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Test 3 Q & A

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19 views28 pages

Test 3 Q & A

Uploaded by

Aman Guleria
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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1. With reference to Subhash Chandra Bose, 4.

She was the first queen to fight against the


consider the following statements: British colonial power in India. In
1. The newspaper ‘Swaraj’ was started by collaboration with Hyder Ali and Gopala
Subhash Chandra Bose. Nayaker, she waged a war against the
2. Jawaharlal Nehru constituted a British and emerged victorious. She went
National Planning Committee under the on to produce the first human bomb, as
chairmanship of Subhash Chandra well as establish the first army of trained
Bose. women soldiers in the late 1700s. She was
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Bhima Bai Holkar
correct?
(b) Rani Velu Nachiyar
(a) 1 only
(c) Rukmini Lakshmipathi
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Kittur Chennamma

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


5. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
2. With reference to the Indian National Army matched?
(INA), which of the following statements are S.N. Dance/Martial Art Region
correct?
1. Khukuri Manipur
1. It was formed with the Indians in the
South-east Asian countries. 2. Thang-ta Sikkim
2. Rash Behari Bose was entrusted with 3. Kalaripayattu Kerala
the responsibility of raising the Army.
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Colonel Shah Nawaz, Major G.S. Dhillon
given below:
and Captain Prem Sehgal were the
leaders of the INA. (a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 3 only
given below: (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
6. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
(d) 1, 2 and 3
matched?
S.N. Petroglyphs Site Region
3. With reference to Purana Qila, consider the
following statements: 1. Kupgal Karnataka
1. Purana Qila is made up of grey 2. Sindhudurg Tamil Nadu
sandstone.
3. Unakoti Maharashtra
2. It was built by the Mughal emperor
Humayun, as a part of his new city of Select the correct answer using the code
Din Panah. given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

1
7. Which of the following statements is / are 10. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding Millets? correct?
1. They are generally grown in the tropical 1. High concentration of Ozone is found in
and the sub-tropical climates, and have the layer of the atmosphere between 10-
wide adaptability to different types of 50 km altitude.
soil.
2. Ozone depletion is directly related to the
2. They can withstand high temperature
formation of the Polar Vortex.
and long periods of droughts.
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Which of the following statements is/are 11. Consider the following statements
correct regarding the Deepwater regarding the Indian Skimmers:
Circulations?
1. They are classified as ‘Critically
1. Temperature and density difference are
Endangered’ by the IUCN.
the main factors which drive these
circulations. 2. They are more widespread in the winter
2. In the Northern Hemisphere, the season.
primary region of deepwater formation 3. Coastal estuaries and wetlands are their
is the Central Atlantic. favourable habitats.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below: incorrect?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1 and 2 only

9. Which of the following statements are


correct regarding the ‘Asian Elephants’? 12. Which of the following statements are
correct regarding the Deepor Beel?
1. Their society is organized into well-
defined, matrilineal communities. 1. It is a brackish water lake in Assam.
2. The IUCN classified them as 2. It is famous for the species, like the
‘Vulnerable’ species. Spot-Billed Pelican and the Baer's
3. They are categorized as the ‘Umbrella Pochard.
Species’, as well as the ‘Keystone 3. It is a Ramsar Site.
Species.’
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

2
13. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
1. The Ganges River Dolphin is an
umbrella species of the Ganga and (a) 1 only
Brahmaputra river system. (b) 2 only
2. The species is listed under the (c) Both 1 and 2
‘Endangered’ category of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
International Union for the
Conservation of Nature.
16. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 1. The evolution of the Basic Structure
Doctrine has ensured Parliamentary
(a) 1 only
Supremacy over Constitutional
(b) 2 only Supremacy.

(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The Basic Structure Doctrine has


ensured permeation of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 constitutionalism, which envisages the
idea of limited government.

14. Which of the following statements is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct regarding the Noble’s Helen? correct?
(a) 1 only
1. It is a type of butterfly species having
additional white spot in the dorsum of (b) 2 only
the forewing. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Recently, it has been found in the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Namdapha National Park.

Select the correct answer using the code


17. Which of the following constitutional or
given below: legal principles ensure judicial
(a) 1 only independence?

(b) 2 only 1. Separation of power.

(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Security of the tenure of the judges.


3. The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. The expenses of the Supreme Court
charged upon the Consolidated Fund of
15. Which of the following statements is/are India.
correct regarding the National Green 5. The CJI as the Master of the Roster.
Hydrogen Mission?
Select the correct answer using the code
1. It aims to develop the Green Hydrogen given below:
production capacity of at least 5 MMT
(a) 2, 3 and 5 only
(Million Metric Tonne) per annum by
2025. (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. The SIGHT Programme is a sub-
component under the Mission. (d) 3, 4 and 5 only

3
18. In the light of the recent Supreme Court 20. With reference to the Speaker and the
judgments, consider the following Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider
statements about Article 19 of the Indian the following statements:
Constitution: 1. A motion for an adjournment of the
1. “Additional restrictions” on the right to business of the House for the purpose
freedom of speech of the Ministers can of discussing a definite matter of urgent
be imposed, other than those provided public importance may be made with
the consent of the Speaker.
under Article 19.
2. The election of the Deputy Speaker shall
2. A Fundamental Right under Article 19
be held on such date as the President
or 21 can be enforced even against
may fix, and the Speaker shall send to
persons other than the state or its every member notice of the date of such
instrumentalities. election.
3. The Ministers, including the 3. The Speaker can decide if a question is
MPs/MLAs, enjoy lesser freedom of to be treated as starred or un-starred, if
speech, as compared to other citizens, in the opinion of the Speaker any
under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian question put down for oral answer is of
Constitution. such a nature that demands written
Which of the statements given above is/are reply.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 2 only correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

19. Consider the following statements:


21. With reference to the conduct of Census in
1. According to the Constitution of India, India, consider the following statements:
both the President and the Governor 1. The Government conducts Census
enjoy equal powers with respect to the under the Census Act, 1948, in three
Special Address at the commencement phases of House-listing, Housing
of the first session after each general Census and Population Enumeration,
election and at the commencement of one followed by the other.
the first session of each year. 2. Separate enumeration takes place
2. According to the Rules of Procedure and during the Census for the castes and
Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha, the tribes, which are specifically notified
the Special Address of the President is as the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled
followed up with the Motion of Thanks, Tribes and Other Backward Class.
prepared and presented independently 3. Responsibility of conducting decennial
by the President, highlighting the Census rests with the Office of Registrar
government’s successes and failures as General and Census Commissioner,
a part of policy evaluation. under the Ministry of Statistics and
Programme Implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None of the above

4
22. Consider the following pairs: 24. With reference to the “Right to Freedom of
S.N. Terms of the Provision Religion”, guaranteed under Part III of the
Constitution Indian Constitution, consider the following
1. Remission It affects both the statements:
punishment 1. No religious instruction shall be
prescribed for the provided in any educational institution
offence and the wholly maintained out of the State
guilt of the offender, funds.
and may completely
2. Subject to public order, morality and
erase the guilt.
health, every religious denomination or
2. Commutation Temporary any section thereof shall have the right
suspension of the
to establish and maintain institutions
punishment
for religious and charitable purposes.
awarded by a court
of law. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
3. Pardon Changing the
punishment from (a) 1 only
one category to (b) 2 only
another, such as (c) Both 1 and 2
changing of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
death sentence to
life imprisonment.
25. With reference to the National Commission
How many pairs given above is/are
for Minorities, consider the following
correctly matched?
statements:
(a) Only one pair
1. The National and State Minorities
(b) Only two pairs
Commissions were constituted by the
(c) All three pairs
Centre through an executive order of
(d) None of the pairs
the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. The Chairperson and the Vice-
23. Which of the following constitutional or
legal provisions protect and safeguard the Chairperson of the Commission are
land rights of the Scheduled Tribes and appointed by the President, based on
address their land acquisition or the recommendations of the Union
displacement issues and problems? Government.
1. The Fifth Schedule to the Indian 3. The Chairperson and every Member of
Constitution. the Commission shall hold the office for
2. The Scheduled Tribes and Other a term of three years from the date they
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition assume the office.
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. 4. The Comptroller and Auditor General is
3. The Right to Fair Compensation and prohibited under the rules of the
Transparency in Land Acquisition, Ministry of Home Affairs to audit the
Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act,
accounts of the National Commission
2013.
for Minorities.
4. The Panchayats (Extension to
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996. Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

5
26. With reference to the Mahatma Gandhi Select the correct answer usmg the code
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, given below:
2005, or MGNREGA, which of the following (a) 2 only
statements is/ are correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only
1. There is a provision of not less than one
(c) 2 and 3 only
hundred days of unskilled manual work
as guaranteed employment in a (d) 1, 2 and 3
'
financial year to every household in the 0the
29. -Vi:°
country as per demand. ti>
Global Gender Gap
2. There is a provision for 'U nem plo r{£ ep<ij"t.} "- 2022, consider the following
Allowance', if an . ·c s -
s , O s atements:
em played wit f 1. The Report has taken into account the
of his applica participation of women at the
3. The Gram conduct Panchayat level to rank the countries.
"""all
regular soci the projects 2. The Report is published by the World
under the scheme<1111. :-- Economic Forum (WEF).
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/ are
given below:
correct?
(a) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

27. Consider the following statements:


30. Which of the following statements is/ are
1. The National Mobile Monitoring
Software (NMMS) App is applicable for correct?
the Mahatma Gandhi NREGA workers 1. The Parasnath Hills are named after
for all the States/Union Territories. Parasnath, the 22nd Tirthankar.
2. The main feature of the NMMS App is 2. The Parasnath Hills are a range of hills
the real-time, photographed, geo-tagged located in Uttarakhand.
attendance of every worker to be taken Select the correct answer using the code
once a day. given below:
Which of the statements given above is/ are (a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. Consider the following statements
regarding Egypt:
28. With reference to the All India Survey on
1. It is a trans-continental nation.
Higher Education (AI SHE), which of the
following statements is/ are correct? 2. It is separated from Jordan and Saudi
1. It is conducted by Pratham NGO. Arabia through the Gulf of Suez.
2. It is an annual survey. Which of the statements given above is/ are
3. Data is being collected on several correct?
parameters, such as teachers, student (a) 1 only
enrolment, programmes, examination (b) 2 only
results, education finance, (c) Both 1 and 2
infrastructure. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

6
32. Consider the following statements 35. Consider the following statements
regarding the European Sky Shield regarding the United Nations (UN):
Initiative: l. 'Uniting for Peace' Resolution is a
l. It is related to NATO's security doctrine. special power given to the Security
2. The aim of the Initiative is to develop a Council of the UN.
common air and missile defence system. 2. In any case, the Charter of the UN
cannot be amended.
3. It includes all the member states of
NATO. Which of the statements given above,is/are
correct?
Which of the statements given above are
correct? (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
36. 'BharOS', recently in the news, refers to
which of the following?
33. Consider the following statements (a) Intranasal vaccine for COVID-19.
regarding the Indus Waters Treaty:
(b) Highly enriched nuclear fuel.
l. It does not allow for the creation of large (c) Malware threatening cybersecurity.
river water storage projects.
(d) Indigenous mobile operating system.
2. It provides for the provision of the Court
of Arbitration for dispute resolution.
37. Consider the following statements with
3. It has the provision for agricultural and reference to MANPADS:
recreational use of waters from the
l. MANPADS are short-range air-to-air
western rivers. missiles.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. They work on the 'fire and forget
correct? principle' of operation.
(a) 1 only 3. They are primarily used to target high-
(b) 1 and 3 only flying aircrafts.
(c) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1 and 2 only correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
34. Consider the following statements (b) 2 only
regarding the International Court of Justice (c) 1 and 3 only
(ICJ): (d) 1, 2 and 3
l. It is the principal judicial organ of the
United Nations. 38. Consider the following statements with
2. Its advisory proceeding is available only reference to Neuromorphic Computing:
to the General Assembly and the l. Neuromorphic Computing is a type of
Security Council of the UN. machine-learning algorithm.
3. It is allowed to investigate and rule on 2. A Neuromorphic chip uses physical
the acts of the sovereign States. artificial neurons made from silicon.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1 and 2 only

7
39. Consider the following statements with 42. Consider the following statements about
reference to Shukrayaan: the Foreign Exchange Reserves:
1. Shukrayaan is a collaborative mission 1. The Foreign Exchange Management Act
to Venus by the Indian Space Research (1999) mandates the RBI to act as the
Organization and the National custodian of the Foreign Exchange
Reserves of India.
Aeronautics & Space Administration.
2. R e Position is included as
2. It consists of a Venusian Neutrals
Jcyign Exchange Reserves
Analyzer that will examine how charged
particles from the Sun interact with the
atmosphere of V
· fo:h_D of the statements given above is/ are
0correct?
s 1-
Which of the sta a ar (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 43. Consider the following statements about
the Special Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA):
1. All Scheduled Commercial Banks have
40. Consider the following statements with
full autonomy in opening the Special
reference to the Aditya-Ll Mission:
Rupee Vostro Accounts for the bank of
1. The Mission to observe the Sun will be the partner country.
launched to the first Lagrangian Point 2. All exports and imports under this
of the Sun-Earth System. arrangement may be denominated and
2. Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope is invoiced in Indian Rupee (INR).
an instrument on board the Mission to Which of the statements given above is/ are
study the Sun's corona. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/ are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
44. Consider the following statements about
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Asian Clearing Union (ACU):
1. The Asian Clearing Union (ACU) is a
41. Consider the following statements with form of payment arrangement where the
reference to Kala-Azar: participants settle payments for
1. Kala-Azar 1s a bacterial infection transactions among the Central Banks
transmitted by the bite of sandflies. of all Asian countries on a multilateral
basis.
2. The disease 1s covered under the
National Vector Borne Disease Control 2. The Asian Monetary Unit is the common
unit of the ACU and is denominated
Programme in India.
only in Dollars and Euros.
Which of the statements given above is/ are
Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

8
45. Consider the following statements about 48. Consider the following statements about
the Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. the Government Securities:
(CCIL): 1. All Dated Government Securities are
1. The Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. issued having a fixed coupon rate.
provides an institutional infrastructure 2. The auctions of the Government
for the clearing and settlement of Securities are done on the e-Kuber
transactions in Government Securities platform of the RBI.
only. 3. Both primary and secondary issues of
2. It is regulated by the SEBI. the Government Securities are
conducted by yield-based auctions.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

46. Consider the following statements about


49. Consider the following statements about
the Fully Accessible Route (FAR):
the Gig Workers:
1. This mechanism is provided by the RBI 1. The Code on Social Security provides for
which enables the non-resident Indians mandatory registration of all the gig
to invest in both short-term and long- workers.
term securities of the Government of
2. The Code on Social Security provides
India. that the Central Government will
2. There will be no investment ceilings on establish a Social Security Fund for the
the securities eligible for investment gig workers.
under the Fully Accessible Route. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
50. Consider the following statements about
47. Consider the following statements about the Sovereign Green Bonds (SGBs):
the Additional Tier 1 (AT 1) Bonds: 1. The SGBs will be eligible for Repurchase
Transactions (Repo).
1. They are unsecured bonds having
perpetual tenor. 2. The interest accrued on the SGBs will
be paid on a half-yearly basis.
2. They are issued by the RBI.
3. There is no cap on foreign investments
Which of the statements given above is/are
in the Sovereign Green Bonds.
correct?
Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

9
Explanations
1. Answer: (a) 2. Answer: (c)
Explanation: Explanation:
 Subhash Chandra Bose was one of the  When Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
most celebrated freedom fighters and was in Germany, Rash Behari Bose was
charismatic influencers of the youth of busy organizing the Indian
India. Independence League in Japan. For this
purpose, he convened two conferences
 In 1921, Bose worked under
in 1942: one in Tokyo and the second in
Chittaranjan Das, a powerful politician
Bangkok. The revolutionaries, who had
in Bengal. He worked as the editor for
assembled in the conferences, wanted
Das’s newspaper, forward, and later
to form an Indian National Army (INA)
started his newspaper, Swaraj.
(Azad Hind Fauj) for the liberation of
 He joined the Indian National Congress India from the British rule.
in 1927 and supported the idea of  The Army was formed with the Indians
complete independence (Purna Swaraj). in the South-east Asian countries and
With his support, Jawaharlal Nehru the Indian soldiers of the British Army
passed the resolution of Purna Swaraj captured by the Japanese. Captain
in 1929. Mohan Singh was entrusted with the
 He was elected as the Congress responsibility of raising the Army and
President in 1938, when the annual Rash Behari Bose was made the
session was convened at Haripur in President of the Council of Action.
Bengal.  After this, Rash Behari invited Subhash
 In 1938, the President of the Indian Bose to accept the leadership of the INA
National Congress, Subhash Chandra in 1943. After taking over the command
Bose, constituted a National Planning of the INA, he gave his famous battle
slogan, “Delhi Chalo” (on to Delhi).
Committee under the chairmanship
of Jawaharlal Nehru.  The INA soldiers were tried at the Red
Fort, for various charges, like treason,
 He set up the Committee to ensure
atrocities, abetment to murder and
equal distribution of wealth among the
murder. For this, these trials were also
diverse sections.
called the Red Fort Trials. Influential
 He resigned in 1939 due to differences INA leaders, like Colonel Shah Nawaz,
with Mahatma Gandhi and set up the Major G.S. Dhillon and Captain Prem
All India Forward Bloc. Sehgal were initially convicted, but later
 In 1942, he earned the title ‘Netaji’, in released, thus making it a clear victory
Germany from the Indian soldiers of the for them.
Azad Hind Fauj.
 He is also accredited to be the first man 3. Answer: (b)
to call Mahatma Gandhi “Father of the Explanation:
Nation”, in his address from Singapore.  Purana Qila is one of the attractions of
the G20 meeting and its visitors.

1
 Humayun started building the Purana tribute to the soldiers for the security
Qila in 1533 CE, as a part of his new they provide.
fortified city, named Din Panah, or the  Created by the Meitei people of
“Sanctuary of Faith”. By 1534 CE, the Manipur, Thang-ta is an armed
walls, bastions, ramparts and gates of martial art that finds its mention in the
the citadel were almost complete. most lethal combat forms. It is
 Sher Shah renamed Din Panah Sher practised in three different ways: The
Garh and built various important first is completely ritualistic in nature,
structures within it. linked with the tantric practices. The
 It has three majestic gateways: Bada second consists of a mesmerising
Darwaza (The large arch); Humayun performance of spear and sword
Darwaza; and Talaqi Darwaza, and dances. The third and last involves the
made up of red sandstone. actual techniques of fighting.
 One of the oldest martial arts in India,
4. Answer: (b) Kalaripayattu, although practised in
most parts of southern India, originated
Explanation:
in the state of Kerala in the 4th century
 Rani Velu Nachiyar was known for her
AD. Kalaripayattu includes several
fierce resistance against colonialism.
techniques and aspects. Fighting with
She also worked for the welfare of the
Otta (an S-shaped stick), Maipayattu or
society. She is known as ‘Veeramangai’
body exercises, Puliyankam or sword
among the Tamils.
fight, Verumkai or bare-handed fight,
 She was the first queen to fight against Anga Thari or use of metal weapons and
the British colonial power in India. She sticks of Kolthari.
fought against the colonial rulers many
years before the Sepoy Mutiny. In
6. Answer: (a)
collaboration with Hyder Ali and Gopala
Explanation:
Nayaker, she waged a war against the
British and emerged victorious. The rock arts, or petroglyphs, estimated to
be 20,000 years old, are classified as
 She went on to produce the first human
protected monuments by the State
bomb, as well as establish the first
Archaeology Department and the
army of trained women soldiers in the
Archaeological Survey of India, and have
late 1700s.
been added to the tentative list of
 She was a scholar in many languages,
UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites.
having proficiency with languages like
Petroglyphs Sites in India:
French, English and Urdu, and was
trained in martial arts like Valari,  Ratnagiri: Maharashtra
Silambam (fighting using a stick), horse  Kupgal: Karnataka
riding and archery.  Kandanathi: Andhra Pradesh
 Sindhudurg: Maharashtra
5. Answer: (b)  Dindigul: Tamil Nadu
Explanation:  Nilgiri: Tamil Nadu
 The name Khukuri means bravery in  Bhimbedtka: Madhya Pradesh
Sikkim. In the Gorkha culture,
 Edakkal Caves: Kerala
‘Khukuri’ is a small knife, which
 Unakoti: Tripura
symbolizes victory, robustness and
power. The dance is also performed as a  Dhomkhar and Tangtse: Ladakh

2
7. Answer: (c)  IUCN (The International Union for
Explanation: Conservation of Nature) Status:
Generally, Millet is grown in the tropical Endangered.
and the sub-tropical regions, upto an  The Asian Elephants inhibit grasslands,
altitude of 2,100 m. It is a heat loving plant tropical evergreen forests, semi-
and for its germination minimum evergreen forests, moist deciduous
temperature required is 8°c - 10°c. A mean forests, dry deciduous forests and dry
temperature range of 26°c - 29°c during the thorn forests, in addition to cultivated
growth is best for proper development and and secondary forests or scrublands.
good crop yield.  The Asian Elephants can range over
Millet has wide adaptability to different large areas and therefore, the elephants
soils, from very poor to very fertile and can disperse seeds over longer distances
tolerate a certain degree of alkalinity. than most other herbivores and, thus,
The best soils are alluvial, loamy and sandy are responsible for structuring and
soils with good drainage. maintaining plant diversity within the
India, Nigeria and China are the largest ecosystems.
producers of Millets in the world,  Given their large area requirements, the
accounting for more than 55% of the global elephants are regarded as an “Umbrella
production. India produces around 38% of Species”, because their conservation
the global Millets. will also protect a large number of other
species occupying the same area. They
may also be considered the “Flagship
8. Answer: (a)
Species” because of their iconic or
Explanation:
cultural value, and the “Keystone
Surface currents are influenced by the
Species” because of their important
wind. However, others, much slower and
ecological role and impact on the
deeper currents that occur from the surface
environment.
to the seafloor, are driven by changes in the
 The Asian Elephant society is organized
saltiness and ocean temperature, a process
into well-defined, matrilineal
called ‘Thermohaline Circulation’. These
communities or clans, comprising adult
currents are carried in a large "Global
females, as well as sub-adult and
Conveyor Belt”.
juvenile males and females.
The basic Deepwater Circulations /
Thermohaline Circulation is one of sinking
of cold water in the Polar Regions, chiefly in 10. Answer: (c)
the Northern North Atlantic and near Explanation:
Antarctica. These dense water masses Ozone layer is a common term for the high
spread into the full extent of the ocean and concentration of Ozone that is found in the
gradually upwell to feed a slow return flow stratosphere (layer of the atmosphere
to the sinking regions. between around 10 - 50 km altitude). The
In the Northern Hemisphere, the Atmospheric Ozone absorbs ultraviolet (UV)
primary region of deepwater formation is radiation from the Sun, particularly the
the North Atlantic. harmful UV-B type rays.
 Ozone Hole refers to a region in
9. Answer: (c) stratosphere where the concentration of
Ozone becomes extremely low.
Explanation:
o Such Holes are spotted over both
Key Facts related to the Asian
the Poles.
Elephants:

3
o Ozone depletions at the North Pole 13. Answer: (c)
are much smaller in size, owing to Explanation:
warmer temperatures at the North The Ganges River Dolphin (Platenista
Pole, than at the South Pole. gangetica) or Gangetic Dolphin, known as
o Ozone depletion is directly related to Sauns in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, is the
the formation of the Polar Vortex (in national aquatic animal of India.
the stratosphere). The elusive freshwater cetacean is an
umbrella species of the Ganga and
11. Answer: (a) Brahmaputra river system and has a
Explanation: significant ecological importance as its
Key Facts regarding the Indian presence indicates the good health of an
Skimmer: area.

 IUCN status: Endangered. The species is listed under the


‘Endangered’ category of the International
 Distribution: More widespread in
Union for the Conservation of Nature as it
winter, the Indian Skimmer is found in
is losing its habitat due to anthropogenic
the coastal estuaries of western and
activities.
eastern India. It occurs primarily on
larger, sandy, lowland rivers, around The Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin
lakes and adjacent marshes and, in the Sanctuary in Bihar’s Bhagalpur district,
non-breeding season, in the estuaries the only sanctuary for our national aquatic
and the coasts. animal, is facing a decline in its dolphin
population.
 The Indian Skimmer grows to a length
Ganges river dolphins are protected under
of 40-43 cm.
Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act (1972).
 It breeds colonially on large, exposed
sandbars and islands.
14. Answer: (c)
 It feeds on surface-dwelling fish, small
crustaceans and insect larvae. Explanation:
The Noble's Helen butterfly, a rare species,
was discovered for the first time in India at
12. Answer: (b)
the Namdapha National Park in Arunachal
Explanation:
Pradesh.
About the Deepor Beel:
 It is a swallow-tail butterfly, with a
 It is a permanent freshwater lake wingspan of 100-120 mm, and it has an
located in the Kamrup Metropolitan additional white spot in the dorsum of
district of Assam. the forewing.
 It is considered as one of the largest  Its scientific name is Papilio Noblei.
Beels (lakes) in the Brahmaputra Valley.
 It is found in Myanmar, Yunnan, Hubei
 It is the state’s only Ramsar Site, (China), North Thailand, Laos,
besides being an ‘Important Bird Area’ Cambodia and Vietnam.
by BirdLife International.
 Butterflies play a crucial role in the
 Some of the species in the Deepor balance of the ecosystems as pollinators
Wetlands are the Lesser Adjutant Stork and a food source for other species.
(IUCN- Vulnerable), the Greater
 They are considered as the indicators of
Adjutant Stork (IUCN- Endangered), the
environmental health, and changes in
Spot-Billed Pelican (IUCN- Near
butterfly populations and distributions
threatened) and the Baer's Pochard
(IUCN- Critically Endangered).

4
can signal changes in the habitat, such under Article 368. So, we can say that the
as destruction or degradation. Basic Structure Doctrine has ensured
 Butterflies also add to the aesthetic the Principle of Constitutional
beauty of the environment and can be a Supremacy, along with the idea of
key aspect of tourism. constitutionalism, rather than
Parliamentary Supremacy, as practised
in Britain.
15. Answer: (b)
Constitutionalism refers to the set of
Explanation:
principles, norms and values that define
The National Green Hydrogen Mission
the limits of the government and provide
will result in the following likely
the framework for its functioning. It
outcomes by 2030:
encompasses the idea that a government's
 Development of Green Hydrogen power and authority are derived from a
production capacity of at least 5 written Constitution that outlines the basic
MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per rights and responsibilities of the citizens,
annum with an associated renewable the structure of government and the
energy capacity addition of about 125 distribution of power among different
GW in the country. branches of the government.
 Over Rs. Eight lakh crores in total
investments. 17. Answer: (c)
 Creation of over six lakh jobs. Explanation:
 Cumulative reduction in fossil fuel As the role of the Master of the Roster of
imports of over Rs. One lakh crore. the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is an
 Abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual administrative act, it does not ensure
greenhouse gas emissions judicial independence.
o The Mission will facilitate demand Constitutional and Legal Principles to
creation, production, utilization and Ensure Judicial Independence:
export of Green Hydrogen.  Article 141: The law declared by the
o Under the Strategic Interventions for Supreme Court shall be binding on all
Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) courts within the territory of India.
Programme, two distinct financial  Separation of Power - Article 50:
incentive mechanisms – targeting Separation of power between
domestic manufacturing of Legislature; Executive; and Judiciary –
electrolysers and production of is now a part of the Basic Structure of
Green Hydrogen – will be provided the Indian Constitution.
under the Mission.
 Security of the Tenure of the Judges:
The judges of the Supreme Court or the
16. Answer: (b) High Courts cannot be removed
Explanation: arbitrarily by the executive and their
The Basic Structure Doctrine was removal has to undergo rigorous
expounded in the landmark judgment of legislative scrutiny, as provided
the Kesavananda Bharati Case, under Article 124 (4). Further, Article
according to which the Basic Structure of 124 (5) mentions that the removal of the
the Constitution cannot be altered or judge on the grounds of
amended by the Parliament or the “misbehaviour” and “incapacity” can
Executive. Thus, the Doctrine has limited be prescribed by law made by the
the amending powers of the Parliament Parliament.

5
 The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968: It lays Court has held that there is no reason to
down the process to remove the judges impose “additional restrictions” on the right
of the Supreme Court and the High to freedom of speech of the Ministers, and
Courts, including the investigation the government is not vicariously liable for
necessary to prove misbehaviour or disparaging remarks made by them, even if
incapacity. the comments are traceable to the state
 The Salaries of the Judges cannot be affairs or meant to protect the government.
reduced - Article 125 (2): The salary of Vicarious liability is a situation in which
the judges is fixed by the Parliament one party is held partly responsible for the
and it cannot be reduced during the unlawful actions of a third party.
tenure of a judge. Privileges, Fundamental Rights enforced against
allowances, leaves and pension
the citizens: A Fundamental Right, under
provided to a judge cannot be varied or
Article 19 or 21, can be enforced even
reduced to his/her disadvantage.
against the persons other than the state or
 The Expenses of the Supreme Court its instrumentalities.
charged upon the Consolidated Fund
K.S. Puttaswamy case (2017): The
of India – Article 146 (3): This ensures
Supreme Court held that individuals are
financial independence of the judiciary,
protected against interference by the state
away from the Parliament’s vote on the
matter or executive’s pressure or and non-state actors. This also means the
influence. Horizontal Application of Fundamental
Rights. Whereas the Vertical Application of
 The Jurisdiction of the Courts cannot
Fundamental Rights refers to the
be diminished: The Parliament cannot
application of the Fundamental Rights
reduce the jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court or the High Courts, by passing against the state or its functionaries.
any law on appeals or Supreme Court’s The Ministers, including the MPs/MLAs,
Original Jurisdiction under Article enjoy freedom of speech in equal
131 with respect to dispute between the measure as other citizens, under Article
Centre and the States. 19(1)(a) of the Constitution, and greater
 The Constitution insulates the or additional restrictions cannot be
Judges from criticism in the imposed on the Fundamental Right of
Parliament and the State free speech of such public functionaries.
Legislatures: The Parliament or the Fundamental Rights, under Article 19/21,
State Legislatures cannot discuss the can be enforced even against the persons
conduct of the judges in discharge of other than the state or its
their duties. instrumentalities, including other citizens.
 Protection from Contempt
Proceedings: The Supreme Court, in 19. Answer: (a)
the Keshav Singh Case, held that
Explanation:
Articles 121 and 211 also protect a
judge of the court from any contempt The Special Address, under Article 87, is
proceedings, which may be taken prepared by the Union Government and
against him/her in discharge of his/her read by the President. Similarly, in the
duties. states, the Special Address, under Article
176, is prepared by the State Government
and read by the Governor.
18. Answer: (a)
The Motion of Thanks is moved in the Lok
Explanation:
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha after the
In the case of Kaushal Kumar v/s the
President’s Special Address under Article
State of Uttar Pradesh, the Supreme
87(1). However, the provision of the Motion

6
of Thanks has not been provided in the  No other business is transacted till
Constitution, but provided in the Rules of the President has addressed both the
Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Houses of the Parliament, assembled
Lok Sabha. together through the Special
According to the Rules of Procedure and Address.
Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha, Article 176 - Special address by the
the Special Address of the President is Governor:
followed up with a Motion of Thanks,  At the commencement of the
prepared by the Central Government, o first session after each general
based on the advice of the Council of election to the Legislative Assembly
Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister. and
The Special Address of the President o at the commencement of the first
contains the Government’s Statement of session of each year,
Policy: The President's Address is the
 the Governor shall address the
statement of policy of the Government and,
Legislative Assembly or, in the case of a
as such, is drafted by the Government,
State having a Legislative Council also,
which is responsible for its contents. The
both Houses assembled together, and
Special Address is the Government’s
inform the Legislature of the causes of
Statement of Policy.
its summons;
The Address contains a review of various
 provision shall be made by the Rules
activities and achievements of the
regulating the procedure of the House
government during the previous year and
or either House for the allotment of time
sets out the policies, projects and
for discussion of the matters referred to
programmes which the government of the
in such address.
day wishes to pursue with regard to
important national and international
issues. The Address also indicates, in broad 20. Answer: (d)
terms, the items of legislative business, Explanation:
which are proposed to be brought during All the above statements have been
the sessions to be held in that year. provided in the Rules of Procedure and
Article 87 - Special address by the Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha.
President: Rule 56: Subject to the provisions of these
 Clause (1) of that Article provides that Rules, a motion for an adjournment of the
o at the commencement of the first business of the House for the purpose of
session after each general election to discussing a definite matter of urgent
the House of the People and public importance may be made with the
o at the commencement of the first consent of the Speaker.
session of each year, the President Rule 8: The election of the Deputy
shall address both the Houses of the Speaker shall be held on such date as
Parliament, assembled together, and the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-
inform the Parliament of the causes General shall send to every member
of its summons. notice of this date.
 Clause 2 of Article 87 mentions that Rule 43 - Speaker to decide
provision shall be made by the Rules admissibility: The Speaker shall decide
regulating the procedure of either whether a question, or a part thereof, is or
House for the allotment of time for is not admissible under these Rules and
may disallow any question, or a part
discussion of the matters referred to in
thereof, when in the opinion of the Speaker,
such address.

7
it is an abuse of the right of questioning or o Marital status
is calculated to obstruct or prejudicially o Religion
affect the procedure of the House or is in o Scheduled Cast/Scheduled Tribe
contravention of these Rules.
o Mother tongue
o Education level
21. Answer: (d)
o Disability
Explanation:
o Economic activity
Conduct of Census:
o Migration
 Census exercise is carried out in two
phases: House-listing & Housing o Fertility
Census; and Population Enumeration.
 The responsibility of conducting Separate Enumeration for the SCs/STs:
decennial Census rests with the In Census, castes and tribes, which are
Office of Registrar General and specifically notified as the Scheduled
Census Commissioner, under the Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, as per
Ministry of Home Affairs. the Constitution (Scheduled Castes)
 The Census Act, 1948, provides Order 1950 and the Constitution
statutory framework to it. (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, are
First Phase – House-listing and Housing enumerated separately. However, OBCs
Census: are not enumerated separately as part
 During House-listing and Housing of the Census.
Census, all buildings, Census Houses
and households are identified and 22. Answer: (d)
systematically listed in the relevant Explanation:
schedules.
Important Terms:
 It provides comprehensive data on the
 In ‘Pardon’, it affects both the
conditions of human settlements,
punishment prescribed for the offence
housing deficit and consequently the
housing requirements to be taken care and the guilt of the offender. A full
of in the formulation of housing pardon may completely erase the guilt.
policies.  ‘Reprieve’ means a temporary
 This also provides a wide range of suspension of the punishment awarded
data/information on amenities and by a court of law. For example: Putting
assets available to the households. a stay order on death sentence of a
 It also provides the base for Population convict for certain temporary period.
Enumeration by giving a more realistic  'Respite’ means postponement of the
idea of the population size of the House- sentence of punishment or reducing the
listing blocks, thereby ensuring the sentence due to certain special
more practical carving of the blocks for circumstances, such as disability,
Population Enumeration. pregnancy etc.
Second Phase - Population Enumeration:  ‘Commutation’ means changing the
 The Population Enumeration follows the punishment from one category to
Housing Census within a gap of six to another, such as changing of the death
eight months. sentence to life imprisonment.
 During the second phase of Census  ‘Remission’ is the reduction of the
taking, each person is enumerated and amount of a sentence without changing
her/his individual particulars, like its character. Example: A person is
o Age imprisoned for14 years in solitary

8
confinement. In Remission, his sentence Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act,
might reduce to 10 years, but the 2013 (The RFCTLARR Act, 2013):
nature, i.e., solitary confinement will  Section 48: The National Level
not change. Monitoring Committee for Rehabilitation
and Resettlement has been constituted
23. Answer: (d) to review and monitor implementation
Explanation: of rehabilitation and resettlement
schemes and plans related to land
Constitutional and Legal Provisions
acquisition under the RFCTLARR Act,
against Land Acquisition of the Tribals:
2013; and the National Rehabilitation
The Scheduled Tribes (STs) have been the
and Resettlement Policy, 2007.
most marginalized, isolated and deprived
population. To protect and safeguard the  Section 41 (1): As far as possible, no
land rights of the STs, and to address the acquisition of land shall be made in the
issue of land acquisition and displacement Scheduled Areas.
of the tribals, the following constitutional  Section 41(2): Any land acquisition
and legal provisions have been put in place: shall be done only as a demonstrable
The Constitution of India - Under the last resort.
Fifth Schedule: The Governor of the State,  Section 41(3): In the case of acquisition
which has Scheduled Areas, is empowered or alternation of any land in the
to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land Scheduled Areas, the prior consent of
from the tribals and regulate the allotment the concerned Gram Sabha or the
of the land to the members of the Panchayats or the Autonomous District
Scheduled tribes. Councils in the Scheduled Areas under
Land being a State subject, various the Fifth Schedule to the Constitution
provisions of rehabilitation and be obtained, in all cases of land
resettlement, as per the RFCTLARR Act, acquisition in such areas, including
2013 (The Right to Fair Compensation and acquisition in case of urgency.
Transparency in Land Acquisition, The Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled
Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013), Areas) Act, 1996: The Gram Sabha or the
are implemented by the concerned State Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be
Governments. consulted before making the acquisition of
The Scheduled Tribes and Other land in the Scheduled Areas for
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition development projects and before resettling
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006: or rehabilitating the persons affected by
such projects in the Scheduled Areas.
 A member of the forest dwelling
Scheduled Tribe or Other Traditional The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
Forest Dweller shall not be evicted or Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act,
removed from the forest land under his 1989:
occupation, till the recognition and  It prevents commission of atrocities
verification procedure is complete. against the members of the Scheduled
 The Gram Sabha is empowered to Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, to
regulate access to the community forest provide for the trial of such offences and
resources and stop any activity which for the relief of rehabilitation of the
adversely affects the wild animals, victims of such offences.
forest and the biodiversity.  Wrongfully dispossessing the members
The Right to Fair Compensation and of the Scheduled Castes or the
Transparency in Land Acquisition, Scheduled Tribes from their land or

9
premises or interfering with the 25. Answer: (c)
enjoyment of their rights, including the Explanation:
forest rights, over any land or premises
The Union Government set up the
or water or irrigation facilities or
National Commission for Minorities
destroying the crops or taking away the
(NCM) under The National Commission
produce therefrom amounts to the
for Minorities Act, 1992.
offence of atrocities and is/ are subject
The Commission shall consist of a
to punishment.
Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson and five
The Orissa Mining Corporation v / s The
Members, to be nominated by the
Ministry of Environment and Forest &
Central Government from amongst the
Ors. (2013):
persons of eminence, ability and
• The Supreme Court held that forest
integrity. Provided that the five Members,
approval cannot be granted for a
including the Chairperson, shall be from
development project without the
amongst the minority communities.
informed consent of the Gram Sabhas,
Term of office and conditions of service
given after proper consideration in a
of the Chairperson and the Members:
duly convened Gram Sabha and passed
by resolution. 1. The Chairperson and every Member
shall hold the office for a term of
• The Supreme Court stated that the
three years from the date they assume
Gram Sabha is also free to consider all
the office.
the community, individual, as well as
cultural and religious claims. 2. The Chairperson or a Member may, by
writing under his hand addressed to the
Central Government, resign from the
24. Answer: (c)
office of the Chairperson or, as the case
Explanation:
may be, of the Member at any time.
Article 30: The right of the minorities to
Accounts and Audit:
establish and administer educational
1. The Commission shall maintain proper
institutions: (1) All minorities, whether
based on religion or language, shall have accounts and other relevant records,

the right to establish and administer and prepare an annual statement of


educational institutions of their choice. accounts in such form as may be
prescribed by the Central Government
Article 28: Freedom as to attendance at
in consultation with the Comptroller
religious instruction or religious worship
and Auditor General of India.
in certain educational institutions: (1)
No.religious instruction shall be provided in 2. The accounts of the Commission
any educational institution wholly shall be audited by the Comptroller
maintained out of the State funds. and Auditor General at such intervals
Article 26: Freedom to manage religious as may be specified by him and any
affairs: Subject to public order, morality expenditure incurred in connection with
and health, every religious denomination or such audit shall be payable by the
any section thereof shall have the right (a) Commission to the Comptroller and
to establish and maintain institutions for Auditor General.
religious and charitable purposes; (b) to
manage its own affairs in the matters of 26. Answer: (a)
religion; (c) to own and acquire movable
Explanation:
and immovable property; and (d) to
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
administer such property in accordance
Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA),
with law.
2005, was initiated with the objective of

10
enhancing livelihood security in the rural attendance of eve r y worker to be taken
areas by providing at least 100 days of once in each half of the day.
guaranteed wage employment in a financial
year, to every household, whose adult 28. Answer: (c)
members volunteer to do unskilled manual
Explanation:
work.
T o build a rob st database and to assess
Features of M G N R E G A :
the correc , , c e of higher education
• Provision of not less than one hundred • l,.!n f,Clllrtf
r y, the Minist r y of
days of unskilled manual work as UQ.ati'&n has endeavoured to conduct
guaranteed em lo ent in 0
s -s. annual web-based All India Survey on
$
year to eve i Higher Education (AISHE) since 2010-11.
areas as per 1ilg e Objectives:
creation of assets of
__....---- • Identify and capture all the institutions
prescribed q bility.
of higher learning in the country.
• Provision
L :;.ii
• Collect the data from all the higher
Allowance', if an applicant 1s not
education institutions on var10us
em played within 15 days of the receipt
aspects of higher education.
of his application.
The Survey covers all the institutions in the
• Compensation for delay in payments of
country engaged m imparting higher
more than 15 days from the date of
education. Data is being collected on
closure of the Muster Roll, in payments
several parameters, such as teachers,
of wages is paid to the workers.
student enrolment, programmes,
• The G r a m Sabha shall conduct examination results, education finance,
regular social audits of all the and infrastructure.
projects under the scheme taken up
Indicators of educational development,
within the G r a m Panchayat.
such as Institution Density; Gross
Enrolment Ratio; Pupil-Teacher Ratio;
27. Answer: (a) Gender Parity Index; and Per Student
Explanation: Expenditure, will also be calculated from
The National Mobile Monitoring Software the data collected through AISHE. These
(NMMS) App was launched by the Minister are useful in making informed policy
of Rural Development in 2021. This App is decisions and research for the development
aimed at bringing more transparency and of the education sector.
ensuring proper monitoring of the schemes.
The NMMS App permits taking real time 29. Answer: (b)
attendance of the workers at the Mahatma Explanation:
Gandhi NREGA worksites, along with geo-
The Global Gender Gap Index, 2022,
tagged photographs. The App helps in
published by the World Economic Forum,
increasing citizen oversight of the
benchmarks the current state and
programme.
evolution of gender parity across four key
The National Mobile Monitoring App is dimensions:
applicable for the Mahatma Gandhi NREGA
• Economic Participation and
workers for all the States/Union
Opportunity
Territories.
• Educational Attainment
The main feature of the App is the real-
time, photographed, geo-tagged • Health and Survival
• Political Empowerment

11
The Index measures scores on a O to 100 31. Answer: (a)
scale and scores can be interpreted as the Explanation:
distance covered towards parity, i.e., the Egypt is a trans-continental nation (a
percentage of the gender gap that has been country wherein the territory straddles
closed. For women's political participation, more than one continent).
the WEF looks at the number of women in Egypt is separated from Jordan and
the Union Cabinet and members in both
Saudi Arabia through the Gulf of Aqaba.
the Houses of the Parliament.
The World Economic Forum (WEF) will 32. Answer: (a)
take into account the participation of
Explanation:
women at the Panchayat level to rank
the countries in its future Global Gender The European Sky Shield Initiative: The
European Sky Shield Initiative (ESSI) is the
Gap Reports, which will better India's
latest military upgrade to come out of
position at the global level. The
NATO (The North Atlantic Treaty
international body is re-examining and
Organization) 's security doctrine.
changing the indices for the ranking
The objective of this Initiative is to develop
according to a written assurance given
a common air and missile defence system
to the Union Women and Child
to defend NATO and European airspace.
Development Minister.
It came out in the backdrop of the ongoing
Russia-Ukraine war. This Initiative is an
30. Answer: (d)
attempt by NATO and its allies to bolster
Explanation: NATO's Integrated Air and Missile Defence
The Parasnath Hills are a range of hills System.
located in Giridih district of Jharkhand. The Initiative will allow all participating
It is one of the most important pilgrimage nations to jointly develop an air and
centres for the Jains. Th ey call it Sammed missile defence system using
Shikhar. The hills are named after interoperable, off-the-shelf solutions.
Parasnath, the 23rd Tirthankar. Twenty This multinational and multifaceted
Jain Tirthankars attained salvation on this approach offers a flexible and scalable way
hill. for the nations to strengthen their
About Parasnath: deterrence and defence in an efficient and
• Born in Varanasi, he was the 23rd Jain cost-effective way.

Tirthankar (Supreme preacher of The 14 NATO allies included: Belgium,


Dharma), belonging to the 7-8th Bulgaria, Czechia, Estonia, Germany,
century BCE and the spiritual Hungary, Latvia, Lithuania, the
successor of the 22nd Tirthankar Netherlands, Norway, Slovakia, Slovenia,
Neminath. Romania and the United Kingdom.

• He attained Moksha on Mount


Sammeda (Madhuban, Jharkhand), 33. Answer: (d)
popular as the Parasnath Hill in the Explanation:
Ganges basin, an important Jain Dispute resolution under the Indus
pilgrimage site. Waters Treaty (IWT):
• Kalpa Sutra contains the biographies of • "Questions" are handled by the
the Tirthankars, Parsvanath and Permanent Indus Commission.
Mahavir. • "Differences" are to be resolved by a
neutral expert.

12
 “Disputes” are to be referred to a seven-  It is not permitted, under its Statute,
member arbitral tribunal, called the to investigate and rule on the acts of
“Court of Arbitration.” the sovereign States as it chooses.
Generation of hydroelectric power:  The States concerned must accept the
However, the Treaty does not allow the jurisdiction and must provide consent
creation of large river water storage to the Court's considering the dispute in
projects, but only run-of-the-river question.
hydropower projects. Advisory proceedings before the Court
Prevents storage projects by India: The are only open to the five organs of the
IWT prevents India from building any United Nations and 16 specialized
storage systems on the western rivers. agencies of the United Nations family or
Example: Objections to the Kishanganga affiliated organizations.
Hydroelectric Project. Such opinions are essentially advisory. In
India is allowed to make some use of the other words, unlike the Court’s judgments,
waters of the western rivers, which include: they are not binding.
Agricultural Use: Use of water for However, certain instruments or
irrigation, except for irrigation of regulations provide that an advisory
household gardens and public opinion by the Court does have binding
recreational gardens. force (e.g., the Conventions on the
Privileges and Immunities of the United
34. Answer: (a) Nations).
Explanation:
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is 35. Answer: (d)
the principal judicial organ of the United Explanation:
Nations (UN). General Assembly Resolution 377 (V) is
It was established in 1945 by the Charter known as the ‘Uniting for Peace’
of the United Nations and began work in Resolution.
1946. Adopted in 1950, the Resolution resolves
The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace that if the Security Council, because of lack
in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six of unanimity of the permanent
principal organs of the United Nations, it is members, fails to exercise its primary
the only one not located in New York (The responsibility to act as required to maintain
United States of America). international peace and security..., the
The Court’s role is to settle, following the General Assembly shall consider the matter
international laws, legal disputes submitted immediately with the view to making
to it by the States and to give advisory recommendations to the Members...in order
opinions on legal questions, referred to it to restore international peace and security.
by the authorized United Nations organs If not in session, the General Assembly may
and specialized agencies. meet using the mechanism of the
Jurisdiction: emergency special session.

Only the UN Member States are eligible to Till date, 11 emergency sessions have been
convened.
appear before the Court in contentious
cases. The Charter of the United Nations can be
amended.
 It cannot deal with a dispute of its
motion. According to Article 108 of the Charter,
amendments must be adopted by two-
thirds of the members of the General

13
Assembly and ratified by two-thirds of the 38. Answer: (b)
members of the United Nations, including Explanation:
all the permanent members of the Security  Neuromorphic Computing is an
Council. approach to computing that is inspired
by the structure and function of the
36. Answer: (d) human brain. The development of
Explanation: Neuromorphic hardware aims at
 BharOS is an indigenous mobile mimicking biological synapse that
operating system, developed by the monitors and remembers the signal
Indian Institute of Technology, generated by the stimuli.
Madras (IIT-M). It is a government-  A Neuromorphic Computer/Chip
funded AOSP (Android Open Source consists of Artificial Neural Networks,
Project) based operating system with no comprised of millions of artificial
Google Apps or services. neurons (made from silicon). These
 Benefits: neurons pass signals to each other in
layers, converting input into output
o It comes with No Default Apps
through electric spikes or signals, based
(NDA), which means that the users
on the architecture of the Spiking
are not forced to use unfamiliar
Neural Networks. This allows the
apps.
machine to mimic the neuro-biological
o It offers ‘Native Over The Air’ (NOTA)
networks in the human brain and
updates, i.e., security updates and
perform tasks efficiently, such as visual
bug fixes will be automatically
recognition and data interpretation.
installed on the device.
o It provides access to trusted apps
39. Answer: (b)
from organization-specific Private
App Store Services (PASS). Explanation:
 Shukrayaan I will be an orbiter
37. Answer: (b) mission by the Indian Space
Research Organization (ISRO) to
Explanation:
study the surface and atmosphere of
 MANPADS (Man-Portable Air-Defence Venus. It will study the planet for four
Systems) are short-range, lightweight years. Shukrayaan was expected to be
and portable surface-to-air missiles. launched in 2024, but now is postponed
They can be fired by individuals or to 2031.
small groups to destroy aircrafts or
 The mission will study Venus’s
helicopters.
geological and volcanic activity,
 They have the ‘fire and forget’ guidance emissions on the ground, wind speed,
systems, i.e., the operator is not cloud cover and other planetary
required to guide the missile to its characteristics from an elliptical orbit.
target. They are fitted with infrared (IR)
 The spacecraft will carry several
seekers that identify and target the
instruments to probe the Venusian
airborne vehicle through heat radiation
environment.
being emitted by the latter.
o Synthetic Aperture Radar will
 They shield the troops from aerial
examine the Venusian surface,
attacks and are most effective in
which is surrounded by thick clouds
targeting low-flying aircrafts.
that make it impossible to glimpse
the surface in visible light.

14
o Venusian Neutrals Analyzer 41. Answer: (b)
(Swedish-Indian collaboration) will Explanation:
examine how charged particles from
 Kala-Azar or Visceral Leishmaniasis
the Sun interact with the
(VL) is a complex infectious disease
atmosphere of Venus.
transmitted by the bite of female
o An instrument to Venus will
Phlebotomine sandflies. It is caused
examine the planet's atmosphere in
by protozoan parasites of the genus
infrared, ultraviolet and
Leishmania.
submillimetre wavelengths.
 In India, it is endemic to four states-
Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and
40. Answer: (a)
West Bengal. India is committed to
Explanation:
eliminating Kala-Azar by 2023. 99.8% of
 Aditya-L1 is the first Indian Space endemic blocks in India have already
Mission to observe the Sun and the achieved the elimination status.
solar corona. It will observe Sun’s
 The neglected tropical disease affects
photosphere, chromosphere and
millions annually, making it the second
corona. The Indian Space Research
most common parasitic killer after
Organization is planning to launch the
malaria. It is covered under the National
Mission by mid- 2023.
Vector Borne Disease Control
 The Mission will be launched to the L1
Programme in India.
orbit (which is the first Lagrangian Point
of the Sun-Earth System), which is 1.5
million kms from the Earth towards the 42. Answer: (b)
Sun. Explanation:
 Aditya-L1 has seven payloads in The Foreign Exchange Reserves refer to the
total, of which the primary payload is reserves of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI),
the Visible Emission Line kept in the form of foreign currency assets,
Coronagraph (VELC), which is an gold, SDRs (The Special Drawing Rights)
instrument to study the Sun's and Reserve Tranche Position with the
corona. It can image the solar corona International Monetary Fund (IMF). The
as close to the solar disk (as close as Forex Reserve is kept as a cushion against
1.05 times the solar radius). any potential ‘Balance of Payments’ related
 Significance: Aditya-L1 would help in crisis. In India, the Reserve Bank of India
understanding the effect of the Sun on Act, 1934, enabled the RBI to act as the
the Earth and its surroundings. It custodian of The Foreign Exchange
would study solar upper atmospheric Management Act Foreign Reserves.
(chromosphere and corona) dynamics
and understand the physics of solar
43. Answer: (b)
corona and its heating mechanism. It
would help in understanding coronal Explanation:
mass ejection, pre-flare and flare In order to promote growth of global trade,
activities, and dynamics of space with emphasis on exports from India and to
weather, propagation of particles and support the increasing interests of the
fields etc. global trading community in INR, it has
been decided to put in place an additional

15
arrangement for invoicing, payment and 44. Answer: (d)
settlement of exports/imports in INR. Explanation:
Before putting in place this mechanism, the The Asian Clearing Union (ACU) has been
AD banks shall require prior approval from established as an initiative of the United
the Foreign Exchange Department of the Nation Economic and Social Commission
Reserve Bank of India, Central Office at for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP).
Mumbai.
The Central Banks and the Monetary
Accordingly, for settlement of trade Authorities of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India,
transactions with any country, the AD Iran, the Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal,
(Authorised Dealer) bank in India may Pakistan and Sri Lanka are currently the
open the Special Rupee Vostro Accounts members of the ACU.
of the correspondent bank/s of the
The Asian Monetary Unit (AMU) is the
partner trading country. In order to allow
common unit of account of the ACU, and
settlement of international trade
is denominated as ‘ACU Dollar’, ‘ACU
transactions through this arrangement, it
Euro’ and ‘ACU Yen’, which is equivalent
has been decided that:
in value to one US Dollar, one Euro and
 The Indian importers, undertaking one Japanese Yen, respectively.
imports through this mechanism, shall
make payment in INR, which shall be
45. Answer: (d)
credited into the Special Vostro Account
Explanation:
of the correspondent bank of the
partner country, against the invoices for The Clearing Corporation of India Ltd.
the supply of goods or services from the (CCIL) was set up in 2001 to provide an
overseas seller/supplier. institutional infrastructure for the
clearing and settlement of transactions
 The Indian exporters, undertaking
in Government Securities; Money
exports of goods and services through
Market Instruments; Foreign Exchange;
this mechanism, shall be paid the
and other related products. The objective
export proceeds in INR from the
was to bring efficiency to the transaction
balances in the designated Special
settlement process and mitigate the
Vostro Account of the correspondent
systemic risk emanating from settlement
bank of the partner country.
related problems and counter-party risk.
Salient features:
The CCIL is a payment system operator,
 Invoicing: All exports and imports
authorized by the Reserve Bank of India
under this arrangement may be
(RBI) under the Payment and Settlement
denominated and invoiced in Indian
Systems (PSS) Act, 2007, to provide
Rupee (INR).
guaranteed settlement in Government
 Exchange Rate: The exchange rate Securities (G-Secs); Tri-party Repo (TREP);
between the currencies of the two and Forex and Rupee Derivatives market.
trading partner countries may be In view of its critical importance to the
market determined. Indian financial system, the CCIL has been
 Settlement: The settlement of trade designated as a critical Financial Market
transactions under this arrangement Infrastructure (FMI) by the RBI and it has
shall take place in INR. given CCIL the status of a Qualifying
Central Counterparty (QCCP).

16
46. Answer: (b) typically used by the banks to bolster their
Explanation: core or Tier 1 capital.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in The AT 1 Bonds are subordinate to all other
consultation with the Government of India, debt and only senior to common equity.
introduced a separate channel, called the Mutual Funds (MFs) were among the
‘Fully Accessible Route’ (FAR), to enable the largest investors in perpetual debt
non-residents to invest in specified instruments.
Government of India Dated Securities. The
eligible investors can invest in specified 48. Answer: (a)
Government Securities, without being Explanation:
subject to any investment ceilings. This
Long-Term Government Securities (G-
scheme shall operate along with the two
Secs) –
existing routes, viz., the Medium-Term
Dated G-Secs: These are the securities
Framework (MTF) and the Voluntary
which carry a fixed or floating coupon
Retention Route (VRR).
(interest rate), which is paid on the face
The Reserve Bank of India shall notify the
value, on a half-yearly basis. The tenor
Government Securities that shall be eligible
ranges between 5 to 40 years.
for investment under the FAR (hereinafter,
Fixed Rate Bonds: These are the Bonds on
‘specified securities’). These securities will
which the coupon rate is fixed for the entire
continue to be eligible for investment by the
life (i.e., till maturity) of the Bonds. Most
residents. ‘Specified Securities’, once so
Government Bonds in India are issued as
designated, shall remain eligible for
Fixed Rate Bonds.
investment under the FAR until maturity.
Floating Rate Bonds: These are the
This mechanism came into force in 2020.
securities which do not have a fixed coupon
FEATURES
rate. Instead, they have a variable coupon
Investments: There shall be no rate, which is re-set at pre-announced
quantitative limit on investment by eligible intervals (say, every six months or one
investors in the specified securities. year).
In addition, all new issuances of Types of Auctions –
Government Securities of 5-year, 10-year
The rate of interest (coupon rate) gets fixed
and 30-year tenors, from the financial year
through a market-based price discovery
2020-21, will be eligible for investment
process.
under the FAR as ‘Specified Securities’.
Yield-Based Auction: A yield-based
auction is generally conducted when a new
47. Answer: (a) G-Sec is issued. The investors bid in yield
Explanation: terms. Bids are arranged in the ascending
The Additional Tier 1 (AT 1) Bonds are order and cut-off yield is arrived at the
unsecured Bonds that have perpetual yield corresponding to the notified amount
tenor. In other words, these Bonds, of the auction. The cut-off yield is then
issued by the banks, have no maturity fixed as the coupon rate for the security.
date. They have a call option, which can be Successful bidders are those who have bid
used by the banks to buy these Bonds back at or below the cut-off yield.
from the investors. These Bonds are Price-Based Auction: A price-based
auction is conducted when the G-Sec,

17
which has already been issued, is being re- 50. Answer: (d)
issued. The bidders quote in terms of price Explanation:
per Rs. 100 of face of the security. The bids The Green Bonds, popularly known as the
are arranged in the descending order of Climate Bonds, are fixed interest-bearing
price offered and the successful bidders are financial instruments, issued by any
those who have bid at or above the cut-off sovereign entity / inter-governmental
price. organization / corporation. The proceeds of
these Bonds are used only for
49. Answer: (c) environmentally conscious, climate-
Explanation: resilient projects.
Labour Codes that seek to introduce labour The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently
reforms in India have legally acknowledged auctioned its maiden Sovereign Green
the presence of the ‘gig workers’ in the Bonds, worth ₹8,000 crores, under its
economy. For example, the Code on Social Sovereign Green Bond Framework.
Security, 2020, provides for the registration The investors in the Bonds, issued under
of all the gig workers. It calls upon the this Framework, do not bear any project
Central and the State Governments to related risks.
formulate schemes to ensure social security There is no cap on foreign investments in
benefits, such as insurance, for the gig these Bonds, because these instruments
workers. It also empowers the Government are considered as specified securities under
to set up Social Security Funds for their the ‘Fully Accessible Route’.
benefit. The contribution to these Funds The stocks will be eligible for Repurchase
may be funded from the contributions of Transactions (Repo), as per the conditions
the Centre, the States and the aggregator mentioned in the Repurchase
platforms, such as Uber, Zomato etc. Transactions (Repo) (Reserve Bank)
Directions, 2018.

18

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