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TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2025 – Test – 4720

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Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel
that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response
for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the answers
sheet.
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6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rdof the allotted marks will be
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deducted.
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7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
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fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
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should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
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9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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1. Arrange the following projects in their 4. Consider the following industries :
chronological order. 1. Jewelry industry
1. Project Tiger 2. Electronics industry
2. Project Elephant 3. Paper and pulp industry
3. Project Hangul 4. Sugar industry
Select the correct answer using the code given How many of the industries given above are
below. footloose industries?
(a) 1-2-3 (a) Only one
(b) 2-3-1 (b) Only two
(c) 3-1-2 (c) Only three
(d) 3-2-1 (d) All four

2. Consider the following statements: 5. Consider the following statements with

1. Black carbon is produced from reference to the igneous rocks:
the incomplete combustion of fossil 1. Plutonic Rocks are formed from magma
fuels. that cools beneath the Earth's surface
2. Brown carbon is released from while Volcanic rocks are formed from
the combustion of organic matter. lava that cools at or near the Earth's
3. Unlike black carbon, the absorption surface.
efficiency of brown carbon is highly 2. Plutonic rocks typically have large
variable. crystals, while volcanic rocks have small
Which of the statements given above is/are or no crystals.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. With reference to plastic overshoot day,
consider the following statements: 6. With reference to the global distribution of
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1. It marks the point when the amount of critical minerals, consider the following
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plastic waste exceeds the world’s statements:
S.

capacity to manage it, resulting in 1. Argentina produces two-thirds of the

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environmental pollution. world's platinum.

2. It is issued by World Health Organization 2. Indonesia produces about half of all the
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(WHO). world's nickel.

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Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? not correct?
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(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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7. Consider the following statements land use 10. Consider the following statements regarding
patterns of India “Nor’westers”:
1. They are severe evening thunderstorms
1. The Net Area Sown in India is more than accompanied by winds affecting eastern
150 million hectares. India during summer.
2. Canals are the largest source of irrigation 2. They positively influence agriculture by
providing relief from the heat, benefiting
in India. pre-kharif crops like jute and paddy.
3. The total cropped are in the country is Which of the statements given above is/are
more than 200 million hectares. correct?
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 only
correct (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) 1 and 3 only 11. Consider the following statements about the
(c) 3 only energy sector in India:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. India's total electricity generation
capacity is more than 500 GW.
2. Installed Solar electricity generation
8. Consider the following rivers: capacity is less than 100 GW
1. Narmada 3. Rajasthan has the largest installed
renewable energy generation capacity in
2. Tapi the country.
3. Mahi Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Sabarmati correct?
(a) 1 only
How many of the above rivers are crossed by (b) 1 and 2 only
the Tropic of Cancer in India? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) Only one (d) 1, 2 and 3

(b) Only two 12. Recently, Ecomark Rules, 2024 has been
(c) Only three notified. In this context, consider the
(d) All four following statements:
1. The Ecomark labeling system promotes
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eco-friendly products in categories such
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9. Consider the following mountain passes: as food, cosmetics, and electronics.
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1. Shipki La Pass 2. Manufacturers must apply for Ecomark

certification through the Bureau of Indian
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2. Nathu La Pass Standards (BIS).

3. Banihal Pass 3. The Ecomark certification process is
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How many of the above passes are located in managed by the Ministry of Consumer
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Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.

the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh? How many statements given above are
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(a) Only one correct?

(a) Only one
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(b) Only two

(b) Only two
(c) All three
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(c) All three

(d) None (d) None
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13. Consider the following statements: 16. With respect to hypersonic missiles, consider
1. Gold, Copper and Ilmenite are found in the following statements:
Dharwar rock formations. 1. Hypersonic missiles are advanced
2. The Gondwana rock system is the source weapons capable of speeds greater than
of almost all of the coal found in India. Mach 5.
3. The Cuddapah system is a source of the 2. These missiles follow a fixed trajectory
highest-quality iron ore found in India. throughout their flights
How many of the above statements are 3. Till date, only the USA and Russia have
correct? hypersonic missile capabilities.
(a) Only one How many of the statements given above are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) All three (a) Only one
(d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three
14. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) None
the Sarus Crane:
1. It is the tallest flying bird in India.
17. “LUX-ZEPLIN (LZ) experiment” and
2. It is the state bird of Uttar Pradesh.
“Euclid mission”, sometimes mentioned in
3. It is classified as Vulnerable according to
news are related to:
IUCN.
(a) discovery of dark matter.
How many of the above statements are
(b) study of asteroid 16 Psyche.
correct?
(c) study of bright astronomical X-ray
(a) Only one
sources.
(b) Only two
(d) detection of gravitational waves in space.
(c) All three
(d) None
18. Consider the following information:
Dance form Tribe Origin O
15. Consider the following statements about the
Country
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Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO):
1. Haka Maori New Zealand
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1. It is a planetary-scale equatorial traveling

pattern of anomalous rainfall. 2. Adumu Maasai South Sudan
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2. MJO traversing over the Pacific Ocean 3. Eagle Dance Pueblo Azerbaijan
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positively affects the Indian Monsoon. In how many of the above rows is the given
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Which of the statements given above is/are information correctly matched?

correct? (a) Only one
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(a) 1 only (b) Only two

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(b) 2 only (c) All three

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(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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19. India is vulnerable to various kinds of 22. Consider the following statements with
disasters especially earthquakes due to reference to great lakes of North America:
tectonically active Indian Plate. For better
1. The Great Lakes are connected to the
preparedness and efficient management of
earthquake hazards Indian geographical Atlantic Ocean through the St. Lawrence
region has been divided into various seismic River, making them a vital route for
zones. In this context which of the following
international shipping.
pairs is/are correctly matched?
Region Seismic Zone 2. Lake Superior, the largest of the Great
1. Guwahati V Lakes, has the highest salinity among all
2. Delhi IV
the lakes due to its size and depth.
3. Goa III
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are
below. correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. ‘Extended Producer Responsibility’ is often
seen in the news with respect to which of the
following? 23. With reference to guidelines for Prevention
1. Plastic waste and Regulation of Greenwashing and
2. Electronic waste
Misleading Environmental Claims, consider
3. Electrical vehicle battery waste
4. Automotive batteries the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. These guidelines provide clear
below.
definitions of terms related to
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only Greenwashing.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. As per the guidelines, companies are
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 required to provide clear and accessible
disclosures of material information of O
21. Consider the following statements with
eco-friendly products through digital
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reference to Alkaline Soil:
1. Alkaline soils have problems with
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medium.
deficiencies of nutrients such as zinc,
3. These guidelines are issued under
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copper, boron and manganese.

2. Aluminium sulfate or ammonium sulfate Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
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fertilizer is used to treat highly alkaline Which of the statements given above is/are
soil.
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correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
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(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

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(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only

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(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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24. Consider the following ports : 27. Consider the following information:
1. Port of Savannah Soil Type Parent Characteristics
2. Port of Santos Material
3. Dakar Port
1. Black Basalt High water
How many of the above ports are on the
Cotton retention and
shores of the Atlantic Ocean?
Soil rich in
(a) Only one
(b) Only two magnesium

(c) All three 2. Red Soil Crystalline Rich in lime

(d) None igneous and calcium
rocks
25. Consider the following statements:
3. Alluvial Riverine Rich in
Statement-I: Despite the manifold increase in
Soil deposits nitrogen and
the migrant population across the globe, the
potassium
share of migrant children saw a decline in the
last 25 years. In how many of the above rows is the given

Statement-II: Family migration policies of information correctly matched?

immigrant countries have become more (a) Only one
restrictive during this period. (b) Only two
Which one of the following is correct in (c) All three
respect of the above statements?
(d) None
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
28. Consider the following statements with
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are reference to drought:

correct and Statement-II is not the correct 1. A period of below-normal rainfall does
explanation for Statement-I not necessarily result in drought
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is conditions.
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incorrect
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2. Hydrological drought is a situation when
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
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the water availability in different storages

is correct
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and reservoirs falls below what

26. 'Digital Sequence Information Agreement' precipitation can replenish.

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was recently seen in the news in the context Which of the statements given above is/are
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of correct?
(a) World Trade Organization (a) 1 only
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(b) European Union

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(b) 2 only
(c) United Nations Environment Programme
(c) Both 1 and 2
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(d) Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD)

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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29. Consider the following pairs: 31. Consider the following statements with
Types of Descriptions reference to mineral resources in Europe:
Mines Country
Settlements
1. Kiruna Mine : Norway
A. Rectangular : 1. Extend on both
2. Kuznetsk basin : Russia
sides of a river.
3. Lubin Mine : Sweden
B. Cross-shaped : 2. Arranged around
How many pairs given above are correctly
a central point for matched?
protection (a) Only one
C. Circular : 3. Houses arranged (b) Only two
(c) All three
in a cross formation
(d) None
around intersecting
roads 32. Consider the following statements:
D. Double : 4. Develops in a Statement-I: If trade with Australia is
village grid-like pattern disturbed, India's Iron and Steel industry may
suffer heavily.
with streets
Statement-II: India imports the majority of its
intersecting at right iron ore demand from Australia.
angles Which one of the following is correct in
Select the correct answer using the code given respect of the above statements?
below. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
(a) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4
explanation for Statement-I
(b) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3 (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2 correct and Statement-II is not the correct
(d) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1 explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect
30. Which of the following have been formed or
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
provided under the Environment Protection is correct O
Act, 1986?
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1. National Ganga River Basin Authority 33. Consider the following characteristics of soil:
S.

1. Permeability
2. Central Groundwater Commission
2. Colour
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3. Coastal Regulation Zones

3. Humus Formation
4. Environment Impact Assessment 4. Chemical Properties
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Select the correct answer using the code given How many of the above soil characteristics
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below. are primarily affected/determined by its

parent rock?
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(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(a) Only one
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(b) 1, 3, and 4 only

(b) Only two
(c) 2 and 3 only
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(c) Only three

(d) 1 and 4 only (d) All four
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34. Which of the following bodies have been 36. PARIVESH 2.0 portal, often mentioned in

established under the Wild life (Protection) the news, which one of the following
statements best describes its objective?
Act, 1972?
(a) It is a portal that aims to bring ease of
1. National Board for Wildlife doing business in the logistics sector by
2. Central Zoo Authority simplifying the logistics processes.
(b) It is a platform to create a centralized
3. National Tiger Conservation Authority
database of unorganized workers that
4. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau helped in implementing the social
Select the correct answer using the code given security services to them.
(c) It is the portal for tracking projects related
below.
to environmental, forest, wildlife and
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only Coastal Regulation Zone clearances.
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) It is a portal that enables States to
establish advance tie-ups with seed-
(c) 2 and 4 only
producing agencies.
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
37. The National Action Plan on Climate Change
(NAPCC) consists of several National
35. Consider the following statements regarding
Missions, each focusing on different aspects
Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin of climate change. Which of the following is
(PMAY-G): not one of those missions under the National
Action Plan on Climate Change?
1. The beneficiaries for this scheme are
(a) National Solar Mission
selected through the Socio-Economic (b) National Mission on Coastal
Caste Census 2011 survey and Gram Management
(c) National Mission for Sustainable
Sabha approvals.
Agriculture
2. Manual scavengers and legally released
(d) National Water Mission
bonded laborers are automatically

included in the list of beneficiaries. 38. Consider the following statements:

1. Stormwater and agriculture are the
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3. Houses under PMAY-G should include
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sources of nitrogen pollution.
names of women members of the 2. Nitrogen pollution results
S.

household in sanction details/ownership in eutrophication and photochemical

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smog.
details.
3. Combustion of fossil fuels is a major
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How many of the statements given above are source of nitrogen dioxide pollution.
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correct? Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
(a) Only one
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(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) Only two
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(b) 2 only
(c) All three (c) 2 and 3 only
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
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39. Consider the following statements about 43. Consider the following hills:
Neelakurinji: 1. Baba Budan Hills
1. These are flowering shrubs that bloom
2. Nallamala Hills
once every 12 years.
2. These are endemic to high-altitude shola 3. Anaimalai Hills
grasslands. 4. Shevaroy Hills
3. Their IUCN status is critically How many of the above hills are part of the
endangered. Western Ghats?
How many of the above statements are not
(a) Only one
correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) Only three
(c) All three (d) All four
(d) None

44. Consider the following statements regarding

40. The Lipulekh Pass, a strategic location for
India, lies at the tri-junction of India and Laterite Soil:
which other two countries? 1. It is formed in regions of high
(a) China and Nepal temperature and heavy rainfall.
(b) Bhutan and Myanmar
2. It is rich in iron oxide and aluminum
(c) Pakistan and Afghanistan
(d) China and Bhutan compounds.
Which of the statements given above is/are
41. Native beverages called ‘Maibra Jou Bidwi’ correct?
and ‘Bodo Jou Gishi ’have received the
(a) 1 only
Geographical Indication (GI) tag recently.
(b) 2 only
They belong to which one of the following
states of India? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Odisha (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Manipur
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
45. It is the largest among the Great Apes. It
(d) Assam
majorly has two species distributed across O
42. Consider the following statements about parts of Eastern and Western Africa. These
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“Dead Zones” are vegetarians and knuckle-walkers. The
S.

1. Dead Zone is an area of low oxygen that

unique feature about them is the fact that they
can kill fish and other marine life.
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share approximately 98.3% of DNA with

2. These zones can be found in large water
bodies like oceans but not in rivers and humans.
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lakes. Which of the following organisms is best

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Which of the statements given above is/are described by the passage given above?
correct?
(a) Hollock Gibbon
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(a) 1 only
(b) Gorilla
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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Chimpanzee
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Orangutan

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46. Consider the following statements: 49. Consider the following statements about
1. Global Systemically Important Financial International Energy Efficiency Hub (IEEH):
Institutions are identified by the World 1. It was established in 2020 as a successor
Bank whereas Domestic Systemically to the International Partnership for
Important Banks are identified by the Energy Efficiency (IPEEC).
Reserve Bank of India. 2. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
2. State Bank of India is not under the list of has been designated as the implementing
Global Systemically Important Banks but agency for India in the Hub.
identified as Domestic Systemically Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Important Banks.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
50. Consider the following animals:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Whales
2. Sharks
47. Consider the following pairs: 3. Dolphins
Tiger Reserve Region State 4. Small-clawed otter
1. Ratapani Vindhya Madhya 5. Honey Badger
hills Pradesh 6. Red Panda
2. Bandhavgarh Ajanta Maharashtra How many of the above are mammals?
Hills (a) Only three
3. Kaimur Chota Chhattisgarh (b) Only four
Nagpur (c) Only five
(d) All six
plateau
In how many of the above rows is the given
51. Which of the following statements best
information correctly matched?
describes "Biodiversity Credits" which was
(a) Only one
recently seen in the news?
(b) Only two
(a) It is a financial instrument that allows
(c) All three
companies to offset their carbon
(d) None emissions by investing in renewable
energy projects.
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48. Which among the following serves as bio- (b) It represents a measurable and verifiable
indicators for pollution?
S.

unit of positive biodiversity outcome,

1. Mites generated through conservation and
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2. Fungi restoration activities.

3. Fern (c) These are certificates that guarantee the
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4. Geckos protection of an endangered species

5. Lichens
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without any associated conservation

Select the correct answer using the code given activities.
below: (d) These are certificates issued by the
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(a) 1, 2 and 5 only Compensatory Afforestation Fund

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(b) 1, 3 and 4 only Management and Planning Authority

(CAMPA) for funding the Compensatory
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(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Afforestation Fund.
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52. Which of the following statements is true 55. With reference to Global E-waste Monitor
regarding the updated National Biodiversity 2024 Report, consider the following
Strategy and Action Plan (NBSAP) launched statements:
at COP 16?
1. The report is published by the United
1. The NBSAP aims to protect at least 30%
Nations Institute for Training and
of terrestrial, inland water, and coastal
Research (UNITAR).
areas by 2030.
2. The NBSAP aligns with the Kunming- 2. As per the report, India holds the third
Montreal Global Biodiversity position globally in e-waste generation.
Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code given correct?
below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

53. Consider the following statements about the 56. Consider the following animals:
Kaziranga National Park: 1. Malabar Civet
1. It is located on the Northern Bank of the 2. Nilgai
Brahmaputra River. 3. Pig tailed macaque
2. It is also a Natural World Heritage Site How many of the above are endemic to
designated by UNESCO.
Western Ghats in India?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only one
correct?
(b) Only two
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. Consider the following statements with
54. Consider the following: reference to black soil:
Statement I: India has the world’s second-
1. Black soil is made up of Argillaceous
largest number of Ramsar sites.
rocks. O
Statement-II: The number of Ramsar sites in
2. Black Soil is rich in organic matter due to
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India has increased to 85 in the year 2024.
Which one of the following is correct in the presence of organic matter in parent
S.

respect of the above statements? material.

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(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 3. Oxisols, Ultisols, Alfisols are some of the
correct, and Statement-II is the correct common types of black soil found in the
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explanation for Statement-I. world.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
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How many of the statements given above are

correct, and Statement-II is not the
correct?
correct explanation for Statement-I.
D

(a) Only one

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
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incorrect. (b) Only two

(c) All three
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(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II

is correct. (d) None
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58. How many of the following acts are included 60. In context of Biomedical waste, consider the
in the jurisdiction of the National Green following pairs:
Tribunal? Color Code Wastes Included
1. The Water (Prevention and Control of 1. Yellow : Chemical liquid waste
Pollution) Act, 1974 2. Red : Items that can be
2. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
recycled
3. The Air (Prevention and Control of
3. White : Discarded and
Pollution) Act, 1981
contaminated metal
4. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Select the correct answer using the code given
needles

below. 4. Blue : Broken glass and

(a) Only one metallic body implant

(b) Only two How many of the above are correctly
(c) Only three matched?
(d) All four (a) Only one
(b) Only two
59. Consider the following statements with (c) Only three
reference to cyclone in India: (d) All four
Statement I: The Bay of Bengal is more prone
to cyclones as compared to the Arabian Sea.
61. Consider the following statements regarding
Statement II: The influx of freshwater from
the major ports of India:
major rivers leads to lower salinity in the Bay
1. Deendayal Port has the highest cargo
of Bengal.
handling capacity as of 2023-24.
Which one of the following is correct in
2. Kamarajar port has seen the highest
respect of the above statements? O
percentage increase in cargo handling
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
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capacity in the last decade.
S.

correct and Statement-II is the correct

3. The total cargo handled by all the major
explanation for Statement-I
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ports has tripled in the last decade.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Which of the statements given above is/are
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correct and Statement-II is not the correct

correct?
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explanation for Statement-I

(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
D

(b) 2 only
incorrect
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(c) 3 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
is correct
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62. After Business Process Outsourcing (BPO), 66. With reference to Small Modular Reactors
Knowledge Process Outsourcing (KPO) has (SMRs), consider the following statements:
gained traction in quinary services as BPO's
1. They are a class of small nuclear fission
distinct subset. How many of the following
can be included in KPOs? reactors.
1. Data analysis and interpretation 2. They can deliver an electrical power
2. E-learning
output maximum up to 1 GW per module.
3. Intellectual Property Research
4. Business operations 3. In comparison to conventional plants,
Select the correct answer using the code given power plants based on SMRs may require
below.
less frequent refuelling.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Which of the statements given above are
(c) Only three correct?
(d) All four
(a) 1 and 2 only

63. Consider the following states /Union (b) 2 and 3 only

Territories of India: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. Jammu and Kashmir
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Ladakh
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Uttarakhand 67. Consider the following statements:
In how many of the above states/Union
Statement-I: India joined the US-led Minerals
Territories does the Indus River directly flow
in India? Security Partnership (MSP) Finance Network
(a) Only one to secure sustainable supply chains for critical
(b) Only two
minerals.
(c) Only three
(d) All four Statement- II: The USA is responsible for
more than 60 percent of global production of
64. Which of the following Indian states hosts the
critical minerals.
biggest diamond cutting centre of the world?
(a) Maharashtra Which one of the following is correct in
(b) Karnataka respect of the above statements?
O
C
(c) Tamil Nadu (a) Both Statement-I and Statement- II are
(d) Gujarat
S.

correct and Statement- II is the correct

TE

65. Consider the following species: explanation for Statement-I

1. Peacock (b) Both Statement-I and Statement- II are
O

2. Pigeons
correct and Statement- II is not the correct
3. Parrots
FN

How many of the above are invasive alien explanation for Statement-I
species in India?
D

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement- II is

(a) Only one
.P

incorrect
(b) Only two
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II
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(c) All three

(d) None is correct
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68. Consider the following statements regarding 70. Consider the following statements regarding
the Somali Jet: saline soils:

1. It is a cross-equatorial flow of air that 1. Saline soils are commonly found in arid
regions and deltas of eastern coastal
attains jet stream speeds along the east
areas.
coast of Africa.
2. They contain a higher proportion of
2. A weak Somali Jet enhances monsoon
sodium, potassium, and magnesium but
rainfall over peninsular India. lack nitrogen and calcium.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The use of gypsum is recommended to
correct? address salinity in irrigated regions like
(a) 1 only Punjab and Haryana.

(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above are

correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
69. Consider the following statements about G-
(d) 1, 2 and 3
20:
1. The G-20 group was originally 71. At which one of the following places do three
established as a platform for the Finance important antecedent rivers of India originate;
Ministers and Central Bank Governors to while one of them flows towards east and

discuss the international economic and merge with an important river flowing
towards Bay of Bengal, the second river is the
financial issues.
largest tributary of the third river which flows
2. The G20 Presidency rotates annually
towards Arabian Sea?
among the members based on
(a) Amarkantak
alphabetical order of the English names (b) Kailash mountain range
of Member States. (c) Kumaon Himalayas O
3. To ensure continuity, the Presidency is (d) Trimbakeshwar
C
supported by a “troika” made up of the
S.

current, immediate past and next host 72. Which of the following is not an NGO?
TE

(a) Trade Records Analysis of Flora and

countries.
Fauna in Commerce (TRAFFIC)
O

Which of the statements given above is/are

(b) World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
FN

correct?
(c) International Union for Conservation of
(a) 1 and 2 only
Nature (IUCN)
D

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) Convention on International Trade in

.P

(c) 2 and 3 only Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and

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(d) 1, 2 and 3 Flora (CITES)

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73. Consider the following pairs: 76. With reference to ‘Business for Land (B4L)’,
Plateau River drains or sometimes seen in the news, consider the
originates following statements:
1. Chotanagpur Damodar River 1. Business for Land is a unique initiative
Plateau launched at COP29 to the UN Framework
2. Malwa Plateau Chambal River Convention on Climate Change
3. Meghalaya Plateau Barak River (UNFCCC).
How many of the above pairs are correctly
2. It is an initiative to engage the private
matched?
sector in sustainable land and water
(a) Only one
management.
(b) Only two
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) All three
correct?
(d) None
(a) 1 only

74. Arrange the following states in descending (b) 2 only

order of their forest cover in terms of (c) Both 1 and 2

percentage area: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Mizoram
2. Arunachal Pradesh 77. The process in which materials within the
3. Madhya Pradesh Earth separate into distinct layers based on
4. Kerala their density and chemical properties during
Select the correct answer using the code given its formation is known as:
below. (a) Convection
(a) 1-2-4-3 (b) Differentiation
(b) 3-1-2-4 (c) Subduction
(c) 2-1-4-3 (d) Exfoliation
(d) 1-2-3-4

78. L-69 group, G-4 group, Sirte declaration and

75. Consider the following statements regarding
Ezulwini Consensus often seen in news,
the African penguins:
which one of the following aspects common
1. They are listed as critically endangered
to all of them? O
by the International Union for the
(a) Asking the United Nations to bring an
C
Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
international legally binding instrument
2. They are found on the entire coast of
S.

Africa. to end plastic pollution.

TE

3. They don't have vocal cords hence (b) Asking the World Trade Organization to
communicate with one another through bring a permanent solution for food
O

body language only. subsidies.

FN

Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Asking International Court of Justice to
correct? take action against alleged violation of
D

(a) 1 only the Genocide Convention by Isreal in the

.P

(b) 1 and 2 only Gaza Strip.

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Seeking urgent reform of the United
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(d) 1, 2 and 3 Nations Security Council.

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79. Consider the following statements regarding 82. Consider the following Indian states:
Coffee cultivation in India: 1. Assam
2. Meghalaya
1. Karnataka and Kerala together account
3. Manipur
for more than 50% of coffee production
4. Tripura
in India 5. Mizoram
2. Robusta coffee variety has the majority How many of the above states share a land
share in coffee production of India. boundary with Bangladesh?

3. Coffee plants are evergreen and are (a) Only two

(b) Only three
native to South America.
(c) Only four
How many of the statements given above are (d) All five
correct?
(a) Only one 83. With reference to the Plastic Waste
(b) Only two Management (Amendment) Rules, 2024,
consider the following statements:
(c) All three
1. The rules define biodegradable plastics as
(d) None
materials that can degrade through
biological processes.
80. Arrange the following cities from North to 2. It made Panchayats at the district level
South: responsible for assessing plastic waste
generation in their areas.
1. London
3. The amended rules do not address the
2. Dubai
issue of microplastics in biodegradable
3. Mumbai plastics.
4. Singapore How many of the statements given above are
Select the correct answer using the code given correct?
(a) Only one
below.
(b) Only two
(a) 1-3-2-4
(c) All three
(b) 1-2-3-4 (d) None
O
(c) 2-1-3-4
C
84. Consider the following pairs :
S.

(d) 1-3-4-2
Dam Built on River
TE

1. Idukki : Barakar
81. The report, the Sustainable Development
2. Maithon : Periyar
O

Goals Report 2024, was released by:

3. Somasila : Penna
FN

(a) UNFCCC How many of the pairs given above are

(b) United Nations Department of Economic correctly matched?
D

and Social Affairs (UN DESA) (a) Only one

.P

(b) Only two

(c) UNEP and IPCC
(c) All three
W

(d) International Energy Agency (IEA)

(d) None
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85. Consider the following statements: 87. Which of the following publishes the
Statement-I: Currently, more than 50% of Greenhouse Gas Bulletin?
(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
India’s domestic edible oils demand is met
Change
through imports.
(b) United Nations Environment Programme
Statement-II: National Mission on Edible (c) World Meteorological Organization
Oils – Oilseeds (NMEO-Oilseeds), launched (d) World Economic Forum
to meet more than 80% domestic requirement
by 2030-31 through enhancing the production 88. Consider the following pairs:
Agricultural Largest Producer
of key primary oilseed crops.
Commodity
Which one of the following is correct in
1. Silk : India
respect of the above statements? 2. Sugar : Brazil
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II 3. Coffee : Ethiopia
are correct and Statement-II is the 4. Rubber : Indonesia
How many of the pairs given above are
correct explanation for Statement-I
correctly matched?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(a) Only one
are correct and Statement-II is not the (b) Only two
correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Only three
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (d) All four

is incorrect
89. Which of the following reserves have
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
statutory protection in India?
II is correct
1. Community Reserve
2. Tiger Reserve
86. Consider the following pairs: 3. Conservation Reserve
4. Elephant Reserve
Area sometimes Country where it
Select the correct answer using the code given
O
mentioned in news is located below.
C
1. Damascus : Iran (a) 2 and 4 only
S.

(b) 1 and 3 only

2. Al-Jawf : Saudi Arabia
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
TE

3. Khartoum : Syria (d) 2, 3, and 4 only

O

How many of the above given pairs are

90. The regions of North Western Europe, New
FN

correctly matched?
Zealand and Canada are predominantly
(a) Only one
D

(a) gold mining areas

(b) Only two
.P

(b) plantation agriculture areas

(c) All three (c) intensive subsistence agriculture areas
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(d) None (d) dairy farming areas

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91. Consider the following statements with 94. Which of the following activities are not
reference to Fly Ash: allowed to be funded under the
1. The Air (Prevention and Control
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016?
of Pollution) Act, 1981 regulates
the management of fly ash in India. 1. Purchasing land for afforestation
2. The electrostatic precipitators can 2. Payment of salaries for regular
remove fly ash from other gases prior to
employees
their release from power plants.
3. Developing forest infrastructure
3. It is mandatory for coal-based
thermal power plants to utilize 100 4. Foreign visits
percent of their yearly fly ash in an eco- Select the correct answer using the code given
friendly manner.
below.
How many of the statements given above are
correct? (a) 1 and 3 only
(a) Only one (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) All three
(d) 2 and 4 only
(d) None

92. Arrange the following minor plates in a North 95. Which of the following statements correctly
to South direction: explains the term 'physiological density'?
1. Cocos Plate
(a) It is a measurement of total population
2. Scotia Plate
3. Nazca Plate per unit area of a country.
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) It refers to the ratio to total agricultural
below.
population and the total area of a
(a) 2-3-1
country.
(b) 1-3-2
(c) 2-1-3 (c) It refers to the ratio of the total population
(d) 3-2-1 and the net cultivable area in a country.
(d) It refers to the ratio of the total
93. Consider the following statements regarding O
petroleum reserves: agricultural population and the net
C
1. Petroleum reserves are found in cultivable area in a country
S.

anticlines and fault traps of igneous

rocks.
TE

96. Which one of the following countries is not a

2. India's Vindhyan and Chota Nagpur
regions have established commercially member of the Comprehensive and
O

producible petroleum reserves. Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific

FN

Which of the statements given above is/are

Partnership?
correct?
D

(a) Canada
(a) 1 only
.P

(b) 2 only (b) United Kingdom

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Japan
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) USA
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97. How many of the following strategies are part 100. With reference to Graded Response Action
of the National Mission for Sustainable Plan (GRAP), consider the following
Agriculture? statements:
1. Integrated Farming Systems 1. It is designed to address air pollution in
2. Water Use Efficiency the Delhi-NCR region.
3. Soil Health Management 2. The Commission for Air Quality
4. Livelihood Diversification Management (CAQM) is responsible for
Select the correct answer using the code given its implementation.
below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only one correct?
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) Only three (b) 2 only
(d) All four (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
98. Arrange the population of the following
countries in increasing order:
1. United States
2. Indonesia
3. Nigeria
4. Russia
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 4-3-1-2
(b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 3-4-2-1
(d) 2-4-3-1

99. Why was Lake Kariba in the news recently? O

(a) It received the UNESCO World Heritage
C
tag.
S.

(b) It dried up because of severe drought.

TE

(c) For the discovery of fossils belonging to

pre-historic times.
O

(d) For the discovery of precious stones at

FN

this site.
D
.P
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 o

VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 4720 (2025)

Q 1.C
• Wildlife conservation is the practice of protecting the habitats, flora, and fauna. It aims to ensure
the survival of species and educate people on living sustainably with other species. Project Tiger,
Project Elephant, and Project Hangul are all wildlife conservation projects in India that aim to
protect endangered species and their habitats.
• Project Tiger is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and
Climate Change. It provides financial assistance to states for tiger conservation in designated tiger
reserves.
The scheme was launched on April 1, 1973 and has completed 50 years in 2023 itself. It is one of the
most successful initiatives worldwide and has helped India in doubling our Tiger Population.
• Project Elephant is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) of the Ministry of Environment, Forests
and Climate Change. It was launched in 1992 to protect elephants and their habitats, and to address
human-elephant conflict.
• Project Hangul is a conservation project that was started by the Jammu and Kashmir government
with the help of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN). Project Hangul was started in 1970 by the government of Jammu and Kashmir to save the
Kashmir stag, also known as the hangul.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 2.D
• Black carbon, commonly known as soot, is a form of aerosol particles emitted from incomplete
combustion of fossil fuel, biofuels and biomass. It is emitted in both anthropogenic and naturally
occurring soot. It consists of pure carbon. Black carbon (BC) is a component of fine particulate matter
(PM ≤ 2.5 μm in aerodynamic diameter. Black carbon consists of pure carbon in several linked forms.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Brown Carbon is brown smoke released by the combustion of organic matter or biomass burning.
Biomass burning (possibly domestic wood burning) is shown to be a major source of brown carbon. It O
coexists with black carbon when released into the atmosphere. Both Black and Brown carbon aid Global
Warming and pollution. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
C
• Unlike black carbon, the absorption efficiency of brown carbon is highly variable, depending on its
S.

sources (i.e., forest fire, agricultural burning, or residential cooking) and burning conditions (flaming
versus smouldering). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
TE

Q 3.A
• Plastic Overshoot Day marks the point when the amount of plastic waste exceeds the world’s
O

capacity to manage it, resulting in environmental pollution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

FN

• It is determined based on a country’s Mismanaged Waste Index (MWI).

• In 2024, Global Plastic Overshoot Day is projected to occur on September 5th.
• Each country has its own Plastic Overshoot Day with India’s falling on 23rd April.
D

• Plastic Overshoot Day is released annually by Earth Action, a non-profit organization based in the
.P

Netherlands. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Q 4.B
• Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any
specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts which
can be obtained anywhere.
• They produce in small quantity and also employ a small labour force. These are generally not polluting
industries. The important factor in their location is accessibility by road network.
• Jewelry Industry: Footloose
o The jewelry industry involves the processing and crafting of high-value, low-weight materials like
gold, diamonds, and other precious stones.
o Raw materials (e.g., gold, silver, diamonds) are often imported or sourced from distant
locations, meaning the industry is not tied to a specific geographic area for its raw materials.
o Jewelry manufacturing units can be set up anywhere with access to skilled artisans, electricity, and
transport.
• Electronics Industry: Footloose
o Electronics manufacturing, such as the production of mobile phones, semiconductors, and computers,
depends on components (like chips, circuit boards) sourced globally.
o The industry focuses on assembly, which is not dependent on proximity to raw materials.
o Regions with skilled labor, advanced infrastructure, tax benefits, and ease of doing business are
favored
• Paper and Pulp Industry: Non-Footloose
o The paper and pulp industry relies heavily on raw materials such as wood, bamboo, and water, which
are bulky and expensive to transport over long distances.
o Proximity to forests or plantations is critical to reduce raw material transportation costs.
o The industry’s dependence on natural resources and the need for significant water supply make
it geographically tied, i.e., non-footloose.
• Sugar Industry: Non-Footloose
o Sugar production is based on sugarcane, which is bulky, perishable, and loses its sucrose content if
not processed quickly after harvesting
o To minimize losses, sugar mills are located close to sugarcane-producing regions.
o This geographic dependency on raw materials makes the sugar industry non-footloose.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 5.C
• There are three main types of rocks that are classified based on the origin of the rocks, namely
igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic. The term "igneous" is derived from the Latin word for fire,
reflecting how igneous rocks get their fiery origin.
• Igneous rocks make up a vast component of the Earth's crust, comprising about 90-95% of the upper 16
km in volume. They provide insights regarding the composition and conditions of the interior of the Earth
and prove necessary for advancing knowledge of geological processes like plate tectonics.
• Igneous rocks are those that result from the cooling and crystallization of magma. The environment
in which magma cools—either underground or at the surface—determines the rock's texture and mineral
composition. O
• Types of Igneous Rocks
C
o Intrusive (Plutonic) Rocks: These rocks form beneath the Earth's surface, with time for slow
cooling and therefore have larger crystals. Some good examples are granite and gabbro.
S.

o Extrusive (Volcanic) Rocks: These result when magma erupts on the surface as lava, cools
rapidly with resulting smaller crystals or a glassy texture. Examples of such are basalt and
TE

obsidian. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.

• Sedimentary Rocks are created from the accumulation and compaction of mineral and organic particles
O

over time. They are often layered and may contain fossils. Common types include sandstone, limestone,
and shale.
FN

• Metamorphic Rocks result from the alteration of existing rocks (igneous, sedimentary, or other
metamorphic rocks) due to high temperature, pressure, or chemically active fluids without melting.
D

Common metamorphic rocks include marble (from limestone) and schist.

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
.P
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Q 6.A
• Indonesia produces about half of all the world’s nickel and has pushed prices so low that most other
producers are operating at a loss. In 2023, Indonesia accounted for 51% of global mine production
and 42% of global nickel reserves. Indonesia is expected to produce about 60% of global nickel by
2030. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Chile is the leading exporter of copper, accounting for more than one-quarter of global exports. In
2023, Chile's copper exports were worth $40.16 billion, making it the leading copper-exporting country.
The majority of Chile's copper exports go to Asia, with $7.26 billion going to China in 2023. Chile's
copper deposits are the result of the Nazca Plate subducting beneath the South American Plate over
millions of years, creating mineral-rich zones and volcanic arcs.
• South Africa is the world's largest producer of platinum, accounting for over 70% of the global
supply. The majority of South Africa's platinum mines are located in the Bushveld Igneous Complex,
which is made up of three major zones: the Merensky Reef, the UG2 Reef, and the Platreef. Russia came
in a distant second place, having produced some 23 metric tons that same year. Meanwhile, platinum mine
production in the United States has experienced a decline in recent years, plummeting to about 2.9 metric
tons in 2023. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Q 7.C

• The Net Area Sown is 140.705 million hectares as on 2023. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o The net sown area is defined as the land area which is used for cropped land once a year and is under
consideration is known as the net sown area.

O
C
S.
TE
O
FN

• Tube wells irrigate an area of 39 million hectares forming the largest share of irrigated area. Hence
D

statement 2 is not correct.

.P
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 • The total cropped area is 219.357 million hectares. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o Total cropped area, also known as gross cropped area (GCA), is the total area of land that is sown
with crops once or more than once in a given year.
o The area is counted as many times as it is sown in a year. For example, if a crop is sown twice on the
same land, the area is counted twice

Q 8.B
• The Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N latitude) is a significant geographical marker that passes through 8 Indian
states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and
Mizoram. Several rivers cross or are crossed by the Tropic of Cancer within these regions.
• Rivers Crossed by the Tropic of Cancer
o Narmada River:
 Location: The Narmada River flows westward through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and
Gujarat.
 Relation to Tropic of Cancer: The Tropic of Cancer lies north of the Narmada River and does not
cross it. Hence option 1 is not correct.
o Tapi River:
 Location: The Tapi River flows westward through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
 Relation to Tropic of Cancer: Similar to the Narmada, the Tapi River lies south of the Tropic of
Cancer and is not crossed by it. Hence option 2 is not correct.:
o Mahi River:
 Location: The Mahi River flows through Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Gujarat, draining into
the Arabian Sea.
 Relation to Tropic of Cancer: The Mahi River is unique as it crosses the Tropic of Cancer twice,
O
once flowing northward and then southward. Hence option 3 is correct.
o Sabarmati River:
C
 Location: The Sabarmati River flows through Rajasthan and Gujarat.
S.

 Relation to Tropic of Cancer: The Sabarmati River lies in the Tropic of Cancer zone and is
crossed by it near Ahmedabad, Gujarat. Hence option 4 is correct.
TE

o Other Rivers Crossed by the Tropic of Cancer:

 Luni River
▪ The Tropic of Cancer crosses the upper course of the Luni River in Rajasthan.
O

▪ Luni is an ephemeral river flowing into the Rann of Kutch.

FN

 Damodar River
▪ Crossed in Jharkhand and West Bengal.
▪ Known as the “Sorrow of Bengal” due to frequent flooding in its lower reaches.
D

 Son River
▪ Crossed in Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand.
.P

▪ A major southern tributary of the Ganga.

 Barakar River
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▪ Crossed in Jharkhand.
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 ▪ The Barakar is the largest tributary of the Damodar River.
 Manas River
▪ Crossed in the northern regions of Tripura.
▪ This river is important for its biodiversity and flows into Bangladesh.

Q 9.A O
• Mountain passes:
C
o Mountain passes are critical geographical features that facilitate connectivity between countries and
regions. In the context of India’s borders, several mountain passes serve as strategic and trade routes,
S.

particularly along the India-China border.

• India-China Border Passes
TE

o Shipki La Pass:
 Location: Located in Himachal Pradesh, this pass connects India with the Tibet Autonomous
O

Region (China).
 Strategic Importance: It is a key point for trade between India and Tibet and part of the ancient
FN

Silk Route.
 Hence option 1 is correct.
D

o Nathu La Pass:
 Location: Situated in Sikkim, this pass connects India with the Tibet Autonomous Region
.P

(China).
 Strategic Importance: It is one of the three open trading border posts between India and China and
W

is used for trade and as a route for pilgrims to Kailash Mansarovar.

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  Hence option 2 is not correct.
o Banihal Pass:
 Location: Found in Jammu and Kashmir, this pass lies on the Pir Panjal Range and connects the
Kashmir Valley with the Jammu region.
 Strategic Importance: It serves as a critical route for internal connectivity within India via the
Banihal Tunnel, but it does not connect to an international border.
 Hence option 3 is not correct.

Q 10.C
• Nor’westers:
o Nor’westers, commonly known as Kalbaisakhi in Bengal, are a significant meteorological
phenomenon occurring in eastern India during the pre-monsoon season. These thunderstorms are not
only fascinating weather events but also have notable implications for agriculture and local climates.
• Definition:
o Nor’westers are intense evening thunderstorms accompanied by squally winds, lightning, and
occasional hailstorms.
o Nor’westers occur in the evenings and are often violent, producing strong winds exceeding 50-60
km/h.
o These thunderstorms are most common in eastern India and can bring intense rainfall, cooling down
the temperatures significantly after a hot day.
o The name “Nor’wester” is derived from the northwesterly direction from which these winds
originate.
o Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Geographical and Seasonal Occurrence:
o Primarily observed in eastern India, especially in West Bengal, Odisha, Assam, and parts of Bihar
during the pre-monsoon months (March to May).
o They are a result of intense heating during the day, causing rising convection currents that interact
with moist winds.
• Impact:
o Nor’westers bring short but intense rainfall, which is crucial for providing relief from scorching heat
and replenishing soil moisture.
o This helps pre-kharif crops like jute, paddy, and vegetables, which are sensitive to extreme heat and
dry conditions. Hence statement 2 is also correct.
o The rainfall also reduces the reliance on irrigation in regions with limited water resources.

Q 11.C
• India has reached a significant milestone in its renewable energy journey, with the country's total
renewable energy capacity crossing the 200 GW (gigawatt).
• India's total electricity generation capacity has reached 452.69 GW, with renewable energy
contributing a significant portion of the overall power mix. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o As of October 2024, renewable energy-based electricity generation capacity stands at 203.18 GW,
accounting for more than 46.3 percent of the country's total installed capacity. O
o When including nuclear energy, India's total non-fossil fuel capacity rose to 211.36 GW in 2024,
C
compared to 186.46 GW in 2023.
• Solar power leads the way with 92.12 GW, playing a crucial role in India’s efforts to harness its
S.

abundant sunlight. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Wind power follows closely with 47.72 GW, driven by the vast potential of the coastal and inland wind
TE

corridors across the country.

• Hydroelectric power is another key contributor, with large hydro projects generating 46.93 GW and small
O

hydro power adding 5.07 GW, offering a reliable and sustainable source of energy from India’s rivers and
water systems.
FN

• Biopower, including biomass and biogas energy, adds another 11.32 GW to the renewable energy mix.
These bioenergy projects are vital for utilizing agricultural waste and other organic materials to generate
power, further diversifying India’s clean energy sources.
D

• Several states in India have emerged as leaders in renewable energy capacity, contributing significantly to
.P

the nation's progress.

o Rajasthan tops the list with an impressive 29.98 GW of installed renewable energy capacity,
W

benefiting from its vast land and abundant sunlight. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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 o Following closely is Gujarat, which boasts a capacity of 29.52 GW, driven by its strong focus on solar
and wind energy projects.
o Tamil Nadu ranks third with 23.70 GW, leveraging its favourable wind patterns to generate
substantial energy.
o Karnataka rounds out the top four with a capacity of 22.37 GW, supported by a mix of solar and wind
initiatives.

Q 12.A
• Recently, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change notified Ecomark Rules,
2024.
• The ecomark labeling system will promote eco-friendly products in categories like food, cosmetics,
soaps, and electronics, etc. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It aligns with the principle of LIFE (Lifestyle for Environment), focusing on sustainability and resource
efficiency.
• Rules notifies:
o Granting Criteria: To a product that has a license or a certificate of conformity with Indian Standards
granted under the Bureau of Indian Standards Act and/or a mandate of the Quality Control Orders and
that fulfills the criteria as prescribed in the rules.
o According to rules, the Ecomark may be granted to products that meet specified environmental
criteria with respect to resource consumption and environmental impacts.
o Application Process- Manufacturers must apply for Ecomark through the Central Pollution
Control Board (CPCB). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Duration- mark will be valid for three years.
o Oversight and Implementation- By Steering Committee, headed by the Environment Secretary.
o The Ecomark certification process is managed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change (MoEF&CC). Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 13.B
• The oldest rocks of India are known as the Dharwar rocks. These huge and historic rocks are layered
rocks formed by the erosion and deposition of primary rocks of the Archean order. The Dharwar system is
known as the great and special rock system as it is the first metamorphic sedimentary rock in India. These
rocks are the most economically essential rocks found in India. All the primary metals and non-metals
like gold, manganese, iron, copper, tungsten, chromium, zinc, fluorite, ilmenite, lead, antimony, bull
farm, mica, cobalt, asbestos, garnet, marble, and corundum minerals of the Indian country are
obtained from the great Dharwar rocks. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Gondwana rocks are found in the Deccan part of Nagpur, Kutch,Kathiawar, western Rajasthan,
Chennai, Cuttack, Vijayawada,Rajahmundry, Tiruchirappalli and Ramanathapuram. Thus this
rock is mainly found in Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh. The Gondwana rocks
are handy from the point of view of economic importance. 98% of India's coal is found in these rocks.
The sandstone obtained from the Gondwana rock is used to construct buildings. Apart from this,
many minerals like clay soil, lignite coal, cement and chemical fertilizers, etc., are obtained from
these rocks. Hence, statement 2 is correct. O
• The Cuddapah System, part of the Proterozoic age rock formations in India, does not host a significant
C
amount of high-quality iron ore deposits like hematite, which is the principal source of iron ore in
India. The primary rocks of the Cuddapah System are sandstones, shales, limestone, quartzites,
S.

slates, inferior quality of iron-ore, asbestos, copper, nickel, cobalt, etc. High-quality iron ore deposits
in India are primarily found in the Precambrian rocks of the Dharwar and Singhbhum cratons. Hence,
TE

statement 3 is not correct.

Q 14.C
O

• The Sarus crane is the tallest flying bird in India and the world. It can grow up to 152–156 cm tall,
FN

with a wingspan of about 240 cm. It constructs nests on water in natural wetlands or in flooded paddy
fields. It is a social creature, found mostly in pairs or small groups of three or four. Known to mate
for life with a single partner, its breeding season coincides with heavy rainfall in monsoon. Hence,
D

statement 1 is correct.
• The Sarus crane has three disjunct populations in the Indian sub-continent, south-east Asia and
.P

northern Australia with an estimated global population of 25,000-37,000 individuals. In the Indian
W

subcontinent, it is found in northern and central India, Terai Nepal and Pakistan. It was once a
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 common site in the paddy fields of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan, West Bengal, Gujarat, Madhya
Pradesh and Assam. The Sarus crane was declared the state bird of Uttar Pradesh (UP) in 2014. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
• Their population is now on the decline with only 15,000-20,000 found in India, a majority of which are in
Uttar Pradesh. The Sarus crane is known for its ability to live in association with humans, inhabiting open,
cultivated, well watered plains, marshlands and jheels. These areas suit them well for foraging, roosting
and nesting. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) classifies the sarus crane as
'Vulnerable'. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 15.A
• Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO):
o The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is a critical atmospheric phenomenon that influences global
weather patterns, including the Indian Monsoon. It involves large-scale atmospheric and oceanic
interactions, affecting rainfall and wind patterns across the equatorial regions.
• Definition:
o The MJO is a planetary-scale atmospheric wave characterized by large-scale patterns of enhanced and
suppressed rainfall.
o The MJO is a large-scale atmospheric phenomenon characterized by alternating periods of above-
average (anomalous rainfall) and below-average (dry conditions) along the equator.
o These anomalies travel eastward, influencing rainfall and weather patterns globally, particularly in
tropical regions.
o It travels eastward along the equator at a speed of 4–8 m/s, completing a cycle in approximately 30–
60 days.
o Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Phases of MJO:
o The MJO alternates between enhanced convective (rainfall) and suppressed convective (dry) phases.
o These phases significantly influence weather conditions over the regions it traverses.
• Geographical Extent:
o The MJO originates over the Indian Ocean and propagates across the Maritime Continent, Pacific
Ocean, and beyond.
• Impact on Indian Monsoon:
o The MJO’s location determines its influence on the Indian Monsoon:
 Over the Indian Ocean: The MJO strengthens monsoon activity by enhancing rainfall.
▪ When the MJO is over the Indian Ocean, it enhances monsoon activity by creating favorable
conditions for convection and rainfall over the Indian subcontinent.
 Over the Pacific Ocean: Its impact is weaker and can sometimes suppress monsoon conditions,
depending on the phase and strength of the MJO.
▪ When the MJO is over the Pacific Ocean, its positive influence diminishes, and it may lead to
weakened monsoon activity over India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 16.A
• Recently, India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted O
the first flight test of a long-range hypersonic missile. This significant achievement has put India in
C
the group of select nations - including China, Russia, and the United States (US) that have such
critical and advanced military technologies. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
S.

o Hypersonic missiles are advanced weapons capable of speeds greater than Mach 5—five times the
speed of sound. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
TE

o Unlike ballistic missiles, which follow a fixed trajectory, Hypersonic missiles don't follow a
predetermined, arched trajectory and can manoeuvre on the way to their destination. Their ability
O

to alter the course, makes them significantly harder to detect and intercept. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
FN

Q 17.A
• The European Space Agency (ESA)’s Euclid mission has released the first portion of the largest 3D
D

map of the universe that showcased 14 million galaxies and millions of stars in stunning detail.
.P

o ESA's Euclid mission is designed to explore the composition and evolution of the dark
Universe. The mission aims to uncover insights into the evolution of the universe and the mysteries
W

of dark energy and dark matter, which comprise 95 per cent of the cosmos.
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 • The LUX-ZEPLIN (LZ) experiment is designed to detect dark matter by observing weakly
interacting massive particles (WIMP). It is located deep underground at the Sanford Underground
Research Facility in South Dakota, USA.
o Recently, the LUX-ZEPLIN (LZ) experiment highlighted that as they advance the search for
dark matter the challenge of neutrino fog has become more prominent. In neutrino fog, neutrinos
will create a lot of “noise” by scattering off nuclei, which complicates the detection of dark matter.
o Dark matter is stuff in space that has gravity, but it is invisible and isn't like anything else we
know about. Dark matter makes up about 27% of the universe. Dark energy makes up roughly
68% of the universe.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 18.A
• Recently, New Zealand’s parliament was briefly suspended following a protest by the Indigenous Māori
group’s legislators, who staged a “haka” or ceremonial dance against a contentious Bill. The haka is of
deep cultural significance to Māori identity and is traditionally performed by warriors on the battlefield or
to welcome another tribe. According to New Zealand Tourism’s website, haka “was a show of physical
prowess but also an embodiment of cultural pride, strength, and unity.” It is usually performed in a group
and involves chanting, dramatic facial gestures, hand movements and stamping the feet. Other popular
hakas include:
o Peruperu: A war haka performed before battle to intimidate the enemy and demonstrate strength.
o Ngeri: A short haka without set actions, often used to stiffen the sinews and uplift the spirit.
o Pōwhiri: A welcoming haka performed during formal greeting ceremonies.
o Manawa wera: A haka performed at funerals or memorials to express grief.
• Adumu is the world-famous traditional jumping dance performed by the iconic Maasai tribe of
Tanzania and Kenya. It is an important rite of passage for young boys who are on the verge of becoming
men. The boys must jump over high wooden poles in order to prove their courage and physical strength.
The activity is performed in front of an audience that includes family members, friends, and elders.
• The eagle dance is a ritual dance practiced by some American Indians. It is used by the Pueblos to
ask for rain, and the Iroquois use it to ask for peace and cure. Hence, option (a) is the correct
answer.

Q 19.D
• Bureau of Indian Standards based on the past seismic history grouped the country into four seismic zones
as Zone-II, III, IV, and V. Of these, Zone V is the most seismically active region, while zone II is the
least active.
• Broadly, Zone-V comprises of entire northeastern India, parts of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh,
Uttaranchal, Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, parts of North Bihar, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
• Zone-IV covers the remaining parts of Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh, Union Territory of
Delhi, Sikkim, northern parts of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal, parts of Gujarat, and small
portions of Maharashtra near the west coast and Rajasthan.
• Zone-III comprises Kerala, Goa, Lakshadweep islands, remaining parts of Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, and
West Bengal, parts of Punjab, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, O
Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu, and Karnataka.
• Zone-II covers the remaining parts of the country.
C
• Guwahati falls in Zone- V.
S.

• Delhi falls in Zone- IV.

• Goa falls in Zone-III
TE

• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

O

Q 20.D
• Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a
FN

significant responsibility- financial and/or physical - for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer
products. It requires the manufacturer of a product, or the party that introduces the product into the
D

community, to take responsibility for its life cycle. This brings the whole concept of a circular approach to
the rest of the supply chain.
.P

• The Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change has notified the EPR on plastic packaging
under Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016. Reuse of rigid plastic packaging material has been
W

mandated in the guidelines to reduce the use of fresh plastic material for packaging. The recycling
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 obligation for producers will be 50% for rigid plastics in 2024-25, 60% in 2025-26, 70% in 2026-27, and
80% from 2027-28 onwards. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• The e-waste management rules, 2016, for the first time, brought the producers under EPR, along with
targets. It has prescribed strict criteria for achieving effective collection, transportation, storage,
channelization, and disposal of e-waste in an environmentally sound manner. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• The Battery Waste Management Rules 2022 is based on the concept of EPR where the producers
(including importers) of batteries are responsible for collection and recycling/refurbishment of waste
batteries and use of recovered materials from wastes into new batteries. EPR mandates that all waste
batteries be collected and sent for recycling/refurbishment, and it prohibits disposal in landfills and
incineration. The rules cover all types of batteries, viz. Electric Vehicle batteries, portable batteries,
automotive batteries, and industrial batteries. Hence, options 3 and 4 are correct.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 21.C
• Alkaline soils (pH > 7) often cause certain micronutrients, including zinc, copper, boron, and manganese,
to become unavailable for plant uptake due to reduced solubility at higher pH levels. Hence statement 1
is correct.
• Soils with an extremely alkaline pH (greater than 9) are likely to have high levels of sodium.
• Both aluminum sulfate and ammonium sulfate are commonly used to lower soil pH. They work by
releasing acidic ions into the soil, neutralizing excess alkalinity, and making the soil more favorable for
nutrient availability and plant growth. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• When soils are too acidic for a particular crop, lime or dolomite can be used to increase the pH to
the desired level. The amount of lime or dolomite required to correct an acidic pH will vary from soil to
soil.
• Soils with high organic matter and clay content will be more resistant to changes in pH and will require
larger application rates.

Q 22.A
• The Great Lakes system offsite link includes five large lakes, one small lake, four connecting channels,
and the St. Lawrence Seaway. The large lakes are Superior, Michigan, Huron, Erie, and Ontario. They
hold about 90% of the freshwater in the United States and approximately 20% of the world's freshwater
supply.
• The Great Lakes are connected to the Atlantic Ocean through the St. Lawrence River, which serves as an
important waterway for trade and shipping. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Lake Superior, despite being the largest of the Great Lakes, has very low salinity. In fact, all the Great
Lakes are freshwater lakes, with minimal salinity levels, sourced primarily from precipitation, rivers, and
groundwater. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

O
C
S.
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O
FN
D
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Q 23.A
• Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has issued guidelines for Prevention and
Regulation of Greenwashing and Misleading Environmental Claims to address the issue of
greenwashing and misleading environmental claims. CCPA issued guidelines under Consumer
Protection Act of 2019. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• Some of the Key features of the guidelines:
o Clear Definitions: The guidelines provide clear definitions of terms related to greenwashing and
environmental claims, ensuring that both businesses and consumers have a common understanding.
o It define Greenwashing as “any deceptive or misleading practice, which includes concealing,
omitting, or hiding relevant information, by exaggerating, making vague, false, or unsubstantiated
environmental claims and use of misleading words, symbols, or imagery, placing emphasis on
positive environmental aspects while downplaying or concealing harmful attributes”. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
o Prohibition of Misleading Terms: The use of vague or misleading terms such as "eco-friendly,"
"green," and "sustainable" without proper substantiation is sought to be prohibited.
o Adequate Disclosures: Companies are required to provide clear and accessible disclosures of
material information of eco-friendly products through digital medium (either through QR or
URL). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q 24.C
• Port of Savannah (USA):
o Located in the state of Georgia, United States.
o Situated on the eastern coast of North America, directly on the Atlantic Ocean.
o It is one of the busiest ports in the United States for containerized cargo.
• Port of Santos (Brazil):
o Located in the state of São Paulo, Brazil.
o Positioned along the southeastern coast of Brazil, facing the Atlantic Ocean.
o It is the largest port in South America, handling significant exports such as coffee, sugar, and
soybeans.
• Dakar Port (Senegal):
o Located in Dakar, the capital of Senegal.
o Situated on the westernmost point of Africa, directly on the Atlantic Ocean.
o It serves as a major gateway for trade in West Africa, handling goods for landlocked countries in the
region.

O
C
S.
TE
O
FN
D
.P

• Other ports on Atlantic Ocean

o United States:
W

 New York/New Jersey Port (New York, New Jersey)

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  Port of Miami (Florida)
 Port of Philadelphia (Pennsylvania)
 Port of Baltimore (Maryland)
o Canada:
 Port of Halifax (Nova Scotia)
 Port of Montreal (Quebec)
o Brazil:
 Port of Paranaguá
 Port of Rio de Janeiro Port of Itajaí
o Argentina:
 Port of Buenos Aires
o Uruguay:
 Port of Montevideo
o United Kingdom:
 Port of Southampton
 Port of Liverpool
o Netherlands:
 Port of Rotterdam
o Belgium:
 Port of Antwerp
o Portugal:
 Port of Lisbon
o Morocco:
 Port of Casablanca
o Ivory Coast:
 Port of Abidjan
o South Africa:
 Port of Cape Town
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 25.A
• The last quarter of a century has registered a significant change in the size and structure of global
migration. This is highlighted in the World Migration Report 2024, which shows that the size of the
global migrant population has steadily moved up from around 84 million in 1970 to 161 million in 1995
and then gone up to 281 million in 2020, which is close to the population of Indonesia, the fourth most
populous nation. Consequently, the share of migrants in the global population has gone up from 2.3% to
2.8% and then to 3.6% over these years indicating a marginal improvement in the momentum of migration
over the last 25 years.
• However, most of the increase in migrants was to the developed nations in Europe, North America, and
Oceania and it was more restricted to Asia, Africa, and Latin America. While Oceania has the highest
share of migrants in the population among regions, the United Arab Emirates (UAE) gets the top rank O
among nations. Numbers also indicate that the gender and age composition of the migrants has changed in
varying degrees over the decades.
C
• On the gender side, there has been a slow pick-up in the ratio of male migrants whose share has
S.

moved up marginally from 50.6% in 2000 to 51.9% in 2020. But despite this, there are still more
female than male immigrants in countries like the United States (US), Canada, France, Spain, Italy,
TE

and India. The changes are more significant across age groups with the share of migrant children
falling sharply from 16% to 10.1% over the last 25 years. This possibly indicates that the avenues
for legal emigration of entire families have become more restricted recently. Hence, statement I and
O

II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement II.

FN

• Since a major reason for migration is the quest for higher living standards and a more rewarding life, the
international emigration flows are generally dominated by migrant workers who are now estimated to
number around 169 million. The Arab states are a major destination for migrant workers accounting for
D

almost 41.45% of their working population.

• The growing preponderance of labour in the migrant population has ensured an almost spectacular
.P

sevenfold increase in the size of global remittances over the last quarter of a century. The remittances shot
W

up from $128 billion in 1995 to $831 billion in 2020, an amount which is now estimated to be marginally
higher than that of the global foreign direct investments during the year.
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Q 26.C
• Recently, an agreement known as Digital Sequence Information (DSI) concluded at United Nations
Biodiversity Conference (COP16) in Cali, Colombia, agreement is about how to share benefits from
the use of genetic information sequenced from the natural world.
o The agreement says companies that use genetic data – including those in the pharmaceutical and
agriculture sectors should contribute 1 percent of their profits or 0.1 per cent of their revenue to
the funding mechanism (called the “Cali Fund”).
• Digital Sequence Information (DSI) is genetic information from the natural world that has been
sequenced and made available online for research. It's a critical tool for biological and environmental
research, and is used to develop new medicines, vaccines, and other products.
• The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) hosts the Secretariat to the Convention on
Biological Diversity (CBD), it will help CBD in supporting discussions to develop an allocation
formula that will determine how funding is distributed to countries. Hence, option (c) is the correct
answer.
o Digital sequence information on genetic resources was also included in Goal C and Target 13 of the
Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.

Q 27.A
• Black Cotton Soil :
o Parent Material: Black Cotton Soil (Regur Soil) is derived from basaltic lava flows in the Deccan
Plateau, formed during volcanic activity.
o Characteristic: It is rich in magnesium, lime, and iron and is known for its high water retention
capacity. These features make it ideal for crops like cotton.
o Hence row 1 is correctly matched.
• Red Soil :
o Parent Material: Red Soil is indeed derived from the weathering of crystalline igneous rocks like
granite and gneiss, particularly in Tamil Nadu, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh.
o Characteristic: However, Red Soil is not rich in lime and calcium. Instead, it is rich in iron oxide,
giving it its reddish color, and is generally acidic and poor in nitrogen and lime.
o Hence row 2 is not correctly matched.
• Alluvial Soil :
o Parent Material: Alluvial Soil is formed from riverine deposits brought by rivers such as the Ganga,
Brahmaputra, and Mahanadi.
o Characteristics - These soils are rich in nutrients like phosphoric acid and organic matter (humus).
However, they are poor in nitrogen and potash. Alluvial soils are a mixture of clay and sand
(loam).
o Hence row 3 is not correctly matched.

Q 28.C
• The term ‘drought’ is applied to an extended period when there is a shortage of water availability due to
inadequate precipitation, excessive rate of evaporation, and over-utilization of water from the
reservoirs and other storages, including the groundwater. O
• A period of below-normal rainfall does not necessarily result in drought conditions. Hence statement 1 is
C
correct.
o Some rain returns to the air as water vapor when water evaporates from water surfaces and from moist
S.

soil.
o Plant roots draw some of the moisture from the soil and return it to the air through a process called
TE

transpiration. The total amount of water returned to the air by these processes is called
evapotranspiration.
 Sunlight, humidity, temperature, and wind affect the rate of evapotranspiration. When
O

evapotranspiration rates are large, soils can lose moisture and dry conditions can develop. During
FN

cool, cloudy weather, evapotranspiration rates may be small enough to offset periods of
below-normal precipitation, and drought may be less severe or may not develop at all.
• Types of Droughts:
D

o Meteorological Drought: It is a situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall

.P

marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space.

o Agricultural Drought: It is also known as soil moisture drought, characterized by low soil moisture
W

that is necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop failures. Moreover, if an area has
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 more than 30 percent of its gross cropped area under irrigation, the area is excluded from the
drought-prone category.
o Hydrological Drought: It results when the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs
like aquifers, lakes, reservoirs, etc. falls below what the precipitation can replenish. Hence statement
2 is correct.
o Ecological Drought: When the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to a shortage of water
and as a consequence of ecological distress, damages are induced in the ecosystem.

Q 29.D
• Patterns of rural settlements reflect the way the houses are sited in relation to each other. The site of the
village, the surrounding topography, and the terrain influence the shape and size of a village. Rural
settlements may be classified on the basis of a number of criteria:
o On the basis of setting: The main types are plain villages, plateau villages, coastal villages, forest
villages, and desert villages.
o On the basis of functions: There may be farming villages, fishermen’s villages, lumberjack villages,
pastoral villages, etc.
o On the basis of forms or shapes of the settlements: These may be a number of geometrical forms
and shapes such as Linear, rectangular, circular star-like, T-shaped village, double village, cross-
shaped village, etc.
 Linear pattern: In such settlements, houses are located along a road, railway line, river, canal edge
of a valley, or along a levee.
 Rectangular pattern: Such patterns of rural settlements are found in plain areas or wide
intermontane valleys. The roads are rectangular and cut each other at right angles.
 Circular pattern: Circular villages develop around lakes, tanks and sometimes the village is
planned in such a way that the central part remains open and is used for keeping the
animals to protect them from wild animals.
 Star-like pattern: Where several roads converge, star-shaped settlements develop by the houses
built along the roads.
 T-shaped, Y-shaped, Cross-shaped, or cruciform settlements: T-shaped settlements develop at tri-
junctions of the roads while Y-shaped settlements emerge as the places where two roads converge
on the third one and houses are built along these roads.
 Cross-shaped: Houses arranged in a cross formation around intersecting roads.
 Double village: These settlements extend on both sides of a river where there is a bridge or a
ferry.

O
C
S.
TE
O
FN
D
.P


W

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

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Q 30.A
• The ENVIRONMENT (PROTECTION) ACT (EPA), 1986 provides for the protection and
improvement of the environment. It is believed to be enacted on the backdrop of the Bhopal Gas
Tragedy.
• NGRBA: The National Ganga River Basin Authority is a statutory body under the EPA, established on
February 20, 2009. Its purpose is to reduce pollution and conserve the Ganga River by adopting a river
basin approach. The Prime Minister chairs the NGRBA. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Central Groundwater Commission: It is a statutory body established in 1997 under the EPA. It has the
power to issue directions, take measures, and regulate groundwater in the country. Hence, option 2 is
correct.
• Coastal Regulation Zones: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
issued the CRZ Notification in 1991 under the EPA (statutory). It aims to balance economic growth
with environmental conservation. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• Environment Impact Assessment: EIA is statutory in India under the EPA, for most industrial and
developmental activities in India. On 27 January 1994, the Union Ministry of Environment and Forests
(MEF), Government of India, under the Environmental (Protection) Act 1986, promulgated an EIA
notification making Environmental Clearance (EC) mandatory for expansion or modernisation of any
activity or for setting up new projects listed in Schedule 1 of the notification. The government has issued
several notifications related to EIA. Hence, option 4 is correct.

Q 31.A
• The Kiruna Mine, famous for its high-grade iron ore, is located in Sweden, not Norway. The Kiruna
mine is the largest and most modern underground iron ore mine in the world. Hence pair 1 is not
correctly matched.
• The Kuznetsk Basin, also known as the Kuzbass, is a significant coal-producing region in Russia. The
Kuznetsk Basin is one of the world's largest coal mining areas, with coal-bearing seams that extend
over 26,700 square kilometers and reach depths of 1,800 meters. The basin's coal deposits are
estimated to total 725 billion tonnes. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• The Lubin Mine, known for copper and silver, is located in Poland, not Sweden. Hence pair 3 is not
correctly matched.

Q 32.C
• Coking coal is a very critical input in steel production which is very important for the industrial
development of the country. Since coking coal supplies are insufficient to meet the domestic
demand, India has been importing coking coal on a regular basis. Indian steel companies consume
about 70 million metric tons of coking coal a year, with 85% of the need filled by imports. Almost
70% of the coking coal in the country is imported from Australia, leaving India highly dependent
on Australia for the supply of critical raw material to the steel industry and exposing the industry to
price volatility vulnerability.
• Seaborne coking coal demand from India has relied heavily on Australian exports. Australia is prone to
weather disruptions from January to March. With a current buy of ~37 MTPA, a 1-month stock disruption
can have a huge financial impact on the domestic steel manufacturers. Thus, a disturbed trade with O
Australia may hamper coking coal import heavily.
• India is a net exporter of iron ore and its import from Australia may not critically hamper iron and
C
steel industries in India. Exports In 2022, India exported $1.72B in Iron Ore, making it the 10th largest
S.

exporter of Iron Ore in the world. In the same year, India imports Iron Ore primarily from: Brazil
($86M), Australia ($40.1M), the United States ($30.6M), Canada ($20.4M), and Ukraine ($16.3M).
TE

Hence, statement I is correct but statement II is not correct.

O

Q 33.C
• Role of Parent Rock in Soil Formation:
FN

o Soil characteristics are influenced by multiple factors, including parent rock, climate, topography,
organisms, and time. Among these, the parent rock plays a fundamental role in determining certain
physical and chemical properties of soil.
D

• Parent Rock refers to the geological material (bedrock or regolith) from which soil is derived. It
.P

significantly affects:
o Texture: Determines the particle size (sand, silt, or clay) of the soil.
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o Mineral Composition: Affects the fertility and nutrient availability in the soil.
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 o Permeability: The rock’s mineral content and structure determine the soil’s porosity and water
infiltration capacity.
 Permeability depends on soil texture, which is directly influenced by the parent rock’s
composition and grain size.
 Example: Sandy soils derived from granite have high permeability, while clay soils from basalt
are less permeable.
 Hence option 1 is correct.
o Colour:
 The type of minerals in the parent rock (e.g., iron, aluminum) influences soil coloration.
 Example: Red soils derive their color from iron oxides in parent rocks, while black soils get their
hue from basaltic lava.
 Hence option 2 is correct.
o Chemical Properties:
 Chemical properties like pH, cation-exchange capacity, and nutrient availability are significantly
influenced by the mineral content of the parent rock.
 Example: Soils derived from limestone are alkaline, while those from granite are acidic.
 Hence option 4 is also correct.
o Humus Formation:
 Humus formation is influenced by organic matter decomposition and microbial activity, which
are governed more by climatic and biological factors than parent rock.
 Example: Tropical regions with heavy vegetation have high humus irrespective of parent
rock.Hence option 3 is not correct.

Q 34.D
• The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, is a significant legislation in India aimed at conserving wildlife
and their habitats.
• Key Provisions:
o Protection of Species: The Act categorizes species into four schedules based on their protection
level:
 Schedule I: Endangered species needing strict protection.
 Schedule II: Species under lesser protection.
 Schedule III: Protected plant species.
 Schedule IV: Specimens regulated under CITES (Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species).
o Prohibition of Hunting: The Act prohibits hunting of wild animals listed in Schedule I and imposes
penalties for violations. Licenses are required for hunting species listed under Schedule II.
o Protected Areas: It provides for the establishment of various protected areas, including National
Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Conservation Reserves, Community Reserves, and Tiger Reserves.
o Regulation of Trade: It regulates the trade and commerce of certain wildlife species, requiring
licenses for possession, sale, and transfer.
• Implementing Agencies: O
o Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC): The central authority
responsible for implementing the provisions of the Act.
C
o State Forest Departments: These departments implement the Act at the state level, managing protected
S.

areas and enforcing wildlife laws.

o Wildlife Advisory Boards: Established to advise on matters related to wildlife conservation and
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management.
• Important Bodies Established under the Act:
o National Board for Wildlife (NBWL): A statutory body constituted under the Wildlife Protection
O

Act, 1972, chaired by the Prime Minister. It advises the government on wildlife conservation policies
FN

and approves projects in protected areas. The NBWL includes members from various sectors,
including government officials, conservationists, and representatives from non-governmental
organizations.
D

o Central Zoo Authority (CZA): Established to oversee zoos in India, ensuring they adhere to
standards for animal care and conservation. The CZA plays a crucial role in promoting breeding
.P

programs for endangered species and facilitating the exchange of animals among zoos.
o National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA): Formed to manage tiger reserves and ensure the
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protection of tigers.
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 o Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB): Tasked with tackling wildlife crimes and ensuring
compliance with the Act.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 35.C
• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G) completed 8 years. It was launched by the
Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) in 2016. Under the scheme, beneficiaries are selected through
a rigorous three-stage validation process that includes the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC
2011) and Awaas+ (2018) surveys, Gram Sabha approvals. This ensures that aid reaches the most
deserving individuals. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The eligibility criteria under the scheme are as follows:
o Houseless Households: All households without any shelter.
o Households with Kuccha Houses: Households living in homes with kuccha walls and kuccha roofs or
houses with zero, one, or two rooms as per the Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011.
• Compulsory Inclusion Criteria: The following categories of people are automatically included in the list
of beneficiaries:
o Destitute households or those living on alms.
o Manual scavengers
o Primitive Tribal Groups.
o Legally released bonded laborers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In order to ensure empowerment of women, all the houses under PMAY-G should include names of
women members of the household in sanction details/ownership details (either solely or in joint
ownership) and that the female member(s) may be added as secondary owner in the sanction letters where
the initial sanction has already been given in the name of the male member. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.

Q 36.C
• PARIVESH (Pro-Active and Responsive facilitation by Interactive, Virtuous, and Environmental
Single Window Hub) portal is a Single-Window solution for seeking Environmental (EC), Forest
(FC), Wildlife (WL) and Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) clearances from Central, State and district
level authorities. It has been developed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(MoEFCC) through the National Informatics Centre. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
o It automates the entire tracking of proposals which includes online submission of a new proposal,
editing/updating the details of proposals and displays status of the proposals at each stage of the
workflow.
• Recently, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has mandated the
registration of exotic pets listed under Schedule IV of the Wildlife Act with state wildlife
departments via the PARIVESH 2.0 portal within 6 months. But 32 applications to register such
exotic species have been received on the Parivesh 2.0

Q 37.B
• The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) is a comprehensive framework that was O
launched by the Government of India in 2008, to address the challenges posed by climate change. It
C
outlines strategies for mitigation as well as adaptation while promoting sustainable development across
various sectors.
S.

• The main objectives of NAPCC are:

o Mitigation of Climate Change: To reduce greenhouse gas emissions through various strategies.
TE

o Adaptation to Climate Change: Enhancing resilience against climate impacts, especially for
vulnerable communities.
O

o Sustainable Development: A development path that is ecologically sustainable and equitable.

• There are eight core national missions under NAPCC aimed at addressing specific aspects of
FN

climate change and sustainability:

o National Solar Mission: To have a sharply increased share of solar energy in the energy mix of the
country.
D

o National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency: Enhancing energy efficiency across sectors to
.P

reduce energy intensity and emissions. It shall be undertaken through market-based mechanisms to
enhance energy savings.
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 o National Mission on Sustainable Habitat: Promoting sustainable habitat through better urban
planning and management practices. Improving the efficiency of buildings, waste management, and
public transport systems.
o National Water Mission: It aims at integrated management and conservation of water resources.
Improves the efficiency of water use by 20% and promotes sustainable use of water.
o National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem: It aims to protect the Himalayan
ecosystem, which is a very sensitive area for water resources in India. Focuses on research,
monitoring, and conservation in this sensitive region.
o National Mission for a Green India: Afforestation of 6 million hectares of degraded forest land and
increasing forest cover from 23% to 33% of India's territory. Encourages community participation in
forest management through Joint Forest Management Committees, among others.
o National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture: Supports climate-resilient agricultural practices and
technologies. Enhances productivity and sustainability by improving irrigation practices and
mechanisms for weather insurance.
o National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change: Focuses on enhancing
understanding of climate change through research, data collection, and dissemination. It looks toward
building the capacity of all stakeholders for effective climate action.
• The National Mission on Coastal Management (NMCG) aims to protect and conserve India's
coastal and marine ecosystems through integrated management, sustainable development, and
addressing environmental threats like erosion and pollution. It is not one of the eight missions
under the NAPCC.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 38.D
• Nitrogen pollution is one of the most widespread, costly and challenging environmental problems, and is
caused by excess nitrogen in the air and water.
• Sources of nitrogen pollution:
o Stormwater: When precipitation falls, it runs across hard surfaces and carries pollutants, including
nitrogen and phosphorus, into local waterways.
o Agriculture: The nitrogen and phosphorus in animal manure and chemical fertilisers are necessary to
grow crops. However, when these nutrients are not fully utilised by plants they can be lost from the
farm fields and negatively impact air and downstream water quality.
o Fossil Fuels: Electric power generation, industry, transportation and agriculture have increased the
amount of nitrogen in the air through use of
o fossil fuels. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Nitrogen pollution fuels the growth of harmful algal blooms (and eutrophication) which have negative
impacts on aquatic ecosystems. Airborne nitrogen compounds like nitrogen oxides contribute to the
formation of other air pollutants such as ground- level ozone, a component of photochemical smog
which can restrict visibility. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Nitrogen dioxide is not usually released directly into the air. Nitrogen dioxide forms when nitrogen
oxide (NO) and nitrous oxides (NOx) react with other chemicals in the air to form nitrogen dioxide.
The main source of nitrogen dioxide resulting from human activities is the combustion of fossil fuels
O
(coal, gas and oil) especially fuel used in cars. Natural sources of other nitrogen oxides include
volcanoes and bacteria. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
C
S.

Q 39.A
• Neelakurinji is a a purplish flowering shrub which blooms once every 12 years. Hence, statement 1 is
TE

correct.
o The shrub grows 30–60 cm tall, but can reach 180 cm in ideal conditions. The Neelakurinji is a
monocarpic plant, meaning it flowers only once in its lifetime.
O

o After blooming, the plant dies off and leaves behind seeds that germinate and bloom again after 12
FN

years.
• These are semelparous (single reproductive event in its lifetime).
• They are usually found at an elevation of 1,340–2,600 m, and are endemic to high-altitude shola
D

grasslands. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Recently, Neelakurinji has been added to the IUCN Red List of threatened species, classified as
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vulnerable. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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• In fact, the Nilgiri Hills ("blue mountains") are named after the blue flowers of Neelakurinji.
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Q 40.A
• The Lipulekh Pass:
o The Lipulekh Pass is a high-altitude mountain pass in the Himalayas, located in the state of
Uttarakhand, India. It is strategically significant for India due to its location at the tri-junction of three
countries: India, China, and Nepal. The pass has historical, geopolitical, and religious importance.
• Details:
o Geographical Location:
 Lipulekh Pass is situated at an altitude of 5,200 meters in the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand.
 It connects the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand in India to the Tibet Autonomous Region of China
via Nepal’s territory.
o Tri-Junction:
 The pass is located at the meeting point of India, Nepal, and China, making it one of the critical
tri-junctions in the Himalayan region. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
o Historical and Strategic Importance:
 Lipulekh Pass has been used as a trade route since ancient times, connecting India with Tibet.
 It is a part of the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra route, which is a pilgrimage to Mount Kailash and
Lake Mansarovar in Tibet.
o Geopolitical Significance:
 The area around Lipulekh has been a subject of territorial disputes between India and Nepal.
 In 2020, the inauguration of a road linking Dharchula in Uttarakhand to Lipulekh Pass led to
objections from Nepal, which claims the area as part of its territory.

Q 41.D
• Recent Context: The Geographical Indications Registry in Chennai has granted the GI tag to eight
products from the Assam region, including traditional food items and several unique varieties of rice beer.
• Geographical Indication (GI) tags are official markers given to products with a specific geographic
origin and distinct qualities.
• GI tags are often used for products like: agricultural products, foodstuffs, handicrafts, industrial
products, and spirit drinks.
• In India, the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999, enacted in
2003, aims to safeguard producers' interests, prevent exploitation of GIs, and boost marketability.
• Unique varieties of rice beer:
o Maibra Jou Bidwi’: It is known locally as ‘Maibra Jwu Bidwi’ or ‘Maibra Zwu Bidwi’, is revered
and served as a welcome drink by most Bodo tribes. It’s prepared by fermenting half-cooked rice
(mairong) with less water, and adding a little ‘amao’ (a potential source of yeast) to it.
o ‘Bodo Jou Gishi’: It is also a traditionally fermented rice-based alcoholic beverage. Hence, option
(d) is the correct answer.
o Other G.I tags of Assam include- ‘Bodo Jou Gwran, Bodo Napham, Bodo Ondla, Bodo Gwkha,
Bodo Narzi.
Q 42.A
• Dead Zones are areas of low oxygen (hypoxia). Due to this, the biodiversity in the region is affected and
O
can die due to anoxia, rendering the entire zone "dead," with no living creature in the area (marine
organisms also need oxygen to survive). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
C
• Causes for the occurrence of Dead zones include:
S.

o Natural: Stratification in the water column restricts the supply of oxygen from surface waters to the
bottom waters. Heance, benthic zones might be hypoxic and maybe dead. Black Sea is largest dead
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zone that occurs naturally.

o Anthropogenic: Due to multiple factors like eutrophication, pollution, thermal pollution, climate
change and global warming, humans are causing dead zones across the world to increase. In fact,
O

now we can find daed zones even in rivers and lakes, causing concerns with regards to the health of
FN

the water body and the conservation of the biodiversity. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o The world's largest dead zone is in the Arabian Sea, covering 63,700 square miles.
D

Q 43.B
• The Western Ghats:
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o The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri Hills, are a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of
the eight “hottest hotspots” of biological diversity in the world. They run parallel to the western coast
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of India through states like Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
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 • Location and Classification of the Ranges
o Baba Budan Hills or Baba Budangiri Hills:
 Location: Karnataka.
 The Baba Budan Hills are part of the Western Ghats and are famous for being the place where
coffee cultivation was first introduced in India.
o Nallamala Hills:
 Location: Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
 The Nallamala Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats, not the Western Ghats. Hence option 2 is not
correct.
o Anaimalai Hills:
 Location: Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
 The Anaimalai Hills are located in the southern part of the Western Ghats and are known for the
Anamudi Peak, the highest peak in South India.
o Shevaroy Hills:
 Location: Tamil Nadu.
 The Shevaroy Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats, located near Salem, Tamil Nadu. Hence option
4 is not correct.

Q 44.C
• Laterite Soils:
o Formation:
 Laterite soil is formed through intense chemical weathering of parent rocks under conditions of
high temperature and heavy rainfall. Hence statement 1 is correct.
 These conditions cause leaching, where soluble minerals are washed away, leaving behind
insoluble iron and aluminum oxides.
o Characteristics:
 Rich in Iron Oxide: Gives the soil its distinctive red or reddish-brown color.
 High Aluminum Content: Contains aluminum compounds like bauxite, making it a source of
aluminum. Hence statement 2 is also correct.
 Nutrient Deficiency: Due to leaching, it is often poor in nutrients like nitrogen, potassium, and
phosphorus, making it less fertile without artificial enrichment.
o Geographical Distribution in India:
 Found in regions with tropical climates, including Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Odisha,
Maharashtra, and parts of the northeastern states.
o Agricultural Utility:
 Suitable for crops like tea, coffee, cashew nuts, and certain fruits with proper irrigation and
fertilization.

Q 45.B
• The gorilla is the largest among the Great Apes.
• The Eastern Gorillas are distributed across DR Congo, Uganda, Rwanda, etc., and the Western O
Gorillas are distributed across Nigeria, Cameroon, the Central African Republic, Equatorial Guinea, etc.
Both species are ‘Critically Endangered’.
C
• Their diet is vegetarian.
S.

• These are knucklewalkers.

• The unique feature about them is the fact that they share ~98.3% of DNA with humans and they even
TE

shared common ancestors with humans about 10 million years ago.

• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
O

Q 46.B
FN

• Recent Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has retained the State Bank of India, HDFC Bank and
ICICI Bank as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).
• The Financial Stability Board in consultation with the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision
D

(BCBS) and national authorities, has identified global systemically important banks (G-SIBs) since
.P

2011. The 2024 list of G-SIBs has 29 banks.

o The G-SIBs include JP Morgan Chase, Bank of America, Citigroup, HSBC, Agricultural Bank of
W

China, Bank of China, Barclays and BNP Paribas. SBI is not included under the list of G-SIBs.
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 • Systemically Important Banks (SIBs) are perceived as banks that are ‘Too Big To Fail (TBTF)’ and
their continued functioning is crucial for the uninterrupted availability of essential banking services to the
real economy.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had issued the framework for dealing with D-SIBs in July
2014. Since 2015, the RBI has been disclosing the names of the banks classified as D-SIBs every year.
o The RBI has continued to identify SBI, HDFC Bank and ICICI Bank as Domestic Systemically
Important Banks. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.
Q 47.A
• Currently, there are 57 tiger reserves in India, spread across around 82,000 sq kilometres and
accounting for over 2.3 per cent of India’s geographical area. India has a minimum of 3,167 tigers and is
home to more than 70% of the world’s wild tiger population.
• Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Kaimur District and Rohtas District of Bihar. It is the
largest sanctuary in Bihar and extended in area of 1,504.96 km2 (581.07 sq mi) in plateaued
landscape of Kaimur Range. Hence, row 3 is not correctly matched.
o The central government has given its in-principle approval for Bihar’s second tiger reserve in Kaimur
district. This decision follows a proposal from the Bihar government to develop the Kaimur Wildlife
Sanctuary (KWLS) into a tiger reserve. Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR) in Bihar’s West Champaran
district was the only one till now.
o The major forest types are Tropical Dry Mixed Deciduous, Dry Sal Forests, Boswellia Forests and
Dry Bamboo Brakes.
o Rohtasgarh Fort and Shergarh Fort are also located in these forests.
o The main animals found at Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary are Bengal tigers, Indian leopards, Indian
boars, Indian pangolins, sloth bears, etc.
• Ratapani Tiger Reserve, is notified as the 57th Tiger Reserve of the country. It is situated in Raisen
and Sehore district of Madhya Pradesh in Vindhya hills of central India and spreads over 825.90 sq
km. The forest in Ratapani is dry deciduous and moist deciduous type, with one of the finest teak (Tectona
grandis) as the main tree species. About 55 percent of area is covered by teak. Hence, row 1 is correctly
matched
• Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve is spread over the Vindhya hills in Madhya Pradesh. Recently, 10
elephants died in three days in this national park. A preliminary toxicology report says that the elephants
may have died from eating a koo millet crop infected with fungus. Hence, row 2 is not correctly
matched.

O
C
S.
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O
FN
D
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Q 48.D
• Environmental bioindicators are all those living organisms which, due to their ecological characteristics,
have a high sensitivity to the different environmental changes that occur in nature, and react to them as if
they were specific stimuli. These bioindicators are capable of reacting to the presence of pollutant
accumulations much earlier than artificial or abiotic indicators do. The following are examples of different
bio-indicators:
o Microorganisms, mites, and worms. Hence, point 1 is correct.
o Fungi. Hence, point 2 is correct.
o Fern. Hence, point 3 is correct.
o Geckos or dragons are very good indicators of air quality. These are especially sensitive to industrial
gases, such as sulfur dioxide. Hence, point 4 is correct.
o Lichens. Hence, point 5 is correct.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 49.C
• Recently, Union Cabinet has approved the signing of a letter of intent enabling India to join the
IEEH. This move solidifies India's commitment to sustainable development and aligns with its efforts to
reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
• The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) has been designated as the implementing agency for the
Hub on behalf of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• About International Energy Efficiency Hub:
o Established in 2020 as the successor to the International Partnership for Energy Efficiency
(IPEEC) in which India was a member. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o The Hub brings together governments, international organizations, and private sector entities to share
knowledge, best practices, and innovative solutions.
o By joining the Hub, India will gain access to a vast network of experts and resources, enabling it to
enhance its domestic energy efficiency initiatives.
Q 50.C
• Mammals include humans and all other animals that are warm-blooded vertebrates (vertebrates
have backbones) with hair. They feed their young with milk and have a more well-developed brain
than other types of animals.
• There are some species of mammals that have adopted the aquatic lifestyle. These are referred to as
"Cetaceans."
• These include whales, dolphins, & porpoises. Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct.
• They have unique features include streamlined bodies, blubber for insulation, specialised respiratory
systems, & echolocation for hunting & navigation.
• Sharks, on the other hand, are a group of elasmobranch fish characterized by a cartilaginous
skeleton. They lay eggs or give birth to live young but are not mammals. Hence, option 2 is not
correct.
• Honey badgers are omnivorous mammals that belong to the weasel family. These nocturnal creatures are
known for their powerful, curved claws, which they use to dig burrows for shelter. Hence, option 5 is
correct. O
• The Red panda is a small arboreal mammal found in the forests of India, Nepal, Bhutan, and the northern
C
mountains of Myanmar and southern China.
Hence, option 6 is correct.
S.

• Small-clawed otter is also mammal. In India, it is mostly distributed along the hill streams of Western
Ghats, in some regions of Western Himalayan foothills, mangroves of east Calcutta and Sundarbans,
TE

Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, and also several sites in Odisha. Hence, option 4 is correct.
O

Q 51.B
• Biodiversity credits represent a measurable and verifiable unit of positive biodiversity outcomes
FN

produced through conservation and restoration activities.

• The core purpose of biodiversity credits is to attract private investments toward initiatives that align with
D

global conservation goals.

• Functioning:
.P

o Stakeholders with a mission to "conserve and restore lands" create a pool of credits, or "certificates.".
o Private firms then buy these credits to comply with biodiversity- or nature-based obligations.
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• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

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Q 52.C
• India launches ‘National Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plan (NBSAP) 2024-2030’ at the
Conference of Parties (COP) 16 to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) in Colombia.
• NBSAP provides a framework for biodiversity conservation, enables focus on sustainable use of
biological resources, and ensures fair and equitable sharing of benefits derived from them.
• Key highlights of NBSAP 2024-30:
o Background: The first NBSAP was created in 1999. The National Biodiversity Action Plan (NBAP)
was adopted in 2008 and was updated in 2014 to align with Aichi Biodiversity Targets.
o Aligns with KMGBF: Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) adopted
in 2022 aims to halt and reverse biodiversity loss by 2030. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o As part of the updated National Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plan (NBSAP), India has
committed to protecting at least 30% of terrestrial, inland water, and coastal areas by the year
2030, in line with international biodiversity goals. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o 23 National Biodiversity Targets: They are focused on three themes
 reducing threats to biodiversity,
 ensuring sustainable use of resources, and
 enhancing tools for implementation
o Implementation: MoEFCC serves as the central agency.
o Resource mobilization:
 Recognises India among the leading countries for the implementation of the Biodiversity Finance
Initiative (BIOFIN) at the national level.
▪ BIOFIN is a global partnership launched by UNDP and the European Commission to support
countries to enhance their financial management of biodiversity and ecosystems.
 Calls for encouraging private entrepreneurs, business houses, donors, and international agencies
to support initiatives like Greenbonds, Green Fund, Payment for Ecosystem Services, etc.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 53.B
• The Kaziranga National Park is situated in the Golaghat, Sonitpur, Biswanath and Nagaon districts of
the state of Assam. It is located on the Southern Bank of the Brahmaputra River and provides a unique
location for housing biodiversity. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Kaziranga is home to two-thirds of the world's one-horned rhinos (most in number), but density-wise
(Rhinos per unit area), the Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary in Assam, has the highest density of one-
horned Asian rhinos in the world.
• Kaziranga National Park was designated a UNESCO Natural World Heritage Site in 1985. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.

Q 54.D
• With the recent update in the Ramsar List of Wetlands of International Importance, the Ramsar Site
tally in India has reached 85 (as of November 2024). Hence, statement II is correct.
• The total area under these sites in India now stand at an impressive 1,358,068 hectares.
• India now has the highest number of Ramsar sites in South Asia. The United Kingdom has the most
O
Ramsar sites in the world with 175, followed by Mexico with 142. Hence, Statement I is not correct.
C
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• About Ramsar Sites:
S.

o Ramsar sites are protected under by the Ramsar Convention, an international treaty for the
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conservation and sustainable use of wetlands, recognizing the fundamental ecological functions of
wetlands and their economic, cultural, scientific, and recreational value.
o The convention establishes that "wetlands should be selected for the list on account of their
O

international significance in terms of ecology, botany, zoology, limnology or hydrology." Over the
years, the Conference of the Contracting Parties has adopted more specific criteria interpreting the
FN

convention text.
o The Ramsar List organizes the Ramsar sites according to the contracting party that designated each to
D

the list. Contracting parties are grouped into six "regions": Africa, Asia, Europe, Latin
American and the Caribbean, North America, and Oceania.
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Q 55.C
• The Global E-waste Monitor 2024 Report is a publication that provides a comprehensive overview of
the global e-waste problem.
• It is released by the United Nations Institute for Training and Research (UNITAR). Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• UNITAR history and Mandate:
o Established in 1965 by the United Nations General Assembly
o Based in Geneva, Switzerland, with offices in New York and Tokyo
o Mandated to provide training, research, and advisory services to Member States and the broader UN
system
o UNITAR is funded through voluntary contributions from governments, private foundations, and other
organizations.
• Report highlights:
o India ranks third globally in the generation of electronic waste (e-waste). Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
o India produces the third-largest amount of discarded electronic and electrical equipment worldwide,
behind only China and the United States.
• The world generated 62 billion kilograms (62 million metric tons) of e-waste in 2022.

Q 56.A
• Rare and endemic species from the Western Ghats:
o The Western Ghats, a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the eight "hottest hotspots" of
biological diversity in the world, is home to some of the rarest plants and animal species. The
mountain range is spread across six states – Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil
Nadu
• Malabar Civet
o Endemism: Endemic to the Western Ghats.
o Details: The Malabar Civet is a critically endangered species found exclusively in the lowland forests
and coastal areas of the Western Ghats, primarily in Kerala and Karnataka. It is one of the rarest
mammals in India and has been severely impacted by habitat loss and human encroachment.
o Hence option 1 is correct.
• Nilgai
o Endemism: Not endemic to the Western Ghats.
o Details: The Nilgai, also known as the Blue Bull, is the largest antelope in India. It is found across the
Indian subcontinent, particularly in grasslands and scrub forests of northern and central India. Its
range does not include the Western Ghats.
o Hence option 2 is not correct.
• Pig-tailed Macaque
o Endemism: Not endemic to the Western Ghats.
o Details: The Pig-tailed Macaque is native to Southeast Asia, found in countries like Thailand,
Malaysia, and Indonesia. While macaque species such as the Bonnet Macaque are found in the
Western Ghats, the Pig-tailed Macaque is not native to India. O
o Hence option 3 is also not correct.
• Other Endemic animals of Wetern Ghats:
C
o Lion-tailed macaque in Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka
S.

o Nilgiri tahr in Kerala and Tamil Nadu

o Nilgiri langur in Kerala and Tamil Nadu
TE

o Nilgiri marten in Tamil Nadu and Kerala

o Amboli toad in Maharashtra
O

o Nilgiri wood-pigeon in Kerala and Tamil Nadu

o Malabar grey hornbill in Goa, Karnataka and Kerala
FN

o Sri Lanka Frogmouth in Kerala

o Flame-throated Bulbul in Goa, Karnataka and Maharashtra
D

Q 57.A
.P

• Black soils (e.g., Regur soils) are derived primarily from igneous rocks like basalt, which are rich in clay
minerals. Argillaceous rocks refers to clay-rich rocks, and black soils have a significant clay content.
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Hence statement 1 is correct.

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 • Black soils are generally low in organic matter. Although fertile, their richness comes from minerals like
calcium, magnesium, and potassium rather than organic content. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The chemical composition of igneous rock contributes to the black soil's mineral richness (like calcium,
magnesium, and potassium) but not to its organic content, as the rock itself does not provide organic
matter.
• Oxisols, Ultisols and Alfisols are some of the common types of red soil found in the world. Hence
statement 3 is not correct.

Q 58.C
• The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a special body of the Government of India constituted to
deal with cases pertaining to environmental protection and natural resource conservation. It was
constituted under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, as a statutory body to provide a forum for
the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental issues.
• It is guided by the principle of natural justice.
• Powers:
o NGT by an order, can provide-
 relief and compensation to the victims of air pollution and different environmental damage.
 restitution of property damaged
 for restitution of the surroundings for such vicinity or areas
o Power to regulate its own procedure.
o Not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 ог by the rules of
evidence as enshrined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
o Oder/decision/award workable as an order of a civil court.
o Mandatory to provide with disposal of applications/ appeals within 6 months from the date of filling
o An appeal lies in the Supreme Court, which is usually to be moved within 90 days against an
order/decision/award given by the NGT.
o Punishment for non-observance of the Tribunal's orders: Upto 3 years imprisonment and or fine of Rs
10 crores for individuals and Rs 25 crores for Companies.
• Jurisdiction: NGT is the administrative authority for dealing with cases related to civil litigation, it
pertains to the seven environmental-related laws, and those are the following:
o Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974,
o Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977,
o Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980,
o Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981,
o Environment (Protection) Act, 1986,
o Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991, and
o Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
o It does not have the administrative authority to deal with cases related to the Wildlife Protection Act,
1972.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 59.A O
• The Bay of Bengal is indeed more prone to cyclones compared to the Arabian Sea due to its warmer sea
C
surface temperatures, frequent low-pressure formations, and favorable atmospheric conditions. Hence
statement I is correct.
S.

• The influx of freshwater from rivers like the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Irrawaddy reduces the salinity in
the Bay of Bengal, creating a stable layer of warm surface water. This stability prevents vertical mixing
TE

with cooler layers, maintaining high surface temperatures, which is a critical factor for cyclone
intensification. Hence statement II is correct.
O

• Hence Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
FN

Q 60.D
• What is Biomedical waste?
D

Any waste that contains potentially infectious elements and is created during the diagnosis, treatment or
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immunization of human or animal research is referred to as biomedical waste (BMW). Syringes, old
bandages, infusion kits, and other items having a medical or laboratory origin are included, as are garbage
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 from research laboratories that include biomolecules or organisms that are primarily prohibited from
being released into the environment.
• The bio-medical wastes have been divided into the following four categories to make waste segregation
easier.
Colour Code Wastes included
1. Yellow Human and animal anatomical waste, soiled waste, discarded waste, chemical waste,
chemical liquid waste, microbiology, biotechnology and other clinical laboratory waste.
Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
2. Red Items that can be recycled include bottles, intravenous tubes, gloves, urine bags, and
syringes. Hence, Pair 2 is correctly matched.
3. White Discarded and contaminated metal needles. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
4. Blue Broken glass and metallic body implants. Hence, Pair 4 is correctly matched.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 61.B
• Expanding port capacity and developing inland waterways have enhanced India's maritime infrastructure.
This comprehensive approach encompasses significant increases in cargo handling capacities at major
ports, initiatives to improve connectivity and navigability of national waterways, and the implementation
of digital solutions to facilitate trade and transportation.
• The port capacity expansion has been implemented across all 12 Major Ports. The data in the
table indicates a significant increase in the annual cargo handling capacity at major Indian ports
from 2014-15 to 2023-24. The total cargo handled rose from 871.52 million tonnes to 1629.86
million tonnes, marking an 87.01% increase. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• The ports increase in capacity is mentioned in the table below:

O
C
S.
TE
O

• Hence, statement 1 is not correct but statement 2 is correct.

FN

Q 62.D
• New trends in quinary services include knowledge processing outsourcing (KPO) and ‘home shoring’, the
D

latter as an alternative to outsourcing. Knowledge process outsourcing (KPO) is the outsourcing of core,
information-related business activities. KPO involves contracting out work to individuals who typically
.P

have advanced degrees and expertise in a specialized area.

• Knowledge process outsourcing is the purposeful allocation of relatively high-level tasks involving
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specialized knowledge or problem-solving to an outside organization or third party that has a high
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 level of subject matter expertise, often located in a different geographic region than the company
itself. KPO is different from business process outsourcing (BPO), which involves the outsourcing of
labor and other operational work to a third party to save money. Although KPO is a subset of BPO,
KPO involves far more specialized, analytical, and knowledge-based work.
• KPO can help companies reduce operational or production costs by creating new processes or
streamlining efficiency. KPO fills the gap or need for skilled employees in a particular field. It also frees
up existing staff, including management, to do other work, boosting efficiency and productivity.
Examples of KPOs include data analysis and interpretation, research and development (R and D)
activities, e-learning, business research, intellectual property (IP) research, legal profession and
business operations. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 63.B
• The Indus River:
o The Indus River is one of the most significant river systems in South Asia, originating in Tibet
(China) near Lake Mansarovar. It enters India in the Union Territory of Ladakh, flows through Jammu
and Kashmir, and then continues into Pakistan.
• States/UTs Traversed by the Indus River
o Jammu and Kashmir:
 The Indus River flows through Jammu and Kashmir as it enters the region after flowing through
Ladakh. It flows briefly in this Union Territory before entering Pakistan. Hence option 1 is
correct.
o Ladakh:
 The Indus enters India in Ladakh near Demchok, flowing westward through the region. It is the
main river system of Ladakh, with tributaries like the Zanskar and Shyok Rivers contributing to
its flow. Hence option 2 is correct.
o Himachal Pradesh:
 The Indus does not flow through Himachal Pradesh. However, its tributaries such as the Sutlej
originate in Tibet and flow through Himachal Pradesh, but these are separate from the main Indus
River. Hence option 3 is not correct.
o Uttarakhand:
 The Indus River does not flow through Uttarakhand. Rivers like the Ganga and Yamuna, which
belong to the Ganga River system, dominate Uttarakhand. Hence option 4 is not correct.
o Punjab:
 The Indus does not flow directly through Indian Punjab. Instead, it flows into Pakistan before
reaching the Punjab region in that country. Some of its tributaries, like the Beas, Ravi, and
Sutlej, flow through Indian Punjab, but not the main Indus River.

O
C
S.
TE
O
FN

Q 64.D
• The world’s largest diamond cutting and polishing center exists in Surat, the second-largest city in
D

India’s Gujarat province. There are well over 5,000 cutting and polishing factories, ranging from
family run businesses to many of the diamond industry’s biggest players. If you wear diamonds cut
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during the past few decades there’s a good chance they passed through Surat. Hence, option (d) is
the correct answer.
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 • While Mumbai has long been the center of exports for diamonds in India, Surat, also known as “Diamond
City,” dominates in processing of the precious gems, with about 90% of the world’s rough diamonds cut
and polished there before they are sold to buyers in places like the US and China. The diamond industry in
Surat began growing after 1955-60 when people sourced diamonds from other parts of the world and
began polishing. Gradually bigger polishing units came into existence.
• Recently, the Prime Minister of India inaugurated Surat Diamond Bourse, the world’s largest and
modern center for the international diamond and jewelry business. It will be a global center for the
trading of both rough and polished diamonds as well as jewellery. The bourse will comprise a
Customs Clearance House for Import – Export; jewellery mall for retail jewellery business and facility of
International banking and safe vaults. The Surat Diamond Bourse building is the world's largest office
complex with more than 67 lakh square feet of floor area, even bigger US defence headquarters Pentagon.
Surat Diamond Bourse is located at Khajod village near Surat city.

Q 65.B
• Invasive alien species are those species of plants, animals, or other organisms that are introduced into
an environment (intentionally/unintentionally) where they are not native and can have negative
consequences. They can lead to biodiversity loss, economic impact, impact on human health, and more.
• Peacock: Indian peafowl (Pavo cristatus) is native to the Indian subcontinent and given the status
of India's national bird. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
• Pigeons: These are native to Europe, North Africa, and Western Asia and are considered an invasive
species in India. Apart from competing with the native bird species for food, they also cause other
problems like diseases, aesthetic loss, etc. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• Parrots: India is home to 11 parakeet species, including the Vernal hanging parrot. Hence, option 3 is
not correct.

Q 66.C
• India has recently announced its plans to deploy Bharat Small Reactors (BSRs) (220 MWe PHWRs)
and develop Bharat Small Modular Reactors (BSMRs). In this context, Research & Development has
been initiated for BSMRs.
o Small Modular Reactors (SMR) are fission nuclear reactors that have a power capacity of up to
300 MW(e) per unit, which is about one-third of the generating capacity of traditional nuclear power
reactors. Hence, statement 1 is correct and 2 is not correct.
o SMRs have reduced fuel requirements. Power plants based on SMRs may require less frequent
refuelling, every 3 to 7 years, in comparison to between 1 and 2 years for conventional
plants. Some SMRs are designed to operate for up to 30 years without refuelling. Hence, statement 3
is correct.
o SMR can be factory-built unlike the conventional nuclear reactors that are built on–site. Thus, SMRs
offer significant savings in cost and construction time. SMRs are envisioned for markets such as
industrial applications or remote areas with limited grid capacity.
o SMR is a promising technology in industrial de-carbonization especially where there is a requirement
of reliable and continuous supply of power. It is said that SMR is simpler and safer as compared to
large nuclear plants. O
C
Q 67.C
• India has officially joined the US-led Minerals Security Finance Network, an initiative aimed at
S.

strengthening global cooperation in securing critical mineral supply chains. This framework was
established by the US in 2022.
TE

o India’s participation in MSP Finance Network is part of its broader effort to diversify and secure
sustainable supply chains for critical minerals Hence, Statement-I is correct.
• China dominates global mineral refining, processing 68 percent of nickel, 40 percent of copper, 59
O

percent of lithium, and 73 percent of cobalt. It leads in producing 20 critical minerals, accounting for
FN

60 percent of global production and 85 percent of rare earth processing. Hence, Statement-II is not the
correct explanation of Statement-I.
• Critical minerals are minerals that are essential for the technological and manufacturing needs of
D

companies, industries, and nations. They are crucial for the clean energy transition and digital
.P

technologies. Some examples of critical minerals include:

o Rare earth elements: Used to produce permanent magnets for wind turbines and electric vehicle
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motors
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 o Copper and aluminum: Used in electricity networks
o Lithium, nickel, cobalt, manganese, and graphite: Used in batteries for electric vehicles.

Q 68.A
• Somali Jet:
o The Somali Jet is a critical atmospheric phenomenon that significantly influences the Indian monsoon
by regulating the transport of moisture-laden winds from the Indian Ocean. It acts as a lifeline for the
Indian monsoon, with its strength determining the extent and distribution of monsoon rainfall.
o Somali jet is low level (1 to 1.5 km above the sea level) inter hemispheric cross equatorial flow of
air, attains Jet speed at the west end of monsoon regime along the east coast of Africa. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
o This Jet originates near Mauritius and northern part of Madagascar in the southern Hemisphere.
o This jet reaches Kenya coast (at about 3ºS) covers the plains of Kenya, Ethiopia and to Somali Coast
at about 9ºN) During May, it moves further into eastern Africa, then into Arabian sea and reaches
west coast of India in June.
• Key Impacts of the Somali Jet on the Indian Monsoon
o Strong Somali Jet:
 Strengthens the permanent high near Madagascar
 Enhances the cross-equatorial flow of moisture-laden winds.
 Leads to strong monsoon rainfall over the west coast, central India, and parts of the Gangetic
plains.
 Strengthening episodes (8–10 days) correlate with periods of intense monsoon activity.
o Weak Somali Jet:
 Reduces the moisture transported into the monsoon system. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
 Causes breaks in the monsoon or dry spells, particularly affecting peninsular and western India.
o Regional Significance:
 The Somali Jet directly influences the southwest monsoon winds, making it critical for India’s
agriculture and water resources.
Q 69.B
• Recent Context: G20 leaders met for a two-day summit (18-19 November 2024) hosted by the
Brazilian G20 presidency in Rio de Janeiro, under the motto 'Building a just world and a
sustainable planet'.
• The G20 group of 19 countries and the EU was established in 1999 as a platform for Finance
Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues.
Together, the G20 countries account for almost two-thirds of the global population, 75% of global trade,
and 85% of the world's GDP. In the wake of the global financial and economic crisis of 2007, the G20
was elevated to the level of Heads of State/Government and was named the "premier forum for
international economic cooperation." Hence statement 1 is correct.
• G20 Presidency rotates annually among the members and is selected from a different regional
grouping of countries. The 19 member countries are therefore divided up into five groups
comprising a maximum of four countries each. Most of the groups are formed on a regional basis, that O
is countries from the same region are usually put in the same group.
C
o Only Group 1 (Australia, Canada, Saudi Arabia and the United States)
o Group 2 (India, Russia, South Africa and Türkiye) do not follow this pattern.
S.

o Group 3 includes Argentina, Brazil, and Mexico

o Group 4 includes France, Germany, Italy, and United Kingdom; and
TE

o Group 5 includes China, Indonesia, Japan, and Republic of Korea. The EU and the AU are not
members of any of these regional groups. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
O

• To ensure continuity, the Presidency is supported by a “troika” made up of the current, immediate
past and next host countries. During the Brazilian Presidency, the members of the G20 troika are Brazil,
FN

India and South Africa. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

D

Q 70.D
• Characteristics and Distribution of Saline Soils:
.P

o General Characteristics:
 Chemical Composition: Contain a larger proportion of sodium, potassium, and magnesium,
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making them infertile. Hence statement 2 is correct

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  Vegetation: Do not support vegetative growth due to high salinity.
 Structure: Ranges from sandy to loamy.
o Reasons for High Salinity:
 Climate and Drainage: Formed in dry climates with poor drainage.
 Seawater Intrusion: Common in deltas where seawater intrusion increases salt content (e.g.,
Sundarbans and eastern coastal deltas).
 Salt Deposition by Monsoons: In the Rann of Kutch, the Southwest Monsoon deposits salt
particles, forming a crust.
 Excessive Irrigation: Irrigation combined with dry climatic conditions causes capillary action,
leading to salt deposition on the topsoil (e.g., in Punjab and Haryana).
o Deficiencies:
 Nitrogen and Calcium: Lacking in both.
o Geographical Distribution:
 Common in western Gujarat, deltas of the eastern coast, and the Sundarbans. Hence statement 1
is correct.
 Areas with excessive irrigation, particularly in Punjab and Haryana, are becoming saline due to
unsustainable farming practices.
o Remediation:
 Use of gypsum is recommended to mitigate soil salinity in areas like Punjab and
Haryana. Hence statement 3 is also correct.

Q 71.B
• Kailash mountain range is the correct answer, as the Brahmaputra, Satluj, and Indus rivers
originate from this region. The Brahmaputra (also known as Tsangpo in Tibet and Jamuna river in
Bangladesh) flows eastward and merges with the Ganga (also known as Padma in Bangladesh) before
emptying into the Bay of Bengal. The Satluj, the largest tributary of the Indus, flows westward, eventually
joining the Indus River, which continues its course toward the Arabian Sea.
• Indus River:
o The 2,880 km long antecedent river rises from a glacier near Bokhar Chu in the Kailash
Mountain range in Tibet. It is known as 'Singi Khamban' (Lion's mouth).
o In India, it flows for 1,114 km through Ladakh. It enters Pakistan near Chilas of Dardistan region and
finally discharges into the Arabian Sea.
o Left bank tributaries: Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej, Zanskar etc.
o Right bank tributaries: Shyok, Gilgit, Kabul, Kurram, Gomal, Shigar, etc.
o Important place: Leh is located on the right bank of the Indus River. Nimoo Bazgo Dam is an
important hydroelectric project on the Indus River located in Leh.
• Sutlej:
o Sutlej rises in the Southern slopes of the Kailash mountain near Mansarover lake from Rakas
lake, as Longcchen Khabab river ( in Tibet ).
o It flows almost parallel to the Indus before entering India. It is the longest tributary of the Indus.
o It passes through Shipki La in the Himalayan range and enters the Punjab plains.
o It is an antecedent river (it existed even before the formation of the Himalayas).
o It is an important tributary that feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal project.
O
C
o The main tributaries of the Sutlej River in India are Ravi and Beas.
o Important cities: Ferozpur and Ludhiana.
S.

o Major hydroelectric projects: Bhakra Dam (Bilaspur, HP), Kol Dam (Bilaspur, HP), Nathpa Jhakri
Dam (Kin-
TE

• Brahmaputra River System:

o The Brahmaputra basin spreads over Tibet (China), Bhutan, India, and Bangladesh.
O

o The total length of the antecedent river is 2,900 km, and in India, it is 916 km. From its source, the
river runs for nearly 1,100 km (680 mi) in a generally easterly direction between the main range of the
FN

Himalayas to the south and the Kailas Range to the north.

o In India, the basin spreads over Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, West Bengal Meghalaya, Nagaland, and
D

Sikkim, which is nearly 5.9% of the total geographical area.

o The Brahmaputra originates in the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near
.P

Mansarovar Lake in Tibet, where it is called the Tsangpo ('the purifier') or Yarlung Zangbo.
o It carves a deep gorge in the Himalayas near Namcha Barwa and turns southwards. Then, it enters
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India through Arunachal Pradesh as Siang or Dihang.

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 o After receiving its main left bank tributaries, Dibang (or Sikang) and Lohit, the river is then known as
the Brahmaputra.
o The Brahmaputra enters Bangladesh as the Jamuna River, where it joins the Ganga (Padma in
Bangla-desh) and continues to flow as the Padma.
o Padma finally joins Meghna River, which falls into the Bay of Bengal.
o The confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna Rivers forms the Sundarbans delta. Hence
option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 72.D
• TRAFFIC (Trade Records Analysis of Flora and Fauna in Commerce), also known as the Wildlife
Trade Monitoring Network, was established in 1976. It is a global non-governmental organization
(NGO) monitoring the trade in wild plants and animals. It is a joint program of the World Wildlife Fund
(WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), aimed at conservation of nature.
• WWF (World Wide Fund for Nature) is an international NGO, founded in 1961. It is the world's
largest conservation organization, working in over 100 countries to preserve wilderness and reduce
human impact on the environment. It aims to ensure a future where humans live in harmony with nature.
Some of its initiatives include the Earth Hour, Living Planet Report, etc.
• IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) is also an NGO, including membership of
both: government and other NGOs. It focuses on Priority Areas like Biodiversity, Climate change,
Sustainable energy, Human well-being, and Green economy. It also releases a Red List of Threatened
Species.
• CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora), is
an international agreement between governments (not an NGO). It's administered by the United
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of
wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 73.C
• Plateaus and Their Associated Rivers:
o Chotanagpur Plateau:
 The Chotanagpur Plateau, located in eastern India (Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal), is
known as the “Mineral Heart of India”.
 Rivers originating here include the Damodar, Subarnarekha, and Koel rivers. Hence pair 1 is
correctly matched.
o Malwa Plateau:
 The Malwa Plateau, located in central India (Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan), is drained by the
Chambal River and its tributaries, such as Banas and Sindh.
 The Chambal River flows through deep ravines in this region and is a key feature of the plateau.
Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
o Meghalaya Plateau:
 The Meghalaya Plateau, an extension of the Peninsular Plateau, is located in northeastern India.
 The Barak River, one of the prominent rivers of the northeast, originates from this plateau. O
 It flows through Assam and Manipur before entering Bangladesh. Hence pair 3 is correctly
C
matched.
S.

Q 74.A
• Forest cover in India:
TE

o Forest cover in India varies widely due to geographical and climatic diversity.
o Northeastern states like Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh lead in forest cover percentage, while central
O

Indian states like Madhya Pradesh have extensive total forested areas.
o Conservation efforts and sustainable forest management are vital to preserving these ecosystems.
FN

• Forest Cover Percentages:

o Mizoram
 Forest Cover Percentage: 84.53%.
D

 Explanation: Mizoram has the highest percentage of forest cover in India. This northeastern state
.P

is dominated by tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests due to high rainfall and hilly
terrain. However, shifting cultivation practices (jhum cultivation) have slightly reduced its forest
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cover in recent years.

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 o Arunachal Pradesh
 Forest Cover Percentage: 79.33%
 Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh has extensive forest cover, including dense tropical rainforests in
lower altitudes and temperate forests in higher altitudes. The state is part of the Eastern
Himalayan biodiversity hotspot, contributing to its high percentage of forest cover.
o Kerala
 Forest Cover Percentage: 54.7%.
 Explanation: Kerala’s forests, mainly located in the Western Ghats, include tropical evergreen and
moist deciduous forests. These forests are vital for biodiversity and water retention. Although
Kerala has a higher percentage of forest cover compared to many states, it is lower than Mizoram
and Arunachal Pradesh.
o Madhya Pradesh
 Forest Cover Percentage: 30.7%.
 Explanation: Madhya Pradesh has the largest total forest area in India, but due to its vast
geographical size, its percentage of forest cover is comparatively low. Tropical dry deciduous
forests dominate the state, contributing to its forest ecosystem.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 75.A
• The African penguin is flightless, black-and-white seabird with wings modified into flippers.
• In October 2024, the African penguin became the first penguin species in the world to be listed as
critically endangered (Species listed as Critically Endangered (CR) face an extremely high risk of
extinction in the wild) by the International Union for the Conservation of Nature. The population of
African penguins has declined over 95% since pre-industrial times. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o The African penguin is found only on the southwestern coast of Africa, where they are dispersed
into colonies across 24 different islands, known as the Penguin Islands. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
o African penguins communicate with one another through vocalizations and body language.
Each individual has its own unique vocalization that distinguishes it from the others. They use
three different types of calls: a bray, used to attract a mate; the yell, used to defend their territory; and
the haw, used by mates to locate each other when one is on land and one is at sea. Hence, statement 3
is not correct.
o African penguins can be recognized by the pink patches of skin above their eyes, which are used to
regulate body temperature.
• About Penguins:
o Penguins are flightless, aquatic birds known for their distinctive black-and-white plumage and
strong swimming abilities, primarily found in the Southern Hemisphere.

Q 76.B
• Recently, The sixteenth session of the Conference of the Parties (COP16) of the United Nations
Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) has begun in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. Business for
Land Forum at the COP16 conference, global business leaders, policymakers and experts discussed O
sustainable land solutions and resilience-building.
C
o Business for Land (B4L) is the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
(UNCCD)’s main initiative to engage the private sector in sustainable land and water
S.

management.
o B4L aims to restore 1.5 billion hectares of land by 2030, contributing to Land Degradation Neutrality
TE

(LDN), a global commitment to achieve net zero land degradation by 2030, as well as enhancing
drought resilience. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.
O

• The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is a legally binding agreement
that aims to address desertification and drought. The UNCCD was drafted in 1994 and became
FN

effective in 1996. Its principles include adopting sustainable land management (SLM) policies and
practices in order to minimize current, and avoid future, land degradation; and Rehabilitating degraded
and abandoned lands as well as restoring degraded natural and semi-natural ecosystems that provide vital
D

benefits to people and working landscapes.

.P

• B4L’s work is built around three key pillars:

o Business operations and value chains: Promote sustainable practices and set targets for reducing
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land-related impacts across business operations.

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 o Finance: Support the creation of sustainable finance solutions for land restoration and drought
resilience.
o Advocacy: Advocate for policies that foster a business environment conducive to sustainable land and
water management.

Q 77.B
• The process of the formation of the layers of the Earth began approximately 4.6 billion years ago when
the solar system was only in its initial development stage.
• Early Earth and Differentiation: The Earth first formed as a hot cloud of dust and gas, revolving
around the youthful sun. As it gained mass the developing planet experienced extreme heat from
gravitational compression, radioactive decay, and impact by meteoric debris. This heat partially
melted the surface, hence the term differentiation. At this differentiation stage, denser materials
mostly comprising iron and nickel sank to the center as they constituted the core, while lighter
silicate and water materials rose upwards to form the mantle and eventually the crust.
• The Earth roughly has three layers: the crust, mantle, and core.
o Crust: The crust developed when the surface cooled and solidified from molten rock. The
primary crust was slim and unstable with constant volcanic activity. It assumes two forms:
 continental crust- thicker, which is composed of granitic rocks
 oceanic crust- thinner, mainly made up of basalt.
o Mantle: Once the crust was set, the silicate minerals that were left were used to create the
mantle. Water held within minerals was ejected as lava, a process known as "outgassing." This
layer is semi-solid with convection in it that aids in moving the tectonic plates. The mantle is a
mixture of silicate minerals full of magnesium and iron.
o Core: As the temperatures increased, the iron and nickel inside the Earth melted and became the outer
core. The fluidity of this layer is important in creating the Earth's magnetic field through the dynamo
effect. The temperatures are extreme in the inner core; however, it is a solid because of extreme
pressure. The iron and nickel crystallize in this layer. It is solid and has temperatures similar to the
surface of the sun.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 78.D
• Recently, the Foreign Ministers of the L-69 Group of countries met in the margins of the 79th
session of the United Nations General Assembly. L-69 has given a renewed call for the reform of the
UN Security Council, with the inclusion of both more permanent and non-permanent members in the
council. L69 is a grouping that includes countries from Africa, Latin America, Caribbean, Pacific Island
states and Asia.
• The G4 countries (representing Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan) call for the expansion of the UN
Security Council in both permanent and non-permanent categories of membership. Also stressed
that a comprehensive reform of the Security Council is an essential part of any endeavor to make the
United Nations better reflect contemporary geopolitical realities.
• Reform of the Security Council encompasses five key issues: categories of membership, the question of
the veto held by the five permanent members, regional representation, the size of an enlarged Council and
O
its working methods, and the Security Council-General Assembly relationship.
• In 2005, the African Union adopted the Ezulwini Consensus, which represents the African common
C
position on UNSC reform. The primary tenet of the African common position is that the majority of
S.

Africa was not represented when the UN was founded.

o As a result, the Ezulwini Consensus demands that Africa be given two permanent seats with all
TE

the rights and privileges of permanent membership, including the veto, as well as five non-
permanent seats.
• The Sirte Declaration was the resolution adopted by the Organisation of African Unity on 9
O

September 1999, at the fourth Extraordinary Session of the OAU Assembly of African Heads of
FN

State and Government held at Sirte, Libya.

• Sirte declaration reaffirmed our strong commitment to the Ezulwini Consensus and called that the
reform of the United Nations should be all-inclusive and encompass all components of the United
D

Nations System, including the General Assembly and the Security Council. Hence, option (d) is the
.P

correct answer.
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Q 79.B
• The coffee plant is a tropical shrub or small tree, cultivated for its seeds (commonly called coffee beans)
that are processed to produce coffee beverages.
• Two main commercially cultivated species:
o Coffea arabica (Arabica)
o Coffea canephora (Robusta)
• Coffee plants are evergreen, meaning they retain their leaves year-round. They can grow up to 10
meters tall, though they are pruned to about 2-3 meters for easier harvesting.
o Coffee is not native to South America. It is originally native to the tropical regions of Africa,
particularly Ethiopia. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Climate: Tropical regions with temperatures between 15–30°C. It requires a cool and humid
environment. It cannot tolerate frost or extreme heat.
Karnataka is the largest coffee-producing state in India, contributing around 70% of the total production.
Kerala is the second-largest producer, with around 23% of the total production. Thus together
they contribute more than 50% of coffee production in India. Tamil Nadu is the third-largest
producer with 5% of India’s total coffee production. Half of Tamil Nadu’s coffee is made in the
Nilgiri district, a major Arabica growing region. Orissa and the north-eastern areas have a smaller
proportion of production. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In India, Robusta accounts for approximately 70% of the total coffee production, while Arabica
contributes the remaining 30%. Robusta is preferred in India due to its higher yield, resistance to
pests, and suitability to lower altitudes. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 80.B
• London (51.47°N)
o The capital city of the United Kingdom
o A global financial hub, hosting the London Stock Exchange
• Dubai (25.25°N)
o Known for its futuristic skyline, including the Burj Khalifa, the world's tallest building.
• Mumbai (19.08°N)
o The financial capital of India, housing the Bombay Stock Exchange and major corporate offices.
• Singapore (1.36°N)
o A city-state and global financial center with a multicultural population.

O
C
S.
TE
O
FN

• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

D

Q 81.B
• The Sustainable Development Goals Report 2024 is released by the UN Department of Economic
.P

and Social Affairs (UN DESA).

• Key findings of the report:
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o Overall progress across targets based on 2015–2024 global aggregate data.

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 o The lingering impacts of the COVID-19 pandemic, escalating conflicts, geopolitical tensions, and
growing climate chaos have severely hindered SDG progress.
o The report reveals that only 17 percent of the SDG targets are on track, nearly half show
minimal or moderate progress, and over one-third are stalled or regressing.
o Despite these deeply worrying trends, the report highlights opportunities and examples of success and
resilience that can be built upon at global and regional levels.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 82.C
• India-Bangladesh Border:
o Bangladesh shares a 4,096 km-long international boundary with India, making it the country with the
longest border shared with India. This boundary touches several Indian states, particularly in the
northeast and eastern parts of the country.
• Indian States Sharing a Land Boundary with Bangladesh:
o Assam:
 • Assam shares a land boundary of approximately 263 km with Bangladesh in the Dhubri district
and surrounding areas. Hence option 1 is correct.
o Meghalaya:
 Meghalaya shares a 443 km long boundary with Bangladesh, running through the districts of
West Garo Hills, South Garo Hills, Khasi Hills, and Jaintia Hills. Hence option 2 is correct.
o Tripura:
 Tripura shares a 856 km boundary with Bangladesh, covering almost 85% of the state’s total
perimeter. Hence option 4 is correct.
o Mizoram:
 Mizoram has a 318 km boundary with Bangladesh, primarily along its western region. Hence
option 5 is correct.
o West Bengal:
 West Bengal shares the longest land boundary 2,217 km with Bangladesh among all Indian states.
o Manipur:
 Manipur does not share a land boundary with Bangladesh. It shares borders with Myanmar to the
east. Hence option 3 is not correct.

O
C
S.
TE

Q 83.B
• Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has notified the Plastic Waste
Management (Amendment) Rules, 2024 under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to amend
O

Plastic Waste Management (PWM) Rules, 2016.

• Key highlights of the amended Rules:
FN

o Defines biodegradable plastics: Rules define Biodegradable plastics as plastics, other than
compostable plastics, which undergo degradation by biological processes without leaving any
D

microplastics or visible or distinguishable or toxic residue, which has adverse environmental

impact. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.
.P

o Inserts new Rule for responsibility of Panchayats at District level: To undertake assessment of
plastic waste generated and plastic waste management infrastructure available at District level.
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Hence statement 2 is correct.

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 o Responsibility of Producers, Importers and Brand Owners: Who introduces any plastic packaging in
the market shall be responsible for collection of such plastic packaging.
 Fulfillment of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is deemed to be a part of the above
responsibility.
 EPR means the responsibility of a producer for environmentally sound management of product
until the end of its life.
o Reports: Mandates every manufacturer and importer of plastic raw material to submit
quarterly and annual reports online to State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) or Pollution
Control Committee (PCC).
o Also mandates every urban local body and Panchayat at District Level to submit annual reports to
Urban/ Rural Development Departments and SPCB/ PCC, which shall be audited by SPCB/ PCC or
other designated agency.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 84.A
• Idukki Dam is a double curvature arch dam located on the Periyar River, which is the longest river
in Kerala.
o It is one of the highest arch dams in Asia.
o Constructed between two granite hills, Kuravanmala and Kurathimala, the dam is known for its
innovative engineering.
o Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Maithon Dam is built on the Barakar River, a tributary of the Damodar River.
o The name “Maithon” means “Mother’s Abode” in the local language, and it is situated near the border
of Jharkhand and West Bengal.
o It is an earthen dam with a concrete spillway.
o Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched
• Somasila Dam is constructed on the Penna River, which flows through Andhra Pradesh.
o The dam is part of the Penna Basin irrigation system, serving a large portion of drought-prone areas in
the state.
o It is one of the major water storage facilities in the region.
o Hence pair 3 is correctly matched

O
C
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O
FN
D
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Q 85.C
• Recently, Government of India has approved the National Mission on Edible Oils – Oilseeds
(NMEO-Oilseeds), a landmark initiative aimed at boosting domestic oilseed production and achieving
self-reliance (Atmanirbhar Bharat) in edible oils. The Mission will be implemented over a seven-year
period, from 2024-25 to 2030-31, with a financial outlay of Rs 10,103 crore.
o The newly approved NMEO-Oilseeds will focus on enhancing the production of key primary
oilseed crops such as Rapeseed-Mustard, Groundnut, Soybean, Sunflower, and Sesamum, as
well as increasing collection and extraction efficiency from secondary sources like Cottonseed, Rice
Bran, and Tree Borne Oils.
o The mission aims to increase primary oilseed production from 39 million tonnes (2022-23) to 69.7
million tonnes by 2030-31. Together with NMEO-OP (Oil Palm), the Mission targets to increase
domestic edible oil production to 25.45 million tonnes by 2030-31 meeting around 72% of our
projected domestic requirement. Hence, statement-II is not correct.
• The country is heavily reliant on imports which account for 57% of its domestic demand for edible
oils. To address this dependency and promote self-sufficiency, the Government of India has undertaken a
series of measures to enhance domestic production of edible oils, including the launch of National
Mission on Edible Oils – Oil Palm (NMEO-OP) with an outlay of Rs 11,040 crore to boost oil palm
cultivation in the country in 2021. Hence, statement-I is correct.

Q 86.A
• Rebel fighters led by opposition group Hayat Tahrir al-Sham (HTS), captured the Syrian capital of
Damascus, toppled the Assad regime that has been in power in the country since 1971. Hence, pair 1 is
not correctly matched.

O
C
S.
TE

•
O

Saudi Arabia's Al-Jawf region experienced heavy snowfall and rainfall reportedly for the first time
in recorded history, with the desert landscape blanketed in a layer of white. Known for its wild flora, Al-
FN

Jawf expects an abundance of plants like lavender and chrysanthemum, because of this unusual moisture.
Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
D
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 • Khartoum is the capital city of Sudan. Recently, The Sudanese Armed Forces (SAF) launched a
major offensive against the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces (RSF) who are fighting in the
country's civil war. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

O
C
S.
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O
FN
D
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Q 87.C
• Recently, the World Meteorological Organization (WMO), released the Greenhouse Gas Bulletin.
According to a new report by the WMO, greenhouse gas levels surged to a new record in 2023, rising by
more than 10% in just two decades.
o The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin is released yearly to inform the United Nations Climate Change
negotiations, the annual Conference of the Parties (COP).
o It compares current global carbon dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4), and Nitrous oxide (N2O)
levels with last years and pre-industrial levels (before year 1750).
o It also provides insights on Radiative forcing changes by long lived GHGs like CO2, CH4, and
CFCs.
• Greenhouse gases (GHGs) are gases in the Earth's atmosphere that trap heat, contributing to the
greenhouse effect, which warms the planet. These gases allow sunlight to enter the atmosphere but
prevent some of the heat from escaping back into space.
o The main greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), nitrous oxide (N₂O), and
water vapor (H₂O).
• The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations
(UN) responsible for promoting international cooperation in meteorology, climatology, hydrology, and
related fields. Established in 1950, the WMO works to enhance global understanding and the exchange
of weather, climate, and water data, supporting the development of services to protect lives, property, and
the environment.
o WMO headquarters are located at Geneva, Switzerland, having 193 member countries and
territories. It also runs the Global Climate Observing System (GCOS) and is involved in setting
international standards for weather observations.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 88.A
• Silk is derived from the cocoon of the silkworm, primarily Bombyx mori.
o China is the largest producer of silk in the world followed by India. Hence pair 1 is not correctly
matched.
• Sugarcane
o Climate: Tropical and subtropical; requires 21–27°C temperature, high humidity, and abundant
sunlight.
o Soil: Fertile, well-drained soils with organic matter (alluvial, loamy).
o Brazil is the largest sugar-producing country in the world, yielding approximately 45 million
metric tons of sugar in 2023. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Coffee
o Requires a cool, humid climate; temperature range of 15–28°C.
o Annual rainfall of 1000–2000 mm.
o Grows best on sloping terrains with well-drained, acidic soils rich in organic matter.
o Two main varieties—Arabica (high-quality) and Robusta (hardier).
o Brazil is the largest coffee producer in the world followed by Vietnam. Hence pair 3 is not
correctly matched. O
• Rubber
o Plantation crop grown for latex, a milky fluid used to produce natural rubber.
C
o Tropical climate with temperatures of 25–35°C.
S.

o Annual rainfall of 2000–3000 mm with no prolonged dry season.

o Requires deep, well-drained, and fertile loamy soils.
TE

o Thailand produced 4.7 million metric tons of natural rubber in 2023. That volume accounted
for approximately one-third of of global natural rubber production in 2023. Hence pair 4 is not
O

correctly matched.
FN

Q 89.C
• Community Reserves: They have statutory protection in India, under an amendment to the Wildlife
Protection Act of 1972. The state government can declare private or community land as a community
D

reserve, which is then managed by the community to ensure the protection of the wildlife and its habitat.
.P

Hence, option 1 is correct.

• Tiger Reserves: They have statutory protection in India under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
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Hence, option 2 is correct

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 • Conservation Reserve: They have statutory protection under an amendment to the Wildlife
Protection Act of 1972. The state government can declare a conservation reserve. Hence, option 3 is
correct.
• Elephant Reserves: Elephant reserves in India are not statutory, meaning they are not legally protected.
Please note that elephants are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, but
the Elephant Reserves are not independently statutory. Hence, option 4 is not correct.

Q 90.D
• Dairy is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals. It is highly capital-intensive.
Animal sheds, storage facilities for fodder, and feeding and milching machines add to the cost of dairy
farming. Special emphasis is laid on cattle breeding, health care and veterinary services.
• It is highly labour intensive as it involves rigorous care in feeding and milching. There is no off-season
during the year as in the case of crop raising.
• It is practiced mainly near urban and industrial centers providing neighborhood markets for fresh milk and
dairy products. The development of transportation, refrigeration, pasteurization and other preservation
processes have increased the duration of storage of various dairy products.
• There are three main regions of commercial dairy farming. The largest is North Western Europe
the second is Canada and the third belt includes South Eastern Australia, New Zealand and
Tasmania. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

O
C
Extensive commercial grain cultivation is practised in Eurasian steppes, the Canadian and American
Prairies, the Pampas of Argentina, the Velds of South Africa, the Australian Downs and the Canterbury
S.

Plains of New Zealand.

• Intensive subsistence agriculture is largely found in densely populated regions of monsoon Asia.
TE

Q 91.B
• Fly ash is an unwanted unburnt residue of coal combustion in a coal thermal power plant. They rise with
O

the gases into the atmosphere causing significant air and water pollution. It is regulated under the
FN

Environment (Protection) Act 1986. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Fly ash is generally captured by electrostatic precipitators or other particle filtration equipment before
the flue gases reach the chimneys of coal-fired power plants. The fly ash collected with the help of
D

precipitators is converted into a wet slurry to minimise fugitive dust emissions. It is then transported to the
.P

scientifically designed ash ponds through slurry pipelines. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The latest notification (2021) of the Government of India mandates all coal and lignite-based Thermal
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Power Plants (TPPs) to utilise 100 percent fly ash in an environment friendly manner for making
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 construction sector products. They must utilise 100 percent of their yearly fly ash output within a three-
year cycle to avoid penalties, and at no point should utilisation fall below 80 percent. Hence, statement 3
is correct.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 92.B
• The theory of plate tectonics proposes that the earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven major and some
minor plates. The major plates are - Antarctic plate, North American plate, South American plate, Pacific
plate, India-Australia-New Zealand plate, African plate, and Eurasian plate.
• Minor plates are small in area. They are also moving in different directions like major plates.
• Juna de Fuca Plate: It is located between Pacific and North American plates. It is named after the Greek
Explorer Juna De Fuca. It is moving at a rate of about 5 centimeters per year. It is being subdued beneath
the North American plate and is responsible for earthquakes in the Pacific Northwest.
• Cocos Plate: It is located between Pacific and Caribbean plates. It is named after Cocos Island. It is
formed about 23 million years ago when the Farallon plate split into two, creating the Cocos and Nazca
Plate. It is subduing beneath the North American and Caribbean Plates. This subduction zone is
responsible for the formation of the Central American Volcanic Arc.
• Nazca Plate: It is located between Pacific and South America Plate. The Nazca Plate subducts beneath
the South American Plate along the Peru-Chile Trench, a process responsible for the formation of the
Andes Mountains.
• Scotia Plate: It is situated at the southern tip of South America, bordering the Scotia Sea, which separates
South America from Antarctica. It is formed around 50 million years ago due to the opening of the Drake
Passage.
• Correct sequence is 1-3-2, hence option (b) is the correct answer.

O
C
S.
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Q 93.D
O

• Petroleum is often called liquid gold because of its value in our modern civilization. The crude
petroleum is a mixture of combustible hydrocarbons in solid, liquid, and gaseous forms. Petroleum
FN

occurs in the anticlines and fault traps of sedimentary rocks.

• India has 26 sedimentary basins covering an area of 3.36 million square kilometers. The sedimentary
D

basins of India, on-land and offshore up to the 400m isobath, have an aerial extent of about 2.04 million
sq. km. In the deepwater beyond the 400m isobath, the sedimentary area has been estimated to be about
.P

1.32 million square kilometers. The Chota Nagpur plateau does not have any known petroleum reserves.
The Indian sedimentary basins have been broadly divided into three categories based on their degree of
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prospectivity as presently known which is as under:

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 • Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 94.C
• The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 (CAF Act) is a very crucial piece of legislation in India
meant to address the negative effects of deforestation that usually accompany development projects.
• Key Provisions of the Act:
o Establishment of Funds: The Act creates a National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the
public accounts of India and also a corresponding fund for every state.
o The National Fund receives 10% of the total funds collected, and 90% is allocated to the State Funds.
o Authority at the Management Level: It establishes a Compensatory Afforestation Management and
Planning Authority at the national and state levels to oversee its management and utilization.
o Its balance is non-lapsable. That means surplus amount in one year may get rolled into the
subsequent years, giving scope for long-term planning and implementation.
• Utilization: The amount can be utilized for:
o Compensatory afforestation
o Assisted natural regeneration
o Wildlife protection
o Developing forest infrastructure
o Catchment Area Treatment Plan
o Other activities for forest development O
• Prohibited Activities: The Act mentions certain activities that cannot be funded through the
C
compensatory afforestation funds:
o Purchase/Lease of Land for Afforestation
S.

o Payment of Salaries to Regular Employees

o Foreign Visits
TE

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

O

Q 95.C
• Physiological density is the ratio of the total population to the arable land area.
FN

o Arable land refers to land that is suitable for cultivation and supports agricultural activities,
which are essential for feeding the population.
D

o Physiological density = total population/net cultivated area

o Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
.P

• It measures the pressure of the population on the available agricultural land and helps assess how
efficiently the land resources are used to sustain the population.
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 • A country with abundant arable land but a relatively small population (e.g., Canada) will have low
physiological density. Conversely, a country with limited arable land and a large population (e.g., India)
will have high physiological density.
• High physiological density reflects that a large population is dependent on a relatively small area of
arable land.
o Population density is the measurement of the total population per unit area of a country.

Q 96.D
• The United Kingdom has officially become the 12th member of the Comprehensive and Progressive
Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP).
• The Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP), initially
abbreviated as TPP11 or TPP-11, is a trade agreement that evolved from the Trans-Pacific
Partnership. It evolved from the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP), which was initially negotiated in
2010. Presently, CPTPP is a trade agreement between 12 countries. In addition to the U.K., the pact
currently comprises 11 other countries: Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico,
New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, and Vietnam.
• Donald Trump pulled the U.S. out of the agreement in 2017.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 97.D
• The National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA),2014 is a very significant initiative under
the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), which focuses on the development of
agricultural productivity while sustaining it to be resilient against climate change.
• Key Components:
o Rainfed Area Development (RAD): The program aims to improve productivity in rainfed areas by
promoting integrated farming systems that combine crops, livestock, and other activities.
o On-Farm Water Management (OFWM): Focuses on improving water use efficiency through
technological interventions like drip and sprinkler irrigation systems.
o Soil Health Management (SHM): It encourages integrated nutrient management practices so that
soil health is improved by balanced fertilizer application and enhancement of organic matter.
o Capacity Building and Technology Transfer (CBTT): This builds the capacity of farmers and other
stakeholders through training programs and technology transfer related to sustainable agricultural
practices.
• Strategies:
o Integrated Farming Systems: The NMSA promotes a holistic approach by integrating crops,
livestock, fisheries, and agroforestry to enhance livelihoods, ensure food security, and reduce risks
from crop failures.
o Resource Conservation Technologies: It advocates for the adoption of resource conservation
technologies on and off the farm, to mitigate the impacts of extreme climatic events like floods and
droughts.
o Water Management: The mission also aims at effective management of water resources by
improving the efficient use of water through both technology-based solutions and demand-supply O
management strategies.
C
o Agronomic Practices: It advocates good agronomic practices that improve yield, soil health, and
conserved water, reduce the application of chemicals and energy as well as increase carbon stored in
S.

soils.
o Soil Resource Database: It aims to develop a comprehensive database on soil resources, using the
TE

GIS platforms to guide location-specific crop management practices and optimize fertilizer use.
o Integrated Nutrient Management: It focuses on enhancing location-specific nutrient management
O

practices for improving soil health, productivity, and water and land quality.
o It seeks to promote the involvement of knowledge institutions and experts in arriving at adaptation
FN

and mitigation strategies adapted to specific agro-climatic zones for climate change.
o Livelihood Diversification: The mission will encourage the diversification of livelihoods by farming
systems incorporating crops, livestock, and other productive activities, reducing risks, and increasing
D

income-generating activities for farmers.

.P

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

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Q 98.B
• The world's current population is more than 8 billion. The data given below is according to the data
based on the latest United Nations Population Division estimates.

• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 99.B
• Recently, water levels at Lake Kariba in Zimbabwe have dropped dramatically because of the latest
El Nino drought that caused lake Kariba to dry up.
o Lake Kariba is the world's largest artificial lake and reservoir by volume. It lies 1,300
kilometres upstream from the mouth of the Zambezi river on the Indian Ocean, along the
border between Zambia and Zimbabwe.
o The southern African region is currently reeling from the effects of a severe El Nino-induced
drought. These droughts and heightened evaporation from increased heat have caused the lake’s
water levels to drop to record lows.

O
C
S.
TE
O
FN
D
.P
W

• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Q 100.C
• Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is a comprehensive air quality management plan
implemented in Delhi-NCR (National Capital Region) in 2016 to tackle air pollution. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• It aims to prevent, control, and reduce air pollution levels by implementing appropriate actions based on
the severity of air quality.
• Key Features of GRAP:
o Air Quality Index (AQI): AQI is used as the indicator to measure air quality and trigger the
implementation of GRAP measures.
o Levels: GRAP typically consists of four levels: Good, Moderate, Poor, and Severe.
• Measures: The measures implemented under GRAP vary depending on the level of air pollution and can
include:
o Restriction on industrial and construction activities
o Implementation of odd-even traffic rules
o Closure of schools and colleges
o Enhanced public transport services
o Advisory to reduce outdoor activities
o Health and medical interventions
• Objectives of GRAP:
o To protect public health by reducing exposure to harmful air pollutants
o To minimize the impact of severe air pollution on vulnerable populations such as children, the elderly,
and those with respiratory conditions
o To improve air quality by implementing measures to reduce emissions
• Implementation:
o It is implemented by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), a statutory body
established by the Central Government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o CAQM monitors air quality levels in NCR and issues alerts when AQI values reach trigger points.
The concerned authorities, such as state governments, municipal corporations, and traffic police, are
responsible for implementing the required actions.

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