NDDC IT

1. Which of the following languages is more suited to a structured program?

A. PL/1

B. FORTRAN

C. BASIC

D. PASCAL

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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2. A computer assisted method for the recording and analyzing of existing or hypothetical systems
is
A. Data transmission

B. Data flow

C. Data capture

D. Data processing

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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3. The brain of any computer system is

A. ALU

B. Memory

C. CPU

D. Control unit

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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4. What difference does the 5th generation computer have from other generation computers?
A. Technological advancement

B. Scientific code

C. Object Oriented Programming

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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5. Which of the following computer language is used for artificial intelligence?

A. FORTRAN

B. PROLOG

C. C

D. COBOL

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

6. The tracks on a disk which can be accessed without repositioning the R/W heads is
A. Surface

B. Cylinder

C. Cluster

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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7. Which of the following is the 1's complement of 10?

 A. 01

B. 110

C. 11

D. 10

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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8. A section of code to which control is transferred when a processor is interrupted is known as

A. M

B. SVC

C. IP

D. MDR

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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9. Which part interprets program instructions and initiate control operations.

A. Input

B. Storage unit

C. Logic unit

D. Control unit

E. None of the above

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10. The binary system uses powers of

A. 2

B. 10

C. 8
 D. 16

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
11. A computer program that converts assembly language to machine language is
A. Compiler

B. Interpreter

C. Assembler

D. Comparator

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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12. The time required for the fetching and execution of one simple machine instruction is
A. Delay time

B. CPU cycle

C. Real time

D. Seek time

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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13. The time for which a piece of equipment operates is called

A. Seek time

B. Effective time

C. Access time

D. Real time

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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14. Binary numbers need more places for counting because
A. They are always big numbers

B. Any no. of 0's can be added in front of them

C. Binary base is small

D. 0's and l's have to be properly spaced apart

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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15. Which access method is used for obtaining a record from a cassette tape?
A. Direct

B. Sequential

C. Random

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

16. Any type of storage that is used for holding information between steps in its processing is
A. CPU

B. Primary storage

C. Intermediate storage

D. Internal storage

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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17. A name applied by Intel corp. to high speed MOS technology is called
A. HDLC
 B. LAP

C. HMOS

D. SDLC

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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18. A program component that allows structuring of a program in an unusual way is known as
A. Correlation

B. Coroutine

C. Diagonalization

D. Quene

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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19. The radian of a number system

A. Is variable

B. Has nothing to do with digit position value

C. Equals the number of its distinct counting digits

D. Is always an even number

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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20. The section of the CPU that selects, interprets and sees to the execution of program
instructions
A. Memory

B. Register unit
 C. Control unit

D. ALU

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

21. Which type of system puts the user into direct conversation with the computer through a
keyboard?
A. Real time processing

B. Interactive computer

C. Batch processing

D. Time sharing

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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22. The term referring to evacuating the content of some part of the machine is known as
A. Dump

B. Enhancement

C. Down

D. Compiler

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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23. A single packet on a data link is known as

A. Path

B. Frame

C. Block

D. Group
 E. None of the above
Answer: Option B
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24. The process of communicating with a file from a terminal is

A. Interactive

B. Interrogation

C. Heuristic

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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25. A common boundary between two systems is called

A. Interdiction

B. Interface

C. Surface

D. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

26. The examination and changing of single bits or small groups of his within a word is called
A. Bit

B. Byte

C. Bit manipulation

D. Bit slice

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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27. Which computer has been designed to be as compact as possible?
A. Mini

B. Super computer

C. Micro computer

D. Mainframe

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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28. Which method is used to connect a remote computer?

A. Device

B. Dialup

C. Diagnostic

D. Logic circuit

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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29. How many bit code is used by Murray code for TELEPRINTER machines.
A. 4

B. 5

C. 9

D. 25

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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30. The symbols used in an assembly language are

 A. Codes

B. Mnemonics

C. Assembler

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
31. The 2's complement of a binary no. is obtained by adding.....to its 1's complement.
A. 0

B. 1

C. 10

D. 12

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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32. A systems programming language for microcomputers in the Intel family is

A. PL/C

B. PL/CT

C. PL/M

D. PLA

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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33. A datum that indicates some important state in the content of input or output is
A. Sequence

B. Sentinel

C. SIO

D. Sibling
 E. None of the above
Answer: Option B
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34. Which is a non-standard version of a computing language?

A. PROLOG

B. APL

C. Army

D. PL/1

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Which of the following is still useful for adding numbers?
A. EDSAC

B. ENIAC

C. Abacus

D. UNIVAC

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
36. The average time necessary for the correct sector of a disk to arrive at the read write head is
_____
A. Down time

B. Seek time

C. Rotational delay

D. Access time

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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37. A number that is used to control the form of another number is known as
A. Map
 B. Mask

C. Mamtossa

D. Marker

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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38. A general purpose single-user microcomputer designed to be operated by one person at a time
is
A. Special-purpose computer

B. KIPS

C. M

D. PC

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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39. ASCII stands for

A. American standard code for information interchange

B. All purpose scientific code for information interchange

C. American security code for information interchange

D. American Scientific code for information interchange

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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40. Which device of computer operation dispenses with the use of the keyboard?
A. Joystick

B. Light pen
 C. Mouse

D. Touch

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

41. The microcomputer, Intel MCS-80 is based on the widely used Intel
A. 8080 microprocessor

B. 8085 microprocessor

C. 8086 microprocessor

D. 8082 microprocessor

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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42. Which is a machine-oriented high-level language for the GEC 4080 series machines.
A. LOGO

B. SNOBOL

C. Babbage

D. ALGOL

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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43. A program that is employed in the development, repair or enhancement of other programs is
known as
A. System software

B. Software tool

C. Applications program

D. Utility program
 E. None of the above
Answer: Option B
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44. Any storage device added to a computer beyond the immediately usable main storage is known
as
A. Floppy disk

B. Hard disk

C. Backing store

D. Punched card

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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45. Which output device is used for translating information from a computer into pictorial form on
paper.
A. Mouse

B. Plotter

C. Touch panel

D. Card punch

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The list of coded instructions is called
A. Computer program

B. Algorithm

C. Flowchart

D. Utility programs

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
1. From what location are the 1st computer instructions available on boot up?
A. ROM BIOS
 B. CPU

C. boot.ini

D. CONFIG.SYS

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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2. What could cause a fixed disk error.

A. No-CD installed

B. bad ram

C. slow processor

D. Incorrect CMOS settings

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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3. Missing slot covers on a computer can cause?

A. over heat

B. power surges

C. EMI.

D. incomplete path for ESD

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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4. When installing PCI NICS you can check the IRQ availability by looking at
A. dip switches

B. CONFIG.SYS
 C. jumper settings

D. motherboard BIOS

E. None of the above

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5. With respect to a network interface card, the term 10/100 refers to

A. protocol speed

B. a fiber speed

C. megabits per seconds

D. minimum and maximum server speed

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

6. Which Motherboard form factor uses one 20 pin connector

A. ATX

B. AT

C. BABY AT

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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7. A hard disk is divided into tracks which are further subdivided into:
A. clusters

B. sectors

C. vectors

D. heads

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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8. A wrist grounding strap contains which of the following:
A. Surge protector

B. Capacitor

C. Voltmeter

D. Resistor

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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9. Which standard govern parallel communications?

A. RS232

B. RS-232a

C. CAT 5

D. IEEE 1284

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

10. In laser printer technology, what happens during the conditioning stage?
A. The corona wire places a uniform positive charge on the paper

B. A uniform negative charge is placed on the photosensitive drum

C. A uniform negative charge is placed on the toner

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

11. What product is used to clean smudged keys on a keyboard?

A. TMC solvent

B. Silicone spray
 C. Denatured alcohol

D. All-purpose cleaner

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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12. ESD would cause the most damage to which component?

A. Power supply

B. Expansion board

C. Monitor

D. Keyboard

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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13. To view any currently running Terminate Stay Resident (TSR's) programs you could type:
A. Memory

B. MEM

C. SYS /M

D. Memmaker

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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14. Which type of system board is the MOST likely candidate for processor upgrading if you want
maximum performance and future compatibility?
A. ML

B. PCI

C. ISA
 D. EISA

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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15. Suppose that you have a the maintenance package identifies several possible field replaceable
units (FRUs) that will resolve the problem. What should you do after turning the power off?
Replace the indicated parts, one at a time in the recommended sequence, until the
A.
problem is resolved; return unused FRUs to stock

Replace all of the indicated FRUs at once and return the machine to the customer if the
B.
problem is resolved

Follow the same procedure as in ays replace the system board first if it is on the list of
C. possible FRUs If multiple FRUs are indicated, then software is the most likely source of
the problem

D. None of the above

Answer: Option A

16. Most PCs give a single beep on bootup to indicate they are ok hardware wise. You boot your PC
and don't get a beep. What should you check first?
A. system board

B. RAM

C. microprocessor

D. power supply

E. speaker
Answer: Option E
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17. Which peripheral port provides the FASTEST throughput to laser printers?
A. RS-232

B. SCSI

C. Parallel

D. Serial
 E. None of the above
Answer: Option C
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18. The mouse pointer moves erratically, what is the possible cause? The mouse
A. ball is dirty

B. is not connected

C. driver is not installed properly

D. has an incorrect IRQ setting

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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19. Voltage is measured:

A. in parallel

B. in series

C. after breaking the circuit

D. after checking resistance

E. after checking current

Answer: Option A
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20. Your customer tells you the print quality of their dot matrix printer is light then dark. Which of the
following could cause the problem.
A. Paper slippage

B. Improper ribbon advancement

C. Paper thickness

D. Head position

E. None of the above

 Answer: Option B
Explanation:

21. The 34-pin connection on an I/O card is for?

A. Floppy drive

B. SCSI drive

C. IDE drive

D. Zip drive

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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22. The terms "red book", "yellow book", and "orange book" refer to:
A. SCSI

B. ide

C. floppy drive technology

D. CD-ROM standards

E. All of the above

Answer: Option D
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23. On the 16-bit ISA bus, IRQ2 is elevated to which higher level Interrupt?
A. 9

B. 11

C. 13

D. 15

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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24. What beep codes could indicate a system board or power supply failure?
A. steady short beep

B. no beep

C. one long continuous beep tone

D. steady long beeps

E. All of the above

Answer: Option E
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25. To view any currently running Terminate Stay Resident (TSR's) programs you could type:
A. Memory

B. MEM

C. SYS /M

D. Memmaker

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

26. Which part of the laser printer should NOT be exposed to sunlight?
A. Transfer corona assembly

B. PC drum

C. Primary corona wire

D. Toner cartridge

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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27. After doing a low-level format, what would be the next step in configuring the hard drive in a
system?
A. Format DOS partition
 B. Install operating system

C. Configure DMA channel and back-up interrupt

D. Partition had disk

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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28. Resistance is measured in ?

A. Volts

B. Amps

C. Watts

D. Ohms

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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29. What command is used to reset a MODEM when using the "AT Command Set"?
A. ATR

B. ATZ

C. DTR

D. DCE

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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30. When installing a SCSI CD-ROM drive, you must set the CD-ROM SCSI adapter to:
A. B0007

B. An unused SCSI address

 C. The same address as the SCSI device before the CD-ROM

D. SCSI ID=1

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
31. Pick the correct choice for the 80386SXCPU.
A. 16 bit word size, 16 bit data path

B. 32 bit word size, 16 bit data path

C. 8 bit word size, 32 bit data path

D. 32 bit word size, 8 bit data path

E. 32 bit word size, 32 bit data path

Answer: Option B
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32. In Inkjet technology the droplets of ink are deflected by?

A. multi directional nozzles

B. electronically charged plates

C. high pressure plates

D. electro static absorbtion

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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33. When your hard drive crashes from any of the correct selections in the question above, or from
dropping it, it is known as head-to-disk interference, or HDL
A. True

B. False
Answer: Option A
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34. What tool is used to test serial and parallel ports?
A. high volt probe

B. cable scanner

C. loop backs (wrap plugs)

D. sniffer

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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35. ESD would cause the most damage to which component?

A. Power supply

B. Expansion board

C. Monitor

D. Keyboard

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

36. What is the highest binary number that can be referred to on a three position jumper block?
A. 4

B. 6

C. F

D. 1

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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37. What voltage does a Pentium system use?

A. +12 volts

B. + 5 volts
 C. + 8 volts

D. +3.3 volts

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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38. A numeric error code check: A 17xx indicates a problem with:

A. CMOS

B. ROM BIOS

C. DMA controller

D. hard drive or controller

E. power supply
Answer: Option D
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39. Which provides the fastest access to large video files?

A. Optical drives

B. IDE hard drives

C. SCSI hard drives

D. EIDE hard drives

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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40. A 25-pin female connector on the back of your computer will typically be:
A. Serial port 1

B. A parallel port

C. Docking
 D. COM2 port

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

41. On the PC side, the printer port is a:

A. 25 pin female serial connector

B. 15 pin female parallel connector

C. 25 pin male serial connector

D. 15 pin female serial connector

E. 25 pin female parallel connector

Answer: Option E
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42. You were installing an application in Windows 95, and the computer crashes, what do you do?
A. press alt + Ctrl + delete, twice

B. press alt + Ctrl + delete, and end task

C. press the reset button on the computer

D. turn off computer and boot from a floppy disk

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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43. RS-232 is a standard that applies to:

A. serial ports

B. parallel ports

C. game ports

D. networks
 E. digital frequencies
Answer: Option A
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44. You just installed a new IDE hard drive, but your system BIOS will not recognize the new drive,
what should you check first.
A. cable sequence

B. jumpers on the hard drive

C. drivers that need to be loaded

D. hard drive manufacturer web site information

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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45. During boot-up, the memory test:

A. Is a superfluous step that should be ignored

B. Checks and verifies that contiguous memory is installed

C. Is an operational error

D. Displays what memory is installed, but nothing else

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

46. What is the best ground for a conductive work bench?

A. AC outlet

B. Ground to bend

C. To another device

D. Chassis ground

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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47. Topically, how many type III PC cards can you insert in a laptop
A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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48. What is the first thing you could do to check for damage to a printer after receiving it?
A. Run MSD diagnostics

B. Attach it to a PC and print something

C. Check the cables

D. Unbox it and examine it for physical damage

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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49. You have a system that periodically locks up. You have ruled out software, and now suspect that
it is hardware. What should you do first that could help you narrow it down to the component at
fault?
A. rotate the RAM

B. replace the RAM

C. replace the level 2 cache SIMM

D. disable the CPU cache in CMOS

E. replace the CPU

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
1. Which of the following is(are) true of the EDP auditors?
A. they should have computer expertise

B. they will be replaced by traditional auditors in the near future

C. two of the above

currently, there is a very high demand for them, particularly from firms that use personal
D.
computers

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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2. Controls of data communication deal with

A. the communication channel

B. the computer

C. terminals

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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3. A lockbox service is used for

A. depositing cash when bank is closed

B. paying bank customer bills automatically

C. storing papers in a bank vault

D. depositing payments to bank customers

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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4. Critical path of the PERT chart is:

 A. path which takes the longest time to complete the project

B. the shortest path

C. both of the above

D. path which takes the shortest time to complete the project

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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5. Inventory is also referred to as:

A. stock

B. warehouse capacity

C. materials

D. materials in hand

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

6. An EOQ formula is an example of a(n)

A. optimizing model

B. static model

C. deterministic model

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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7. _____ are knowledge based system to which present rules are applied to solve a particular
problem.
A. ES

B. AI

C. KBS

D. Base rule 0

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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8. The _____ is a business-oriented data-processing association which publishes a monthly

journal, Data Management.
A. DPMA

B. CDP

C. CISA

D. ACM

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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9. The computer can potentially be used to monitor most of our actions, thus robbing us of _____
A. tapping
 B. privacy

C. back log

D. security

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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10. A systems theory of organization sees the firm as a

A. network of resource flows

B. system transforming inputs into outputs

C. physical system managed by a manager using a conceptual system

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

11. A financial modeling package for a PC is similar to a spreadsheet package, but it can handle
larger data files than a spreadsheet, and it has a built-in _____ seeking function.
A. aim

B. target

C. goal

D. plan
 E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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12. _____ means that the manager spends his or her time dealing with exceptions or those
situations which are out of control
A. relevant

B. management by exception

C. predictive reports

D. control

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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13. _____ decisions are those decisions for which policy standards or guidelines are already
established.
A. programmable

B. control

C. predictive reports

D. relevant

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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14. _____ is the use of a model in an attempt to identify and/or reflect the behaviour of a real
person, process, or system.
A. master

B. decision

C. plan

D. simulation

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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15. One of the three most common types of payment systems is the
A. pinion fund transaction system

B. travel expense reimbursement system

C. accounts payable system

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

16. Which of the following is not an important principle for evaluating the raw data for decision-
making:
 A. selection

B. pattern

C. everage

D. overview

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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17. The analysis and design of application systems are the responsibility of a _____
A. Computer Operator

B. Programmer

C. System Analyst

D. Data entry operator

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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18. The model curriculum for information-system education suggested by the _____ has a more
theoretical and conceptual basis, whereas the model by the _____ is more practical and applied
in nature.
A. AI, ES
 B. KBS, AI

C. ACM, DPMA

D. SISD, MMD

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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19. _____ decisions concern the execution of specific tasks to assure that they are. carried out
efficiently and effectively.
A. tactical

B. strategic

C. operational

D. management

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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20. The DBA is

A. a person

B. a computer device
 C. a communication technique

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

21. Error reports are an example of:

A. scheduled reports

B. demand reports

C. exception reports

D. predictive reports

E. management reports

Answer: Option C
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22. A constraint that does not, affect the feasible solution region is known as
A. redundant constraint

B. unbounded solution

C. slack variable

D. surplus variable

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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23. The product structure file is also called the

A. item master file

B. bill of materials file

C. operations file

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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24. Econometric models include techniques from

A. economics

B. statistics

C. mathematics

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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25. Average inventory level is reduced by
A. decreasing the vendor lead time

B. increasing the usage rate

C. decreasing the order quantity

D. lowering the reorder point

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

26. Computer support to the manager has been least in

A. alternative identification

B. alternative selection

C. problem identification

D. alternative evaluation

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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27. Slack is the calculated time span within which the event must occur:
A. true

B. false

C. cannot be said
 D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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28. The online, softcopy display of a customer's charge account to respond to an inquiry is an
example of a(n):
A. regularly scheduled report

B. on-demand report

C. exception report

D. forecasting report

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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29. A _____ is a brief message to an operator that describes what data are to be entered.
A. prompt

B. passwords

C. MIS

D. Tactical
 E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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30. A _____ decision is routine one that's made following the completion of a preplanned series of
steps.
A. strategic

B. structured

C. simulation

D. tactical

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

31. Educational programs for the labour union officials are conducted by
A. the firm's industrial relations department

B. the vice-president of information systems

C. both (a) and (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b)

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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32. Data has to be _____ before it can be converted into information.

A. transformed

B. processed

C. changed

D. engineered

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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33. Which of the following is not true of the EDP Auditors Foundation?
A. It publishes a journal, The EDP Auditor

B. It sponsors the CIS A examination.

C. It is a professional association of those auditors who specialize in EDP

D. It is a member of the AFIPS.

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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34. The most straightforward resource flow is

 A. manpower

B. machines

C. material

D. money

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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35. To _____ is to decide in advance on a course of action.

A. master

B. decision

C. plan

D. control

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

1. How many digits of the DNIC (Data Network Identification Code) identify the country?
A. first three

B. first four

C. first five
 D. first six

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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2. A station in a network forwards incoming packets by placing them on its shortest output queue.
What routing algorithm is being used?
A. hot potato routing

B. flooding

C. static routing

D. delta routing

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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3. The probability that a single bit will be in error on a typical public telephone line using 4800 bps
modem is 10 to the power -3. If no error detection mechanism is used, the residual error rate for
a communication line using 9-bit frames is approximately equal to
A. 0.003

B. 0.009

C. 0.991

D. 0.999
 E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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4. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device
A. Router

B. Bridge

C. Repeater

D. Modem

Answer: Option B
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5. Which of the following condition is used to transmit two packets over a medium at the same
time?
A. Contention

B. Collision

C. Synchronous

D. Asynchronous

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

6. You have a class A network address 10.0.0.0 with 40 subnets, but are required to add 60 new
 subnets very soon. You would like to still allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per
subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign?
A. 255.240.0.0

B. 255.248.0.0

C. 255.252.0.0

D. 255.254.0.0

E. 255.255.255.255

Answer: Option D
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7. What are the most commonly used transmission speeds in BPS used in data communication?
A. 300

B. 1200

C. 2400

D. 9600

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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8. What is the default subnet mask for a class C network?

A. 127.0.0.1
 B. 255.0.0.0

C. 255.255.0.0

D. 255.255.255.0

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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9. Which of the following is used for modulation and demodulation?

A. modem

B. protocols

C. gateway

D. multiplexer

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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10. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of wireless LAN?

A. Slower data transmission

B. higher error rate

C. interference of transmissions from different computers

 D. All of the above

Answer: Option D

11. The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

A. allows gateways to send error a control messages to other gateways or hosts

provides communication between the Internet Protocol Software on one machine and the
B.
Internet Protocol Software on another

reports error conditions to the original source, the source must relate errors to individual
C.
application programs and take action to correct the problem

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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12. Your company has a LAN in its downtown office and has now set up a LAN in the manufacturing
plant in the suburbs. To enable everyone to share data and resources between the two LANs,
what type of device(s) are needed to connect them? Choose the most correct answer.
A. Modem

B. Cable

C. Hub

D. Router

Answer: Option D
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13. The term 'duplex' refers to the ability of the data receiving stations to echo back a confirming
message to the sender. In full duplex data transmission, both the sender and the receiver
A. cannot talk at once

B. can receive and send data simultaneously

C. can send or receive data one at a time

D. can do one way data transmission only

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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14. How many hosts are attached to each of the local area networks at your site?
A. 128

B. 254

C. 256

D. 64

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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15. Which of the following technique is used for fragment?

 A. a technique used in best-effort delivery systems to avoid endlessly looping packets

a technique used by protocols in which a lower level protocol accepts a message from a
B.
higher level protocol and places it in the data portion of the low level frame

one of the pieces that results when an IP gateway divides an IP datagram into smaller
C.
pieces for transmission across a network that cannot handle the original datagram size

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

16. Contention is
One or more conductors that serve as a common connection for a related group of
A.
devices

B. a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second signal

the condition when two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at the same
C.
time

a collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications

D.
service among stations attached to the network

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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17. Avalanche photodiode receivers can detect hits of transmitted data by receiving
A. 100 photons
 B. 200 photons

C. 300 photons

D. 400 photons

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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18. Satellite-Switched Time-Division Multiple Access (SS/TDMA) is

the method of determining which device has access to the transmission medium at any
A.
time.

B. a medium access control technique for multiple access transmission media

a form of TDMA in which circuit switching is used to dynamically change the channel
C.
assignments

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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19. When you ping the loopback address, a packet is sent where?
A. On the network

B. Down through the layers of the IP architecture and then up the layers again
 C. Across the wire

D. through the loopback dongle

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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20. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring electronic mail messages from
one machine to another?
A. FTP

B. SNMP

C. SMTP

D. RPC

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

21. Which of the following device is used to connect two systems, especially if the systems use
different protocols?
A. hub

B. bridge

C. gateway

D. repeater

E. None of the above

 Answer: Option C
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22. The synchronous modems are more costly than the asynchronous modems because
A. they produce large volume of data

B. they contain clock recovery circuits

C. they transmit the data with stop and start bits.

D. they operate with a larger bandwidth

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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23. A distributed network configuration in which all data/information pass through a central computer
is
A. bus network

B. star network

C. ring network

D. Point-to-point network

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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24. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol allows an application program on one machine to send a
datagram to an application program on another machine?
A. UDP

B. VMTP

C. X.25

D. SMTP

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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25. A remote batch-processing operation in which data is solely input to a central computer would
require a:
A. telegraph line

B. simplex lines

C. mixedband channel

D. All the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

26. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is

A.
a TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically bind a high level IP Address to a low-level physical
 hardware address

B. a TCP/IP high level protocol for transferring files from one machine to another

C. a protocol used to monitor computers

D. a protocol that handles error and control messages

E. None of the above

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27. If you get both local and remote echoes, every character you type will appear on the screen
A. once

B. twice

C. three times

D. never

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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28. What part of 192.168.10.51 is the Network ID, assuming a default subnet mask?
A. 192

B. 192.168.10

C. 0.0.0.5
 D. 51

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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29. The slowest transmission speeds are those of

A. twisted-pair wire

B. coaxial cable

C. fiber-optic cable

D. microwaves

Answer: Option A
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30. A noiseless 3 KHz Channel transmits bits with binary level signals. What is the maximum data
rate?
A. 3 Kbps

B. 6 Kbps

C. 12 Kbps

D. 24 Kbps.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

31. Carrier is
 One or more conductors that serve as a common connection for a related group of
A.
devices

B. a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second signal

the condition when two or more sections attempt to use the same channel at the same
C.
time

a collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications

D.
service among stations attached to the network

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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32. What can greatly reduce TCP/IP configuration problems?

A. WINS Server

B. WINS Proxy

C. DHCP Server

D. PDC

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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33. In CRC there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is _____.

 A. equal to the remainder at the sender

B. zero

C. nonzero

D. the quotient at the sender

Answer: Option B
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34. Which of the following statements is correct for the use of packet switching?
the subdivision of information into individually addressed packets in conjunction with
A. alternative routing arrangement enabled the transmission path to be altered in the event
of congestion or individual link failure

the employment of additional intelligence within the network enabled more sophisticated
B.
error control and link control procedures to be applied

by employing wide bandwidth circuits for the trunk networks substantial economies
C.
through extensive sharing of capacity could be achieved.

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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35. A front-end processor is

A. a user computer system
 B. a processor in a large-scale computer that executes operating system instructions

a minicomputer that relieves main-frame computers at a computer centre of

C.
communications control functions

D. preliminary processor of batch jobs.

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

36. What is the port number for NNTP?

A. 119

B. 80

C. 79

D. 70

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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37. Eight stations are competing for the use of a shared channel using the 'Adaptive tree Walk
Protocol'. If the stations 7 and 8 are suddenly become ready at once, how many bit slots are
needed to resolve the contention?
A. 7 slots

B. 5 slots

C. 10 slots

D. 14 slots

Answer: Option A
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38. Usually, it takes 10-bits to represent one character. How many characters can be transmitted at
a speed of 1200 BPS?
A. 10

B. 12

C. 120

D. 1200

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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39. To connect a computer with a device in the same room, you might be likely to use
A. a coaxial cable

B. a dedicated line

C. a ground station

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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40. Internet-like networks within an enterprise.
A. Intranets

B. Switching alternating

C. Inter organizational networks

D. Extranets

Answer: Option A

41. How many bits internet address is assigned to each host on a TCP/IP internet which is used in
all communications with the host?
A. 16 - bits

B. 32 - bits

C. 48 - bits

D. 64 - bits

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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42. With an IP address of 100, you currently have 80 subnets. What subnet mask should you use to
maximize the number of available hosts?
A. 192

B. 224

C. 240
 D. 248

E. 252

Answer: Option E
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43. Which of the following types of channels moves data relatively slowly?
A. wideband channel

B. voiceband channel

C. narrowband channel

D. broadband channel

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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44. Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers?

A. communications software

B. protocol

C. communications hardware

D. access to transmission medium

E. All of the above

 Answer: Option E
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45. Which of the following does not allow multiple users or devices to share one communications
line?
A. doubleplexer

B. multipplexer

C. concentrator

D. controller

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

46. The geostationary satellite used for communication systems

A. rotates with the earth

B. remains stationary relative to the earth

C. is positioned over equator

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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47. Telecommunication networks frequently interconnect an organization with its customers and
 suppliers. Select the best fit for answer:
A. Bandwidth alternatives

B. Switching alternating

C. Inter organizational networks

D. Extranets

Answer: Option C
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48. The packets switching concept was first proposed

A. in the late 1980s for the Defense Ministry of US.

B. in the early 1960s for military communication systems, mainly to handle speech

C. in the late 1950s for Defense Ministry of US

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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49. The _____ houses the switches in token ring.

A. transceiver

B. nine-pin connector
 C. MAU

D. NIC

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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50. What device separates a single network into two segments but lets the two segments appear as
one to higher protocols?
A. Switch

B. Bridge

C. Gateway

D. Router

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

1. A report generator is used to

A. update files

B. print files on paper

C. data entry

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

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2. Which of the following is not a logical data-base structure?
A. tree

B. relational

C. network

D. chain

E. All of the above

Answer: Option D
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3. Which of the following is a database administrator's function?

A. database design

B. backing up the database

C. performance monitoring

D. user coordination

E. All of the above

Answer: Option E
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4. Primitive operations common to all record management systems include

A. Print
 B. Sort

C. Look-up

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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5. Each of data files has a _____ that describe the way the data is stored in the file.
A. File structure

B. Records

C. Fields

D. Database

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

6. After you _____ a record, many data management the environments require you to issue a
command to save the changes you made.
A. Delete

B. Update

C. Sort key
 D. Index

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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7. What is the language used by most of the DBMSs for helping their users to access data?
A. High level language

B. Query language

C. SQL

D. 4GL

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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8. Data item characteristics that are important in data management include

A. punctuation

B. language

C. spelling

D. width

E. None of the above

 Answer: Option D
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9. In SQL, which command is used to make permanent changes made by statements issue since
the beginning of a transaction?
A. ZIP

B. PACK

C. COMMIT

D. SAVE

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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10. Periodically adding, changing and deleting file records is called file
A. Updating

B. upgrading

C. restructuring

D. renewing

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

11. Sort/report generators

 A. are faster than index/report generators

B. require more disk space than index/report generators

C. do not need to sort before generating a report

D. both (a) and (b)

E. None of the above

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12. The data dictionary tells the DBMS

A. what files are in the database

B. what attribute are possessed by the data

C. what these files contain

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
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13. In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to enable/disable a database trigger?

A. MODIFY USER

B. CHANGE USER

C. ALTER TRIGGER
 D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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14. If the record management system allows you to edit values before they are recorded on disk,
you can
A. correct spelling changes before they are recorded

B. change the name of a field

C. change the width of a field

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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15. The relational model uses some unfamiliar terminology. A tuple is equivalent to a:
A. record

B. field

C. file

D. data base
 E. data item

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
16. The files stored on a secondary stage device are composed of a hierarchy of data. What does a
record in a file contain?
A. Bits

B. Characters

C. Data field

D. Schema

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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17. Which command is used to remove an index from the database in SQL?
A. DELETE INDEX

B. DROP INDEX

C. REMOVE INDEX

D. ROLL BACK INDEX

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
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18. An-owner-member set in the CODASYL specifications may have
A. only one owner but many owner occurrences

B. only one member but many member occurrence

C. more than one member but only one occurrence per member

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
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19. What is the name given to the database management system which is able to handle full text
data, image data, audio and video?
A. Full media

B. Graphics media

C. Multimedia

D. Hypertext

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
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20. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a

A. Hierarchical schema
B. Network schema

C. Relational schema

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A