02/12/2023 Test-1_Code-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 300 Archive Test Series-2024_T01 (Code-A) Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Unit & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion, Work, Energy & Power
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements & Periodicity in Properties,
Chemical Bonding & Molecular Structure
Mathematics : Basics of mathematics, Trigonometric Functions (complete), Quadratic Equations, Complex Numbers
(complete), Linear Inequalities, Sequence & Series

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

i. Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
ii. Section-II : This section contains 10 numerical value based questions. In Section-II, attempt any five questions out
of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer. CC-034

1
Archive Test Series-2024_T01 (Code-A)

PHYSICS

Section-I

1. Identify the pair of physical quantities that 4. An engine of a train, moving with uniform
have same dimensions acceleration, passes the signal-post with
(1) Velocity gradient and decay constant velocity u and the last compartment with
velocity v. The velocity with which middle
(2) Wien's constant and Stefan constant
point of the train passes the signal post is
(3) Angular frequency and angular −− −−−
(1) 2
v −u
2

momentum √
2

(4) Wave number and Avogadro number

(2) v−u

2
−−−−−
2. A particle which is experiencing a force, (3) 2
v +u
2

√
→ → → 2

given by F = 3 i − 12 j , undergoes a (4) u+v

→ → 2

displacement of d = 4 i . If the particle

had a kinetic energy of 3 J at the beginning
of the displacement, what is its kinetic 5. Figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) show variation of
energy at the end of the displacement? force with time
(1) 15 J
(2) 9 J
(3) 12 J
(4) 10 J

3. In the cube of side ‘a’ shown in the figure,

the vector from the central point of the face
ABOD to the central point of the face BEFO CC-034
will be

The impulse is highest in

(1) Fig. (d)
(2) Fig. (c)
(3) Fig. (b)
(4) Fig. (a)

(1) 1 ˆ ˆ
a( j − i )
2

(2) 1 ˆ ˆ
a( i − k)
2

(3) 1 ˆ ˆ
a( j − k)
2

(4) 1 ˆ ˆ
a( k − i )
2

2
Archive Test Series-2024_T01 (Code-A)

6. A balloon is moving up in air vertically above 9. A block of mass 10 kg is kept on a rough

a point A on the ground. When it is at a inclined plane as shown in the figure. A
height h1 , a girl standing at a distance d force of 3 N is applied on the block. The
(point B) from A (see figure) sees it at an coefficient of static friction between the plane
angle 45° with respect to the vertical. When and the block is 0.6. What should be the
the balloon climbs up a further height h2 , it is minimum value of force P, such that the
seen at an angle 60° with respect to the block does not move downward?
vertical if the girl moves further by a distance (take g = 10 ms–2 )
2.464 d (point C). Then the height h2 is
(given tan30° = 0.5774)

(1) 25 N
(2) 32 N
(3) 18 N
(4) 23 N

10. A plane is inclined at an angle α = 30° with

(1) d
respect to the horizontal. A particle is
(2) 0.732 d projected with a speed u = 2 ms–1 , from the
(3) 1.464 d base of the plane, making an angle θ = 15°
(4) 0.464 d with respect to the plane as shown in the
figure. The distance from the base, at which
the particle hits the plane is close to
7. The velocity-time graph of a body moving in (Take g = 10 ms–2 )
a straight line is shown in figure
CC-034

(1) 18 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 14 cm
The ratio of displacement to distance (4) 26 cm
travelled by the body in time 0 to 10 s is
(1) 1 : 4 11. Three blocks A, B and C are lying on a
(2) 1 : 2 smooth horizontal surface, as shown in the
figure. A and B have equal masses, m while
(3) 1 : 3
C has mass M. Block A is given an initial
(4) 1 : 1 speed ν towards B due to which it collides
with B perfectly inelastically. The combined
mass collides with C, also perfectly
8. Amount of solar energy received on the 5
earth’s surface per unit area per unit time is inelastically. 6 th of the initial kinetic energy
defined as solar constant. Dimension of is lost in whole process. What is value of
solar constant is M/m?
(1) ML2 T–2
(2) MLT–2
(3) M2 L0 T–1
(1) 3
(4) ML0 T–3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

3
Archive Test Series-2024_T01 (Code-A)

12. The diameter and height of a cylinder are 16. Two particles A and B start moving with
–
measured by a meter scale to be 12.6 ± 0.1 constant velocities 4√3 m/s and 4 m/s
cm and 34.2 ± 0.1 cm, respectively. What will respectively in
be the value of its volume in appropriate xy-plane as shown in figure. Minimum
significant figures? separation between the particles will be
(1) 4264 ± 81 cm3
(2) 4300 ± 80 cm3
(3) 4260 ± 80 cm3
(4) 4264.4 ± 81.0 cm3
(1) 60 m
(2) 40 m
13. Two particles A, B are moving on two (3) –
40√3m
concentric circles of radii R 1 and R 2 with
equal angular speed ω. At t = 0, their (4) 80
m
√3+1
positions and direction of motion are shown
in the figure
17. A particle moves in one dimension from rest
under the influence of a force that varies with
the distance travelled by the particle as
shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of the
particle after it has travelled 3 m is

The relative velocity

→ → π CC-034
v A − v B at t = 2ω
is given by
(1) ˆ
ω( R2 – R1 ) i
(1) 4 J
(2) ˆ
ω( R1 – R2 ) i
(2) 2.5 J
(3) ˆ
– ω( R1 + R2 ) i (3) 5 J
(4) ˆ
(4) 6.5 J
ω( R1 + R2 ) i

18. The boxes of masses 2 kg and 8 kg are

14. A spring whose unstretched length is l has a connected by a massless string passing
force constant k. The spring is cut into two over smooth pulleys. Calculate the time
pieces of unstretched lengths l1 and l2 taken by box of mass 8 kg to strike the
where, l1 = nl2 and n is an integer. The ratio ground from rest. (use g = 10 m/s2 )
k1 /k2 of the corresponding force constants,
k1 and k2 will be
(1) n2
(2) 1
2
n

(3) n
(4) 1
n

15. If speed (V), acceleration (A) and force (F)

are considered as fundamental units, the
dimension of Young’s modulus will be
(1) V–2 A2 F–2 (1) 0.4 s
(2) 0.25 s
(2) V–2 A2 F2
(3) 0.34 s
(3) V–4 A2 F
(4) 0.2 s
(4) V–4 A–2 F

4
Archive Test Series-2024_T01 (Code-A)

19. A ball is thrown upward with an initial

velocity V0 from the surface of the earth. The
motion of the ball is affected by a drag force
equal to mγ v2 (where m is mass of the ball,
v is its instantaneous velocity and γ is a
constant). Time taken by the ball to rise to its
zenith is
−
−
(1) 1 −1
γ
sin (√ V0 )
γg g
√

−
−
(2) 1
γ
ln (1 + √ V0 )
γg g
√

−
−
(3) 1 −1
γ
tan (√ V0 )
γg g
√

−−
(4) 1 −1
2γ
tan (√ V0 )
g
√2γg

20. A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on

a frictionless plane (as shown in figure). It is
struck by a jet releasing water at a rate of 1
kgs–1 and at a speed of 10 ms–1 . Then, the
initial acceleration of the block, in ms–2 , will
be

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 5 CC-034
(4) 4

Section-II

21. The projectile motion of a particle of mass 5 22. A pendulum is suspended by a string of
g is shown in the figure length 250 cm. The mass of the bob of the
pendulum is 200 g. The bob is pulled aside
until the string is at 60° with vertical as
shown in the figure. After releasing the bob,
the maximum velocity attained by the bob
–
The initial velocity of the particle is 5√2 ms– will be ___ ms–1 . (if g = 10 m/s2 )
1 and the air resistance is assumed to be
negligible. The magnitude of the change in
momentum between the points A and B is x
× 10–2 kgms–1 . The value of x, to the nearest
integer, is ______.

5
Archive Test Series-2024_T01 (Code-A)

23. The density of a solid metal sphere is 28. A hanging mass M is connected to a four
determined by measuring its mass and its times bigger mass by using a string-pulley
diameter. The maximum error in the density arrangement, as shown in the figure. The
of the sphere is x% If the relative errors in bigger mass is placed on a horizontal ice-
measuring the mass and the diameter are slab and being pulled by 2 Mg force. In this
6.0% and 1.5% respectively, the value of x is x
situation, tension in the string is 5 Mg for x =
_____. __________. Neglect mass of the string and
friction of the block (bigger mass) with ice
24. slab
(Given g = acceleration due to gravity)

As shown in the figure, a particle of mass 10

kg is placed at a point A. When the particle is
slightly displaced to its right, it starts moving
29. A particle is moving with constant
and reaches the point B. The speed of the
particle at B is x m/s acceleration 'a'. Following graph shows v2
versus x(displacement) plot. The
(Take g = 10 m/s2 )
The value of 'x' to the nearest integer acceleration of the particle is________ m/s2
is________.

25. The angular speed of truck wheel is

increased from 900 rpm to 2460 rpm in 26
seconds. If the number of revolutions by the
truck engine during this time is n. Find
n
( ).
10

(Assuming the acceleration to be uniform)

26. If the velocity of a body related to

displacement x is given by CC-034
−−−−−−−−−
v = √5000 + 24x m/s , then the
acceleration of the body is_________ m/s2 30. An inclined plane is bent in such a way that
the vertical cross-section is given by y =
2
x
27. A small block slides down from the top of 4
where y is in vertical and x in horizontal
hemisphere of radius R = 3 m as shown in direction. If the upper surface of this curved
the figure. The height `h' at which the block plane is rough with coefficient of friction μ =
will lose contact with the surface of the 0.5, the maximum height in cm at which a
sphere is________m stationary block will not slip downward
(Assume there is no friction between the is___________cm
block and the hemisphere)

CHEMISTRY

Section-I

6
Archive Test Series-2024_T01 (Code-A)

31. The number of orbitals associated with n = 4 35. The plots of radial distribution functions for
and m = –2 quantum numbers is various orbitals of hydrogen atom against 'r'
(1) 2 are given below
(A)
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 16

32. The pair from the following pairs having both

compounds with net non-zero dipole
moment is (B)
(1) 1, 4-Dichlorobenzene, 1, 3-
Dichlorobenzene
(2) cis-butene, trans-butene
(3) CH2 Cl2 , CHCl3
(4) Benzene, anisidine

(C)
33. The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms
of the Bohr radius, a0 , in Li2+ is
(1) 4a0

(2) 4a0

(3) 2a0

3 (D)
(4) 2a0

34. Three elements X, Y and Z are in the 3rd

period of the periodic table. The oxides of X,
Y and Z, respectively, are basic, amphoteric
and acidic. The correct order of the atomic The correct plot for 3s orbital is
numbers of X, Y and Z is CC-034
(1) (C)
(1) X < Z < Y
(2) (D)
(2) Y < X < Z
(3) (B)
(3) Z < Y < X
(4) (A)
(4) X < Y < Z

36. The ammonia (NH3 ) released on

quantitative reaction of 0.6 g urea
(NH2 CONH2 ) with sodium hydroxide
(NaOH) can be neutralized by
(1) 200 ml of 0.4 N HCl
(2) 100 ml of 0.1 N HCl
(3) 200 ml of 0.2 N HCl
(4) 100 ml of 0.2 N HCl

37. The correct order of the ionic radii of O2– ,

N3– , F– , Mg2+, Na+ and Al3+ is
(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2– < N3–
(2) Al3+ < Na+ < Mg2+ < O2– < F– < N3–
(3) N3– < F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+ < Al3+
(4) N3– < O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+

7
Archive Test Series-2024_T01 (Code-A)

38. A solution of two components containing n1 43. The first ionization energy of magnesium is
moles of the 1st component and n2 moles of smaller as compared to that of elements X
and Y, but higher than that of Z. The
the 2nd component is prepared. M1 and M2 elements X, Y and Z, respectively, are
are the molecular weights of component 1 (1) Chlorine, lithium and sodium
and 2 respectively. If d is the density of the
(2) Argon, lithium and sodium
solution in g mL–1 , C2 is the molarity and x2
(3) Argon, chlorine and sodium
is the mole fraction of the 2nd component,
then C2 can be expressed as (4) Neon, sodium and chlorine
(1) C2 =
1000 dx2

M1 +x2 (M2 −M1 ) 44. A metal chloride contains 55.0% of chlorine

(2) dx1 by weight. 100 mL vapours of the metal
C2 =
M2 +x2 (M2 −M1 ) chloride at STP weigh 0.57 g. The molecular
formula of the metal chloride is
(3) 1000x2
C2 =
M1 +x2 (M2 −M1 )
(Given: Atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5 u)
(1) MCl4
(4) C2 =
dx2

M2 +x2 (M2 −M1 ) (2) MCl3

(3) MCl2
39. Number of electron deficient molecules (4) MCl
among the following is
PH3 , B2 H6 , CCl4 , NH3 , LiH and BCl3
45. The correct shape and I – I – I bond angles
(1) 0 −
respectively in I3 ion are
(2) 1
(1) Distorted trigonal planar; 135° and 90°
(3) 2
(2) Trigonal planar; 120°
(4) 3
(3) T-shaped; 180° and 90°
(4) Linear; 180°
40. For a reaction,
N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) → 2 NH3 (g)
46. When the first electron gain enthalpy (Δeg H)
Identify dihydrogen (H2 ) as a limiting of oxygen is –141 kJ/mol, its second electron
reagent in the following reaction mixtures. gain enthalpy is
(1) 35 g of N2 + 8 g of H2 CC-034 (1) Almost the same as that of the first
(2) A more negative value than the first
(2) 28 g of N2 + 6 g of H2
(3) Negative, but less negative than the
(3) 56 g of N2 + 10 g of H2 first
(4) 14 g of N2 + 4 g of H2 (4) A positive value

41. Among the following, the molecule expected 47. Among the following molecules/ions,
to be stabilized by anion formation is C2 2– , N2 2– , O2 2– , O2
C2 , O2 , NO, F2 Which one is diamagnetic and has the
(1) F2 shortest bond length?
(2) NO (1) O2
(3) C2 (2) O2 2–
(4) O2 (3) N2 2–
(4) C2 2–
42. The average molar mass of chlorine is 35.5
g mol–1 . The ratio of 35 Cl to 37 Cl in naturally
occuring chlorine is close to
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 4 : 1

8
Archive Test Series-2024_T01 (Code-A)

48. According to Bohr's atomic theory 50. Based upon VSEPR theory, match the shape
Z
2
(geometry) of the molecules in List-I with the
(A) Kinetic energy of electron is ∝ 2
n molecules in List-II and select the most
(B) The product of velocity (v) of electron and appropriate option
principal quantum number (n), 'vn' ∝ Z2 List-I List-II
(C) Frequency of revolution of electron in an (Shape) (Molecules)
3
Z
orbit is ∝ 3 (A) T-shaped (I) XeF4
n

(D) Coulombic force of attraction on the

Z
3 (B) Trigonal planar (II) SF4
electron is ∝
(C) Square planar (III) CIF3
4
n

Choose the most appropriate answer from

the options given below (D) See-saw (IV) BF3
(1) (A) only (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(2) (A) and (D) only (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(3) (C) only (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(4) (A), (C) and (D) only (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

49. Given below are two statements

Statement I : Rutherford's gold foil
experiment cannot explain the line spectrum
of hydrogen atom.
Statement II : Bohr's model of hydrogen
atom contradicts Heisenberg's uncertainty
principle.
In the light of the above statement, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
false
(2) Statement I is true but statement II is
false
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is
true CC-034
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
true

Section-II

51. The sum of lone pairs present on the central 55. 6.023 × 1022 molecules are present in 10 g
atom of the interhalogen IF5 and IF7 of a substance ‘x’. The molarity of a solution
is______ containing 5 g of substance ‘x’ in 2 L
solution is ______× 10–3
52. The ratio of the mass percentages of ‘C & H’
and ‘C & O’ of a saturated acyclic organic 56. A proton and a Li3+ nucleus are accelerated
compound ‘X’ are 4 : 1 and 3 : 4 respectively.
by the same potential. If λLi and λp denote
Then, the moles of oxygen gas required for
complete combustion of two moles of the de Broglie wavelengths of Li3+ and
organic compound ‘X’ is ________ proton respectively, then the value of
λLi
is x
λp

× 10–1 .
53. A metal surface is exposed to 500 nm
The value of x is _____. (Rounded off to the
radiation. The threshold frequency of the
nearest integer)
metal for photoelectric current is 4.3 × 1014
[Mass of Li3+ = 8.3 mass of proton]
Hz. The velocity of ejected electron is –––––
× 105 ms–1 . (Nearest integer) [Use : h = 6.63
57. Total number of acidic oxides among
× 10–34 Js, me = 9.0 × 10–31 kg]
N2 O3 , NO2 , N2 O, Cl2 O7 , SO2 , CO, CaO,
Na2 O and NO is ______
54. The number of N atoms in 681 g of
C7 H5 N3 O6 is x × 1023 . The value of x is
______. (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1 ) (Nearest
Integer)

9
Archive Test Series-2024_T01 (Code-A)

58. The spin-only magnetic moment value of 60. The number of bent-shaped molecule/s from
species is _____ × 10–1 BM. (Nearest the following is ______
+
B
2
− − −
integer) N
3
, NO
2
, I
3
, O3 , S O2
–
[Given : √3 = 1. 73 ]

59. The number of significant figures in

50000.020 × 10–3 is __________

MATHEMATICS

Section-I

61. Let A = {2, 3, 4} and B = {8, 9, 12}. Then the 65. π 7π

If tan ( 9 ) , x, tan ( ) are in arithmetic
number of elements in the relation 18

R = {(( a1 , b1 ), ( a2 , b2 )) ∈ (A × B, A × B) progression and

π 5π
: a1 tan (
9
), y, tan (
18
) are also in
divides b2 and a2 divides b1 } is
arithmetic progression, then |x – 2y| is equal
(1) 36 to
(2) 24 (1) 0
(3) 18 (2) 1
(4) 12 (3) 3
(4) 4
62. If the equation
2
∣ ∣
a ∣z ∣
¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
+ ᾱz + αz̄ + d = 0 represents a 66. The sum of all the roots of the equation
CC-034 ∣ − 2x + 7 = 0 is
2
∣
∣x − 8x + 15∣
circle where a, d are real constants, then
–
which of the following condition is correct? (1) 9– √3
(1) |α|2 – ad > 0 and a ∈ R – {0} (2)
–
9 + √3
(2) |α|2 – ad ≠ 0 (3)
–
11– √3
(3) α = 0, a, d ∈ R + (4)
–
11 + √3
(4) |α|2 – ad ≥ 0 and a ∈ R

67. Let S = {z ∈ C : z̄ = i( z
2
+ Re ( z̄ ))}.
63. The value of 4 +
1
is 2

5+
1 Then ∑z∈S |z| is equal to
1
4+
1 (1) 5
5+
2
4+….∞

(1) 2+
4 −−
√30
(2) 4
√5
(3) 7
−−
(2) 4+
4
√30
2

√5 (4) 3
−−
(3) 2+
2
√30
5

(4) 2 −− 68. If cotα = 1 and secβ = –

5
, where
5+ √30 3
5
3π π
π < α <
2
and 2 < β < π, then the
value of tan(α + β) and the quadrant in which
64. Let a, b ∈ R be such that the equation ax2 – α + β lies, respectively are
2bx + 15 = 0 has a repeated root α. If α and β (1) – 1 and IVth quadrant
are the roots of the equation x2 – 2bx + 21 = 7

0, then α2 + β2 is equal to (2) 7 and Ist quadrant

(1) 37 (3) – 7 and IVth quadrant
(2) 58 (4) and Ist quadrant
1

(3) 68 7

(4) 92

10
Archive Test Series-2024_T01 (Code-A)

69. The number of elements in the set 75. 96 cos

π
cos
2π
cos
4π
cos
8π
cos
16π
is
2 33 33 33 33 33
x +x x –x
S = {x ∈ R : 2 cos (
6
) = 4 +4 } equal to
is (1) 3
(1) 1 (2) 1
(2) 3 (3) 4
(3) 0 (4) 2
(4) infinite
76. The number of points of intersection of |z –
(4 + 3i)| = 2 and |z| + |z – 4| = 6, z ∈ C, is
70. If sum of the first 21 terms of the series
log x + log x + log x + …, (1) 0
/ 1
/ / 1 1

(2) 1
2 3 4
9 9 9

where x > 0 is 504, then x is equal to

(3) 2
(1) 81
(4) 3
(2) 243
(3) 9
(4) 7 77. All possible values of θ ∈ [0, 2π] for which
sin 2θ + tan 2θ > 0 lie in
(1) π 3π
71. The sum of solutions of the equation (0,
2
) ∪ (π,
2
)
cos x π π π π
∣ ∣
= ∣ tan 2x∣, x ∈ (− , ) −{ , }
1+sin x 2 2 4 4 (2) π π 3π 7π
(0, ) ∪ ( , ) ∪ (π, )
is 2 2 4 6

(1) π
(3) π π 3π 3π 11π
10 (0, ) ∪ ( , ) ∪ ( , )
4 2 4 2 6
(2) −
7π

30 (4) π π 3π 5π 3π 7π
(0, ) ∪ ( , ) ∪ (π, ) ∪ ( , )
(3) −
11π 4 2 4 4 2 4

30

(4) −
x

15 78. If 15sin4 α + 10cos4 α = 6, for some α ∈ R,

then the value of 27sec6 α + 8cosec6 α is
72. Let equal to
If ƒn (1) 350
x−1
ƒ(x) R − {0,
CC-034
= , x ∈ − 1, 1}.
x+1

+1 (x)
(2) 250
= ƒ(ƒn (x)) for all n ∈ N, then ƒ6 (6) +
7 (3) 400
ƒ (7) is equal to
(4) 500
(1) 7
6

(2) –
3
79. The domain of the function:
2
1
f (x) = is (where [x] denotes
(3) 7
2
√(x) −3(x)−10
12

(4) –
11 the greatest integer less than or equal to x)
(1) (–∞, –3] ∪ (5, ∞)
12

(2) (–∞, –2) ∪ [6, ∞)

73. Let s1 , s2 , s3 ...., s10 respectively be the sum
(3) (–∞, –2) ∪ (5, ∞)
of 12 terms of 10 A.Ps whose first terms are
1, 2, 3,....,10 and the common differences (4) (–∞, –3] ∪ [6, ∞)
are 1, 3, 5,...,19 respectively. Then
10
∑ si is equal to 80. In a school, there are three types of games
i=1

(1) 7220 to be played. Some of the students play two

types of games, but none play all the three
(2) 7360 games. Which Venn diagrams can justify the
(3) 7260 above statement?
(4) 7380

74. The integer 'k', for which the inequality x2 –

2(3 k – 1)x + 8 k2 – 7 > 0 is valid for every x
in R, is
(1) 2 (1) Q and R
(2) 3 (2) P and Q
(3) 4 (3) P and R
(4) 0 (4) None of these

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Archive Test Series-2024_T01 (Code-A)

Section-II

81. The number of integral values of 'k' for which 86.

If log3 2, log3 (2x – 5), log3 (2
x 7
− ) are in
the equation 3sinx + 4cosx = k+1 has a 2

solution, k ∈ R is __________. an arithmetic progression, then the value of

x is equal to –––––––.
82. The sum of all integral values of k(k ≠ 0) for
2
which the equation x−1 − x−2 =
1 2
in x 87. Let S = (z ∈ C : z
2
+ z̄ = 0). then
k

has no real roots, is ______. ∑

z∈S
(Re(z) + Im(z)) is equal to
________.
83. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 10, 11}. The number of
non-empty subsets of S that have the sum of 88. 1 1
Let 16 , a and b be in G.P. and a , b , 6 be
1

all elements a multiple of 3, is

in A.P., where a, b > 0. Then 72(a+b) is equal
to_______.
84. Let ƒ : R → R be a function defined by
2x
2e
ƒ(x) =
2x
. Then 89. The value of tan9° – tan27° – tan63° +
e +e

1 2 3 99
tan81° is _________.
ƒ ( 100 ) + ƒ ( 100 ) + ƒ ( 100 ) + ... + ƒ ( 100 )
is equal to ________. 90. The sum of the cubes of all the roots of the
equation x4 ­ – 3x3 – 2x2 + 3x + 1 = 0 is
85. If sin2 (10°)sin(20°)sin(40°)sin(50°)sin(70°) _______.
= α−
1
sin (10°) , then 16 + α
–1 is equal
16

to _______.

CC-034

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