SRI BALAJI VIDYAPEETH

MAHATMA GANDHI MEDICAL COLLEGE & RESEARCH INSTITUTE

Pillaiyarkuppam, Pondicherry - 607 405
Department of Microbiology

Exam: IV Formative Assessment Date: 25.08.2024 Marks Obtained

Portion: General Microbiology & Immunology Time: 09:30 - 10:30 AM

Name: Total marks: 50

UIN: Candidate’s Sign:

Choose the single best answer 6) Deficiency of Foxp3 receptor leads to ________
(a) IPEX syndrome
1) India ink staining is used to demonstrate (b) Runt disease
(a) Capsule (c) Daudi cells
(b) Cell wall (d) Bare lymphocyte syndrome
(c) Flagella
(d) Spore 7) KOH wet mount is done for microscopic
examination for fungus in clinical samples
2) MHC I molecules are expressed on all of the because
following, EXCEPT (a) It avoids drying
(a) Macrophages (b) It digests keratin
(b) Endothelial cells (c) It is a disinfectant
(c) Sperms (d) It stains fungal element
(d) Platelets
8) All of the following are properties of innate
3) All of the following are examples of enriched immunity, EXCEPT
media, EXCEPT (a) Specific
(a) Blood agar (b) Rapidity
(b) Bile salt agar (c) Diversity
(c) Chocolate agar (d) Memory
(d) Loeffler’s serum slope
9) Drug resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
4) Which of the following statement is TRUE? due to
(a) Innate immunity appears after an encounter (a) Transformation
with a pathogen (b) Transduction
(b) Adoptive immunity is obtained by passive (c) Conjugation
transfer of antibodies (d) Mutation
(c) Mucosal immunity is mediated by IgE
antibodies. 10) Which one of the following is the smallest virus?
(d) Herd immunity plays a vital role in preventing (a) Adeno virus
epidemic diseases (b) Herpes virus
(c) Parvo virus
5) Anaerobic jar is commonly used to grow (d) Smallpox virus
(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 11) Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is an
(c) Clostridium tetani example of _______ hypersensitivity.
(d) Staphylococcus aureus (a) Type I
 (b) Type II 19) The temperature & time period used in hot air
(c) Type III oven is ________________
(d) Type IV (a) 160°C for 2 hours
(b) 160°C for 1 hour
12) All of the following are released from mast cells (c) 140°C for 2 hours
during an allergic reaction, EXCEPT (d) 140°C for 1 hour
(a) Histamine
(b) Interferons 20) All the following parasites are nematodes,
(c) Prostaglandins EXCEPT
(d) Interleukins (a) Ancyclostoma
(b) Strongyloides
13) Which of the following is an enveloped virus? (c) Taenia
(a) Herpes virus (d) Trichuris
(b) Adeno virus
(c) Papova virus 21) Grafting between genetically non identical
(d) None of the above members of same species is called as
(a) Autograft
14) Which of the following immunodeficiency (b) Allograft
diseases occur due to T cell defect (c) Isograft
(a) Bruton Disease (d) Xenograft
(b) Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis
(c) Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency 22) ------------- causes disease only in immune
(d) Chediak–Higashi Syndrome compromised people.
(a) Pathogens
15) CRP is a/an ____________ (b) Opportunistic pathogens
(a) Antibody against pneumococcus (c) Parasites
(b) Acute Phase Reactant protein (d) Commensals
(c) Specific marker for bacterial infections
(d) None of the above 23) All of the following statements are true, EXCEPT
(a) IL-6 level increases earlier than that of CRP &
16) Parasites, which infect a host where they cannot Procalcitonin
develop further is called as (b) Elevated serum lactate level is used in
(a) Obligate parasites defining sepsis
(b) Facultative parasites (c) Procalcitonin levels are raised in viral
(c) Aberrant parasites infection
(d) Accidental parasites (d) CRP is a non-specific biomarker

17) Chemical nature of endotoxin is 24) TSI agar medium contains all the following
(a) Protein carbohydrates EXCEPT
(b) Carbohydrate (a) Glucose
(c) Lipopolysaccharide (b) Lactose
(d) None of the above (c) Sucrose
(d) Mannitol
18) Acute graft rejection is mediated by __________
(a) Preformed antibodies 25) Passive immunisation is indicated in ________
(b) Cytotoxic T cell (a) Diphtheria
(c) Delayed type hypersensitivity (b) Botulism
(d) Activated macrophages (c) Tetanus
(d) All of the above
26) Steam sterilisation at 100°C for 3 successive days (d) Mac Conkey agar
is known as
(a) Tyndallisation 33) Which of the following is a precipitation
(b) Inspissation reaction?
(c) Pasteurisation (a) Coombs test
(d) Vaccine bath (b) RPR test
(c) Weil Felix reaction
27) All of the following statements are true, EXCEPT (d) Latex agglutination test
(a) TH2 immune response leads to suppression of
TH1 response 34) Cross-infections occurring in hospitals are called
(b) Spleen plays a critical role in removing (a) Nosocomial infection
capsulated bacteria (b) Opportunistic infection
(c) Antibodies have no role in immunity against (c) Primary infection
viral infections (d) Secondary infection
(d) Helminths cannot be engulfed by phagocytes
35) NK cell detects viral infected host cells by sensing
28) Which of the following is dimorphic fungi? ___________ on the host cell surface
(a) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis (a) Presence of MHC class I molecules
(b) Coccidioides immitis (b) Absence of MHC class I molecules
(c) Sporothrix schenckii (c) Presence of MHC class II molecules
(d) All of the above (d) Absence of MHC class II molecules

29) Under which condition Graft-versus-host reaction 36) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
occurs? (a) Tumor-associated antigens are present only
(a) When tumor tissue is grafted on tumor cells
(b) When graft is infected with microorganism (b) Prostate-specific antigen is a type of tumor-
(c) When graft has immunocompetent T cells specific antigen
(d) When graft has HLA antigens fond in the (c) Oncofetal antigens are proteins expressed on
recipient normal cells during fetal life
(d) Tumor-specific antigens of virus induced
30) The process of genetic transfer from DNA to RNA tumors are specific to the tumor
is known as
(a) Transformation 37) Who introduced the techniques of sterilisation
(b) Transduction (a) Louis Pasteur
(c) Translation (b) Robert Koch
(d) Transcription (c) Joseph Lister
(d) John Needham
31) _________ is not involved in immunity against
extracellular pathogen 38) Most of the complement components are
(a) IgM Antibody (a) Antibodies
(b) IgA Antibody (b) Cytokines
(c) IgG Antibody (c) Enzymes
(d) IgD Antibody (d) Glycolipids

32) Which medium is ideal for antimicrobial 39) Which of the following bacteria is cell wall
susceptibility testing of bacterial isolates? deficient?
(a) Blood agar (a) Escherichia coli
(b) Nutrient agar (b) Mycoplasma
(c) Mueller-Hinton agar (c) Treponema pallidum
 (d) Salmonella typhi (a) Microaerophilic
(b) Capnophilic
40) Myasthenia gravis is an example of (c) Aerobic
(a) Type I hypersensitivity (d) Anaerobic
(b) Type II hypersensitivity
(c) Type III hypersensitivity 48) ____________ is an advantage of live attenuated
(d) Type IV hypersensitivity vaccine over killed vaccine
(a) Safer in pregnancy
41) Prozone phenomenon occurs due to _________ (b) Stable at room temperature
(a) Excess of antibodies (c) Induces mucosal immunity
(b) Excess of antigens (d) Reversion of virulence
(c) Presence of multiple antigens
(d) Diluted serum 49) Generation time of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
is ______________
42) Enveloped viruses are susceptible to: (a) 20 seconds
(a) Ether (b) 20 minutes
(b) Chloroform (c) 20 hours
(c) Both A & B (d) 20 days
(d) None of the above
50) Hereditary angioneurotic edema occurs due to
43) Glutaraldehyde is used for sterilisation of deficiency of
(a) Cystoscopes (a) Properdin
(b) Endoscopes (b) C1 esterase inhibitor
(c) Bronchoscopes (c) Membrane attack complex
(d) All of the above (d) Factor D

44) The membrane attack complex in the

complement pathway consists of ____________
(a) C5a6789
(b) C5b6789
(c) C6789
(d) C789

45) A tuft of flagella present at one or both ends of

bacterial cell is known as
(a) Monotrichous
(b) Amphitrichous
(c) Lophotrichous
(d) Peritrichous

46) Which of the following does not enhance

phagocytosis?
(a) C3a
(b) C3b
(c) C4b
(d) C5a

47) Bacteria that require higher levels of CO2 for

their growth are known as