SFG-2025-Level-1-Test-4-Solutions_221103-Eng

SFG 2025 | Level 1 | Test - #4 - Solutions |
Q.1) The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international
treaties:
a) with the consent of all the states
b) with the consent of the majority of states
c) with the consent of the states concerned
d) without the consent of any state
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international
treaties, agreements or conventions. It can be done without the consent of the states. This provision
enables the Central government to fulfil its international obligations and commitments. Some
examples of laws enacted under the above provision are United Nations (Privileges and Immunities)
Act, 1947; Geneva Convention Act, 1960; Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 and legislations relating to
environment and TRIPS.
Source:) UPSC CSE PRE. 2013
Subject:) Polity
Topic) Centre State Relations- legislative, administrative and Financial
Subtopic:)
Q.2) With reference to the Indian Federation, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Constitution has described India as a ‘Union of States’ instead of a ‘Federation of
States’.
Statement II: The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement I.
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for
Statement I.
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct. Article 1 of the Constitution of India says that “India, that is Bharat, shall be a
Union of States.” Thus, the Constitution of India has described India as a ‘Union of States’ instead of a
‘Federation of States’. The Constitution of India does not even mention the word federation.
Both statement –II is correct and explains statement -I. Article I defines India as a ‘Union of States’
instead of ‘federation of states’ because:
1. Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement between the states. Indian federation is a
unitary declaration made by the Constituent Assembly, which derived its authority from the sovereign
people of India.
2. No state has the right to secede from the Indian federation. India is thus an indestructible union of
States. The use of the term “Union” was deliberate, as it conveyed the indestructible nature of the
Indian Union.
Source:) Indian Constitution at Work Class 11th NCERT Page: 157
Mastering Indian Polity by ForumIAS Page:68
Subject:) Polity
Topic) Nature of Federalism
Subtopic:)
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[1]
Q.3) The Seventh Schedule of Indian Constitution provides for division of legislative powers between
the Centre and the States through three lists viz. Union List, Concurrent List and State List. In this
context, consider the following pairs:
Subject The power to make laws is vested in
1. Land Only the Parliament
2. Education Only the State Legislatures
3. Posts and telegraphs Both the Parliament and the State Legislatures
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) d
Pair 1 is incorrect. Under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, the subject of "land" falls
under the State List (entry 18 of State List). So, under normal circumstances, only the State
Legislature has the power to make laws on this subject.
Pair 2 is incorrect. Under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, the subject of "education"
falls under the Concurrent List (entry 25 of Concurrent List). So, both the Parliament and the State
Legislature have the power to make laws on this subject.
The 42nd amendment to the Constitution transferred this subject from the state list to the
concurrent list.
Pair 3 is incorrect. “Posts and telegraphs; telephones, wireless, broadcasting and other like forms
of communication” are listed as entry 31 of the Union List of the Seventh Schedule. So, only the
Parliament can make laws on such subjects. Under this subject, the Parliament has recently enacted
the Post Office Act, 2023.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2026249#:~:text=This%20provides%20a%20f
ramework%20for,Indian%20Post%20Office%20Act%2C%201898
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.4) With reference to key government functionaries in India, consider the following:
1. Attorney General of India
2. Governor of a state
3. Central Information Commissioner
4. Members of the Joint Public Service Commission (JPSC)
Which of the above functionaries hold office during the pleasure of the President?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans) a
In Indian polity, the phrase "holding office during the pleasure of the President" refers to the power of
the President of India to appoint and remove certain officials, without requiring any specific reason or
justification. The removal power is often exercised based on constitutional provisions and on the
advice of the Council of Ministers (as per Article 74).
[2]
Option 1 is correct: The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He holds office during
the pleasure of the president. This means that he may be removed by the President at any time.
Option 2 is correct: As per Article 156 of the Indian Constitution, a governor of a state holds office for
a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, this term of five
years is subject to the pleasure of the President. Further, he can resign at any time by addressing a
resignation letter to the President.
Option 3 is incorrect: Central Information Commissioner (CIC) does not hold office during the
pleasure of the President; the CIC has a fixed tenure and can only be removed through a specific
process outlined in the Right to Information Act, 2005. CIC can be removed from his office only by
order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court,
on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Chief Information
Commissioner or any Information Commissioner, as the case may be, ought on such ground be
removed.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Article 315 of the Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a
Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states. Unlike officials who serve at the
President's pleasure, JPSC members can be removed only through a formal process laid down in
Article 317. The procedure ensures fairness and safeguards against arbitrary removal. The President
can remove a member only after an inquiry by the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court must find the
member guilty of misbehaviour or incapacity. The President acts based on the Supreme Court's
recommendations.
Source:) Laxmikanth
Subject:) Polity
Topic) Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies
Subtopic:)
Q. 5) What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military
Affairs?
1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-Service matters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Ans) d
Some of the duties and functions of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) include the following:
1. To head the Department of Military Affairs in Ministry of Defence and function as its Secretary.
2. To act as the Principal Military Advisor to Hon’ble Raksha Mantri on all Tri-Service matters. Hence,
Statement 3 is correct.
1. To function as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. Hence, Statement 1 is
correct.
2. To administer the Tri-Service organizations/agencies/ commands.
3. To be a member of Defence Acquisition Council chaired by Hon’ble Raksha Mantri.
Statement 2 is incorrect: CDS will not exercise any military command, including over the three
Service Chiefs, so as to be able to provide impartial advice to the political leadership.
Subject:) Polity Topic) Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies
Subtopic:)
[3]
Q.6) With reference to the division of powers between the Centre and the States, consider the
following statements:
1. The states do not have the power to dismiss or remove the officers of the All-India Services from
service.
2. Only the Parliament has the power to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the armed
forces.
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The all-India services are services common to the entire territory of India.
The officers chosen for these services serve in the administration of both the Centre and the States.
These officers are under ultimate control of the central government while immediate control lies with
state governments they are serving under. States cannot remove these officers from service.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 33 of Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws that
would restrict the application of fundamental rights to a specific category of people, including
members of the Armed Forces and intelligence organisations.
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.7) Consider the following information:

This Commission/Committee was established by the Government of India to review the working of
the existing constitutional arrangements between the Union and the states, including the distribution
of legislative and administrative powers. It recommended strengthening cooperative federalism
through the formation of an intergovernmental council consisting of the Prime Minister and Chief
Ministers of states. It also recommended the appointment of the Governor in a state after
consultation with the Chief Minister of that state.
The above paragraph best describes which one of the following Commissions?
a) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
c) Venkatachaliah Commission (2000)
d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005)
Ans) a
The Sarkaria Commission was constituted by the Central Government in 1983 to review Centre-State
relations and recommend measures to improve cooperative federalism. It submitted its report in
1988, emphasizing the importance of a strong Centre for national unity.
Key recommendations include:
1. Appointment of Governors: The Chief Minister should be consulted, and the Governor should be a
non-partisan, eminent person from outside the state.
2. Inter-State Council: Establish a permanent Inter-Governmental Council under Article 263,
consisting of the Prime Minister and Chief Ministers, to address Centre-State issues.
3. Article 356: President’s Rule should be a last resort, used sparingly.
[4]
The Commission also suggested strengthening All-India Services, implementing the three-language
formula, and retaining the National Development Council. It rejected demands to curtail the Centre's
powers, advocating for cooperative federalism.
Knowledge Base:
Rajamannar Committee (1969): This Tamil Nadu government-appointed committee recommended
limiting the Centre’s control over states, abolishing All-India Services, and transferring residuary
powers to states to strengthen federalism.
Venkatachaliah Commission (2000): The National Commission to Review the Working of the
Constitution (NCRWC) recommended electoral reforms, judicial accountability, and enhancing the
Centre-State relationship while safeguarding the Constitution's basic structure.
Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005): This commission focused on governance
reforms, recommending decentralization, e-governance, ethics in administration, and improved
Centre-State coordination for transparent, efficient, and accountable public administration.
Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keps207.pdf (Pg. 166)
Mastering Indian Polity – ForumIAS, Chapter – 13, Federal Structure of Indian Polity
https://cbc.gov.in/cbcdev/pi-1983/pi-1983-
story.html#:~:text=Central%20control%20over%20radio%20and,bodies%20at%20the%20state%20le
vel.
Subject:) Polity
Topic) Inter State Relations
Subtopic:)
Q.8) With reference to the President’s rule under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, consider the
1. It can only be imposed if a state fails to comply with or to give effect to directions issued by the
Central Government in exercise of their executive power.
2. President’s rule can be extended for six-months at a time, up to a maximum of three years with the
approval of Parliament.
3. The imposition of the President’s rule in a state result in removal of the state Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Ans) d
The origins of the President’s rule under Article 356 can be traced back to the Government of India
Act of 1935. It was designed to allow the Union Government to intervene in States facing breakdowns
of law & order or constitutional governance issues.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 356 of the Constitution empowers the President to impose
President’s Rule in a State If the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of a State or
otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be
carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
Article 365 further supports this by stating —Where any State has failed to comply with, or to give
effect to, any directions given in the exercise of the executive power of the Union under any of the
provisions of this Constitution, it shall be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in
which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this
Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: The President’s proclamation has to be ratified by Parliament. When the
President’s Rule is declared, both the Houses of Parliament must approve it within two months. If
[5]
both Houses of Parliament approve, the President’s Rule lasts for six months initially (from the date
of proclamation and not the date of approval by the Parliament). It can be further extended up to a
maximum period of three years in six-months extension at a time with Parliament’s approval.
Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 356, when President’s Rule is imposed, the State’s Council of
Ministers, including the Chief Minister, is dismissed, and executive authority is assumed by the
President. The State Legislative Assembly is not automatically dissolved but placed under suspended
animation, allowing it to be revived later unless specifically dissolved in the proclamation.
Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keps207.pdf (Pg. 166)
Mastering Indian Polity – ForumIAS, Chapter – 14, Emergency, Pg. 250 – 251
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.9) Consider the following states in India:

1. Manipur
2. Uttarakhand
3. Haryana
4. Mizoram
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the states according to the year of
their formation?
a) 1-3-2-4
b) 3-4-1-2
c) 1-4-3-2
d) 3-1-4-2
Ans) d
Option d is correct: The correct chronological order of the States according to the year of their
formation is: Haryana – Manipur – Mizoram – Uttarakhand.
In December 1953, the States Reorganisation Commission was set up and it recommended the
creation of linguistic States, at least for the major linguistic groups. In 1956, reorganisation of some
States took place. This saw the beginning of the creation of linguistic States and the process is still
continuing. Gujarat and Maharashtra were created in 1960.
1. Option 3 - Haryana: Punjab and Haryana were separated from each other in 1966 by the Punjab
Reorganisation Act, 1966 to create Haryana the 17th State of the Indian Union and the union territory
of Chandigarh. On the recommendation of the Shah Commission (1966), the Punjabi-speaking areas
were constituted into the unilingual state of Punjab, the Hindi-speaking areas were constituted into
the State of Haryana and the hill areas were merged with the adjoining union territory of Himachal
Pradesh.
2. Option 1 - Manipur: In 1972, the political map of Northeast India underwent a major change
through the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971. Thus, the two union territories of
Manipur and Tripura and Meghalaya (previously an autonomous State within Assam) got statehood
and the two union territories of Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh (originally known as North-East
Frontier Agency–NEFA) came into being. Manipur became the 19th State of the Indian Union.
3. Option 4 - Mizoram: In 1987, the union territory of Mizoram was conferred the status of a full
state as a sequel to the signing of a memorandum of settlement (Mizoram Peace Accord) in 1986
between the Central government and the Mizo National Front, ending the two-decade-old
insurgency.
4. Option 2 - Uttarakhand: In 2000, Uttar Pradesh was divided to form Uttarakhand to meet the
need for greater administrative efficiency
Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keps207.pdf (Pg. 167 – 168)
[6]
Mastering Indian Polity by ForumIAS, Chapter 8 Union and its Territory

Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.10) India is sometimes described as a federation with a centralising tendency. Which among the
following provisions of the Constitution of India provide/s this centralising tendency to Indian
federation?
1. Written Constitution
2. Independent judiciary
3. Single citizenship
4. Governments at national, provincial and local levels
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 and 4 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
A unitary system is one in which all the powers are vested in the national government; and the
regional governments, if at all exist, derive their authority from the national government.
A federal system is one in which powers are divided between the national government and the
regional governments by the Constitution itself, and both operate in their respective jurisdictions
independently. India is sometimes described as a federation with a centralising tendency as the
Constitution of India includes a large number of unitary features like single citizenship, more subjects
in union list, all India services, etc. In India, thus, the balance of power is tilted in favour of the Centre.
For this reason, India is described as ‘Quasi-federal’ by K.C. Wheare.
Option 1 is incorrect. A written constitution is a federal feature of the Indian Constitution. So it
does not provide a centralising tendency to the Indian federation. A written constitution clearly
specifies the structure, organisation, powers and functions of both the Central and state governments
and prescribes the limits within which they must operate. This avoids the misunderstandings and
disagreements between the two sets of governments.
Option 2 is incorrect. The presence of an Independent judiciary is a federal feature of the Indian
Constitution. So it does not provide a centralising tendency to the Indian federation.
To prevent conflicts between the centre and the State, there is an independent judiciary to settle
disputes. The judiciary has the powers to resolve disputes between the central government and the
States on legal matters about the division of power.
Option 3 is correct. The provision of Single citizenship is a unitary feature of the Indian
Constitution. So, it does provide a centralising tendency to the Indian federation. Federal countries
usually have a system of dual citizenship, for example in United States of America, a person is a citizen
of USA, and also a citizen of the particular state
Option 4 is incorrect. Essentially, federalism is an institutional mechanism to accommodate two sets
of polities—one at the regional level and the other at the national level. Each government is
autonomous in its own sphere and hence this power distribution is not a centralising tendency of
federalism.
Knowledge Base:
Federal features of the Constitution:
● Dual Polity
● Written constitution
● Division of Powers
[7]
● Supremacy of the Constitution

● Rigid Constitution.
● Independent Judiciary
● Bicameralism
Unitary features of the Constitution:
● Strong Centre
● Single Constitution for the Centre and the States
● Flexible Constitution
● Emergency provisions
● Integrated Judiciary
● Integrated Election Machinery
● All-India services, etc
Subject:) Polity
Topic) Nature of Federalism
Subtopic:)
Q.11) M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relationship has recommended the disposal of a bill
reserved for the consideration of the Union Executive within
a) Four months
b) Six months
c) Eight months
d) Five months
Ans) b
The M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relations recommended that a bill reserved for the
consideration of the Union Executive should be disposed of within six months. The Punchhi
Commission, officially known as the Commission on Centre-State Relations, was established in 2007
to examine and review the relationship between the central government and state governments in
India.
Source:) UPSC CDS 2021 (I)
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.12) Consider the following statements with reference to inter-state river disputes:
Statement-I: Parliament has enacted the River Boards Act, 1956, to promote integrated and optimum
development of the waters of inter-State rivers and river valleys.
Statement-II: Article 262 of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to enact a law for the
Adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Ans) b
[8]
Statement-I is correct: Parliament has enacted the River Boards Act, 1956, under Entry 56 of List I, to
promote integrated and optimum development of the waters of inter-State rivers and river valleys.
This Act contemplated the appointment of River Boards by the Central Government in consultation
with the State Governments for advising on integrated development of waters of inter-State rivers
and river valleys. It was expected that these Boards would help in coordinated and optimum
utilization of the river waters and promote development of irrigation, drainage, water supply, flood-
control and hydroelectric power. However, the provisions of this Act have not been put to use all
these years, and the Act has remained a dead letter.
Statement – II is correct Parliament has enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, for
settlement of disputes. Section 2(c) of the Act defines 'water dispute' as “any dispute or difference
between two or more State Governments with respect to— (i) the use, distribution or control of the
water of, or in, any inter-State river or river valley; or (ii) the interpretation of the terms of any
agreement relating to the use, distribution or control of such waters or the implementation of such
agreement; or (iii) the levy of any water rate in contravention of the prohibition.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I: Given in statement I, the River Boards Act, 1956 promotes integrated and optimum
development of the waters of inter-State rivers and river valleys. On the other hand, statement –II
deals with the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys for
which Parliament has enacted a separate act namely the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.
So, both statement I and II although related to Article 262 of the Constitution of India, they deal with
different matters.
Knowledge Base:
Under the provisions of Article 262, the Parliament also enacted the Inter-State Water Disputes Act
(1956). The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc
tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an
inter-state river or river valley. The decision of the tribunal would be final and binding on the
parties to the dispute. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to have jurisdiction in
respect of any water dispute which may be referred to such a tribunal under this Act.
Source:) Mastering Indian Polity by ForumIAS, Chapter 13 Federal Structure of Indian Polity
https://interstatecouncil.gov.in/wp-content/uploads/2015/06/CHAPTERXVII.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.13) For which of the following States are the special provisions provided under Part XXI of the
Constitution of India?
1. Jharkhand
2. Telangana
3. Gujarat
4. Himachal Pradesh
a) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans) c
Options 2 and 3 are correct: One of the most extra-ordinary features of the federal arrangement
created in India is that many States get a differential treatment. The Constitution has some special
provisions for some States given their peculiar social and historical circumstances. 12 States including
[9]
Assam, Nagaland, Gujrat, Maharashtra, Manipur, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Karnataka,
Goa, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana have been provided with the special provision under article 371A
to 371J of the Constitution of India.
1. The objective is to meet the aspirations of the people of backward regions or protect the cultural
and economic interests of the tribal people or deal with the disturbed law and order condition in
some parts of the States or protect the interests of the local people of the States.
Options 1 and 4 are not correct: Jharkhand and Himachal Pradesh have not been granted special
provisions under Part XXI of the Constitution.
Source:) Indian Polity, M. Laxmikanth, Chapter – 37, Special Provisions for Some States
Subject:) Polity
Topic) Special Provisions/Areas
Subtopic:)
Q.14) Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
1. It is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
2. The Chairperson of the NHRC must be a retired Chief Justice of India.
3. It can provide interim relief, including monetary compensation to victims of human rights
violations.
4. Upon completion of their tenure, the members of NHRC are not eligible for further employment
under the Central or a state government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans) c
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is the watchdog of human rights in the country,
that is, the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the
Constitution or embodied in international covenants and enforceable by courts in India.
It was established in conformity with the Paris Principles drafted in 1991 at the first international
workshop on national institutions for the promotion and protection of human rights held in Paris and
adopted in 1993 .
Statement 1 is correct: The NHRC is a statutory body (and not a constitutional body), established in
1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The NHRC is a multi-member body comprising a chairperson and five
members. The chairperson must be a retired Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court judge. The
members include a serving or retired Supreme Court judge, a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High
Court, and three individuals with expertise or practical experience in human rights, with at least one
being a woman.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The NHRC does not have the power to punish violators of human rights or
to award relief, including monetary compensation, to victims. The functions of the NHRC are
primarily recommendatory in nature, its recommendations are not binding on the concerned
government or authority.
NHRC can recommend to the concerned Government or authority for the grant of such immediate
interim relief to the victim or the members of his family as the Commission may consider necessary.
Statement 4 is correct: The chairperson and members of the NHRC serve a term of three years or
until they reach the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. They are eligible for reappointment.
However, after their tenure, they are not eligible for further employment under the Central or state
governments.
[10]
Source:) Indian Polity- M.Laxmikant, Chapter-57 (National Human Rights Commission), Page: 473.
https://nhrc.nic.in/about-us/about-the-Organisation
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.15) Which of the following States/UTs are included in the Northern Zonal Council?
a) Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir
b) Haryana, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan and NCT of Delhi
c) Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan
d) Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana
Ans) b
The Northern Zonal Council is a zonal council that comprises the states and union territories of
Chandigarh, National Capital Territory of Delhi, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir,
Punjab, Rajasthan and Ladakh.
Source:) UPSC CDS 2023 (I)
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.16) With reference to the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President and holds the post during the
pleasure of the President.
2. The ECI does not have the power to de-register a political party if it fails to contest elections.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) b
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an independent constitutional body responsible for
administering elections in India, including those to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, state legislatures, and
the offices of President and Vice President. It ensures free, fair, and transparent elections, and
derives its powers from Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, which grants it the authority to
superintend, direct, and control the electoral process.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is appointed by the President, but
unlike other government officials, the CEC is not answerable to the President or Government,
throughout the tenure. The term of office of CEC is not during the pleasure of the President. The CEC
enjoys autonomy and can only be removed through a process similar to that of a Supreme Court
judge.
Statement 2 is correct: The Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act (RPA) 1951
empowers Election commission for registering a political party. However, the RPA does not grant
the ECI explicit powers to de-register a political party if it fails to contest elections.
The Supreme Court has ruled that the ECI does not have power to de-register any political party
under the RP act. The ECI can only de-register a political party in exceptional circumstances, such
as when the registration was obtained through fraud, the party ceases to uphold allegiance to the
Constitution, or if the party is declared unlawful by the Government.
[11]
Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/iess403.pdf Page:47

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/can-parties-be-de-recognised-or-de-registered-
explained/article68183892.ece/amp/
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.17) Consider the following statements in relation to the State Finance Commission (SFC):
1. It is constituted by the Governor of the respective states at the expiration of every fifth year.
2. Its function is to recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the state and its
local bodies.
3. Its recommendations are non-binding on the state Government.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) d
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution of India (Article 243-I) mandates that the State Finance
Commission (SFC) is constituted by the Governor of the respective state, and it is to be set up in
every five years. This provision was introduced through the Seventy-Third Constitutional
Amendment Act (1992), which aimed to strengthen the decentralization of powers and resources to
local bodies.
Statement 2 is correct: The primary function of the SFC is to recommend the distribution of financial
resources between the state and its local bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities). This includes
recommending the allocation of tax revenues, duties, tolls and fees leviable by the State, between
the state and local bodies. The SFC also recommends grants-in-aid to the Local bodies from the
Consolidated Fund of the State.
Statement 3 is correct: The recommendations made by the SFC are non-binding on the state
government. This means that while the state government is expected to consider these
recommendations, it is not obligated to accept them.
Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keps208.pdf Page:186.
https://fincomindia.nic.in/archive/ShowContentOne.aspx?id=16&Section=1
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.18) In which of the following circumstances can Parliament legislate on subjects in the State List?
1. When the Rajya Sabha declares by a resolution that it is necessary in the national interest.
2. During a Financial Emergency.
3. When legislature of a state passes a resolution requesting Parliament to legislate on a subject.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Ans) a
[12]
Option 1 is correct: According to Article 249, if the Rajya Sabha declares by resolution that it is
necessary in the national interest for Parliament to make laws on a matter in the State List,
Parliament becomes competent to legislate on that matter.
This resolution must be supported by at least two-thirds of the members present and voting. The
resolution remains in force for one year and can be renewed any number of times, but not exceeding
one year at a time. Laws made under this provision cease to have effect six months after the
resolution expires unless further renewed.
Option 2 is incorrect: Parliament can legislate on matters in the State List during a Proclamation of
National Emergency or when President's Rule is imposed in a state. However, during a Financial
Emergency, there is no provision that allows Parliament to legislate on subjects in the State List.
Option 3 is incorrect: According to article 252, Parliament can legislate on a matter in the State
List only when the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions requesting it to do so. The
resolution must be passed by two or more states and not by a single state. A law enacted under this
provision applies exclusively to the states that have passed such resolutions, though other states may
adopt it later by passing similar resolutions.
Source:) Forum IAS- Mastering Indian Polity: Chapter-13 (FEDERAL STRUCTURE OF INDIAN POLITY)
Page 203-205
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.19) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Only the Parliament of India can enact laws that apply beyond the territorial boundaries
of India.
Statement II: The Constitution grants Parliament exclusive authority to legislate on residuary
subjects.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement I.
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for
Statement I.
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Ans) b
Statement I is correct: Article 245 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws for
the whole or any part of the territory of India and even for areas outside its territory if required. The
Parliament alone can make extra-territorial legislation. Thus, the laws enacted by Parliament are
also applicable to Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world.
Statement II is correct: According to Article 248 of the Constitution, Parliament has exclusive
authority to legislate on residuary subjects. Residuary subjects are those matters that are not
mentioned in the Union, State, or Concurrent Lists of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
While both statements are correct, Statement II does not explain Statement I: Statement I pertains
to Parliament's ability to legislate beyond India's territorial limits, which is governed by Article 245.
Statement II refers to Parliament's exclusive authority over residuary subjects, which is a separate
aspect under Article 248. Therefore, Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.
Hence, the correct answer is: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not
the correct explanation for Statement I.
Source:) Forum IAS- Mastering Indian Polity: Chapter-13 (FEDERAL STRUCTURE OF INDIAN POLITY)
Page 198-202
[13]
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.20) Consider the following statements:

1. A fixed tenure of five years for the Governor of a state
2. A concrete mechanism for resolving interstate boundary disputes in a fair and timely manner
3. Abolition of All India services
Which of the above were the recommendations of Punchhi Commission on Centre-State relations?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) a
The Government of India constituted a Commission on Centre-State Relations under the
chairmanship of Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi, former Chief Justice of India on 27 April 2007 to look
into the new issues of Centre-State relations keeping in view the changes that have taken place in the
polity and economy of India since the Sarkaria Commission had last looked at the issue of Centre-
State relations over two decades ago.
Statement 1 is correct. The Punchhi Commission recommended that Governors should have a fixed
tenure of five years, which is essential for ensuring stability and autonomy in their functioning. This
recommendation was made to prevent frequent removal of Governors based on political
considerations.
Statement 2 is correct. The Punchhi Commission highlighted the need for a permanent and fair
mechanism for resolving interstate boundary disputes, as they often result in prolonged conflicts
and tensions between states.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Punchhi Commission did not recommend the abolition of All India
Services (IAS, IPS, etc.). Instead, it emphasized their importance in maintaining the unity of India and
ensuring uniformity in administration across states. Further it also suggested to create new all-India
services in sectors like health, education, engineering and judiciary.
Source:) Mastering of Indian Polity by ForumIAS Chapter 13- Federal Structure of Indian Polity-
page-235, 236
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.21) Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State Subject under the State List.
b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject Under the Union List.
d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Ans) c
Option a is incorrect: Inter-state trade and commerce is entry 42 under Union list (not State List) of
Schedule 7 of the Constitution of India.
Option b is incorrect: Inter- state migration is a subject under entry 81 of Union list (not state list) of
[14]
Option c is correct: Inter-State quarantine is under entry 81 of Union list. Thus, it is a union subject of
Option d is incorrect: Corporation Tax is entry 85 of Union List (not State list) of Schedule 7 of the
Constitution of India.
Source:) UPSC CSE. PRE. 2024
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.22) Consider the following statements about the Inter-State Council:

1. It was established by the Janata Dal government in 1990.
2. Its function includes investigating subjects of common interest between states and the Centre.
3. Union Home Minister is the ex-officio chairman of the Inter-state Council.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) a
Statement 1 is correct: The Inter-State Council was established in 1990 by the President of India
through a Presidential Order, based on the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission. Although it
was established during the Janata Dal government's tenure (1989-1991), the initiative was taken based
on the Sarkaria Commission's report.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 263 specifies the duties that can be assigned to it in the following
manner: (a) enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may arise between states; (b)
investigating and discussing subjects in which the states or the Centre and the states have a
common interest; and (c) making recommendations upon any such subject, and particularly for the
better co-ordination of policy and action on it.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Prime Minister of India and not the Union Home Miniter is the
chairman of the Inter-state Council and if the Prime Minister is not available then he may nominate
any Union Minister of Cabinet to preside over the meetings of the Council.
Source:) Mastering Indian Polity by ForumIAS Chapter 13 Federal Structure of Indian Polity
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.23) With reference to the provisions of Trade and Commerce in the Constitution of India, consider
the following statements:
1. Both Parliament and State Legislatures can impose restrictions on intra-state trade under certain
conditions.
2. State Legislature can impose on goods imported from other states any tax to which similar goods
manufactured in that state are subject.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither nor 2
[15]
Ans) c
Articles 301 to 307 in Part XIII of the Constitution deal with the trade, commerce and intercourse
within the territory of India.
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 302 of Constitution of India, Parliament can impose
restrictions on the freedom of trade commerce and intercourse between the states or within a
state in public interest. The legislature of a state can impose reasonable restrictions on the
freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse with that state or within that state in public interest.
But, a bill for this purpose can be introduced in the legislature only with the previous sanction of the
President.
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 304 of Constitution of India, the legislature of a state can
impose on goods imported from other states or the union territories any tax to which similar
goods manufactured in that state are subject.
Source:) Ch: 16 - Inter-state relations
Laxmikanth
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.24) Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding Zonal Councils in India?
a) They are statutory bodies formed through the States Reorganization Act of 1956.
b) All the Zonal Councils are chaired by the union home minister.
c) Each chief minister of respective state acts as a vice-chairman of the council by rotation.
d) They can act as an adjudicatory body in the matter of inter-state dispute.
Ans) d
Statement a is correct: The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies.
They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Reorganisation Act of 1956. The act
divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided
a zonal council for each zone.
Statement b is correct: Each zonal council consists of the following members: (a) home minister of
Central government. (b) chief ministers of all the States in the zone. (c) Two other ministers from each
state in the zone. (d) Administrator of each union territory in the zone. The home minister of Central
government is the common chairman of the five zonal councils.
Statement c is correct: Each chief minister acts as a vice-chairman of the council by rotation,
holding office for a period of one year at a time
Statement d is incorrect: The zonal councils aim at promoting cooperation and coordination
between states, union territories and the Centre. They discuss and make recommendations regarding
matters like economic and social planning, linguistic minorities, border disputes, interstate transport,
and so on. They are only deliberative and advisory bodies (not adjudicatory bodies).
Source:) Ch: 16 - Inter-state relations
Laxmikanth
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
[16]
Q.25) With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained
in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article
142. It could mean which one of the following?
a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be
challenged in any court of law.
b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the
Parliament.
c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial
Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence
Ans) b
Article 142 of Constitution of India deals with Enforcement of decrees and orders of the Supreme
Court. It states that the Apex Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make
such order as is necessary for doing “complete justice” in any case pending before it. Such orders of
the Supreme Court are enforceable throughout the territory of India as prescribed by any law made
by Parliament or order of the President of India. Article 142 enables superseding the executive and the
legislative. Thus, the Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws
made by the Parliament. From Article 142, the Supreme Court derives overarching powers to perform
the functions of Executive and legislative in order to bring about complete justice.
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.26) With reference to Indian polity, consider the following bills:

1. A bill imposing any tax or duty in which states are interested.
2. A bill to appoint an appropriate authority for freedom of inter-state trade
3. A bill which affects the principles on which moneys are distributable to states
4. A bill imposing any surcharge on any specified tax for the purpose of the Centre
How many of the above bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the
President?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) c
The Constitution mandates that certain financial bills require the recommendation of the President
before being introduced in Parliament to protect states' interests.
Option 1, 3 and 4 are correct: To protect the interest of states in the financial matters, the
Constitution lays down that the following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on the
recommendation of the President:
• A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested;
• A bill which varies the meaning of the expression ‘agricultural income’ as defined for the purposes of
the enactments relating to Indian income tax;
• A bill which affects the principles on which moneys are or may be distributable to states; and
• A bill which imposes any surcharge on any specified tax or duty for the purpose of the Centre.
[17]
Option 2 is incorrect: Under Article 307 of Constitution of India Parliament can appoint an
appropriate authority for carrying out the purposes of the above provisions relating to the freedom of
trade, commerce and intercourse and restrictions on it.
Source:) Laxmikanth
Ch: 15 - Centre-State relations
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.27) With reference to the impact of a National Emergency on Centre-State relations, consider the
1. Central government can issue executive directions to any state on any matter during a National
Emergency.
2. Parliament can make laws on any subjects mentioned in the State List
3. President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre and states.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) d
Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part
of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
Statement 1 is correct: During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to
directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. In normal
times, the Centre can give executive directions to a state only on certain specified matters. However,
during a national emergency, the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on
‘any’ matter. Thus, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the Centre,
though they are not suspended.
Statement 2 is correct: During a national emergency, the Parliament becomes empowered to make
laws on any subject mentioned in the State List. Although the legislative power of a state legislature
is not suspended, it becomes subject to the overriding power of the Parliament. Thus, the normal
distribution of the legislative powers between the Centre and states is suspended, though the state
Legislatures are not suspended.
Statement 3 is correct: While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President
can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and the states. This
means that the president can either reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to the
states.
Source:) Mastering Indian Polity by ForumIAS
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.28) Which of the following are valid grounds for the removal of the chairperson or a member of the
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)?
2. If he/she is adjudged an insolvent.
3. If he/she engages in any paid employment outside their official duties, during his/her term of
office.
[18]
3. If he/she is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of
mind or body.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) d
The removal of the Chairperson or a member of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is
governed by Article 317 of the Indian Constitution. It provides the grounds and procedures for their
removal. The Chairperson or a member of the UPSC can only be removed by the President of India.
Option 1 is correct: Adjudged insolvency is a valid ground for removal. If a member of the UPSC,
including the chairperson, is declared bankrupt or unable to pay their debts, they can be removed
from their position.
Option 2 is correct: Engaging in paid employment outside the duties of office is also a valid ground
for removal. The chairperson or a member of the UPSC is prohibited from engaging in any paid
employment outside their official duties during their term. This rule is in place to prevent conflicts
of interest and ensure that their full attention and efforts are dedicated to their responsibilities in the
Commission.
Option 3 is correct: The Chairman or the members of UPSC can be removed by the President of India,
if in the opinion of the President, they are unfit to continue in office due to infirmity of mind or
body.
Knowledge Base:
Other grounds for Removal of UPSC Chairperson or a Member: Misbehaviour: In cases of
misbehaviour, the President must refer the matter to the Supreme Court of India for an inquiry. The
recommendation of the Supreme Court is binding on the President.
Source:) Indian Polity, Laxmikant, Chapter 44 (Union Public Service Commission) Page: 423.
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.29) Consider the following:

1. To determine the distribution of net Central GST between the Centre and the States.
2. To recommend the goods and services that may be subjected to or exempted from GST.
3. To recommend the cesses and surcharges levied by the centre, the states and the local
bodies which may be subsumed in the goods and services tax.
4. To recommend principles governing the grants-in-aid of revenues to States by the Centre.
The Goods and Services Tax Council shall make recommendations to the Union and the States on
which of the above according to the Constitution of India?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The GST Council is a constitutional body established to oversee and make recommendations on
issues related to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India. Formed under Article 279A of the
Constitution, it was created through the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2016.
[19]
The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes the Union Minister of State
for Finance and the finance ministers of state, or any other minister nominated by each state
government.
Statement 1 is incorrect: To determine the distribution of net Central GST taxes between the
Centre and the States is the responsibility of the Finance Commission (FC), not the GST Council.
Article 270 of the Constitution provides for the scheme of distribution of net tax proceeds collected
by the Union government between the Centre and the States. Thes taxes include corporation tax,
personal income tax, Central GST, the Centre’s share of the Integrated Goods and Services Tax
(IGST) etc. This division is based on the recommendation of the Finance Commission (FC).
Statement 2 is correct: To make recommendations to the centre and the states, regarding the goods
and services that may be subjected to, or exempted from GST is a core function of the GST Council.
Statement 3 is correct: Recommending the taxes, cesses and surcharges levied by the Centre, the
States, and the local bodies that would get merged into GST is also a function of the GST Council.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Recommending principles governing the grants-in-aid of revenues to
States by the Centre is a function of the Finance Commission, not the GST Council.
Source:) Indian Polity, M.Laxmikanth, Chapter 47 (Goods and Service Tax) Page: 434
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/on-financial-devolution-among-states-
explained/article67872209.ece
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.30) Consider the following information:

Body Established by Function
1. National Commission 99th Constitutional
To ensure the implementation of the
for Scheduled Tribes Amendment Act, 2014
Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas)
Act, 1996
rd
2. National Commission 103 Constitutional To handle the complaints and grievances
for Backward Classes Amendment Act, 2019 related to Other backward classes (OBCs)
3. Special Officer for 7th Constitutional To investigate matters related to the
Linguistic Minorities Amendment Act, 1956 Constitutional safeguards provided to the
linguistic minorities
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) a
Information in row 1 is incorrect: The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was
established under the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003, which inserted Article 338A in
the Constitution of India. It monitors all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled
Tribes., and ensures their socio-economic development.
One of its key functions is to ensure the full implementation of the Panchayat (Extension to
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA). PESA extends the provisions of Panchayati Raj institutions to
tribal areas, empowering tribals with greater control over their resources and governance in
Scheduled Areas.
[20]
The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act (2014), on the other hand, pertains to the creation of the
National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) for the appointment of judges to the higher
judiciary.
Information in row 2 is incorrect: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was
established through the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2018, which added Article 338B to
the Constitution of India. The NCBC is tasked with safeguarding the interests of socially and
educationally backward classes. Ons of its primary functions is to handle complaints and Grievances
relating to OBCs.
The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act (2019) does not relate to the NCBC; instead, it introduced
a 10% reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS), which is a separate provision.
Information in row 3 is correct: The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created through
the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956. The officer’s role, as outlined under Article 350B of
the Constitution, is to ensure the protection and promotion of the rights of linguistic minorities in
India. This includes investigating all matters related to safeguards provided to the linguistic
minorities.
Source:) https://ncst.nic.in/content/frequently-asked-questions
https://www.ncbc.nic.in/User_Panel/UserView.aspx?TypeID=1179
Indian Polity, M.Laxmikanth, Chapter 51 (Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities) Page: 442
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.31) With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is
correct?
a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
c) It ensures transparency in financial administration
d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Ans) d
Set up under Article 280 of the Constitution, the Finance Commission is a Constitutionally mandated
body that is at the centre of fiscal federalism. Its core responsibility is to evaluate the state of finances
of the Union and State Governments, recommend the sharing of taxes between them, lay down the
principles determining the distribution of these taxes among States. Thus, none of the statements
given in above options are correct with reference to Finance Commission. The Finance Commission is
required to make recommendations to the President of India on the following matters:
1. The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and
the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the
consolidated fund of India).
3. The measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of
the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the
state finance commission.
4. Any other matter referred to it by the president in the interests of sound finance.
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
[21]
Q.32) With reference to the provisions ensuring the independence of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. S/he is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after
retirement.
2. The expenses of the CAG's office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. S/he is provided with a security of tenure under the Constitution of India.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) d
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is a constitutional office established under
Article 148 of the Indian Constitution.
1. S/he is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and plays a critical role in ensuring
financial accountability in the country.
2. CAG is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of India at both
the Centre and State levels.
3. To maintain its independence and impartiality, the office of the CAG is provided with several
provisions aimed at safeguarding its autonomy.
Statement 1 is correct: The CAG is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of
India or any state, after retirement. This provision ensures the independence of the CAG by
preventing post-retirement appointments that might influence their work.
Statement 2 is correct: The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including salaries,
allowances, and pensions of its staff, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. This means
that these expenses are not subject to the vote of Parliament, ensuring financial independence for
the CAG's office.
Statement 3 is correct: The CAG is appointed by the President of India for a fixed term of six years
or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier, and does not hold the office on the pleasure of the
President. The tenure can only be terminated by a process that mirrors the removal process of a
Supreme Court judge, which ensures that the CAG can function independently and impartially,
without the threat of arbitrary removal by the executive.
Source:) Indian Polity, by M. Laxmikanth – Chapter 52 (Comptroller and Auditor General of India)
Page: 444
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.33) With reference to the Solicitor General of India, consider the following statements:
1. The office of the Solicitor General is not mentioned in the Constitution.
2. S/he assists the Attorney General in the fulfilment of the latter’s official responsibilities.
3. S/he holds the same rank as the Cabinet Secretary in the table of precedence.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
[22]
Ans) a
The Solicitor General of India is the second-highest law officer in the country, below the Attorney
General of India, and plays a crucial role in representing the Government of India in courts.
Statement 1 is correct: The office of the Solicitor General is not a constitutional post. It is a position
created to assist the Attorney General of India, as specified under executive arrangements. Only the
office of the Attorney General is created by the Constitution. The Solicitor General’s office is statutory
and established under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961.
Statement 2 is correct: Solicitor General of India assists the Attorney General in carrying out their
official duties, essentially acting as the second-highest law officer in the country and supporting the
Attorney General in legal matters.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Solicitor General of India does not hold the same rank as the Cabinet
Secretary in the Table of Precedence. Infact, S/he holds the 23rd rank in the Table of Precedence with
other dignitaries.
The Attorney General of India holds the same rank (11th) as the Cabinet Secretary in the Table of
Precedence.
Source:) Laxmikanth Ch: 53 - Attorney general
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.34) With reference to different types of grants given to the states, which of the following statement
is correct?
a) Statutory Grants are a fixed amount given to each state as decided in the Budget of each financial
year.
b) Discretionary Grants are given for raising the level of administration of the scheduled areas in
a state.
c) Statutory Grants under Article 275 are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance
Commission.
d) Discretionary Grants need to be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament before
it can be voted on by the Lok Sabha.
Ans) c
Constitution provides for grants-in-aid to the states from the Central resources. There are two types
of grants-in-aid, viz, statutory grants and discretionary grants.
Option a is incorrect: Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in
need of financial assistance and not to every state. Also, different sums may be fixed for different
states.
Option b is incorrect: Article 282 empowers both the Centre and the states to make any grants for
any public purpose, even if it is not within their respective legislative competence. Under this
provision, the Centre makes grants to the states. “These grants are also known as discretionary
grants. These grants have a two-fold purpose: to help the state financially to fulfil plan targets; and
to give some leverage to the Centre to influence and coordinate state action to effectuate the
national plan.”
Constitution provides for statutory grants for promoting the welfare of the scheduled tribes in a
state or for raising the level of administration of the scheduled areas in a state including the State
of Assam.
Option c is correct: Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states
which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state. The statutory grants under Article
275 (both general and specific) are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance
[23]
Commission.
Option d is incorrect: Excess Grant (not Discretionary Grant) is granted when money has been
spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the
budget for that year. Before the demands for excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for
voting, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
Under article 282, both centre and states are able to make any grants for public purpose even if they
are not within their legislative competence.
Source:) Laxmikanth Chapter 14 Centre-State Relations
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.35) The National Commission for Women was created by

a) an amendment in the Constitution of India
b) a decision of the Union Cabinet
c) an Act passed by the Parliament
d) an order of the President of India
Ans) c
• The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under • the
National Commission for Women Act, 1990. • The First Commission was constituted on 31st January
1992 with Mrs. Jayanti Patnaik as the Chairperson.
• The Functions of National commission for women: a) It reviews the Constitutional and legal
safeguards for women; b) Recommend remedial legislative measures, c) Facilitate redressal of
grievances and advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.
Source:) UPSC CDS 2017 (II)
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.36) With reference to Central Information Commission (CIC), consider the following statements:
1. Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
2. The term of office for Information Commissioners is prescribed by the Central Government.
3. Only those Members of Parliament are eligible to be an Information Commissioner who does not
belong to the ruling party or the ruling coalition.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans) a
The Central Information Commission has been constituted with effect from 12-10-2005 under the
Right to Information Act, 2005. The jurisdiction of the Commission extends over all Central Public
Authorities. The Central Information Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and
not more than ten Information Commissioners.
Statement 1 is correct: Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President on the
recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of
Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
[24]
Statement 2 is correct: The term of office for CIC members is determined by the Central
Government or until they reach the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier, as per the RTI Amendment
Act, 2019.
Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the Right to Information Act 2005, the Chief Information
Commissioner or an Information Commissioner shall not be a Member of Parliament or Member of
the Legislature of any State or Union territory, as the case may be, or hold any other office of profit or
connected with any political party or carrying on any business or pursuing any profession. So, the
statement is incorrect.
The members of CIC shall be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience
in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media, or administration
and governance.
Source:) Laxmikant Ch: 62 - CIC
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.37) With reference to Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), consider the following statements:
1. It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
2. The jurisdiction of the Commission covers public servants under both the Central Government and
state Governments.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) d
To address the increasing rate of corruption, the Government of India established a high-power
committee in 1962, chaired by K. Santhanam. The Santhanam Committee recommended the
establishment of Vigilance Commissions at both the central and state levels to deal with corruption
cases. Based on this committee recommendation, Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was
established in 1964.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Central Vigilance Commission was established in 1964 through an
executive resolution. At that time, it was neither constitutional nor statutory body. However, it
became a statutory body later under the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 which serves as
the source of its powers.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As the Designated Agency, the CVC is responsible for receiving written
complaints or disclosures regarding allegations of corruption or misuse of office by any employee of
the Central Government, or by employees of corporations, government companies, societies, or local
authorities established or controlled by the Central Government. The jurisdiction of the CVC does
not extend to the State governments.
Knowledge Base:
The acts relevant to Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
• The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003: It established the CVC as an independent statutory
body and provided the composition, functions, and powers of CVC to combat corruption in public
administration
• Under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) supervises
corruption investigations in government agencies. It is empowered to refer cases to the Central
Vigilance Officers (CVOs) of respective departments or to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) for
further action.
[25]
• The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013: The act empowers the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) to
investigate matters referred by the Lokpal concerning Group 'B', 'C', and 'D' employees of the central
government, as well as officials and staff of corporations, companies, societies, and local authorities
owned by the central government.
• Whistleblower Protection Act 2014 provides for the protection of the identity of the whistleblowers.
Under the act , a person can make a public interest disclosure on corruption before the CVC.
Source:) https://cvc.gov.in/files/pidpi-pdf/PID%2000003.pdf
https://thc.nic.in/Central%20Governmental%20Acts/Whistle%20Blowers%20Protection%20Act,%2
02014..pdf
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=90575#:~:text=The%20CVC%20is%20a%20stat
utory,Special%20Police%20Establishment%20Act%2C%201946.
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.38) With reference to Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements:
Statement I: Under no circumstance, it can investigate a crime within a state’s border without the
consent of the concerned state government.
Statement II: The Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act of 1946 requires the CBI to obtain the
consent of the state governments before investigating a crime within a particular state.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement I
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation for
Statement I
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Ans) d
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home
Affairs based on the recommendation of Santhanam committee. This premier investigating police
agency of India later was transferred to Department of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension &
Public Grievances, Government of India. It was initially mandated to investigate cases of bribery and
corruption and now evolved into a multi-faceted and multi-disciplinary premier Investigating and
Prosecuting Agency of the Government of India.
Statement I is incorrect: Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) generally requires the consent of the
concerned state government to investigate crimes within that state. This is in line with the principle
of federalism in India. A state government can grant consent to the CBI in two forms: case-specific or
general. General consent allows the CBI to operate freely within the state, while without it, the CBI
must seek case-by-case approval before proceeding with an investigation.
However, the Supreme Court and High Courts, can order CBI to investigate such a crime anywhere
in the country without the consent of the State.
Statement II is correct: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) derives its investigative authority
from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946. According to Section 6 of the Act, the
CBI can investigate offences in states only if the concerned state government grants its consent.
Hence option a is correct: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the
correct explanation for Statement I
Source:) https://cbi.gov.in/about-us?search=who-we-are
https://www.deccanherald.com/india/explained-what-is-general-consent-to-the-cbi-and-which-
states-have-withdrawn-it-1158109.html
[26]
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.39) The members of Lokpal are appointed based on the recommendation of a Selection committee.
In this context, who among the following is not part of the Selection committee of Lokpal?
a) Prime Minister
b) Home Minister
c) Leaded of Opposition in Lok Sabha
d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans) b
The Lokpal was created under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act of 2013. It is an anti-corruption
ombudsman body setup at national level to investigate corruption allegations against wide range of
public servants. Its jurisdiction extents to Prime Minister, Ministers, Members of Parliament and
public servants from all groups (A, B, C, and D) and officials of central government.
The Lokpal is multimember body that consist of a chairperson with maximum of eight members out of
which :
1) 50% must be judicial members, who are either former judges of the Supreme Court or former Chief
Justices of High Courts.
2) At least 50% of the members (including the Chairperson) must belong to Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, minorities, and women.
The President of India appoints the chairperson and members of Lokapal after receiving
recommendations from a Selection committee, as per the Act.
The Selection Committee consist of the Prime Minister as chairperson, the Speaker of the Lok
Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (but not home minister), the Chief Justice of
India or a sitting Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice of India and an eminent jurist
to be nominated by the President of India on the basis of recommendations of the first four members
of the selection committee.
Source:) https://lokpal.gov.in/?about_us?about_lokpal?0101
https://lokpal.gov.in/pdfs/FreqAQs.pdf
Laxmikanth- Ch: 66 - Lokpal & Lokayukta
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.40) With reference to National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), consider the following
statements:
1. It is a multi-member body headed by the Prime Minister of India.
2. It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
change.
3. It exercises superintendence and control over the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF).
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Ans) c
[27]
Disaster Management Act of 2005 provided for the establishment of National Disaster Management
Authority (NDMA) as an apex body at the national level to lay down the policies, plans and guidelines
for Disaster Management.
Statement 1 is correct: The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), as per the Disaster
Management Act of 2005, consists of the Chairperson and up to nine members. The Prime Minister
of India serves as the ex officio Chairperson of the Authority, and the other members are nominated
by the Chairperson.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The NDMA operates under the administrative control of the Union
Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Statement 3 is correct: The NDMA, as the apex body for comprehensive disaster management in the
country, performs various functions, including exercising general superintendence, direction, and
control over the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF). NDRF is a specialized force in India
created for disaster management tasked with responding to both natural and man-made disasters in
India.
Source:) https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/2045/1/AAA2005___53.pdf
https://ndma.gov.in/about-us/introduction
Laxmikanth - Ch: 68 - NDMA
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q. 41) In India, which one of the following is responsible for the implementation of the Government of
India’s policy in all matters concerning telecommunications?
a) Digital Communications Commission
b) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
c) Telecom Advisory Committee
d) Telecommunications Consultants India Limited
Ans) a
Digital Communications Commission (Erstwhile Telecom Commission)
It is responsible for:
1. Formulating the policy of Department of
Telecommunications for approval of the Government;
2. Preparing the budget for the Department of Telecommunications for each financial year and
getting it approved by the Government; &
3. Implementation of Government's policy in all matters concerning telecommunication.
Source:) UPSC CDS 2022(II)
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.42) With reference to the Bar Council of India (BCI), consider the following statements:
1. It is neither a statutory nor a constitutional body.
2. The Attorney-General of India is an ex-officio member of the Council.
3. Its chairman is appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
[28]
Ans) b
The Bar Council of India is a statutory body created by Parliament to regulate and represent the
Indian Bar. It performs the regulatory function by prescribing standards of professional conduct and
etiquette and by exercising disciplinary jurisdiction over the Bar.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bar Council of India (BCI) was established under a legislation enacted
by the Parliament, namely, the Advocates Act of 1961. Hence, it is a statutory body (however, it is not
a constitutional body).
Statement 2 is correct: The BCI consists of the elected members as well as the ex-officio members.
This includes:
1. The Attorney-General of India and the Solicitor General of India are the ex-officio members.
2. One member is to be elected by each State Bar Council (SBC) from amongst its members. The term
of office of a member of the BCI, elected by an SBC, shall be for the period for which he/she holds
office as a member of that SBC.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The BCI shall have a Chairman and a Vice-Chairman. They are elected by
the Council from amongst its members. They hold office for a period of two years.
Source:) Indian Polity, M. Laxmikanth, 7th Edition, Chapter – 69, Bar Council of India
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.43) Which of the following bodies is responsible for deciding the number of Lok Sabha and
Legislative Assembly seats reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) based on
their population?
a) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
b) Election Commission of India
c) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
d) Delimitation Commission
Ans) d
The Delimitation Commission is a statutory body established by the Central Government under the
provisions of a law enacted by the Parliament. So far, four such Commissions have been constituted.
Option d is correct: The Delimitation Commission of India is responsible for deciding the number
of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, wherever their population is
relatively large. It redraws the boundaries of the State Legislative Assembly and Lok Sabha
constituencies to reflect changes in population.
1. Articles 81 (Composition of Lok Sabha), 82 (Re-adjustment after Census), 170 (Composition of State
Assemblies), 330 (Reservation of Seats for SCs/STs in Lok Sabha), and 332 (Reservation of Seats for
SCs/STs in State Assemblies) of the Constitution of India deal with the limitation of the Parliamentary
and Assembly constituencies.
2. The Commission is appointed by the President of India and comprises a retired judge of the
Supreme Court or a high court, the Chief Election Commissioner and the State Election
Commissioner.
Source:) Indian Polity, M. Laxmikanth, 7th Edition, Chapter – 71, Delimitation Commission of India
https://indianexpress.com/article/political-pulse/delimitation-and-the-changing-india-political-
map-8950367/
https://ceomadhyapradesh.nic.in/delimitation/Delimitation_of_Constituencies.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
[29]
Q.44) Consider the following statements with reference to NITI Aayog:

1. The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog.
2. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog includes the Chief Ministers of all states.
3. The Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog holds a rank equivalent to that of a Cabinet Minister.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) d
NITI (National Institution for Transforming India) Aayog was established in 2015 to replace the
erstwhile Planning Commission. It designs strategic and long-term policies and programes for the
Government of India. It includes a Governing Council, various Regional Councils and specialized
wings (Research Wing, Consultancy Wing and Team India Wing). for the Government of India. It
includes a Governing Council, various Regional Councils and specialized wings (Research Wing,
Consultancy Wing and Team India Wing).
Statement 1 is correct: The Prime Minister of India serves as the Chairperson of NITI Aayog.
Statement 2 is correct: The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises the Chief Ministers of all
the States, Chief Ministers of Union Territories with Legislatures (i.e., Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu
and Kashmir) and Lt. Governors of other Union Territories.
1. The Governing Council embodies the objectives of cooperative federalism and is a platform to
discuss inter-sectoral, inter-departmental and federal issues to accelerate the implementation of the
national development agenda.
Statement 3 is correct: The Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog holds a rank equivalent to that of a
Cabinet Minister. He/she is appointed by the Prime Minister. The full-time members enjoy the rank
of a Minister of State.
Knowledge Base:
NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional
and policy inputs. It was created by an executive resolution of the Government of India (i.e., Union
Cabinet). Hence, it is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
Source:) Indian Polity, M. Laxmikanth, 7th Edition, Chapter – 56, NITI Aayog
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.45) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas office at Dubai and Moscow.
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4
[30]
Ans) d
Statement 1 is correct: The Tea Board of India is a statutory body created under the Tea Act, 1953 and
it was established for the purposes of regulating the Indian tea industry and protecting the interests
of tea producers in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the
Ministry of Commerce.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Tea Board of India’s Head Office is situated in Kolkata.
Statement 4 is correct: The Tea Board of India has overseas offices in Moscow, Dubai, Hamburg,
London and New York. Moscow office. The Moscow office of the Tea Board of India operates under
the Embassy of India, and its area of activity includes Russia and the CIS countries, which comprise
50% of Indian tea exports.
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.46) Consider the following statements regarding the special provisions with respect to Sikkim
under the Constitution of India:
1. The special provisions for Sikkim were added to the Indian Constitution through the 36th
Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. As part of the special provisions, Sikkim has been allocated two seats in Lok Sabha.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Articles 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the Constitution provide special provisions for twelve Indian states,
including Sikkim. These provisions were not part of the original Constitution but were introduced
through various amendments. These amendments were made to address the reorganization of states,
to grant statehood to certain Union Territories and also to meet aspirations, protect cultural and
economic interests of the people in states.
Statement 1 is correct: The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975 granted Sikkim full
statehood within the Indian Union and introduced Article 371-F, which contains the special
provisions for the state.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the special provisions, Sikkim has been allocated one seat (not two
seats) in the Lok Sabha, forming a single Parliamentary constituency.
Source:) https://necouncil.gov.in/sites/default/files/uploadfiles/371F.pdf
Laxmikanth- Chapter 37- Special Provisions for Some States
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.47) According to the Constitution of India the full faith and credit shall be given throughout the
territory of India to which of the following?
1. Records of Union and States
2. Public Acts of Union and States
3. Judicial Proceedings of Union and the States
[31]

a) 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) d
The doctrine of full faith and credit promotes consistency and cooperation among different
jurisdictions in India. The doctrine helps to maintain consistency in the application of laws and
judgments across different states. This, in turn, promotes cooperation and reduces potential
conflicts between different jurisdictions.
Options 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Article 261(1) states that "Full faith and credit shall be given
throughout the territory of India to public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and
of every State." This means the principle applies to public acts (laws), records, and judicial decisions
of both the Union and the States, not just the Union.
Also, the manner in which and the conditions under which the acts, records and proceedings referred
to in clause (1) of Article 261 (1) shall be proved and the effect thereof determined shall be as provided
by law made by Parliament.
Source:) Mastering of Indian Polity by ForumIAS-chapter- Federal Structure of Indian Polity- page-
209, 210;
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.48) In the contexts of India, consider the following statements with reference to the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas:
1. The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India resembles to the institution of Ombudsman in
Scandinavian countries.
2. There is uniformity among the powers of Lokayuktas of different states.
3. The Prime Minister of India has been kept completely outside the purview of the Lokpal.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 provided for the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and
Lokayukta for States. The Act allows setting up of anti-corruption ombudsman called Lokpal at the
Centre and Lokayukta at the State-level. They perform the function of an "ombudsman” and inquire
into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries and for related matters.
Statement 1 is correct: The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India resembles to the institution of
Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries. The term Lokpal is a Sanskrit word; ‘Lok’ means 'People' and
‘pala’ means 'Protector'. The term was coined as an Indian variant of the concept of 'Ombudsman',
which has a Scandinavian origin and refers to an official who is appointed to invesgate complaints of
cizens against the administraon.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013, every state has the autonomy to
frame their own laws, thus the Lokayukta’s powers vary from state to state on various aspects, such
as tenure, and the need for sanction to prosecute officials. Some states such as Rajasthan, Karnataka,
[32]
Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra have created the Lokayukta as well as Up-Lokayukta, while some
other states have created only the Lokayukta.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Prime Minister of India has been brought under the purview of the
Lokpal with subject matter exclusions and specific process for handling complaints against the
Prime Minister. The Lokpal has jurisdiction to inquire into allegations of corruption against anyone
who is or has been Prime Minister, or a Minister in the Union government, or a Member of
Parliament.
Source:) Indian Polity by Laxmikanth, 6th Edition Chapter 60
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.49) Legal disputes between the Centre and the states or between different states are primarily
resolved by?
a) Supreme Court of India
b) High Courts
c) The President of India
d) Prime Minister’s Office
Ans) a
The legal disputes between the centre and the states (or between states) can be resolved by the
judiciary. The Supreme Court of India has exclusive original jurisdiction over disputes between the
central government and one or more states or between two or more states. "Exclusive" implies that
only the Supreme Court has the authority to adjudicate such disputes, and "original" signifies that this
court has the initial jurisdiction to handle these cases, rather than hearing them on appeal.
Source:) NCERT Class 11 constitution at work- chapter 7
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.50) Which of the following are among the qualifications for a person to be appointed as a member
of Finance Commission of India, as per the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951?
1. A person who is or has been or is qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court.
2. A person who has special knowledge of the finances and accounts of the Government.
3. A person with expertise in social work at grassroot level.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) b
Options 1 and 2 are correct: As per the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951 the
Qualifications for appointment as, and the manner of selection of, members of the commission: The
Chairman of the Commission shall be selected from among persons who have had experience in
public affairs, and the four other members shall be selected from among persons who--
1. are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court; or
2. have special knowledge of the finances and accounts of Government; or
3. have had wide experience in financial matters and in administration; or
[33]
4. have special knowledge of economics.

Option 3 is incorrect: A person with expertise in social work at grassroot level is not one of the
qualifications for a person to be appointed as a member of Finance Commission of India, as per the
Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951.
Source:) Laxmikanth Chp. Finance Commission
https://fincomindia.nic.in/finance-commission-act
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
[34]

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SFG 2025 | Level 1 | Test - #4 - Solutions |

Q.7) Consider the following information:

Q.9) Consider the following states in India:

Mastering Indian Polity by ForumIAS, Chapter 8 Union and its Territory

● Supremacy of the Constitution

Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/iess403.pdf Page:47

Q.19) Consider the following statements:

Q.20) Consider the following statements:

Q.22) Consider the following statements about the Inter-State Council:

Q.26) With reference to Indian polity, consider the following bills:

Q.29) Consider the following:

Q.30) Consider the following information:

Q.35) The National Commission for Women was created by

Q.44) Consider the following statements with reference to NITI Aayog:

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4. have special knowledge of economics.

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