
(1) 7 : 4 pass so that the work required to set the rod
rotating with angular velocity ω0 is minimum, is
(2) 7 : 3
given by:
(3) 7 : 6

(4) 7 : 8

m1 L
(1) x =
m1 +m2

m1
(2) x =
m2
L

m2
(3) x =
m1
L

m2 L
(4) x =
m1 +m2
142. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined 146. A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest
wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. is free to turn about an axis which is
The wedge is given an acceelration 'a' towards perpendicular to its plane and passes through its
the right. The relation between a and θ for the centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces
block to remain stationary on the wedge is - a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s-2. Its
net acceleration in ms-2 at the end of 2.0 s is
approximately:
(1) 8.0
(2) 7.0
(3) 6.0
(4) 3.0
(1) a = g cos θ 147. At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen
g
molecules become just sufficient for escape from
(2) a =
sinθ
the Earth's atmosphere? (Given : Mass of oxygen
molecule kg, Boltzmann's
g −26
(3) a =
cosec θ
(m) =2. 76×10

constant kB = 1. 38 × 10
−23
JK
−1
)
(4) a = g tan θ

(1)
4
5. 016 × 10 K
143. A cylindrical metallic rod in thermal contact with
two reservoirs of heat at its two ends conducts an (2) 8. 360 × 10
4
K
amount of heat Q in time t. The metallic rod is
(3)
4
melted and the material is formed into a rod of 2. 508 × 10 K

half the radius of the original rod. What is the (4) 1. 254 × 10
4
K
amount of heat conducted by the new rod, when
placed in thermal contact with the two reservoirs 148. 4. 0 g of a gas occupies 22. 4 litres at NTP. The
in time t ? specific heat capacity of the gas at constant
volume is 5. 0 JK . If the speed of sound
−1 −1
Q
mol
(1) 2 in this gas at NTP is 952 ms−1 , then the heat
Q capacity at constant pressure is (Take gas
(2)
constant R = 8. 3 JK )
4 −1 −1
mol
Q
(3)
(1)
−1 −1
16 8. 0 JK mol
(4) 2Q
(2)
−1 −1
7. 5 JK mol
144. At constant pressure hydrogen is having
(3)
−1 −1
7. 0 JK mol
temperature of 327 °C. Till what temperature it is
to be cooled so that the rms velocity of its (4) 8. 5 JK
−1
mol
−1

molecules becomes half of the earlier value :-

149. If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black
(1) –123°C body, what would be the temperature of the star,
in which the rate of energy production is Q?(σ
(2) 123°C
is stefan's constant)
(3) –100°C (1) (4πR2Q/σ)1/4
(4) 0°C (2) (Q/4πR2σ)1/4
145. A particle moves a distance x in time t according (3) Q/4πR2σ
to equation x = (t + 5)−1. The acceleration of
particle is proportional to :- (4) (Q/4πR2σ)−1/2
(1) (Velocity)3/2
(2) (Distance)2
(3) (Distance)−2
(4) (Velocity)2/3
150. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g (1)
1
kg
12
is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A
(2)
1

mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm 2

kg

and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended (3)

1
kg
from the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the 3

(4)
1
figure. Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is 6
kg

in equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2 )
 CHEMISTRY

151. For an adiabatic process which of the following 156. Heat of neutralisation of strong acid and strong
relations is correct - base is 57.1kJ. Calculate the heat produced when
0.25 mole of HCl is neutralised with 0.25 mole of
(1) ΔE = 0
NaOH in aqueous solution–
(2) PΔV = 0
(1) 22.5 kJ
(3) q = 0
(2) 57 kJ
(4) q = + W
(3) 14.275 kJ
152. If in the reaction N2O4(g)⇌2NO2(g), α is the part
(4) 28.55 kJ
of N2O4 which dissociates then the number of
moles at equilibrium will be- 157. For the reaction, CO(g)+Cl2(g) ⇌ COCl2(g) the KP :
Kc is equal to
[Given : Initial mole of N2O4 is 1]
(1) 3 (1) √RT

(2) RT
(2) 1
(3) 1/RT
(3) (1− α)2
(4) 1.0
(4) (1 + α)
158. Which one of following is strongest Bronsted-
153. The pH of the solution produced by mixing equal
Lowry base :-
volume of 2.0×10–3 M HClO4 and 1.0×10–2 M
KClO4 is :- (1) ClO−
(1) 2.7 (2) ClO2−
(2) 2.3 (3) ClO3−
(3) 3.0 (4) ClO4−
(4) 1.0 159. The electronic configuration for Neodymium is :
154. Which of the following is not isoelectronic series ? [Atomic Number for Neodymium 60]
(1) Cl–, P3–, Ar (1) [Xe] 5f7 7s2
(2) N3–, Ne, Mg+2 (2) [Xe] 4f6 6s2
(3) B+3, He, Li+ (3) [Xe] 4f4 6s2
(4) N3–, S2–, Cl– (4) [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2
155. STATEMENT-1 : ΔH and ΔE are the same for the 160. 100 ml of 0.2 N oxalic acid titrate against 0.1 N
reaction, N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g), KMnO4 in acidic medium find volume of KMnO4
required
STATEMENT-2 : All reactants and products are
gases where all gases are ideal (1) 200 ml
(1) If both the statement are TRUE and (2) 100 ml
STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-I (3) 50 ml
(2) If both the statement are TRUE but (4) None of these
STATEMENT-2 is NOT the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1 161. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl
substituted amines in aqueous solution is :
(3) If STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is
FALSE (1) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
(4) If STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is (2) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
TRUE
(3) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
(4) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
162. The correct IUPAC name of following compounds 167. The enthalpy of formation of ammonia is –46.0 kJ
is mol–1. The enthalpy change for the reaction
2NH3(g) → 2N2(g) + 3H2(g) is
(1) –46.0 kJ mol–1
(2) –138.0 kJ mol–1
(3) –92.0 kJ mol–1
(4) –23.0 kJ mol–1
(1) 4-Aminomethyl-6-hydroxycyclohex-2-en-1-oic
acid 168. Which of the following set of isomerism is wrong
(2) 3-Aminomethyl-6-carboxycyclohex-4-en-1-ol ?
−
(3) 4-Aminomethyl-6-hydroxycyclohex-2-ene-1- (1) cis − [Co (gly)
2
Cl2 ] – Optical isomerism
carboxylic acid +

(4) 4-Aminomethyl-2-hydroxycyclohex-5-ene-1- (2) [Zn (NH3 )

3
Cl] – Geometrical isomerism
carboxylic acid (3) [Fe (H2 O) ] Cl3 – Hydrate isomerism
6
163. Following reaction describes the rusting of iron
(4) [Co (en) (NCS) ] Cl
2 2
– Linkage isomerism
3+ 2−
4Fe + 3O2 → 4 Fe + 6O
169. Which of the following orders is correct for
Which one of the following statement is incorrect? hyperconjugation of these radicals?
(1) This is an example of a redox reaction
(2) Metallic iron is reduced to Fe3+
(3) Fe3+ is an oxidising agent
(4) Metallic iron is a reducing agent
(1) P > Q > R
164. Which one of the following conditions will favour
maximum formation of the product in the (2) R > Q > P

reaction? (3) Q > P > R

A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ X2(g) ; Δ H = – X kJ (4) P > R > Q

(1) High temperature and high pressure

170. What is the change in entropy when 2.5 mole of
(2) Low temperature and low pressure water is heated from 27oC to 87oC?

(3) Low temperature and high pressure Assume that the heat capacity is constant.

(4) High temperature and low pressure (Cp,m (H2O)=4.2 J/g-K, ln (1.2) = 0.18)
(1) 16.6 J/K
165. How much volume of 0.2 N solution of acetic acid
should be added to 100 ml of 0.2 M solution of (2) 9 J/K
sodium acetate to prepare a buffer solution of pH
5.00 and PKa for CH3COOH is 4.7 :- (3) 34.02 J/K

(1) 100 ml (4) 1.89 J/K

(2) 50 ml 171. Solubility product of AgCl at 100ºC is 1.44 ×

10−4, solubility of AgCl in boiling water may be-
(3) 145 ml
(1) 0.72 × 10−4 M
(4) 55 ml
(2) 1.20 × 10−2 M
166. Correct order of electronegativity :
(3) 0.72 × 10−2 M
(1) CH ≡ CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH3
(4) 1.20 × 10−4 M
(2) CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH3 > CH ≡ CH

(3) CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH ≡ CH

(4) CH ≡ CH > CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2

172. Which of the following shows optical isomerism 178. Which of the following sets of elements has
maximum electronegativity :
(1) N, O, F
(1)
(2) P, S, Cl
(3) As, Se, Br
(4) Sb, Te, I
(2)
179. A glass rod dipped in ammonia solution is brought
near the mouth of the HCl gas, then:
(1) Deep red flame of ammonium chloride
(3) appears
(2) Dense white fumes of ammonium chloride
appear
(3) no reaction occurs
(4) All of these
(4) Both 1 and 2
173. The number of unpaired electrons in Mn4+ (Z =
25) is - 180. For the following reaction SO2Cl2(g) ⇌ SO2(g) +
(1) Four Cl2(g) at equilibrium if volume of container is
increase then at new equilibrium-
(2) Two
(1) Quantity of SO2(g) decreases
(3) Five
(2) Quantity of SO2Cl2 increases
(4) Three
(3) Quantity of Cl2(g) increases
174. An unknown compound A dissociates at 500ºC to
give products as follows – (4) Quantity of Cl2(g) unchanged

A(g)⇌B(g)+C(g) 181. In the reaction:

Vapour density of the equilibrium mixture is 50 xCuSO4 + yKI → Cu2I2 + I2 + K2SO4

when it dissociates to the extent to 10%. What The value of x and y are respectively :-
will be the molecular weight of compound A ?
(1) 2, 2
(1) 120
(2) 1, 2
(2) 110
(3) 2, 4
(3) 130
(4) 4, 2
(4) 100
182. (i) O3

175. Which of the following element is most reactive ? 2-hexene −−−−→ Products
(ii) H2 O

(1) Chlorine
The two products formed in above reaction are -
(2) Fluorine
(1) Butanal and acetaldehyde
(3) Bromine
(2) Butanal and acetic acid
(4) Iodine
(3) Butanoic acid and acetaldehyde
176. Which of the following salt is formed by weak acid
and weak base - (4) Butanoic acid and acetic acid

(1) CH3COONa
(2) CH3COONH4
(3) KCl
(4) Na2CO3
177. 10 mL of 0.1 N HCl is added to 990 mL solution of
NaCl. The pH of the resulting solution is
(1) zero
(2) 3
(3) 7
(4) 10
183. Which of the following is correct structure of α - 184. Match List I with List II
anomer of maltose :
List-II
List-I
(Orientation in
(Hybridization)​
Space)
(1) Trigonal
A sp3 I.
bipyramidal
2
B. dsp II. Octahedral
3
C. sp d III. Tetrahedral
Square
(2) D. sp3d2 IV.
planar
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3)
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4)
185. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Fluorine has most negative
electron gain enthalpy in its group.
Statement II : Oxygen has least negative
electron gain enthalpy in its group.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate from the options given
below
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
 CHEMISTRY

186. 20 moles of liquid A are mixed with 20 moles of 189. The lattice energy of NaCl is –780 KJ mol–1. The
liquid B to form an ideal binary solution. Calculate enthalpies of hydration of Na+ and Cl(g) ions are
–

(g)
moles of A in liquid state when half of the solution
–406 KJ mol–1 and –364 KJ mol–1. The enthalpy
has vaporized.
of solution of NaCl(s) is
∘ ∘

(1) 738 KJ mol–

(Given : P = 100 torr, P = 121 torr)
A B

(1) 11

21
(2) 10 KJ mol–1
(2) 110

21
(3) –10 KJ mol–1
(3) (4) –822 KJ mol–1
200

21

(4) 190. Which set represent 1st order reactions out of (I),
220

21
(II) and (III)
187. In which of the following processes entropy
increases?
A. A liquid evaporates to vapour (I)
B. Temperature of a crystalline solid lowered from
130 K to 0 K
C. 2 NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(g)
D. Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g) (II)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A, C and D
(2) C and D (III)

(3) A and C
(4) A, B and D where a = initial amount of reactant and x =
188. Match the column : amount of product at time t

Column-II (1) I, II and III

Column-I
(periodic (2) I and II
(elements)
properties)
(3) II and III
Maximum
(A) F (P) ionization (4) I and III

energy 191. 50 litre of a solution containing 10−5 mole of Ag+

Maximum is mixed with 50 litre of a 2×10−7 M HBr solution.
(B) Cl (Q) [Ag+] in resultant solution is: [Given :
electronegativity
Ksp(AgBr)= 5×10−13]
Maximum
(C) Fe (R) (1) 10−5M
electron affinity
Variable (2) 10−6M
(D)He (S)
oxidation state (3) 10−7M
(1) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P (4) 10−8M
(2) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S 192. − − +
2 IO + xI + 12H → 6I2 + 6H2 O
3

(3) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P

What is the value of x ?
(4) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S (1) 12
(2) 10
(3) 2
(4) 6
193. The reaction 197. In which of the following the two species have
maximum difference in value of spin only
1

2
H2 (g) + AgCl(s) ⇌ magnetic moment:
H
+
(aq) + Cl
−
(aq) + Ag(s) (1) Mn+3, Fe+3

occurs in which of the given galvanic cell. (2) Cr+, Mn+3

(1)
n
Pt |H2 (g) |HCl (sol ) |AgNO
3
n
(sol )| Ag (3) Zn+2, Pd+2

(2)
n
Pt |H2 (g) |HCl (sol ) |AgCl (s)| Ag (4) V+3, Mn+2

(3)
n
Pt |H2 (g) |KCl (sol ) |AgCl (s)| Ag 198. The compound that does not undergo Friedel-
Crafts alkylation reaction but given a positive
(4)
n
Ag |AgCl(s)| KCl(sol )
carbylamines test is :
194. A quantity of PCl5 was heated in a 10 L vessel at (1) aniline
525 K.
(2) pyridine
PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g)+Cl2(g)
(3) N-methylaniline
At equilibrium, the vessel contains 0.10 mol of
PCl5, 0.20 mol of PCl3 and 0.20 mol of Cl2. The (4) triethylamine
equilibrium constant for the reaction is :
199. In the following reaction
(1) 0.04
4P + 3KOH + 3H2O →3KH2PO2 + PH3
(2) 0.4
(1) Only phosphorus is oxidised
(3) 0.02
(2) Only phosphorous is reduced
(4) 0.05
(3) Phosphorus is both oxidised and reduced
195. When the following reaction was carried out in a
(4) Phosphorus is neither oxidised nor reduced
bomb calorimeter, ΔU is found to be –740.0
kJ/mol of NH2CN(s) at 300 K. 200. The vapour density of undecomposed N2O4 is 46.
When heated in a closed container vapour
NH2CN(s) + O2(g) → N2(g) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
3

2 density decreases to 24.5 due to dissociation. The

Calculate Δ H300K for the reaction. % dissociation of N2O4 at the equilibrium is

(1) –738.75 kJ (1) 87

(2) +738.75 kJ (2) 60

(3) –824.75 kJ (3) 40

(4) –919.57 kJ (4) 70

196. The 0.001 M solution of Mg(NO3)2 is adjusted to

pH 9, Ksp of Mg(OH)2 is 8.9×10–12. At this pH
(1) Mg(OH)2 will be precipitated
(2) Mg(OH)2 is not precipitated
(3) Mg(OH)3 will be precipitated
(4) Mg(OH)3 is not precipitated