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Exam Code 1z0 062 Exam Name Oracle Datab

The document provides detailed information about the Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration exam (1z0-062), including passing score, time limit, and certification details. It contains sample questions and answers related to database management, configuration, and optimization. Additionally, it offers links to resources such as a free exam, VCE to PDF converter, and social media pages for further support.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
14 views

Exam Code 1z0 062 Exam Name Oracle Datab

The document provides detailed information about the Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration exam (1z0-062), including passing score, time limit, and certification details. It contains sample questions and answers related to database management, configuration, and optimization. Additionally, it offers links to resources such as a free exam, VCE to PDF converter, and social media pages for further support.

Uploaded by

jorge
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Oracle.Premium.1z0-062.by.VCEplus.

329q

Number: 1z0-062 VCEplus


Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 8.0

Exam Code: 1z0-062


Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration
Certification Provider: Oracle
Corresponding Certification: Oracle Database 12c Administrator Certified Associate
Website: www.vceplus.com
Free Exam: https://vceplus.com/oracle-database-1z0-062/
Questions & Answers Exam Engine is rigorously checked before being put up for sale. We make sure there is nothing irrelevant in 1z0-062 exam products and you
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Exam A

QUESTION 1
Examine the parameters for your database instance:
NAMETYPE VALUE
-------------------------- ------------------------------- ---------------------------
undo_management string AUTO
undo_retentioninteger 12 00
undo_tablespace string UNDOTBS1
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;
Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.


B. Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of space in the undo tablespace.
C. You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo before that time has elapsed.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net connection. You want to ensure the following:
1.The user account must be locked after five unsuccessful login attempts.
2.Data read per session must be limited for the user.
3.The user cannot have more than three simultaneous sessions.
4.The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes session idle time before being logged off automatically.
How would you accomplish this?

A. by granting a secure application role to the user


B. by implementing Database Resource Manager
C. by using Oracle Label Security options
D. by assigning a profile to the user

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from
the SCOTT schema in the HQ database. SCOTT’s password is TIGER. The service mane “HQ” is used to connect to the remote HQ database.
Which command would you execute to create the database link?

A. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING 'HQ';


B. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CXJRRENT_USER USING HQ' S
C. CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING 'HQ';
D. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING 'HQ';

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics completes?

A. The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.
B. The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.
C. The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.
D. The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the maintenance window opens.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following specifications:
– Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.

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–The number of concurrent user connections will be high.
–The database will have mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night.
Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

A. a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation


B. a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled
C. a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled
D. a default database configuration

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database?

A. An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.
B. An extent can span multiple segments,
C. Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.
D. It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.
E. A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical database structures?

A. A segment cannot span data files.


B. A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C. An extent cannot span data files.

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D. The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?

A. It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).


B. It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C. It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
D. It writes when a user commits a transaction.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one
ratio between client and server processes.
Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?

A. connecting by using an external naming method


B. connecting by using the easy connect method
C. creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this service for creating a local naming service"
D. connecting by using a directory naming method
E. connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the tnsnames.ora file for the net service

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Which two tasks can be performed on an external table?

A. partitioning the table


B. creating an invisible index
C. updating the table by using an update statement
D. creating a public synonym
E. creating a view

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/tables013.htm#ADMIN01507

QUESTION 11
Which three statements are true about a job chain?

A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.


B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
The hr user receiver, the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01653; unable to extend table HR.SALES by 128 in tablespace USERS

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On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automnrif Segment Space Management (ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an
unlimited quota on it.
Which two methods would you use to resolve this error?

A. Altering the data life associated with the USERS tablespace to ex automatically
B. Adding a data life to the USERS tablespace
C. Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D. Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the HR user to the new tablespace
E. Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero value

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Which three factors influence the optimizer's choice of an execution plan?

A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter


B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
E. fixed baselines

Correct Answer: ABD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is displayed.
SQL> SELECT name, active_sessions, queue_length,
Consumed_cpu_time, cpu_waits, cpu_wait_time
FROM v$rsrc_consumer_group;
NAMEACTIVE_SESSIONS QUEUE_LENGTH CONSUMED_CPU_WAITS

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CPU_WAIT_TIME
----------------------------------- -------------------- -------------------- --------------------- ----------------
OLTP__ORDER__ENTRY1029690 467
6709
OTHES__GROUPS 0 059823664089
60425
SYS_GROUP 1 02420704 914
19540
DS.S_QUERIES4245946603004 55700
Which two statements are true?

A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHE_GROUPS fails with an error.
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to resource management.
D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue
contention.
E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the session will be queued.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?

A. The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.


B. All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D. The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 16
Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
NameNull?Type
-------------------------------------------- ------------------------------------- -----------------------------
PROD_IDNOT NULL NUMBER
CUST_IDNOT NULL NUMBER
TIME_IDNOT NULL DATE
CHANNEL_IDNOT NULL NUMBER
PROMO_IDNOT NULL NUMBER
QUANT I TY___S OL DNOT NULL NUMBER (10, 2) AMOUNT SOLDNOT NULL NUMBER (10, 2)
You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high water mark.
What should you ensure before the start of the operation?

A. Row movement is enabled.


B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.
C. No queries are running on this table.
D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.
E. No pending transaction exists on the table.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
Which task would you recommend before using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade a single-instance Oracle 11g R2 database to Oracle
Database 12c?

A. shutting down the database instance that is being upgraded


B. executing the catctl.pl script to run the upgrade processes in parallel
C. running the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool
D. copying the listener.ora file to the new ORACLE_HOME

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
Your database is open and the listener LISTNENER is up. You issue the command:
LSNRCTL> RELOAD
What is the effect of reload on sessions that were originally established by listener?

A. Only sessions based on static listener registrations are disconnected.


B. Existing connections are not disconnected; however, they cannot perform any operations until the listener completes the re-registration of the database instance
and service handlers.
C. The sessions are not affected and continue to function normally.
D. All the sessions are terminated and active transactions are rolled back.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
Which statement is true regarding the startup of a database instance?

A. The instance does not start up normally and requires manual media recovery after a shutdown using the abort option.
B. Uncommitted transactions are rolled back during the startup of the database instance after a shutdown using the immediate option.
C. There is no difference in the underlying mechanics of the startup whether the database is shut down by using the immediate option or the abort option.
D. Media recovery is required when the database is shut down by using either the immediate option or the abort option.
E. Instance recovery is not required if the database instance was shut down by using SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE.

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20

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Examine the memory-related parameters set in the SPFILE of an Oracle database:
memory_max_target—6G
memory_target=5G
pga_aggregate_target=500M
sga_max_size=0
sga_target=0
Which statement is true?

A. Only SGA components are sized automatically.


B. Memory is dynamically re-allocated between the SGA and PGA as needed.
C. The size of the PGA cannot grow automatically beyond 500 MB.
D. The value of the MEMORY_TARGET parameter cannot be changed dynamically.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
Which two statements are true about extents?

A. Blocks belonging to an extent can be spread across multiple data files.


B. Data blocks in an extent are logically contiguous but can be non-contiguous on disk.
C. The blocks of a newly allocated extent, although free, may have been used before.
D. Data blocks in an extent are automatically reclaimed for use by other objects in a tablespaee when all the rows in a table are deleted.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
You execute the commands:
SQL>CREATE USER sidney
IDENTIFIED BY out_standing1
DEFAULT TABLESPACE users QUOTA 10M ON users

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TEMPORARY TABLESPACE temp
ACCOUNT UNLOCK;
SQL> GRANT CREATE SESSION TO Sidney;
Which two statements are true?

A. The create user command fails if any role with the name Sidney exists in the database.
B. The user sidney can connect to the database instance but cannot perform sort operations because no space quota is specified for the temp tablespace.
C. The user sidney is created but cannot connect to the database instance because no profile is default.
D. The user sidney can connect to the database instance but requires relevant privileges to create objects in the users tablespace.
E. The user sidney is created and authenticated by the operating system.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
Examine the query and its output:
SQL> SELECT REASON, metric_value FROM dba_outstanding_alerts;
REASONMETRIC_VALUE
----------------------------------- -------------------
Tablespace [TEST] is [28 perce 28.125 nt] full
Metrics "Current Logons Count"29
Metrics "Database Time Spent99.0375405 waiting (%)" is at 99.03754 for event class "Application"
db_recovery_file_dest_size of97 4294967296 bytes is 97.298 used and has 116228096 remaining bytes available.
After 30 minutes, you execute the same query:
SQL> SELECT reason, metric_value FROM dba_outstanding_alerets;
REASONMETRIC_VALUE
------------------------------ ---------------
Tablespace [TEST] is [28 percs 28.125
nt] full
What might have caused three of the alerts to disappear?

A. The threshold alerts were cleared and transferred to d0A_alert_history.


B. An Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot was taken before the execution of the second
C. An Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADOM) report was generated before the execution of the second query.
D. The database instance was restarted before the execution of the second query.

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Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
Which two statements are true?

A. A role cannot be assigned external authentication.


B. A role can be granted to other roles.
C. A role can contain both system and object privileges.
D. The predefined resource role includes the unlimited_tablespace privilege.
E. All roles are owned by the sys user.
F. The predefined connect role is always automatically granted to all new users at the time of their creation.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
Identify three valid options for adding a pluggable database (PDB) to an existing multitenant container database (CDB).

A. Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a PDB using the files from the SEED.
B. Use the CREATE DATABASE . . . ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to provision a PDB by copying file from the SEED.
C. Use the DBMS_PDB package to clone an existing PDB.
D. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 12c non-CDB database into an existing CDB.
E. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 11 g Release 2 (11.2.0.3.0) non-CDB database into an existing CDB.

Correct Answer: ACD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a pluggable database (PDB).

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This statement enables you to perform the following tasks:
*(A) Create a PDB by using the seed as a template
Use the create_pdb_from_seed clause to create a PDB by using the seed in the multitenant container database (CDB) as a template. The files associated with the
seed are copied to a new location and the copied files are then associated with the new PDB.
*(C) Create a PDB by cloning an existing PDB
Use the create_pdb_clone clause to create a PDB by copying an existing PDB (the source PDB) and then plugging the copy into the CDB. The files associated with
the source PDB are copied to a new location and the copied files are associated with the new PDB. This operation is called cloning a PDB.
The source PDB can be plugged in or unplugged. If plugged in, then the source PDB can be in the same CDB or in a remote CDB. If the source PDB is in a remote
CDB, then a database link is used to connect to the remote CDB and copy the files.
*Create a PDB by plugging an unplugged PDB or a non-CDB into a CDB
Use the create_pdb_from_xml clause to plug an unplugged PDB or a non-CDB into a CDB, using an XML metadata file.

QUESTION 26
Your database supports a DSS workload that involves the execution of complex queries: Currently, the library cache contains the ideal workload for analysis. You
want to analyze some of the queries for an application that are cached in the library cache.
What must you do to receive recommendations about the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to improve query performance?

A. Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) on the workload captured in the
STS.
B. Run the Automatic Workload Repository Monitor (ADDM).
C. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA) on the workload captured in the STS.
D. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Access Advisor on the workload captured in the STS.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*SQL Access Advisor is primarily responsible for making schema modification recommendations, such as adding or dropping indexes and materializedviews. SQL
Tuning Advisor makes other types of recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles and restructuring SQL statements.
*The query optimizer can also help you tune SQL statements. By using SQL Tuning Advisor and SQL Access Advisor, you can invoke the queryoptimizer in
advisory mode to examine a SQL statement or set of statements and determine how to improve their efficiency. SQL Tuning Advisor and SQL Access Advisor can
make various recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles, restructuring SQL statements, creating additional indexes or materialized views, and refreshing
optimizer statistics.
Note:
*Decision support system (DSS) workload
*The library cache is a shared pool memory structure that stores executable SQL and PL/SQL code. This cache contains the shared SQL and PL/SQLareas and
control structures such as locks and library cache handles.

QUESTION 27
The following parameter are set for your Oracle 12c database instance:

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OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=FALSE
OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=TRUE
You want to manage the SQL plan evolution task manually. Examine the following steps:
1.Set the evolve task parameters.
2.Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
3.Implement the recommendations in the task by using the DBMS_SPM.IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK function.
4.Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
5.Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM.REPORT_EVOLVE_TASK function.
Identify the correct sequence of steps:

A. 2, 4, 5
B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 1, 2, 4, 5

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
* Evolving SQL Plan Baselines

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*
2. Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
This function creates an advisor task to prepare the plan evolution of one or more plans for a specified SQL statement. The input parameters can be a SQL handle,
plan name or a list of plan names, time limit, task name, and description.
1. Set the evolve task parameters.
SET_EVOLVE_TASK_PARAMETER
This function updates the value of an evolve task parameter. In this release, the only valid parameter is TIME_LIMIT.
4.Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
This function executes an evolution task. The input parameters can be the task name, execution name, and execution description. If not specified, the advisor
generates the name, which is returned by the function.
3: IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK
This function implements all recommendations for an evolve task. Essentially, this function is equivalent to using ACCEPT_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE for all
recommended plans. Input parameters include task name, plan name, owner name, and execution name.
5.Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM_EVOLVE_TASK function.
This function displays the results of an evolve task as a CLOB. Input parameters include the task name and section of the report to include.

QUESTION 28
In a recent Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report for your database, you notice a high number of buffer busy waits. The database consists of locally

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managed tablespaces with free list managed segments.
On further investigation, you find that buffer busy waits is caused by contention on data blocks.
Which option would you consider first to decrease the wait event immediately?

A. Decreasing PCTUSED
B. Decreasing PCTFREE
C. Increasing the number of DBWN process
D. Using Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)
E. Increasing db_buffer_cache based on the V$DB_CACHE_ADVICE recommendation

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*Automatic segment space management (ASSM) is a simpler and more efficient way of managing space within a segment. It completely eliminates anyneed to
specify and tune the pctused,freelists, and freelist groups storage parameters for schema objects created in the tablespace. If any of these attributes are specified,
they are ignored.
*Oracle introduced Automatic Segment Storage Management (ASSM) as a replacement for traditional freelists management which used one-waylinked-lists to
manage free blocks with tables and indexes. ASSM is commonly called "bitmap freelists" because that is how Oracle implement the internal data structures for free
block management.
Note:
*Buffer busy waits are most commonly associated with segment header contention onside the data buffer pool (db_cache_size, etc.).
*The most common remedies for high buffer busy waits include database writer (DBWR) contention tuning, adding freelists (or ASSM), and addingmissing indexes.

QUESTION 29
Examine this command:
SQL > exec DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS (‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’, ‘PUBLISH’, ‘false’);
Which three statements are true about the effect of this command?

A. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered.
B. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.

Correct Answer: CDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
*SET_TABLE_PREFS Procedure
This procedure is used to set the statistics preferences of the specified table in the specified schema.
*Example:
Using Pending Statistics
Assume many modifications have been made to the employees table since the last time statistics were gathered. To ensure that the cost-based optimizer is still
picking the best plan, statistics should be gathered once again; however, the user is concerned that new statistics will cause the optimizer to choose bad plans
when the current ones are acceptable. The user can do the following:
EXEC DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS('hr', 'employees', 'PUBLISH', 'false');
By setting the employees tables publish preference to FALSE, any statistics gather from now on will not be automatically published. The newly gathered statistics
will be marked as pending.

QUESTION 30
Examine the following impdp command to import a database over the network from a pre-12c Oracle database (source):

Which three are prerequisites for successful execution of the command?

A. The import operation must be performed by a user on the target database with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must
connect to a user on the source database with the DATAPUMP_EXD_FULL_DATABASE role.
B. All the user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.
C. The export dump file must be created before starting the import on the target database.
D. The source and target database must be running on the same platform with the same endianness.
E. The path of data files on the target database must be the same as that on the source database.
F. The impdp operation must be performed by the same user that performed the expdp operation.

Correct Answer: ABD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
In this case we have run the impdp without performing any conversion if endian format is different then we have to first perform conversion.

QUESTION 31
Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable database?

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A. All administration tasks must be done to a specific pluggable database.
B. The pluggable databases increase patching time.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
E. Pluggable databases are only used for database consolidation.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
Examine the current value for the following parameters in your database instance:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M SGA_TARGET = 700M
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 124M LOG_BUFFER = 200M
You issue the following command to increase the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=140M;
Which statement is true?

A. It fails because the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter cannot be changed dynamically.


B. It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.
C. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_TARGET.
D. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_MAX_SIZE.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*The SGA_TARGET parameter can be dynamically increased up to the value specified for the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter, and it can also be reduced.
*Example:
For example, suppose you have an environment with the following configuration:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M SGA_TARGET = 512M
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M
In this example, the value of SGA_TARGET can be resized up to 1024M and can also be reduced until one or more of the automatically sized components reaches
its minimum size. The exact value depends on environmental factors such as the number of CPUs on the system. However, the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE

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remains fixed at all times at 128M
*DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE
Size of cache for 8K buffers
*For example, consider this configuration:
SGA_TARGET = 512M
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M
In this example, increasing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16 M to 144M means that the 16M is taken away from the automatically sized components. Likewise,
reducing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16M to 112M means that the 16M is given to the automatically sized components.

QUESTION 33
Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)?

A. The PDB must be open in read only mode.


B. The PDB must be dosed.
C. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.
D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
F. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.

Correct Answer: BDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
B, not A: The PDB must be closed before unplugging it.
D: An unplugged PDB contains data dictionary tables, and some of the columns in these encode information in an endianness-sensitive way. There is no supported
way to handle the conversion of such columns automatically. This means, quite simply, that an unplugged PDB cannot be moved across an endianness difference.
E (not F): To exploit the new unplug/plug paradigm for patching the Oracle version most effectively, the source and destination CDBs should share a filesystem so
that the PDB’s datafiles can remain in place.

QUESTION 34
Examine the following command:
CREATE TABLE (prod_id number(4),
Prod_name varchar2 (20),
Category_id number(30),
Quantity_on_hand number (3) INVISIBLE);
Which three statements are true about using an invisible column in the PRODUCTS table?

A. The %ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL to access a row will not display the invisible column in the output.
B. The DESCRIBE commands in SQL *Plus will not display the invisible column in the output.

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C. Referential integrity constraint cannot be set on the invisible column.
D. The invisible column cannot be made visible and can only be marked as unused.
E. A primary key constraint can be added on the invisible column.

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
AB: You can make individual table columns invisible. Any generic access of a table does not show the invisible columns in the table. For example, the following
operations do not display invisible columns in the output:
*SELECT * FROM statements in SQL
*DESCRIBE commands in SQL*Plus
*%ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL* Describes in Oracle Call Interface (OCI)
Incorrect:
Not D: You can make invisible columns visible.
You can make a column invisible during table creation or when you add a column to a table, and you can later alter the table to make the same column visible.

QUESTION 35
You wish to enable an audit policy for all database users, except SYS, SYSTEM, and SCOTT.
You issue the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYS;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYSTEM;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SCOTT;
For which database users is the audit policy now active?

A. All users except SYS


B. All users except SCOTT
C. All users except sys and SCOTT
D. All users except sys, system, and SCOTT

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
If you run multiple AUDIT statements on the same unified audit policy but specify different EXCEPT users, then Oracle Database uses the last exception user list,
not any of the users from the preceding lists. This means the effect of the earlier AUDIT POLICY ... EXCEPT statements are overridden by the latest AUDIT
POLICY ... EXCEPT statement.
Note:

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*The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings. By default, this policy is not enabled.
*You can use the keyword ALL to audit all actions. The following example shows how to audit all actions on the HR.EMPLOYEES table, except actionsby user
pmulligan.
Example Auditing All Actions on a Table
CREATE AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol
ACTIONS ALL ON HR.EMPLOYEES;
AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol EXCEPT pmulligan;

QUESTION 36
On your Oracle 12c database, you invoked SQL *Loader to load data into the EMPLOYEES table in the HR schema by issuing the following command: $> sqlldr hr/
hr@pdb table=employees
Which two statements are true regarding the command?

A. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in the database.
B. It fails because no SQL *Loader data file location is specified.
C. It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
D. It fails because no SQL *Loader control file location is specified.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* SQL*Loader is invoked when you specify the sqlldr command and, optionally, parameters that establish session characteristics.

QUESTION 37
After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as follows:

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After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero.
What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?

A. Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.


B. Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C. Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
D. Flush the shared pool.
E. Restart the database instance.

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
About Altering the Default Full Data Redaction Value
You can alter the default displayed values for full Data Redaction polices. By default, 0 is the redacted value when Oracle Database performs full redaction
(DBMS_REDACT.FULL) on a column of the NUMBER data type. If you want to change it to another value (for example, 7), then you can run the
DBMS_REDACT.UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES procedure to modify this value. The modification applies to all of the Data Redaction policies in the
current database instance. After you modify a value, you must restart the database for it to take effect.
Note:
*The DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queriesissued by
low-privileged users or an application.
*UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES Procedure
This procedure modifies the default displayed values for a Data Redaction policy for full redaction.
*After you create the Data Redaction policy, it is automatically enabled and ready to redact data.

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*Oracle Data Redaction enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or applications. You can redactcolumn data
by using one of the following methods:
/ Full redaction.
/ Partial redaction.
/ Regular expressions.
/ Random redaction. / No redaction.

QUESTION 38
You must track all transactions that modify certain tables in the sales schema for at least three years.
Automatic undo management is enabled for the database with a retention of one day.
Which two must you do to track the transactions?

A. Enable supplemental logging for the database.


B. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
C. Create a Flashback Data Archive in the tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. Create a Flashback Data Archive in any suitable tablespace.
E. Enable Flashback Data Archiving for the tables that require tracking.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
E: By default, flashback archiving is disabled for any table. You can enable flashback archiving for a table if you have the FLASHBACK ARCHIVE object privilege
on the Flashback Data Archive that you want to use for that table. D: Creating a Flashback Data Archive
/ Create a Flashback Data Archive with the CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE statement, specifying the following:
Name of the Flashback Data Archive
Name of the first tablespace of the Flashback Data Archive
(Optional) Maximum amount of space that the Flashback Data Archive can use in the first tablespace
/ Create a Flashback Data Archive named fla2 that uses tablespace tbs2, whose data will be retained for two years:
CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE fla2 TABLESPACE tbs2 RETENTION 2 YEAR;

QUESTION 39
You are the DBA supporting an Oracle 11g Release 2 database and wish to move a table containing several DATE, CHAR, VARCHAR2, and NUMBER data types,
and the table’s indexes, to another tablespace.
The table does not have a primary key and is used by an OLTP application.
Which technique will move the table and indexes while maintaining the highest level of availability to the application?

A. Oracle Data Pump.


B. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD to move the indexes.

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C. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE to move the indexes.
D. Online Table Redefinition.
E. Edition-Based Table Redefinition.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*Oracle Database provides a mechanism to make table structure modifications without significantly affecting the availability of the table. Themechanism is called
online table redefinition. Redefining tables online provides a substantial increase in availability compared to traditional methods of redefining tables.
*To redefine a table online:
Choose the redefinition method: by key or by rowid
*By key—Select a primary key or pseudo-primary key to use for the redefinition. Pseudo-primary keys are unique keys with all component columnshaving NOT
NULL constraints. For this method, the versions of the tables before and after redefinition should have the same primary key columns. This is the preferred and
default method of redefinition.
*By rowid—Use this method if no key is available. In this method, a hidden column named M_ROW$$ is added to the post-redefined version of thetable. It is
recommended that this column be dropped or marked as unused after the redefinition is complete. If COMPATIBLE is set to 10.2.0 or higher, the final phase of
redefinition automatically sets this column unused. You can then use the ALTER TABLE ... DROP UNUSED COLUMNS statement to drop it.
You cannot use this method on index-organized tables.
Note:
*When you rebuild an index, you use an existing index as the data source. Creating an index in this manner enables you to change storagecharacteristics or move
to a new tablespace. Rebuilding an index based on an existing data source removes intra-block fragmentation. Compared to dropping the index and using the
CREATE INDEX statement, re-creating an existing index offers better performance.
Incorrect:
Not E: Edition-based redefinition enables you to upgrade the database component of an application while it is in use, thereby minimizing or eliminating down time.

QUESTION 40
To implement Automatic Management (AMM), you set the following parameters:

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When you try to start the database instance with these parameter settings, you receive the following error message:
SQL > startup
ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal settings, see alert log for more information.
Identify the reason the instance failed to start.

A. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter is set to zero.


B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to BASIC.
C. Both the SGA_TARGET and MEMORY_TARGET parameters are set.
D. The SGA_MAX_SIZE and SGA_TARGET parameter values are not equal.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Example:
SQL> startup force
ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal settings
ORA-00848: STATISTICS_LEVEL cannot be set to BASIC with SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET

QUESTION 41
What are two benefits of installing Grid Infrastructure software for a stand-alone server before installing and creating an Oracle database?

A. Effectively implements role separation


B. Enables you to take advantage of Oracle Managed Files.
C. Automatically registers the database with Oracle Restart.

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D. Helps you to easily upgrade the database from a prior release.
E. Enables the Installation of Grid Infrastructure files on block or raw devices.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
C: To use Oracle ASM or Oracle Restart, you must first install Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a standalone server before you install and create the database.
Otherwise, you must manually register the database with Oracle Restart.
Desupport of Block and Raw Devices
With the release of Oracle Database 11g release 2 (11.2) and Oracle RAC 11g release 2 (11.2), using Database Configuration Assistant or the installer to store
Oracle Clusterware or Oracle Database files directly on block or raw devices is not supported.
If you intend to upgrade an existing Oracle RAC database, or an Oracle RAC database with Oracle ASM instances, then you can use an existing raw or block
device partition, and perform a rolling upgrade of your existing installation. Performing a new installation using block or raw devices is not allowed.

QUESTION 42
Identify two correct statements about multitenant architectures.

A. Multitenant architecture can be deployed only in a Real Application Clusters (RAC) configuration.
B. Multiple pluggable databases (PDBs) share certain multitenant container database (CDB) resources.
C. Multiple CDBs share certain PDB resources.
D. Multiple non-RAC CDB instances can mount the same PDB as long as they are on the same server.
E. Patches are always applied at the CDB level.
F. A PDB can have a private undo tablespace.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
B: Using 12c Resource manager you will be able control CPU, Exadata I/O, sessions and parallel servers. A new 12c CDB Resource Manager Plan will use so-
called “Shares” (resource allocations) to specify how CPU is distributed between PDBs. A CDB Resource Manager Plan also can use “utilization limits” to limit the
CPU usage for a PDB. With a default directive, you do not need to modify the resource plan for each PDB plug and unplug.
E: New paradigms for rapid patching and upgrades.
The investment of time and effort to patch one multitenant container database results in patching all of its many pluggable databases. To patch a single pluggable
database, you simply unplug/plug to a multitenant container database at a different Oracle Database software version.
Incorrect:
Not A:
*The Oracle RAC documentation describes special considerations for a CDB in an Oracle RAC environment.

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*Oracle Multitenant is a new option for Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition that helps customers reduce IT costs by simplifying consolidation,provisioning,
upgrades, and more.
It is supported by a new architecture that allows a container database to hold many pluggable databases. And it fully complements other options, including Oracle
Real Application Clusters and Oracle Active Data Guard. An existing database can be simply adopted, with no change, as a pluggable database; and no changes
are needed in the other tiers of the application.
Not D: You can unplug a PDB from one CDB and plug it into a different CDB without altering your schemas or applications. A PDB can be plugged into only one
CDB at a time.
not F:
*UNDO tablespace can NOT be local and stays on the CDB level.
*Redo and undo go hand in hand, and so the CDB as a whole has a single undo tablespace per RAC instance.

QUESTION 43
You upgrade your Oracle database in a multiprocessor environment. As a recommended you execute the following script: SQL > @utlrp.sql
Which two actions does the script perform?

A. Parallel compilation of only the stored PL/SQL code


B. Sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
C. Parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
D. Sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
E. Parallel recompilation of Java code
F. Sequential recompilation of Java code

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
utlrp.sql and utlprp.sql
The utlrp.sql and utlprp.sql scripts are provided by Oracle to recompile all invalid objects in the database. They are typically run after major database changes such
as upgrades or patches. They are located in the $ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin directory and provide a wrapper on the UTL_RECOMP package. The utlrp.sql
script simply calls the utlprp.sql script with a command line parameter of "0". The utlprp.sql accepts a single integer parameter that indicates the level of parallelism
as follows.
0- The level of parallelism is derived based on the CPU_COUNT parameter.
1- The recompilation is run serially, one object at a time.
N - The recompilation is run in parallel with "N" number of threads.
Both scripts must be run as the SYS user, or another user with SYSDBA, to work correctly.

QUESTION 44
Which two statements are true concerning dropping a pluggable database (PDB)?

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A. The PDB must be open in read-only mode.
B. The PDB must be in mount state.
C. The PDB must be unplugged.
D. The PDB data files are always removed from disk.
E. A dropped PDB can never be plugged back into a multitenant container database (CDB).

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/cdb_plug.htm#ADMIN13658

QUESTION 45
You notice a high number of waits for the db file scattered read and db file sequential read events in the recent Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
report. After further investigation, you find that queries are performing too many full table scans and indexes are not being used even though the filter columns are
indexed.
Identify three possible reasons for this.

A. Missing or stale histogram statistics


B. Undersized shared pool
C. High clustering factor for the indexes
D. High value for the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter
E. Oversized buffer cache

Correct Answer: ACD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
D: DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT is one of the parameters you can use to minimize I/O during table scans. It specifies the maximum number of blocks
read in one I/O operation during a sequential scan. The total number of I/Os needed to perform a full table scan depends on such factors as the size of the table,
the multiblock read count, and whether parallel execution is being utilized for the operation.

QUESTION 46
Which three features work together, to allow a SQL statement to have different cursors for the same statement based on different selectivity ranges?

A. Bind Variable Peeking


B. SQL Plan Baselines

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C. Adaptive Cursor Sharing
D. Bind variable used in a SQL statement
E. Literals in a SQL statement

Correct Answer: ACE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
* In bind variable peeking (also known as bind peeking), the optimizer looks at the value in a bind variable when the database performs a hard parse of a
statement.
When a query uses literals, the optimizer can use the literal values to find the best plan. However, when a query uses bind variables, the optimizer must select the
best plan without the presence of literals in the SQL text. This task can be extremely difficult. By peeking at bind values the optimizer can determine the selectivity
of a WHERE clause condition as if literals had been used, thereby improving the plan.
C: Oracle 11g/12g uses Adaptive Cursor Sharing to solve this problem by allowing the server to compare the effectiveness of execution plans between executions
with different bind variable values. If it notices suboptimal plans, it allows certain bind variable values, or ranges of values, to use alternate execution plans for the
same statement. This functionality requires no additional configuration.

QUESTION 47
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know which change caused this performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use?

A. Compare Period ADDM report


B. AWR Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The awrddrpt.sql report is the Automated Workload Repository Compare Period Report. The awrddrpt.sql script is located in the $ORACLE_HOME/ rdbms/admin
directory.
Incorrect:
Not A: Compare Period ADDM
Use this report to perform a high-level comparison of one workload replay to its capture or to another replay of the same capture. Only workload replays that
contain at least 5 minutes of database time can be compared using this report.

QUESTION 48

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You want to capture column group usage and gather extended statistics for better cardinality estimates for the CUSTOMERS table in the SH schema.
Examine the following steps:
1.Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS (‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’) FROM dual statement.
2.Execute the DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE (null, ‘SH’, 500) procedure.
3.Execute the required queries on the CUSTOMERS table.
4.Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.REPORT_COL_USAGE (‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’) FROM dual statement.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 2, 3, 4, 1
C. 4, 1, 3, 2
D. 3, 2, 4, 1

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Step 1 (2). Seed column usage
Oracle must observe a representative workload, in order to determine the appropriate column groups. Using the new procedure
DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE, you tell Oracle how long it should observe the workload.
Step 2: (3) You don't need to execute all of the queries in your work during this window. You can simply run explain plan for some of your longer running queries to
ensure column group information is recorded for these queries. Step 3. (1) Create the column groups
At this point you can get Oracle to automatically create the column groups for each of the tables based on the usage information captured during the monitoring
window. You simply have to call the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function for each table.This function requires just two arguments, the schema
name and the table name. From then on, statistics will be maintained for each column group whenever statistics are gathered on the table.
Note:
*DBMS_STATS.REPORT_COL_USAGE reports column usage information and records all the SQL operations the database has processed for a givenobject.
*The Oracle SQL optimizer has always been ignorant of the implied relationships between data columns within the same table. While the optimizer hastraditionally
analyzed the distribution of values within a column, he does not collect value-based relationships between columns.
*Creating extended statisticsHere are the steps to create extended statistics for related table columns withdbms_stats.created_extended_stats:
1 - The first step is to create column histograms for the related columns.2 – Next, we run dbms_stats.create_extended_stats to relate the columns together.
Unlike a traditional procedure that is invoked via an execute (“exec”) statement, Oracle extended statistics are created via a select statement.

QUESTION 49
Which three statements are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)?

A. All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.


B. The AWR data is stored in memory and in the database.
C. The snapshots collected by AWR are used by the self-tuning components in the database

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D. AWR computes time model statistics based on time usage for activities, which are displayed in the v$SYS time model and V$SESS_TIME_MODEL views.
E. AWR contains system wide tracing and logging information.

Correct Answer: BCE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*A fundamental aspect of the workload repository is that it collects and persists database performance data in a manner that enables historicalperformance
analysis.
The mechanism for this is the AWR snapshot. On a periodic basis, AWR takes a “snapshot” of the current statistic values stored in the database instance’s
memory and persists them to its tables residing in the SYSAUX tablespace.
*AWR is primarily designed to provide input to higherlevel components such as automatic tuning algorithms and advisors, but can also provide a wealthof
information for the manual tuning process.

QUESTION 50
You upgraded your database from pre-12c to a multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDBs).
Examine the query and its output:

Which two tasks must you perform to add users with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege to the password file?

A. Assign the appropriate operating system groups to SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, SYSKM.


B. Grant SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges to the intended users.
C. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege and the FORCE argument set to No.
D. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege, and FORCE arguments set to Yes.
E. Re-create the password file in the Oracle Database 12c format.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*orapwd
/ You can create a database password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD.
The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:
orapwd FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers] [FORCE={y|n}] [ASM={y|n}]

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[DBUNIQUENAME=dbname] [FORMAT={12|legacy}] [SYSBACKUP={y|n}] [SYSDG={y|n}]
[SYSKM={y|n}] [DELETE={y|n}] [INPUT_FILE=input-fname]
force - whether to overwrite existing file (optional),
*v$PWFILE_users
/ 12c: V$PWFILE_USERS lists all users in the password file, and indicates whether the user has been granted the SYSDBA, SYSOPER, SYSASM, SYSBACKUP,
SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges.
/ 10c: sts users who have been granted SYSDBA and SYSOPER privileges as derived from the password file.
ColumnDatatypeDescription
USERNAMEVARCHAR2(30)The name of the user that is contained in the password file SYSDBAVARCHAR2(5)If TRUE, the user can connect with SYSDBA
privileges SYSOPERVARCHAR2(5)If TRUE, the user can connect with SYSOPER privileges
Incorrect:
not E: The format of the v$PWFILE_users file is already in 12c format.

QUESTION 51
An application accesses a small lookup table frequently. You notice that the required data blocks are getting aged out of the default buffer cache.
How would you guarantee that the blocks for the table never age out?

A. Configure the KEEP buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
B. Increase the database buffer cache size.
C. Configure the RECYCLE buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
D. Configure Automata Shared Memory Management.
E. Configure Automatic Memory Management-

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Schema objects are referenced with varying usage patterns; therefore, their cache behavior may be quite different. Multiple buffer pools enable you to address
these differences. You can use a KEEP buffer pool to maintain objects in the buffer cache and a RECYCLE buffer pool to prevent objects from consuming
unnecessary space in the cache. When an object is allocated to a cache, all blocks from that object are placed in that cache. Oracle maintains a DEFAULT buffer
pool for objects that have not been assigned to one of the buffer pools.

QUESTION 52
You conned using SQL Plus to the root container of a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privilege.
The CDB has several pluggable databases (PDBs) open in the read/write mode.
There are ongoing transactions in both the CDB and PDBs.
What happens alter issuing the SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL statement?

A. The shutdown proceeds immediately. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the PDBs are either committed or rolled hack.

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B. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the CDB are either committed or rolled back.
C. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in both the CDB and PDBs are either committed or rolled back.
D. The statement results in an error because there are open PDBs.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*SHUTDOWN [ABORT | IMMEDIATE | NORMAL | TRANSACTIONAL [LOCAL]]
Shuts down a currently running Oracle Database instance, optionally closing and dismounting a database. If the current database is a pluggable database, only the
pluggable database is closed. The consolidated instance continues to run.
Shutdown commands that wait for current calls to complete or users to disconnect such as SHUTDOWN NORMAL and SHUTDOWN
TRANSACTIONAL have a time limit that the SHUTDOWN command will wait. If all events blocking the shutdown have not occurred within the time limit, the
shutdown command cancels with the following message:
ORA-01013: user requested cancel of current operation
*If logged into a CDB, shutdown closes the CDB instance.
To shutdown a CDB or non CDB, you must be connected to the CDB or non CDB instance that you want to close, and then enter
SHUTDOWN
Database closed.
Database dismounted.
Oracle instance shut down.
To shutdown a PDB, you must log into the PDB to issue the SHUTDOWN command.
SHUTDOWN
Pluggable Database closed.
Note:
*Prerequisites for PDB Shutdown
When the current container is a pluggable database (PDB), the SHUTDOWN command can only be used if:
The current user has SYSDBA, SYSOPER, SYSBACKUP, or SYSDG system privilege.
The privilege is either commonly granted or locally granted in the PDB.
The current user exercises the privilege using AS SYSDBA, AS SYSOPER, AS SYSBACKUP, or AS SYSDG at connect time.
To close a PDB, the PDB must be open.

QUESTION 53
You are planning the creation of a new multitenant container database (CDB) and want to store the ROOT and SEED container data files in separate directories.
You plan to create the database using SQL statements.
Which three techniques can you use to achieve this?

A. Use Oracle Managed Files (OMF).


B. Specify the SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause.
C. Specify the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT initialization parameter.

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D. Specify the DB_FILE_NAMECONVERT initialization parameter.
E. Specify all files in the CREATE DATABASE statement without using Oracle managed Files (OMF).

Correct Answer: ABC


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
You must specify the names and locations of the seed's files in one of the following ways:
*(A) Oracle Managed Files
*(B) The SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT Clause
*(C) The PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT Initialization Parameter

QUESTION 54
You are about to plug a multi-terabyte non-CDB into an existing multitenant container database (CDB).
The characteristics of the non-CDB are as follows:
–Version: Oracle Database 11gRelease 2 (11.2.0.2.0) 64-bit
–Character set: AL32UTF8
–National character set: AL16UTF16
–O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit
The characteristics of the CDB are as follows:
–Version: Oracle Database 12c Release 1 64-bit
–Character Set: AL32UTF8
–National character set: AL16UTF16– O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit
Which technique should you use to minimize down time while plugging this non-CDB into the CDB?

A. Transportable database
B. Transportable tablespace
C. Data Pump full export/import
D. The DBMS_PDB package
E. RMAN

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
* Overview, example:
-Log into ncdb12c as sys
-Get the database in a consistent state by shutting it down cleanly.

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-Open the database in read only mode
-Run DBMS_PDB.DESCRIBE to create an XML file describing the database.
-Shut down ncdb12c
-Connect to target CDB (CDB2)
-Check whether non-cdb (NCDB12c) can be plugged into CDB(CDB2) - Plug-in Non-CDB (NCDB12c) as PDB(NCDB12c) into target CDB(CDB2).
-Access the PDB and run the noncdb_to_pdb.sql script.- Open the new PDB in read/write mode.
*You can easily plug an Oracle Database 12c non-CDB into a CDB. Just create a PDB manifest file for the non-CDB, and then use the manifest file tocreate a
cloned PDB in the CDB.
*Note that to plug in a non-CDB database into a CDB, the non-CDB database needs to be of version 12c as well. So existing 11g databases will need tobe
upgraded to 12c before they can be part of a 12c CDB.

QUESTION 55
Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) application. The application is undergoing some major schema changes, such as addition of new
indexes and materialized views. You want to check the impact of these changes on workload performance.
What should you use to achieve this?

A. Database replay
B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
E. Automatic Workload Repository compare reports

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
You can use the SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze the SQL performance impact of any type of system change. Examples of common system changes include:
Database upgrades
Configuration changes to the operating system, hardware, or database
Database initialization parameter changes
Schema changes, such as adding new indexes or materialized views
Gathering optimizer statistics
SQL tuning actions, such as creating SQL profiles http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28318/intro.htm#CNCPT961

QUESTION 56
An administrator account is granted the CREATE SESSION and SET CONTAINER system privileges.
A multitenant container database (CDB) instant has the following parameter set:
THREADED_EXECUTION = FALSE
Which four statements are true about this administrator establishing connections to root in a CDB that has been opened in read only mode?

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A. You can conned as a common user by using the connect statement.
B. You can connect as a local user by using the connect statement.
C. You can connect by using easy connect.
D. You can connect by using OS authentication.
E. You can connect by using a Net Service name.
F. You can connect as a local user by using the SET CONTAINER statement.

Correct Answer: CDEF


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*The choice of threading model is dictated by the THREADED_EXECUTION initialization parameter.
THREADED_EXECUTION=FALSE : The default value causes Oracle to run using the multiprocess model.
THREADED_EXECUTION=TRUE : Oracle runs with the multithreaded model.
*OS Authentication is not supported with the multithreaded model.
*THREADED_EXECUTION
When this initialization parameter is set to TRUE, which enables the multithreaded Oracle model, operating system authentication is not supported.
Attempts to connect to the database using operating system authentication (for example, CONNECT / AS SYSDBA or CONNECT / ) when this initialization
parameter is set to TRUE receive an ORA-01031"insufficient privileges" error.
F: The new SET CONTAINER statement within a call back function:
The advantage of SET CONTAINER is that the pool does not have to create a new connection to a PDB, if there is an exisitng connection to a different PDB. The
pool can use the existing connection, and through SET CONTAINER, can connect to the desired PDB. This can be done using: ALTER SESSION SET
CONTAINER=<PDB Name>
This avoids the need to create a new connection from scratch.

QUESTION 57
Examine the following query output:

You issue the following command to import tables into the hr schema:
$ > impdp hr/hr directory = dumpdir dumpfile = hr_new.dmp schemas=hr TRANSFORM=DISABLE_ARCHIVE_LOGGING: Y Which statement is true?

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A. All database operations performed by the impdp command are logged.
B. Only CREATE INDEX and CREATE TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
C. Only CREATE TABLE and ALTER TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
D. None of the operations against the master table used by Oracle Data Pump to coordinate its activities are logged.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Oracle Data Pump disable redo logging when loading data into tables and when creating indexes.
The new TRANSFORM option introduced in data pumps import provides the flexibility to turn off the redo generation for the objects during the course of import.
The Master Table is used to track the detailed progress information of a Data Pump job.
The Master Table is created in the schema of the current user running the Pump Dump export or import, and it keeps tracks of lots of detailed information.

QUESTION 58
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle database and you want to know which change has made this performance difference.
You generate the Compare Period Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report to further investigation.
Which three findings would you get from the report?

A. It detects any configuration change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
B. It identifies any workload change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
C. It detects the top wait events causing performance degradation.
D. It shows the resource usage for CPU, memory, and I/O in both time periods.
E. It shows the difference in the size of memory pools in both time periods.
F. It gives information about statistics collection in both time periods.

Correct Answer: ABD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Keyword: shows the difference.
*Full ADDM analysis across two AWR snapshot periods
Detects causes, measure effects, then correlates them
Causes: workload changes, configuration changes
Effects: regressed SQL, reach resource limits (CPU, I/O, memory, interconnect)
Makes actionable recommendations along with quantified impact
*Identify what changed

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/ Configuration changes, workload changes
*Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally in the past, such as 6 months ago, but has graduallydegraded to a
point where it becomes noticeable to the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report enables you to compare database
performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR Compare Periods report shows the difference (ABE) between two
periods (or two AWR reports with a total of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed performance attributes and
configuration settings that differ between two time periods.

QUESTION 59
Examine the parameter for your database instance:

You generated the execution plan for the following query in the plan table and noticed that the nested loop join was done. After actual execution of the query, you
notice that the hash join was done in the execution plan:

Identify the reason why the optimizer chose different execution plans.

A. The optimizer used a dynamic plan for the query.


B. The optimizer chose different plans because automatic dynamic sampling was enabled.
C. The optimizer used re-optimization cardinality feedback for the query.
D. The optimizer chose different plan because extended statistics were created for the columns used.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
* optimizer_dynamic_sampling
OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls both when the database gathers dynamic statistics, and the size of the sample that the optimizer uses to gather the
statistics.
Range of values0 to 11

QUESTION 60
Which three statements are true about adaptive SQL plan management?

A. It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when they perform better than existing accepted plans.
B. The optimizer always uses the fixed plan, if the fixed plan exists in the plan baseline.
C. It adds new, bettor plans automatically as fixed plans to the baseline.
D. The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform better than the existing accepted plans.
E. The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode, during the nightly maintenance window and a
persistent verification report is generated.

Correct Answer: ADE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
With adaptive SQL plan management, DBAs no longer have to manually run the verification or evolve process for non-accepted plans. When automatic SQL tuning
is in COMPREHENSIVE mode, it runs a verification or evolve process for all SQL statements that have non-accepted plans during the nightly maintenance window.
If the non-accepted plan performs better than the existing accepted plan (or plans) in the SQL plan baseline, then the plan is automatically accepted and becomes
usable by the optimizer. After the verification is complete, a persistent report is generated detailing how the nonaccepted plan performs compared to the accepted
plan performance. Because the evolve process is now an AUTOTASK, DBAs can also schedule their own evolve job at end time.
Note:
*The optimizer is able to adapt plans on the fly by predetermining multiple subplans for portions of the plan.
*Adaptive plans, introduced in Oracle Database 12c, enable the optimizer to defer the final plan decision for a statement until execution time. Theoptimizer
instruments its chosen plan (the default plan) with statistics collectors so that it can detect at runtime, if its cardinality estimates differ greatly from the actual
number of rows seen by the operations in the plan. If there is a significant difference, then the plan or a portion of it will be automatically adapted to avoid
suboptimal performance on the first execution of a SQL statement.

QUESTION 61
You create a new pluggable database, HR_PDB, from the seed database. Which three tablespaces are created by default in HR_PDB?

A. SYSTEM
B. SYSAUX
C. EXAMPLE
D. UNDO

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E. TEMP
F. USERS

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces.It can also contains other user created tablespaces in it.
*Oracle Database creates both the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces as part of every database.
*tablespace_datafile_clauses
Use these clauses to specify attributes for all data files comprising the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces in the seed PDB.
Incorrect:
Not D: a PDB can not have an undo tablespace. Instead, it uses the undo tablespace belonging to the CDB.
Note:
*Example:
CONN pdb_admin@pdb1
SELECT tablespace_name FROM dba_tablespaces;
TABLESPACE_NAME ------------------------------
SYSTEM SYSAUX TEMP
USERS
SQL>

QUESTION 62
Which two statements are true about variable extent size support for large ASM files?

A. The metadata used to track extents in SGA is reduced.


B. Rebalance operations are completed faster than with a fixed extent size
C. An ASM Instance automatically allocates an appropriate extent size.
D. Resync operations are completed faster when a disk comes online after being taken offline.
E. Performance improves in a stretch cluster configuration by reading from a local copy of an extent.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A: Variable size extents enable support for larger ASM datafiles, reduce SGA memory requirements for very large databases (A), and improve performance for file
create and open operations.
C: You don't have to worry about the sizes; the ASM instance automatically allocates the appropriate extent size.

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Note:
*The contents of ASM files are stored in a disk group as a set, or collection, of data extents that are stored on individual disks within disk groups. Eachextent
resides on an individual disk. Extents consist of one or more allocation units (AU). To accommodate increasingly larger files, ASM uses variable size extents.
*The size of the extent map that defines a file can be smaller by a factor of 8 and 64 depending on the file size. The initial extent size is equal to theallocation unit
size and it increases by a factor of 8 and 64 at predefined thresholds. This feature is automatic for newly created and resized datafiles when the disk group
compatibility attributes are set to Oracle Release 11 or higher.

QUESTION 63
You executed a DROP USER CASCADE on an Oracle 11g release 1 database and immediately realized that you forgot to copy the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table
to the OCP schema.
The RECYCLE_BIN enabled before the DROP USER was executed and the OCP user has been granted the FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege.
What is the quickest way to recover the contents of the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema?

A. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO OCP.EXAM_RESULTS; connected as SYSTEM.
B. Recover the table using traditional Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
C. Recover the table using Automated Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
D. Recovery the table using Database Point In Time Recovery.
E. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO EXAM_RESULTS; connected as the OCP user.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
RMAN tablespace point-in-time recovery (TSPITR).
Recovery Manager (RMAN) TSPITR enables quick recovery of one or more tablespaces in a database to an earlier time without affecting the rest of the
tablespaces and objects in the database.
Fully Automated (the default)
In this mode, RMAN manages the entire TSPITR process including the auxiliary instance. You specify the tablespaces of the recovery set, an auxiliary destination,
the target time, and you allow RMAN to manage all other aspects of TSPITR.
The default mode is recommended unless you specifically need more control over the location of recovery set files after TSPITR, auxiliary set files during TSPITR,
channel settings and parameters or some other aspect of your auxiliary instance.

QUESTION 64
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), the HR user executes the following commands to create and grant privileges
on a procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE create_test_v (v_emp_id NUMBER, v_ename VARCHAR2, v_SALARY NUMBER, v_dept_id NUMBER) BEGIN
INSERT INTO hr.test VALUES (V_emp_id, V_ename, V_salary, V_dept_id);
END;
/
GRANT EXECUTE ON CREATE_TEST TO john, jim, smith, king;

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How can you prevent users having the EXECUTE privilege on the CREATE_TEST procedure from inserting values into tables on which they do not have any
privileges?

A. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure with definer’s rights.


B. Grant the EXECUTE privilege to users with GRANT OPTION on the CREATE_TEST procedure.
C. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure with invoker’s rights.
D. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure as part of a package and grant users the EXECUTE privilege the package.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
If a program unit does not need to be executed with the escalated privileges of the definer, you should specify that the program unit executes with the privileges of
the caller, also known as the invoker. Invoker's rights can mitigate the risk of SQL injection.
Incorrect:
Not A: By default, stored procedures and SQL methods execute with the privileges of their owner, not their current user. Such definer-rights subprograms are
bound to the schema in which they reside. not B: Using the GRANT option, a user can grant an Object privilege to another user or to PUBLIC.

QUESTION 65
You created a new database using the "create database" statement without specifying the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE" clause.
What are two effects of not using the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE database" clause?

A. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never contain a PDB.


B. The database is treated as a PDB and must be plugged into an existing multitenant container database (CDB).
C. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never be plugged into a CDB.
D. The database is created as a non-CDB but can be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. The database is created as a non-CDB but will become a CDB whenever the first PDB is plugged in.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A (not B,not E): The CREATE DATABASE ... ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE
PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then the newly created database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.
D: You can create a PDB by plugging in a Non-CDB as a PDB.
The following graphic depicts the options for creating a PDB:

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Incorrect:
Not E: For the duration of its existence, a database is either a CDB or a non-CDB. You cannot transform a non-CDB into a CDB or vice versa. You must define a
database as a CDB at creation, and then create PDBs within this CDB.

QUESTION 66
What is the effect of specifying the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE" clause in a "CREATE DATABASE” statement?

A. It will create a multitenant container database (CDB) with only the root opened.
B. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed read only.
C. It will create a CDB with root and seed opened and one PDB mounted.
D. It will create a CDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed mounted.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*The CREATE DATABASE ... ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLEDATABASE
clause, then the newly created database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.
Along with the root (CDB$ROOT), Oracle Database automatically creates a seed PDB (PDB$SEED). The following graphic shows a newly created CDB:

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*Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB
is created when the CDB is created. (Here, we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has the name
PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is
just an optimization device. The create PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation.

QUESTION 67
You have installed two 64G flash devices to support the Database Smart Flash Cache feature on your database server that is running on Oracle Linux.
You have set the DB_SMART_FLASH_FILE parameter:
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE= ‘/dev/flash_device_1 ‘,’ /dev/flash_device_2’ How should the DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE be configured to use both devices?

A. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G.


B. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G, 64G
C. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 128G.
D. DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE is automatically configured by the instance at startup.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
* Smart Flash Cache concept is not new in Oracle 12C - DB Smart Flash Cache in Oracle 11g.
In this release Oracle has made changes related to both initialization parameters used by DB Smart Flash cache. Now you can define many files|devices and its
sizes for “Database Smart Flash Cache” area. In previous releases only one file|device could be defined.
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = /dev/sda, /dev/sdb, /dev/sdc
DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE = 32G, 32G, 64G
So above settings defines 3 devices which will be in use by “DB Smart Flash Cache”
/dev/sda – size 32G
/dev/sdb – size 32G
/dev/sdc – size 64G
New view V$FLASHFILESTAT – it’s used to determine the cumulative latency and read counts of each file|device and compute the average latency

QUESTION 68
Examine the following parameters for a database instance:
MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0
MEMORY_TARGET=0
SGA_TARGET=0
PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=500m
Which three initialization parameters are not controlled by Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM)?

A. LOG_BUFFER

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B. SORT_AREA_SIZE
C. JAVA_POOL_SIZE
D. STREAMS_POOL_SIZE
E. DB_16K_CACHE_SZIE
F. DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE

Correct Answer: AEF


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Manually Sized SGA Components that Use SGA_TARGET Space
SGA Component, Initialization Parameter
/ The log buffer
LOG_BUFFER
/ The keep and recycle buffer caches
DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE
DB_RECYCLE_CACHE_SIZE
/ Nonstandard block size buffer caches
DB_nK_CACHE_SIZE
Note:
*In addition to setting SGA_TARGET to a nonzero value, you must set to zero all initialization parameters listed in the table below to enable fullautomatic tuning of
the automatically sized SGA components.
*Table, Automatically Sized SGA Components and Corresponding Parameters

QUESTION 69
Examine the contents of SQL loader control file:

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Which three statements are true regarding the SQL* Loader operation performed using the control file?

A. An EMP table is created if a table does not exist. Otherwise, if the EMP table is appended with the loaded data.
B. The SQL* Loader data file myfile1.dat has the column names for the EMP table.
C. The SQL* Loader operation fails because no record terminators are specified.
D. Field names should be the first line in the both the SQL* Loader data files.
E. The SQL* Loader operation assumes that the file must be a stream record format file with the normal carriage return string as the record terminator.

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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A: The APPEND keyword tells SQL*Loader to preserve any preexisting data in the table. Other options allow you to delete preexisting data, or to fail with an error if
the table is not empty to begin with.
B (not D):
Note:
*SQL*Loader-00210: first data file is empty, cannot process the FIELD NAMES record
Cause: The data file listed in the next message was empty. Therefore, the FIELD NAMES FIRST FILE directive could not be processed. Action: Check the listed
data file and fix it. Then retry the operation
E:
*A comma-separated values (CSV) (also sometimes called character-separated values, because the separator character does not have to be acomma) file stores
tabular data (numbers and text) in plain-text form. Plain text means that the file is a sequence of characters, with no data that has to be interpreted instead, as
binary numbers. A CSV file consists of any number of records, separated by line breaks of some kind; each record consists of fields, separated by some other
character or string, most commonly a literal comma or tab. Usually, all records have an identical sequence of fields. * Fields with embedded commas must be
quoted.
Example:
1997,Ford,E350,"Super, luxurious truck"
Note:
*SQL*Loader is a bulk loader utility used for moving data from external files into the Oracle database.

QUESTION 70
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), you granted the CREATE TABLE privilege to the common user C
# # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs. You execute the following command from the root container: SQL > REVOKE create table FROM C # # A_ADMIN; What is the
result?

A. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root only.
B. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not used.
C. It excludes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs.
D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not used.
E. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in all PDBs.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
REVOKE ..FROM
If the current container is the root:
/ Specify CONTAINER = CURRENT to revoke a locally granted system privilege, object privilege, or role from a common user or common role. The privilege or role
is revoked from the user or role only in the root. This clause does not revoke privileges granted with CONTAINER = ALL.
/ Specify CONTAINER = ALL to revoke a commonly granted system privilege, object privilege on a common object, or role from a common user or common role.
The privilege or role is revoked from the user or role across the entire CDB. This clause can revoke only a privilege or role granted with CONTAINER = ALL from
the specified common user or common role. This clause does not revoke privileges granted locally with CONTAINER = CURRENT. However, any locally granted

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privileges that depend on the commonly granted privilege being revoked are also revoked.
If you omit this clause, then CONTAINER = CURRENT is the default.

QUESTION 71
Which two statements are true concerning the Resource Manager plans for individual pluggable databases (PDB plans) in a multitenant container database
(CDB)?

A. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then all sessions for that PDB are treated to an equal degree of the resource share of that PDB.
B. In a PDB plan, subplans may be used with up to eight consumer groups.
C. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups across all PDBs in the CDB.
D. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then the PDB share in the CDB plan is dynamically calculated.
E. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups based on the shares provided to the PDB in the CDB plan
and the shares provided to the consumer groups in the PDB plan.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A: Setting a PDB resource plan is optional. If not specified, all sessions within the PDB are treated equally.
*
In a non-CDB database, workloads within a database are managed with resource plans.
In a PDB, workloads are also managed with resource plans, also called PDB resource plans. The functionality is similar except for the following differences:
/ Non-CDB Database
Multi-level resource plans
Up to 32 consumer groups
Subplans
/ PDB Database
Single-level resource plans only
Up to 8 consumer groups
(not B) No subplans

QUESTION 72
You use a recovery catalog for maintaining your database backups.
You execute the following command:
$rman TARGET / CATALOG rman / cat@catdb
RMAN > BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
Which two statements are true?

A. Corrupted blocks, if any, are repaired.

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B. Checks are performed for physical corruptions.
C. Checks are performed for logical corruptions.
D. Checks are performed to confirm whether all database files exist in correct locations
E. Backup sets containing both data files and archive logs are created.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
B (not C): You can validate that all database files and archived redo logs can be backed up by running a command as follows:
RMAN> BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
This form of the command would check for physical corruption. To check for logical corruption,
RMAN> BACKUP VALIDATE CHECK LOGICAL DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
D: You can use the VALIDATE keyword of the BACKUP command to do the following:
Check datafiles for physical and logical corruption
Confirm that all database files exist and are in the correct locations.
Note:
You can use the VALIDATE option of the BACKUP command to verify that database files exist and are in the correct locations (D), and have no physical or logical
corruptions that would prevent RMAN from creating backups of them. When performing a BACKUP...VALIDATE, RMAN reads the files to be backed up in their
entirety, as it would during a real backup. It does not, however, actually produce any backup sets or image copies (Not A, not E).

QUESTION 73
Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture?

A. Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
B. A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
C. PDBs can share the sysaux tablespace.
D. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
E. Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
F. PDBs share a common system tablespace.
G. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.

Correct Answer: BDG


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
B:

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*A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces.It can also contains other user created tablespaces in it.
*There is one default temporary tablespace for the entire CDB. However, you can create additional temporary tablespaces in individual PDBs.D:
*There is a single redo log and a single control file for an entire CDB
*A log switch is the point at which the database stops writing to one redo log file and begins writing to another. Normally, a log switch occurs when thecurrent redo
log file is completely filled and writing must continue to the next redo log file.
G: instance recovery
The automatic application of redo log records to uncommitted data blocks when an database instance is restarted after a failure.
Incorrect:
Not A:
*There is one set of background processes shared by the root and all PDBs. –
*High consolidation density. The many pluggable databases in a single container database share its memory and background processes, letting youoperate many
more pluggable databases on a particular platform than you can single databases that use the old architecture.
Not C: There is a separate SYSAUX tablespace for the root and for each PDB.
Not F: There is a separate SYSTEM tablespace for the root and for each PDB. -

QUESTION 74
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.
The job belongs to a scheduler job class and window.
Which two actions would reduce the job's elapsed time?

A. Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job's relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job's job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
D. Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
E. Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F. Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
B: Job priorities are used only to prioritize among jobs in the same class.
Note: Group jobs for prioritization
Within the same job class, you can assign priority values of 1-5 to individual jobs so that if two jobs in the class are scheduled to start at the same time, the one
with the higher priority takes precedence. This ensures that you do not have a less important job preventing the timely completion of a more important one.
C: Set resource allocation for member jobs
Job classes provide the link between the Database Resource Manager and the Scheduler, because each job class can specify a resource consumer group as an
attribute. Member jobs then belong to the specified consumer group and are assigned resources according to settings in the current resource plan.

QUESTION 75

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You plan to migrate your database from a File system to Automata Storage Management (ASM) on same platform.
Which two methods or commands would you use to accomplish this task?

A. RMAN CONVERT command


B. Data Pump Export and import
C. Conventional Export and Import
D. The BACKUP AS COPY DATABASE . . . command of RMAN
E. DBMS_FILE_TRANSFER with transportable tablespace

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A:
1. Get the list of all datafiles.
Note: RMAN Backup of ASM Storage
There is often a need to move the files from the file system to the ASM storage and vice versa. This may come in handy when one of the file systems is corrupted
by some means and then the file may need to be moved to the other file system.
D: Migrating a Database into ASM
*To take advantage of Automatic Storage Management with an existing database you must migrate that database into ASM. This migration isperformed using
Recovery Manager (RMAN) even if you are not using RMAN for your primary backup and recovery strategy.
*Example:
Back up your database files as copies to the ASM disk group.
BACKUP AS COPY INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE FORMAT '+DISK' TAG 'ORA_ASM_MIGRATION';

QUESTION 76
You run a script that completes successfully using SQL*Plus that performs these actions:
1.Creates a multitenant container database (CDB)
2.Plugs in three pluggable databases (PDBs)
3.Shuts down the CDB instance
4.Starts up the CDB instance using STARTUP OPEN READ WRITEWhich two statements are true about the outcome after running the script?

A. The seed will be in mount state.


B. The seed will be opened read-only.
C. The seed will be opened read/write.
D. The other PDBs will be in mount state.
E. The other PDBs will be opened read-only.
F. The PDBs will be opened read/write.

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Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
B: The seed is always read-only.
D: Pluggable databases can be started and stopped using SQL*Plus commands or the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.

QUESTION 77
You execute the following piece of code with appropriate privileges:

User SCOTT has been granted the CREATE SESSION privilege and the MGR role.
Which two statements are true when a session logged in as SCOTT queries the SAL column in the view and the table?

A. Data is redacted for the EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session does not have the MGR role set.
B. Data is redacted for EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
C. Data is never redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column.
D. Data is redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
E. Data is redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column only if the SCOTT session does not have the MGR role set.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Note:
*DBMS_REDACT.FULL completely redacts the column data.
*DBMS_REDACT.NONE applies no redaction on the column data. Use this function for development testing purposes. LOB columns are not supported.* The
DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-
privileged users or an application.
*If you create a view chain (that is, a view based on another view), then the Data Redaction policy also applies throughout this view chain. The policiesremain in
effect all of the way up through this view chain, but if another policy is created for one of these views, then for the columns affected in the subsequent views, this
new policy takes precedence.

QUESTION 78
Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running. You stopped the wrong listener LISTENER by issuing the following command:
1snrctl > STOP
What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?

A. They are able to perform only queries.


B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The listener is used when the connection is established. The immediate impact of stopping the listener will be that no new session can be established from a
remote host. Existing sessions are not compromised.

QUESTION 79
Which three statements are true about using flashback database in a multitenant container database (CDB)?

A. The root container can be flashed back without flashing back the pluggable databases (PDBs).
B. To enable flashback database, the CDB must be mounted.
C. Individual PDBs can be flashed back without flashing back the entire CDB.
D. The DB_FLASHBACK RETENTION_TARGET parameter must be set to enable flashback of the CDB.
E. A CDB can be flashed back specifying the desired target point in time or an SCN, but not a restore point.

Correct Answer: BDE

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 80
You execute the following PL/SQL:

Which two statements are true?

A. Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) is enabled for the PRICE column in the PRODUCTS table for SELECT statements only when a row with PRICE > 10000 is
accessed.
B. FGA is enabled for the PRODUCTS.PRICE column and an audit record is written whenever a row with PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
C. FGA is enabled for all DML operations by JIM on the PRODUCTS.PRICE column.
D. FGA is enabled for the PRICE column of the PRODUCTS table and the SQL statements is captured in the FGA audit trial.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
DBMS_FGA.add_policy
* The DBMS_FGA package provides fine-grained security functions. * ADD_POLICY Procedure
This procedure creates an audit policy using the supplied predicate as the audit condition.
Incorrect:
Not C: object_schema

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The schema of the object to be audited. (If NULL, the current log-on user schema is assumed.)

QUESTION 81
You execute the following commands to audit database activities:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRIAL=DB, EXTENDED SCOPE=SPFILE;
SQL > AUDIT SELECT TABLE, INSERT TABLE, DELETE TABLE BY JOHN By SESSION WHENEVER SUCCESSFUL;
Which statement is true about the audit record that generated when auditing after instance restarts?

A. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command on a table, and contains the SQL text for the SQL
Statements.
B. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL
statements.
C. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for
the SQL statements.
D. One audit record is created for the whole session if JOHN successfully executes a select command, and contains the SQL text and bind variables used.
E. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command on a table, and contains the
execution plan, SQL text, and bind variables used.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Note:
*BY SESSION
In earlier releases, BY SESSION caused the database to write a single record for all SQL statements or operations of the same type executed on the same
schema objects in the same session. Beginning with this release (11g) of Oracle Database, both BY SESSION and BY ACCESS cause Oracle Database to write
one audit record for each audited statement and operation. * BY ACCESS
Specify BY ACCESS if you want Oracle Database to write one record for each audited statement and operation.
Note:
If you specify either a SQL statement shortcut or a system privilege that audits a data definition language (DDL) statement, then the database always audits by
access. In all other cases, the database honors the BY SESSION or BY ACCESS specification.
*For each audited operation, Oracle Database produces an audit record containing thisinformation:
/ The user performing the operation / The type of operation
/ The object involved in the operation / The date and time of the operation

QUESTION 82
You support Oracle Database 12c Oracle Database 11g, and Oracle Database log on the same server.
All databases of all versions use Automatic Storage Management (ASM).
Which three statements are true about the ASM disk group compatibility attributes that are set for a disk group?

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A. The ASM compatibility attribute controls the format of the disk group metadata.
B. RDBMS compatibility together with the database version determines whether a database Instance can mount the ASM disk group.
C. The RDBMS compatibility setting allows only databases set to the same version as the compatibility value, to mount the ASM disk group.
D. The ASM compatibility attribute determines some of the ASM features that may be used by the Oracle disk group.
E. The ADVM compatibility attribute determines the ACFS features that may be used by the Oracle 10 g database.

Correct Answer: ABD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
AD: The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute determines the minimum software version for an Oracle ASM instance that can use the disk group.
This setting also affects the format of the data structures for the Oracle ASM metadata on the disk.
B: The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute determines the minimum COMPATIBLE database initialization parameter setting for any database
instance that is allowed to use the disk group. Before advancing the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute, ensure that the values for the COMPATIBLE initialization
parameter for all of the databases that access the disk group are set to at least the value of the new setting for
COMPATIBLE.RDBMS.
For example, if the COMPATIBLE initialization parameters of the databases are set to either 11.1 or 11.2, then COMPATIBLE.RDBMS can be set to any value
between 10.1 and 11.1 inclusively.
Not E:
/The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.ADVM attribute determines whether the disk group can contain Oracle ASM volumes. The value must be set to 11.2 or
higher. Before setting this attribute, the COMPATIBLE.ASM value must be 11.2 or higher. Also, the Oracle ADVM volume drivers must be loaded in the supported
environment.
/ You can create an Oracle ASM Dynamic Volume Manager (Oracle ADVM) volume in a disk group. The volume device associated with the dynamic volume can
then be used to host an Oracle ACFS file system.
The compatibility parameters COMPATIBLE.ASM and COMPATIBLE.ADVM must be set to 11.2 or higher for the disk group.
Note:
* The disk group attributes that determine compatibility are COMPATIBLE.ASM, COMPATIBLE.RDBMS. and COMPATIBLE.ADVM. The
COMPATIBLE.ASM and COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute settings determine the minimum Oracle Database software version numbers that a system can use for
Oracle ASM and the database instance types respectively. For example, if the Oracle ASM compatibility setting is 11.2, and RDBMS compatibility is set to 11.1,
then the Oracle ASM software version must be at least 11.2, and the Oracle Database client software version must be at least 11.1. The COMPATIBLE.ADVM
attribute determines whether the Oracle ASM Dynamic Volume Manager feature can create an volume in a disk group.

QUESTION 83
To enable the Database Smart Flash Cache, you configure the following parameters:
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = ‘/dev/flash_device_1’ , ‘/dev/flash_device_2’ DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE=64G
What is the result when you start up the database instance?

A. It results in an error because these parameter settings are invalid.


B. One 64G flash cache file will be used.

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C. Two 64G flash cache files will be used.
D. Two 32G flash cache files will be used.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 84
You executed this command to create a password file:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 10 ignorecase = N
Which two statements are true about the password file?

A. It will permit the use of uppercase passwords for database users who have been granted the SYSOPER role.
B. It contains username and passwords of database users who are members of the OSOPER operating system group.
C. It contains usernames and passwords of database users who are members of the OSDBA operating system group.
D. It will permit the use of lowercase passwords for database users who have granted the SYSDBA role.
E. It will not permit the use of mixed case passwords for the database users who have been granted the SYSDBA role.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
* You can create a password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD. * Adding Users to a Password File
When you grant SYSDBA or SYSOPER privileges to a user, that user's name and privilege information are added to the password file. If the server does not have
an EXCLUSIVE password file (that is, if the initialization parameter REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE is NONE or SHARED, or the password file is missing),
Oracle Database issues an error if you attempt to grant these privileges.
A user's name remains in the password file only as long as that user has at least one of these two privileges. If you revoke both of these privileges, Oracle
Database removes the user from the password file. * The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:
ORAPWD FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers]
[FORCE={Y|N}] [IGNORECASE={Y|N}] [NOSYSDBA={Y|N}] * IGNORECASE
If this argument is set to y, passwords are case-insensitive. That is, case is ignored when comparing the password that the user supplies during login with the
password in the password file.

QUESTION 85
Identify three valid methods of opening, pluggable databases (PDBs).

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A. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN ALL ISSUED from the root
B. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN ALL ISSUED from a PDB
C. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from the seed
D. ALTER DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from the root
E. ALTER DATABASE OPEN issued from that PDB
F. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from another PDB
G. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN issued from that PDB

Correct Answer: AEG


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
E: You can perform all ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE tasks by connecting to a PDB and running the corresponding ALTER DATABASE statement. This
functionality is provided to maintain backward compatibility for applications that have been migrated to a CDB environment.
AG: When you issue an ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN statement, READ WRITE is the default unless a PDB being opened belongs to a CDB that is
used as a physical standby database, in which case READ ONLY is the default.
You can specify which PDBs to modify in the following ways:
List one or more PDBs.
Specify ALL to modify all of the PDBs.
Specify ALL EXCEPT to modify all of the PDBs, except for the PDBs listed.

QUESTION 86
You administer an online transaction processing (OLTP) system whose database is stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM) and whose disk group use
normal redundancy.
One of the ASM disks goes offline, and is then dropped because it was not brought online before DISK_REPAIR_TIME elapsed.
When the disk is replaced and added back to the disk group, the ensuing rebalance operation is too slow.
Which two recommendations should you make to speed up the rebalance operation if this type of failure happens again?

A. Increase the value of the ASM_POWER_LIMIT parameter.


B. Set the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute to a lower value.
C. Specify the statement that adds the disk back to the disk group.
D. Increase the number of ASMB processes.
E. Increase the number of DBWR_IO_SLAVES in the ASM instance.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
A: ASM_POWER_LIMIT specifies the maximum power on an Automatic Storage Management instance for disk rebalancing. The higher the limit, the faster
rebalancing will complete. Lower values will take longer, but consume fewer processing and I/O resources.
D:
*Normally a separate process is fired up to do that rebalance. This will take a certain amount of time. If you want it to happen faster, fire up moreprocesses. You tell
ASM it can add more processes by increasing the rebalance power.
*ASMB
ASM Background Process
Communicates with the ASM instance, managing storage and providing statistics
Incorrect:
Not B: A higher, not a lower, value of DISK_REPAIR_TIME would be helpful here.
Not E: If you implement database writer I/O slaves by setting the DBWR_IO_SLAVES parameter, you configure a single (master) DBWR process that has slave
processes that are subservient to it. In addition, I/O slaves can be used to "simulate" asynchronous I/O on platforms that do not support asynchronous I/O or
implement it inefficiently. Database I/O slaves provide non-blocking, asynchronous requests to simulate asynchronous I/O.

QUESTION 87
You are administering a database and you receive a requirement to apply the following restrictions:
1.A connection must be terminated after four unsuccessful login attempts by user.
2.A user should not be able to create more than four simultaneous sessions.
3.User session must be terminated after 15 minutes of inactivity.
4.Users must be prompted to change their passwords every 15 days.
How would you accomplish these requirements?

A. by granting a secure application role to the users


B. by creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter to FALSE
C. By creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameter to 4
D. By Implementing Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) and setting the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORD_FILE parameter to NONE.
E. By implementing the database resource Manager plan and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameters to 4.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
You can design your applications to automatically grant a role to the user who is trying to log in, provided the user meets criteria that you specify. To do so, you
create a secure application role, which is a role that is associated with a PL/SQL procedure (or PL/SQL package that contains multiple procedures). The procedure
validates the user: if the user fails the validation, then the user cannot log in. If the user passes the validation, then the procedure grants the user a role so that he
or she can use the application. The user has this role only as long as he or she is logged in to the application.
When the user logs out, the role is revoked.
Incorrect:
Not B: REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT specifies whether remote clients will be authenticated with the value of the OS_AUTHENT_PREFIX parameter. Not C, not E:

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SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS specifies the number of authentication attempts that can be made by a client on a connection to the server process. After
the specified number of failure attempts, the connection will be automatically dropped by the server process.
Not D: REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE specifies whether Oracle checks for a password file.
Values: shared
One or more databases can use the password file. The password file can contain SYS as well as non-SYS users.
exclusive
The password file can be used by only one database. The password file can contain SYS as well as non-SYS users.
none
Oracle ignores any password file. Therefore, privileged users must be authenticated by the operating system.
Note:
The REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter is deprecated. It is retained for backward compatibility only.

QUESTION 88
A senior DBA asked you to execute the following command to improve performance:
SQL> ALTER TABLE subscribe log STORAGE (BUFFER_POOL recycle);
You checked the data in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table and found that it is a large table containing one million rows.
What could be a reason for this recommendation?

A. The keep pool is not configured.


B. Automatic Workarea Management is not configured.
C. Automatic Shared Memory Management is not enabled.
D. The data blocks in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rarely accessed.
E. All the queries on the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rewritten to a materialized view.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The most of the rows in SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are accessed once a week.

QUESTION 89
Which three tasks can be automatically performed by the Automatic Data Optimization feature of Information lifecycle Management (ILM)?

A. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in a user tablespace
B. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in a user tablespace
C. Tracking insert time by row for table rows
D. Tracking the most recent write time for a table block
E. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace

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F. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace

Correct Answer: ABD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Incorrect:
Not E, Not F When Heat Map is enabled, all accesses are tracked by the in-memory activity tracking module. Objects in the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces
are not tracked.
*To implement your ILM strategy, you can use Heat Map in Oracle Database to track data access and modification.
Heat Map provides data access tracking at the segment-level and data modification tracking at the segment and row level.
*To implement your ILM strategy, you can use Heat Map in Oracle Database to track data access and modification. You can also use Automatic DataOptimization
(ADO) to automate the compression and movement of data between different tiers of storage within the database.

QUESTION 90
Which two partitioned table maintenance operations support asynchronous Global Index Maintenance in Oracle database 12c?

A. ALTER TABLE SPLIT PARTITION


B. ALTER TABLE MERGE PARTITION
C. ALTER TABLE TRUNCATE PARTITION
D. ALTER TABLE ADD PARTITION
E. ALTER TABLE DROP PARTITION
F. ALTER TABLE MOVE PARTITION

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Asynchronous Global Index Maintenance for DROP and TRUNCATE PARTITION
This feature enables global index maintenance to be delayed and decoupled from a DROP and TRUNCATE partition without making a global index unusable.
Enhancements include faster DROP and TRUNCATE partition operations and the ability to delay index maintenance to off-peak time.

QUESTION 91
You configure your database Instance to support shared server connections.
Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server connection?

A. User session data

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B. Stack space
C. Private SQL area
D. Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
E. Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECT statements

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A: PGA itself is subdivided. The UGA (User Global Area) contains session state information, including stuff like package-level variables, cursor state, etc. Note that,
with shared server, the UGA is in the SGA. It has to be, because shared server means that the session state needs to be accessible to all server processes, as any
one of them could be assigned a particular session. However, with dedicated server (which likely what you're using), the UGA is allocated in the PGA.
C: The Location of a private SQL area depends on the type of connection established for a session. If a session is connected through a dedicated server, private
SQL areas are located in the server process’ PGA. However, if a session is connected through a shared server, part of the private SQL area is kept in the SGA.
Note:
*System global area (SGA)
The SGA is a group of shared memory structures, known as SGA components, that contain data and control information for one Oracle Database instance. The
SGA is shared by all server and background processes. Examples of data stored in the SGA include cached data blocks and shared SQL areas.
*Program global area (PGA)
A PGA is a memory region that contains data and control information for a server process. It is nonshared memory created by Oracle Database when a server
process is started. Access to the PGA is exclusive to the server process. There is one PGA for each server process. Background processes also allocate their own
PGAs. The total memory used by all individual PGAs is known as the total instance PGA memory, and the collection of individual PGAs is referred to as the total
instance PGA, or just instance PGA. You use database initialization parameters to set the size of the instance PGA, not individual PGAs.

QUESTION 92
Which two statements are true about Oracle Managed Files (OMF)?

A. OMF cannot be used in a database that already has data files created with user-specified directions.
B. The file system directions that are specified by OMF parameters are created automatically.
C. OMF can be used with ASM disk groups, as well as with raw devices, for better file management.
D. OMF automatically creates unique file names for table spaces and control files.
E. OMF may affect the location of the redo log files and archived log files.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
D: The database internally uses standard file system interfaces to create and delete files as needed for the following database structures:

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Tablespaces
Redo log files Control files
Archived logs
Block change tracking files
Flashback logs RMAN backups
Note:
* Using Oracle-managed files simplifies the administration of an Oracle Database. Oracle-managed files eliminate the need for you, the DBA, to directly manage
the operating system files that make up an Oracle Database. With Oracle-managed files, you specify file system directories in which the database automatically
creates, names, and manages files at the database object level. For example, you need only specify that you want to create a tablespace; you do not need to
specify the name and path of the tablespace's datafile with the DATAFILE clause.
http://www.oracle-base.com/articles/9i/oracle-managed-files.php http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B10500_01/server.920/a96521/omf.htm

QUESTION 93
Which four actions are possible during an Online Data file Move operation?

A. Creating and dropping tables in the data file being moved


B. Performing file shrink of the data file being moved
C. Querying tables in the data file being moved
D. Performing Block Media Recovery for a data block in the data file being moved
E. Flashing back the database
F. Executing DML statements on objects stored in the data file being moved

Correct Answer: ACEF


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
-You can now move On line Datafile without hove to stop Monoged Recovery and manually copy and rename Files. This can even be used to moveDatafiles from
or to ASM.
-New in Oracle Database 12c: FROM METAUNK. Physical Standby Database is in Active Data Guard Mode (opened READ ONLY and ManagedRecovery is
running):
It is now possible to online move a Datafile while Managed Recovery is running, ie. the Physical Standby Database is in Active Data Guard Mode. You con use this
Command to move the Datafile
-A flashback operation does not relocate a moved data file to its previous location. If you move a data file online from one location to another and laterflash back
the database to a point in time before the move, then the Data file remains in the new location, but the contents of the Data file ore changed to the contents at the
time specified in the flashback. Oracle0 Database Administrator's Guide 12c Release 1 (12.1)

QUESTION 94
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains a pluggable database, HR_PDB. The default permanent tablespace in HR_PDB is USERDATA. The container
database (CDB) is open and you connect RMAN.
You want to issue the following RMAN command:

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RMAN > BACKUP TABLESPACE hr_pdb:userdata;
Which task should you perform before issuing the command?

A. Place the root container in ARHCHIVELOG mode.


B. Take the user data tablespace offline.
C. Place the root container in the nomount stage.
D. Ensure that HR_PDB is open.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 95
Identify three scenarios in which you would recommend the use of SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze impact on the performance of SQL statements.

A. Change in the Oracle Database version


B. Change in your network infrastructure
C. Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
D. Migration of database storage from non-ASM to ASM storage
E. Database and operating system upgrade

Correct Answer: ACE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Oracle 11g/12c makes further use of SQL tuning sets with the SQL Performance Analyzer, which compares the performance of the statements in a tuning set
before and after a database change. The database change can be as major or minor as you like, such as:
*(E) Database, operating system, or hardware upgrades.
*(A,C) Database, operating system, or hardware configuration changes.
*Database initialization parameter changes.
*Schema changes, such as adding indexes or materialized views.
*Refreshing optimizer statistics.
*Creating or changing SQL profiles.

QUESTION 96

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Which two statements are true about the RMAN validate database command?

A. It checks the database for intrablock corruptions.


B. It can detect corrupt pfiles.
C. It can detect corrupt spfiles.
D. It checks the database for interblock corruptions.
E. It can detect corrupt block change tracking files.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Block corruptions can be divided Into Interblock corruption and intrablock corruption. In intrablock corruption. th« corruption occurs within the block itself and can be
either physical or logical corruption. In interblock corruption, the corruption occurs between blocks and can only be logical corruption. (key word) * The VALIDATE
command checks for intrablock corruptions only. Only DBVERIFY and the ANALYZE statement detect Interblock corruption.
VALIDATE Command Output ••> List of Control File and SPFILE.
File TYPE >»» SPFILE or Control File.
Status >»» OK if no corruption, or FAILED If block corruption is found. Blocks Failing »»» The number of blocks that fail the corruption check. These blocks are
newly corrupt.
Blocks Examined »»» Total number of blocks in the file.
Oracle' Database Backup and Recovery User's Guide
12c Release 1 (12.1) - 16 Validating Database Files and Backups

QUESTION 97
You install a non-RAC Oracle Database. During Installation, the Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) prompts you to enter the path of the Inventory directory and also to
specify an operating system group name.
Which statement is true?

A. The ORACLE_BASE base parameter is not set.


B. The installation is being performed by the root user.
C. The operating system group that is specified should have the root user as its member.
D. The operating system group that is specified must have permission to write to the inventory directory.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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Note:
Providing a UNIX Group Name
If you are installing a product on a UNIX system, the Installer will also prompt you to provide the name of the group which should own the base directory.
You must choose a UNIX group name which will have permissions to update, install, and deinstall Oracle software. Members of this group must have write
permissions to the base directory chosen.
Only users who belong to this group are able to install or deinstall software on this machine.

QUESTION 98
You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database as a pluggable database (PDB) to a multitenant container database (CDB).
The following are the possible steps to accomplish this task:
1.Place all the user-defined tablespace in read-only mode on the source database.
2.Upgrade the source database to a 12c version.
3.Create a new PDB in the target container database.
4.Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the VERSION parameter set to 12 using the expdp utility.
5.Copy the associated data files and export the dump file to the desired location in the target database.
6.Invoke the Data Pump import utility on the new PDB database as a user with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role and specify the fulltransportable
import options.
7.Synchronize the PDB on the target container database by using the DBMS_PDS.SYNC_ODB function.
Identify the correct order of the required steps.

A. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C. 1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7
D. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
E. 1, 5, 6, 4, 3, 2

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
1.Set user tablespaces in the source database to READ ONLY.
2.From the Oracle Database 11g Release 2 {11.2.0.3) environment, export the metadata and any data residing in administrative tablespaces from thesource
database using the FULL=Y and TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS parameters. Note that the VER$ION=12 parameter is required only when exporting from an Oracle
Database llg Release 2 database:
3.Copy the tablespace data files from the source system to the destination system. Note that the log file from the export operation will list the data filesrequired to
be moved.
4.Create a COB on the destination system, including a PDB into which you will import the source database.
5.In the Oracle Database 12c environment, connect to the pre-created PDB and import the dump file. The act of importing the dump file will plug thetablespace
data files into the destination PDB
Oracle White Paper - Upgrading to Oracle Database 12c -August 2013

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QUESTION 99
In your multitenant container database (CDB) with two pluggable database (PDBs). You want to create a new PDB by using SQL Developer.
Which statement is true?

A. The CDB must be open.


B. The CDB must be in the mount stage.
C. The CDB must be in the nomount stage.
D. Alt existing PDBs must be closed.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
* Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB
is created when the CDB is created. (Here, we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has the name
PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is
just an optimization device. The create PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation. The size of the seed PDB is only about 1
gigabyte and it takes only a few seconds on a typical machine to copy it.

QUESTION 100
Which two statements are true about the Oracle Direct Network File system (DNFS)?

A. It utilizes the OS file system cache.


B. A traditional NFS mount is not required when using Direct NFS.
C. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating kernel NFS driver.
D. Direct NFS is available only in UNIX platforms.
E. Direct NFS can load-balance I/O traffic across multiple network adapters.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
E: Performance is improved by load balancing across multiple network interfaces (if available).
Note:
*To enable Direct NFS Client, you must replace the standard Oracle Disk Manager (ODM) library with one that supports Direct NFS Client.

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Incorrect:
Not A: Direct NFS Client is capable of performing concurrent direct I/O, which bypasses any operating system level caches and eliminates any operating system
write-ordering locks Not B:
*To use Direct NFS Client, the NFS file systems must first be mounted and available over regular NFS mounts.
*Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster and more scalable access to NFS storage located onNAS storage
devices (accessible over TCP/IP).
Not D: Direct NFS is provided as part of the database kernel, and is thus available on all supported database platforms - even those that don't support NFS
natively, like Windows.
Note:
*Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster and more scalable access to NFS storage located onNAS storage
devices (accessible over TCP/IP). Direct NFS is built directly into the database kernel - just like ASM which is mainly used when using DAS or SAN storage.
*Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an internal I/O layer that provides faster access to large NFS files than traditional NFS clients.

QUESTION 101
Examine the parameters for your database instance:

Which three statements are true about the process of automatic optimization by using cardinality feedback?

A. The optimizer automatically changes a plan during subsequent execution of a SQL statement if there is a huge difference in optimizer estimates and execution
statistics.
B. The optimizer can re optimize a query only once using cardinality feedback.
C. The optimizer enables monitoring for cardinality feedback after the first execution of a query.
D. The optimizer does not monitor cardinality feedback if dynamic sampling and multicolumn statistics are enabled.
E. After the optimizer identifies a query as a re-optimization candidate, statistics collected by the collectors are submitted to the optimizer.

Correct Answer: ACD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
C: During the first execution of a SQL statement, an execution plan is generated as usual.
D: if multi-column statistics are not present for the relevant combination of columns, the optimizer can fall back on cardinality feedback.
(not B)* Cardinality feedback. This feature, enabled by default in 11.2, is intended to improve plans for repeated executions.
optimizer_dynamic_sampling optimizer_features_enable

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*dynamic sampling or multi-column statistics allow the optimizer to more accurately estimate selectivity of conjunctive predicates.
Note:
*OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls the level of dynamic sampling performed by the optimizer.
Range of values. 0 to 10
*Cardinality feedback was introduced in Oracle Database 11gR2. The purpose of this feature is to automatically improve plans for queries that areexecuted
repeatedly, for which the optimizer does not estimate cardinalities in the plan properly. The optimizer may misestimate cardinalities for a variety of reasons, such as
missing or inaccurate statistics, or complex predicates. Whatever the reason for the misestimate, cardinality feedback may be able to help.

QUESTION 102
Which three statements are true when the listener handles connection requests to an Oracle 12c database instance with multithreaded architecture enabled In
UNIX?

A. Thread creation must be routed through a dispatcher process


B. The local listener may spawn a now process and have that new process create a thread
C. Each Oracle process runs an SCMN thread.
D. Each multithreaded Oracle process has an SCMN thread.
E. The local listener may pass the request to an existing process which in turn will create a thread.

Correct Answer: ADE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 103
Which three operations can be performed as multipartition operations in Oracle?

A. Merge partitions of a list partitioned table


B. Drop partitions of a list partitioned table
C. Coalesce partitions of a hash-partitioned global index.
D. Move partitions of a range-partitioned table
E. Rename partitions of a range partitioned table
F. Merge partitions of a reference partitioned index

Correct Answer: ABF


Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Multipartition maintenance enables adding, dropping, truncate, merge, split operations on multiple partitions.
A: Merge Multiple Partitions:
The new “ALTER TABLE … MERGE PARTITIONS ” help merge multiple partitions or subpartitions with a single statement. When merging multiple partitions, local
and global index operations and semantics for inheritance of unspecified physical attributes are the same for merging two partitions.
B: Drop Multiple Partitions:
The new “ALTER TABLE … DROP PARTITIONS ” help drop multiple partitions or subpartitions with a single statement.
Example:
view plaincopy to clipboardprint?
SQL> ALTER TABLE Tab_tst1 DROP PARTITIONS
Tab_tst1_PART5, Tab_tst1_PART6, Tab_tst1_PART7;
Table altered
SQL>
Restrictions :
-You can’t drop all partitions of the table.
-If the table has a single partition, you will get the error: ORA-14083: cannot drop the only partition of a partitioned.

QUESTION 104
You are connected using SQL* Plus to a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privileges and execute the following sequence statements:

What is the result of the last SET CONTAINER statement and why is it so?

A. It succeeds because the PDB_ADMIN user has the required privileges.


B. It fails because common users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
C. It fails because local users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
D. If fails because the SET CONTAINER statement cannot be used with PDB$SEED as the target pluggable database (PDB).

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Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 105
Examine the details of the Top 5 Timed Events in the following Automatic Workloads Repository (AWR) report:

What are three possible causes for the latch-related wait events?

A. The size of the shared pool is too small.


B. Cursors are not being shared.
C. A large number COMMITS are being performed.
D. There are frequent logons and logoffs.
E. The buffers are being read into the buffer cache, but some other session is changing the buffers.

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 106
You enabled an audit policy by issuing the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SCOTT;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SYS, SYSTEM;

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For which database users and for which executions is the audit policy now active? Select two.

A. SYS, SYSTEM
B. SCOTT
C. Only for successful executions
D. Only for failed executions
E. Both successful and failed executions

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
* The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings. By default, this policy is not enabled.

QUESTION 107
A redaction policy was added to the SAL column of the SCOTT.EMP table:

All users have their default set of system privileges.


For which three situations will data not be redacted?

A. SYS sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
B. SYSTEM sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
C. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is set in the session
D. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT
E. SCOTT sessions, because he is the owner of the table
F. SYSTEM session, only if the MGR role is set in the session

Correct Answer: ADF


Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
* SYS_CONTEXT
This is a twist on the SYS_CONTEXT function as it does not use USERENV. With this usage SYS_CONTEXT queries the list of the user's current default roles
and returns TRUE if the role is granted.
Example:
SYS_CONTEXT('SYS_SESSION_ROLES', 'SUPERVISOR')
conn scott/tiger@pdborcl
SELECT sys_context('SYS_SESSION_ROLES', 'RESOURCE') FROM dual;
SYS_CONTEXT('SYS_SESSION_ROLES','SUPERVISOR')
---------------------------------------------
FALSE
conn sys@pdborcl as sysdba GRANT resource TO scott; conn scott/tiger@pdborcl
SELECT sys_context('SYS_SESSION_ROLES', 'RESOURCE') FROM dual;
SYS_CONTEXT('SYS_SESSION_ROLES','SUPERVISOR')
---------------------------------------------
TRUE

QUESTION 108
What is the result of executing a TRUNCATE TABLE command on a table that has Flashback Archiving enabled?

A. It fails with the ORA-665610 Invalid DDL statement on history-tracked message


B. The rows in the table are truncated without being archived.
C. The rows in the table are archived, and then truncated.
D. The rows in both the table and the archive are truncated.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
You cannot roll back a TRUNCATE TABLE statement, nor can you use a FLASHBACK TABLE statement to retrieve the contents of a table that has been
truncated.

QUESTION 109
Which three activities are supported by the Data Recovery Advisor?

A. Advising on block checksum failures


B. Advising on inaccessible control files
C. Advising on inaccessible block change tracking files
D. Advising on empty password files

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E. Advising on invalid block header field values

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*Data Recovery Advisor can diagnose failures such as the following:
/ (B) Components such as datafiles and control files that are not accessible because they do not exist, do not have the correct access permissions, have been
taken offline, and so on
/ (A, E) Physical corruptions such as block checksum failures and invalid block header field values
/ Inconsistencies such as a datafile that is older than other database files
/ I/O failures such as hardware errors, operating system driver failures, and exceeding operating system resource limits (for example, the number of open files)
*The Data Recovery Advisor automatically diagnoses corruption or loss of persistent data on disk, determines the appropriate repair options, andexecutes repairs
at the user's request. This reduces the complexity of recovery process, thereby reducing the Mean Time To Recover (MTTR).

QUESTION 110
You create a table with the PERIOD FOR clause to enable the use of the Temporal Validity feature of Oracle Database 12c.
Examine the table definition:

Which three statements are true concerning the use of the Valid Time Temporal feature for the EMPLOYEES table?

A. The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.
B. The same statement may filter on both transaction time and valid temporal time by using the AS OF TIMESTAMP and PERIOD FOR clauses.
C. The valid time columns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.
D. The valid time columns are visible by default when the table is described.
E. Setting the session valid time using DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME sets the visibility for data manipulation language (DML), data
definition language (DDL), and queries performed by the session.

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
A: To implement Temporal Validity(TV), 12c offers the option to have two date columns in that table which is having TV enabled using the new clause Period For in
the Create Table for the newly created tables or in the Alter Table for the existing ones. The columns that are used can be defined while creating the table itself and
will be used in the Period For clause or you can skip having them in the table’s definition in the case of which, the Period For clause would be creating them
internally.
E: ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME Procedure
This procedure enables session level valid time flashback.

QUESTION 111
Which three statements are true regarding the use of the Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU)?

A. A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU


B. The database to be migrated must be opened read-only.
C. The release of the database to be converted can be any release since 9.2.0.8.
D. The DMU can report columns that are too long in the converted characterset.
E. The DMU can report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset.

Correct Answer: ADE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A: In certain situations, you may want to exclude selected columns or tables from scanning or conversion steps of the migration process.
D: Exceed column limit
The cell data will not fit into a column after conversion.
E: Need conversion
The cell data needs to be converted, because its binary representation in the target character set is different than the representation in the current character set,
but neither length limit issues nor invalid representation issues have been found.
* Oracle Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU) is a unique next-generation migration tool providing an end-to-end solution for migrating your databases
from legacy encodings to Unicode.
Incorrect:
Not C: The release of Oracle Database must be 10.2.0.4, 10.2.0.5, 11.1.0.7, 11.2.0.1, or later.

QUESTION 112
Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a stand-alone server is installed on your production host before installing the Oracle Database server. The database and listener are
configured by using Oracle Restart. Examine the following command and its output:
$ crsctl config has
CRS-4622: Oracle High Availability Services auto start is enabled.
What does this imply?

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A. When you start an instance on a high with SQL *Plus dependent listeners and ASM disk groups are automatically started.
B. When a database instance is started by using the SRVCTL utility and listener startup fails, the instance is still started.
C. When a database is created by using SQL* Plus, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
D. When you create a database service by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
About Startup Dependencies
Oracle Restart ensures that Oracle components are started in the proper order, in accordance with component dependencies. For example, if database files are
stored in Oracle ASM disk groups, then before starting the database instance, Oracle Restart ensures that the Oracle ASM instance is started and the required disk
groups are mounted. Likewise, if a component must be shut down, Oracle Restart ensures that dependent components are cleanly shut down first.
Oracle Restart also manages the weak dependency between database instances and the Oracle Net listener (the listener): When a database instance is started,
Oracle Restart attempts to start the listener. If the listener startup fails, then the database is still started. If the listener later fails, Oracle Restart does not shut down
and restart any database instances. http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17636/restart.htm#ADMIN12710

QUESTION 113
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains some pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the following command in the root container:

Which two statements are true?

A. Schema objects owned by the C# # A_ADMIN common user can be shared across all PDBs.
B. The C # # A_ADMIN user will be able to use the TEMP_TS temporary tablespace only in root.
C. The command will, create a common user whose description is contained in the root and each PDB.
D. The schema for the common user C # # A_ADMIN can be different in each container.
E. The command will create a user in the root container only because the container clause is not used.

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Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 114
You performed an incremental level 0 backup of a database:
RMAN > BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE;
To enable block change tracking after the incremental level 0 backup, you issued this command:
SQL > ALTER DATABASE ENABLE BLOCK CHANGE TRACKING USING FILE
‘ /mydir/rman_change_track.f’;
To perform an incremental level 1 cumulative backup, you issued this command:
RMAN> BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1 CUMULATIVE DATABASE;
Which three statements are true?

A. Backup change tracking will sometimes reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
B. The change tracking file must always be backed up when you perform a full database backup.
C. Block change tracking will always reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
D. More than one database block may be read by an incremental backup for a change made to a single block.
E. The incremental level 1 backup that immediately follows the enabling of block change tracking will not read the change tracking file to discover changed blocks.

Correct Answer: CDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Oracle Block Change Tracking
Once enabled; this new 10g feature records the modified since last backup and stores the log of it in a block change tracking file using the CTW (Change Tracking
Writer) process. During backups RMAN uses the log file to identify the specific blocks that must be backed up. This improves RMAN's performance as it does not
have to scan whole datafiles to detect changed blocks. Logging of changed blocks is performed by the CTRW process which is also responsible for writing data to
the block change tracking file.

Note:
* An incremental level 0 backup backs up all blocks that have ever been in use in this database.

QUESTION 115
You find this query being used in your Oracle 12c database:

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Which method a used by the optimizer to limit the rows being returned?

A. A filter is added to the table query dynamically using ROWNUM to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows
B. All the rows are returned to the client or middle tier but only the first 20 percent are returned to the screen or the application.
C. A view is created during execution and a filter on the view limits the rows to 20 percent of the total rows.
D. A TOP-N query is created to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 116
Which two resources might be prioritized between competing pluggable databases when creating a multitenant container database plan (CDB plan) using Oracle
Database Resource Manager?

A. Maximum Undo per consumer group


B. Maximum Idle time
C. Parallel server limit
D. CPU
E. Exadata I/O
F. Local file system I/O

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 117
You created an encrypted tablespace:

You then closed the encryption wallet because you were advised that this is secure.
Later in the day, you attempt to create the EMPLOYEES table in the SECURESPACE tablespace with the SALT option on the EMPLOYEE column. Which is true
about the result?

A. It creates the table successfully but does not encrypt any inserted data in the EMPNAME column because the wallet must be opened to encrypt columns with
SALT.
B. It generates an error when creating the table because the wallet is closed.
C. It creates the table successfully, and encrypts any inserted data in the EMPNAME column because the wallet needs to be open only for tablespace creation.
D. It generates error when creating the table, because the salt option cannot be used with encrypted tablespaces.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*The environment setup for tablespace encryption is the same as that for transparent data encryption. Before attempting to create an encryptedtablespace, a wallet
must be created to hold the encryption key.
*Setting the tablespace master encryption key is a one-time activity. This creates the master encryption key for tablespace encryption. This key is storedin an
external security module (Oracle wallet) and is used to encrypt the tablespace encryption keys.
*Before you can create an encrypted tablespace, the Oracle wallet containing the tablespace master encryption key must be open. The wallet must alsobe open
before you can access data in an encrypted tablespace.
*Salt is a way to strengthen the security of encrypted data. It is a random string added to the data before it is encrypted, causing repetition of text in theclear to
appear different when encrypted. Salt removes the one common method attackers use to steal data, namely, matching patterns of encrypted text.
*ALT | NO SALT By default the database appends a random string, called "salt," to the clear text of the column before encrypting it. This defaultbehavior imposes
some limitations on encrypted columns:
/ If you specify SALT during column encryption, then the database does not compress the data in the encrypted column even if you specify table compression for
the table. However, the database does compress data in unencrypted columns and encrypted columns without the SALT parameter.

QUESTION 118
On your Oracle Database, you issue the following commands to create indexes:

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SQL > CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON oe.orders (customer_id, sales_rep_id) INVISIBLE;
SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customer_id, sales_rep_id); Which two statements are true?

A. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index created.


B. Both the indexes are updated when a row is inserted, updated, or deleted in the ORDERS table.
C. Both the indexes are created: however, only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 is used by the optimizer for queries on the ORDERS table.
D. The ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is not used by the optimizer even when the OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES parameters is set to true.
E. Both the indexes are created and used by the optimizer for queries on the ORDERS table.
F. Both the indexes are created: however, only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX2 is used by the optimizer for queries on the ORDERS table.

Correct Answer: BF
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Not A: Both indexes are created fine.
B: The invisible index ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 and the bitmap index are both updated by DML operations on the Orders table. F: Since ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1
is invisible only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX2 is used by the query optimizer.
Not C,Not D,Not E:
*ord_customer_ix1 is an invisible index and is therefore not used by the optimizer.
*VISIBLE | INVISIBLE Use this clause to specify whether the index is visible or invisible to the optimizer. An invisible index is maintained by DMLoperations, but it is
not be used by the optimizer during queries unless you explicitly set the parameter OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES to TRUE at the session or system
level.
Note: Specify BITMAP to indicate that index is to be created with a bitmap for each distinct key, rather than indexing each row separately. Bitmap indexes store the
rowids associated with a key value as a bitmap. Each bit in the bitmap corresponds to a possible rowid. If the bit is set, then it means that the row with the
corresponding rowid contains the key value. The internal representation of bitmaps is best suited for applications with low levels of concurrent transactions, such as
data warehousing.

QUESTION 119
Which two statements are true when row archival management is enabled?

A. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column visibility is controlled by the ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter.
B. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated manually or by a program that could reference activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer
considered active.
C. The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows only.
D. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if referenced in the select list of a query.
E. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated automatically by the Oracle Server based on activity tracking columns, to Indicate that a row is no longer
considered active.

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Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A: Below we see a case where we set the row archival visibility parameter to "all" thereby allowing us to see all of the rows that have been logically deleted:
alter session set row archival visibility = all;
We can then turn-on row invisibility back on by changing row archival visibility = "active":
alter session set row archival visibility = all;
B: To use ora_archive_state as an alternative to deleting rows, you need the following settings and parameters:
1.Create the table with the row archival clausecreate table mytab (col1 number, col2 char(200)) row archival;
2.Now that the table is marked as row archival, you have two methods for removing rows, a permanent solution with the standard delete DML, plus thenew syntax
where you set ora_archive_state to a non-zero value:
update mytab set ora_archive_state=2 where col2='FRED';
3.To make "invisible rows" visible again, you simply set the rows ora_archive_state to zero: update mytab set ora_archive_state=0 where col2='FRED';
Note:
* Starting in Oracle 12c, Oracle provides a new feature that allow you to "logically delete" a row in a table without physically removing the row. This effectively
makes deleted rows "invisible" to all SQL and DML, but they can be revealed at any time, providing a sort of "instant" rollback method.
To use ora_archive_state as an alternative to deleting rows.

QUESTION 120
A warehouse fact table in your Oracle 12c Database is range-partitioned by month and accessed frequently with queries that span multiple partitions The table has
a local prefixed, range partitioned index.
Some of these queries access very few rows in some partitions and all the rows in other partitions, but these queries still perform a full scan for all accessed
partitions.
This commonly occurs when the range of dates begins at the end of a month or ends close to the start of a month.
You want an execution plan to be generated that uses indexed access when only a few rows are accessed from a segment, while still allowing full scans for
segments where many rows are returned.
Which three methods could transparently help to achieve this result?

A. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled to the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
B. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
C. Using a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the partitions of the warehouse fact table, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
D. Converting the partitioned table to a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the monthly tables, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
E. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabling for the table partitions that return most of their rows to the
queries.
F. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.

Correct Answer: BCE


Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* Oracle 12c now provides the ability to index a subset of partitions and to exclude the others.
Local and global indexes can now be created on a subset of the partitions of a table. Partial Global indexes provide more flexibility in index creation for partitioned
tables. For example, index segments can be omitted for the most recent partitions to ensure maximum data ingest rates without impacting the overall data model
and access for the partitioned object.
Partial Global Indexes save space and improve performance during loads and queries. This feature supports global indexes that include or index a certain subset
of table partitions or subpartitions, and exclude the others. This operation is supported using a default table indexing property. When a table is created or altered, a
default indexing property can be specified for the table or its partitions.

QUESTION 121
You use the segment advisor to help determine objects for which space may be reclaimed.
Which three statements are true about the advisor given by the segment advisor?

A. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in dictionary managed tablespace.
B. It may advise the use of segment shrink for tables in dictionary managed tablespaces it the no chained rows.
C. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in locally managed tablespaces
D. It will detect and advise about chained rows.
E. It may advise the use of segment shrink for free list managed tables.

Correct Answer: ADE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The Segment Advisor generates the following types of advice:
*If the Segment Advisor determines that an object has a significant amount of free space, it recommends online segment shrink. If the object is a tablethat is not
eligible for shrinking, as in the case of a table in a tablespace without automatic segment space management, the Segment Advisor recommends online table
redefinition (C).
*(D) If the Segment Advisor encounters a table with row chaining above a certain threshold, it records that fact that the table has an excess of chainedrows.

QUESTION 122
You have altered a non-unique index to be invisible to determine if queries execute within an acceptable response time without using this index.
Which two are possible if table updates are performed which affect the invisible index columns?

A. The index remains invisible.


B. The index is not updated by the DML statements on the indexed table.
C. The index automatically becomes visible in order to have it updated by DML on the table.

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D. The index becomes unusable but the table is updated by the DML.
E. The index is updated by the DML on the table.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Unlike unusable indexes, an invisible index is maintained during DML statements.
Note:
* Oracle 11g allows indexes to be marked as invisible. Invisible indexes are maintained like any other index, but they are ignored by the optimizer unless the
OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES parameter is set to TRUE at the instance or session level. Indexes can be created as invisible by using the INVISIBLE
keyword, and their visibility can be toggled using the ALTER INDEX command.

QUESTION 123
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing same pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the following commands in the root container:

Which two statements are true?

A. The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
B. The C # # ROLE1 role is created only in the root database because the container clause is not used.
C. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user only in the root database.
D. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user in the root database and all PDBs.
E. The statement for granting a role to a user fails because the CONTAINER clause is not used.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*You can include the CONTAINER clause in several SQL statements, such as the CREATE USER, ALTER USER, CREATE ROLE, GRANT, REVOKE,and
ALTER SYSTEM statements.
** CREATE ROLE with CONTAINER (optional) clause/ CONTAINER = ALL
Creates a common role.

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/ CONTAINER = CURRENT
Creates a local role in the current PDB.

QUESTION 124
The persistent configuration settings for RMAN have default for all parameters.
Identify four RMAN commands that produce a multi-section backup.

A. BACKUP TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;


B. BACKUP AS COPY TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;
C. BACKUP ARCHIVELOG ALL SECTION SIZE 25M;
D. BACKUP TABLESPACE "TEMP" SECTION SIZE 10M;
E. BACKUP TABLESPACE "UNDO" INCLUDE CURRENT CONTROLFILE SECTION SIZE 100M;
F. BACKUP SPFILE SECTION SIZE 1M;
G. BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 TABLESPACE SYSAUX SECTION SIZE 100M;

Correct Answer: ABEG


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 125
Flashback is enabled for your multitenant container database (CDB), which contains two pluggable database (PDBs). A local user was accidently dropped from one
of the PDBs.
You want to flash back the PDB to the time before the local user was dropped. You connect to the CDB and execute the following commands:
SQL > SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE
SQL > STARTUP MOUNT
SQL > FLASHBACK DATABASE to TIME “TO_DATE (‘08/20/12’ , ‘MM/DD/YY’)”; Examine following commands:
1.ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE ALL OPEN;
2.ALTER DATABASE OPEN;
3.ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;
Which command or commands should you execute next to allow updates to the flashback back schema?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. 3 and 1
E. 1 and 2

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Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 126
Examine the commands executed to monitor database operations:
$> conn sys oracle/oracle@prod as sysdba
SQL > VAR eid NUMBER
SQL > EXEC: eid := DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION (‘batch_job’ , FORCED_TRACKING => ‘Y’); Which two statements are true?

A. Database operations will be monitored only when they consume a significant amount of resource.
B. Database operations for all sessions will be monitored.
C. Database operations will be monitored only if the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to TYPICAL and CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS is set
DIAGNISTIC + TUNING.
D. Only DML and DDL statements will be monitored for the session.
E. All subsequent statements in the session will be treated as one database operation and will be monitored.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
C: Setting the CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS initialization parameter to DIAGNOSTIC+TUNING (default) enables monitoring of database
operations. Real-Time SQL Monitoring is a feature of the Oracle Database Tuning Pack.
Note:
* The DBMS_SQL_MONITOR package provides information about Real-time SQL Monitoring and Real-time Database Operation Monitoring.
*(not B) BEGIN_OPERATION Function starts a composite database operation in the current session.
/ (E) FORCE_TRACKING - forces the composite database operation to be tracked when the operation starts. You can also use the string variable 'Y'.
/ (not A) NO_FORCE_TRACKING - the operation will be tracked only when it has consumed at least 5 seconds of CPU or I/O time. You can also use the string
variable 'N'.

QUESTION 127
Which three statements are true about the working of system privileges in a multitenant control database (CDB) that has pluggable databases (PDBs)?

A. System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
B. Local users cannot use local system privileges on the schema of a common user.

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C. The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
D. Common users connected to a PDB can exercise privileges across other PDBs.
E. System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common user before the common user can grant privileges to other users.

Correct Answer: ACE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A, Not D: In a CDB, PUBLIC is a common role. In a PDB, privileges granted locally to PUBLIC enable all local and common users to exercise these privileges in
this PDB only.
C: A user can only perform common operations on a common role, for example, granting privileges commonly to the role, when the following criteria are met:
The user is a common user whose current container is root.
The user has the SET CONTAINER privilege granted commonly, which means that the privilege applies in all containers. The user has privilege controlling the
ability to perform the specified operation, and this privilege has been granted commonly Incorrect:
Note:
* Every privilege and role granted to Oracle-supplied users and roles is granted commonly except for system privileges granted to PUBLIC, which are granted
locally.

QUESTION 128
You are about to plug a multi-terabyte non-CDB into an existing multitenant container database (CDB) as a pluggable database (PDB).
The characteristics of the non-CDB are as follows:
–Version:Oracle Database 12c Releases 1 64-bit
–Character set: WE8ISO8859P15
–National character set: AL16UTF16– O/S: Oracle Linux6 64-bit
The characteristics of the CDB are as follows:
–Version: Oracle Database 12c Release 1 64-bit
–Character set: AL32UTF8– O/S:OracleLinux 6 64-bit
Which technique should you use to minimize down time while plugging this non-CDB into the CDB?

A. Transportable database
B. Transportable tablespace
C. Data Pump full export / import
D. The DBMS_PDB package
E. RMAN

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
* Generating a Pluggable Database Manifest File for the Non-CDB Execute the dbms_pdb.describe procedure to generate the manifest file.
exec dbms_pdb.describe(pdb_descr_file=>'/u01/app/oracle/oradata/noncdb/noncdb.xml'); Shut down the noncdb instance to prepare to copy the data files in the
next section.
shutdown immediate exit

QUESTION 129
Your database has the SRV1 service configured for an application that runs on middle-tier application server. The application has multiple modules. You enable
tracing at the service level by executing the following command:
SQL > exec DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE (‘SRV1’);
The possible outcome and actions to aggregate the trace files are as follows:
1.The command fails because a module name is not specified.
2.A trace file is created for each session that is running the SRV1 service.
3.An aggregated trace file is created for all the sessions that are running the SRV1 service.
4.The trace files may be aggregated by using the trcess utility.
5.The trace files be aggregated by using the tkprof utility.
Identify the correct outcome and the step to aggregate by using tkprof utility?

A. 1
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 5
D. 3 and 4
E. 3 and 5

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Tracing information is present in multiple trace files and you must use the trcsess tool to collect it into a single file.
Incorrect:
Not 1: Parameter service_name
Name of the service for which tracing is enabled. module_name
Name of the MODULE. An optional additional qualifier for the service.
Note:
*The procedure enables a trace for a given combination of Service, MODULE and ACTION name. The specification is strictly hierarchical: ServiceName or Service
Name/MODULE, or Service Name, MODULE, and ACTION name must be specified. Omitting a qualifier behaves like a wild-card, so that not specifying an
ACTION means all ACTIONs. Using the ALL_ACTIONS constant achieves the same purpose. * SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE Procedure
This procedure will enable SQL tracing for a given combination of Service Name, MODULE and ACTION globally unless an instance_name is specified.
*DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE(
service_name IN VARCHAR2,

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module_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_MODULE, action_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_ACTION, waits IN BOOLEAN DEFAULT TRUE, binds IN
BOOLEAN DEFAULT FALSE, instance_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL);

QUESTION 130
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains pluggable databases (PDBs), you are connected to the HR_PDB. You execute the following command:
SQL > CREATE UNDO TABLESPACE undotb01
DATAFILE ‘u01/oracle/rddb1/undotbs01.dbf’ SIZE 60M AUTOEXTEND ON; What is the result?

A. It executes successfully and creates an UNDO tablespace in HR_PDB.


B. It falls and reports an error because there can be only one undo tablespace in a CDB.
C. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not specified in the command.
D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not specified in the command.
E. It executes successfully but neither tablespace nor the data file is created.

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Interesting behavior in 12.1.0.1 DB of creating an undo tablespace in a PDB. With the new Multitenant architecture the undo tablespace resides at the CDB level
and PDBs all share the same UNDO tablespace.
When the current container is a PDB, an attempt to create an undo tablespace fails without returning an error.

QUESTION 131
Which three statements are true about SQL plan directives?

A. They are tied to a specific statement or SQL ID.


B. They instruct the maintenance job to collect missing statistics or perform dynamic sampling to generate a more optimal plan.
C. They are used to gather only missing statistics.
D. They are created for a query expression where statistics are missing or the cardinality estimates by the optimizer are incorrect.
E. They instruct the optimizer to create only column group statistics.
F. Improve plan accuracy by persisting both compilation and execution statistics in the SYSAUX tablespace.

Correct Answer: BDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
During SQL execution, if a cardinality misestimate occurs, then the database creates SQL plan directives. During SQL compilation, the optimizer examines the

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query corresponding to the directive to determine whether missing extensions or histograms exist (D). The optimizer records any missing extensions. Subsequent
DBMS_STATS calls collect statistics for the extensions.
The optimizer uses dynamic sampling whenever it does not have sufficient statistics corresponding to the directive. (B, not C) E: Currently, the optimizer monitors
only column groups. The optimizer does not create an extension on expressions.
Incorrect:
Not A: SQL plan directives are not tied to a specific SQL statement or SQL ID.
Note:
* A SQL plan directive is additional information and instructions that the optimizer can use to generate a more optimal plan. For example, a SQL plan directive can
instruct the optimizer to record a missing extension.

QUESTION 132
You want to flash back a test database by five hours.
You issue this command:
SQL > FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIMESTAMP (SYSDATE - 5/24);
Which two statements are true about this flashback scenario?

A. The database must have multiplexed redo logs for the flashback to succeed.
B. The database must be MOUNTED for the flashback to succeed.
C. The database must use block change tracking for the flashback to succeed.
D. The database must be opened in restricted mode for the flashback to succeed.
E. The database must be opened with the RESETLOGS option after the flashback is complete.
F. The database must be opened in read-only mode to check if the database has been flashed back to the correct SCN.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 133
Examine these two statements:

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Which three are true about the MRKT tablespace?

A. The MRKT tablespace is created as a small file tablespace, because the file size is less than the minimum required for big file files.
B. The MRKT tablespace may be dropped if it has no contents.
C. Users who were using the old default tablespace will have their default tablespaces changed to the MRKT tablespace.
D. No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
E. The relative file number of the tablespace is not stored in rowids for the table rows that are stored in the MRKT tablespace.

Correct Answer: BCD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 134
In your database, you want to ensure that idle sessions that are blocking active are automatically terminated after a specified period of time.
How would you accomplish this?

A. Setting a metric threshold


B. Implementing Database Resource Manager
C. Enabling resumable timeout for user sessions
D. Decreasing the value of the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the default profile

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
An Oracle session is sniped when you set the idle_time parameter to disconnect inactive sessions. (It's only like sniping on ebay in that a time is set for an action to
occur.)
Oracle has several ways to disconnect inactive or idle sessions, both from within SQL*Plus via resources profiles (connect_time, idle_time), and with the SQL*net
expire time parameter. Here are two ways to disconnect an idle session:
Set the idle_time parameter in the user profile
Set the sqlnet.ora parameter expire_time

QUESTION 135
You Execute the Following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = ‘+DATA/PROD/orapwprod entries = 5 ignorecase = N format = 12’ Which two statements are true about the password file?

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A. It records the usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role.
B. It contains the usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled.
C. Is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administration.
D. It records the usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to the OSDBA or OSOPER operating system groups.
E. It supports the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM system privileges.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 136
Identify two situations in which the alert log file is updated.

A. Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.


B. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-01722: invalid number.
C. Creating a table returns ORA-00955: name us already in used by an existing objects.
D. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.OK_TECHP) violated.
E. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The alert log is a chronological log of messages and errors, and includes the following items:
*All internal errors (ORA-600), block corruption errors (ORA-1578), and deadlock errors (ORA-60) that occur
*Administrative operations, such as CREATE, ALTER, and DROP statements and STARTUP, SHUTDOWN, and ARCHIVELOG statements
*Messages and errors relating to the functions of shared server and dispatcher processes
*Errors occurring during the automatic refresh of a materialized view
*The values of all initialization parameters that had nondefault values at the time the database and instance start
Note:
*The alert log file (also referred to as the ALERT.LOG) is a chronological log of messages and errors written out by an Oracle Database. Typicalmessages found in
this file is: database startup, shutdown, log switches, space errors, etc. This file should constantly be monitored to detect unexpected messages and corruptions.

QUESTION 137

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Which three statements are true about Oracle Data Pump export and import operations?

A. You can detach from a data pump export job and reattach later.
B. Data pump uses parallel execution server processes to implement parallel import.
C. Data pump import requires the import file to be in a directory owned by the oracle owner.
D. The master table is the last object to be exported by the data pump.
E. You can detach from a data pump import job and reattach later.

Correct Answer: ABD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
B: Data Pump can employ multiple worker processes, running in parallel, to increase job performance.
D: For export jobs, the master table records the location of database objects within a dump file set. / Export builds and maintains the master table for the duration
of the job. At the end of an export job, the content of the master table is written to a file in the dump file set.
/ For import jobs, the master table is loaded from the dump file set and is used to control the sequence of operations for locating objects that need to be imported
into the target database.

QUESTION 138
Examine the query and its output executed In an RDBMS Instance:

Which three statements are true about the users (other than sys) in the output?

A. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN only.
B. The C # # C_ADMIN user can perform the data guard operation with Data Guard Broker.
C. The C # # A_ADMIN user can perform wallet operations.
D. The C # # D_ADMIN user can perform backup and recovery operations for Automatic Storage Management (ASM).
E. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN or SQL* Plus.

Correct Answer: BDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
B: SYSDG administrative privilege has ability to perform Data Guard operations (including startup and shutdown) using Data Guard Broker or dgmgrl.
D: SYSASM
The new (introduced in 11g) SYSASM role to manage the ASM instance, variable extent sizes to reduce shared pool usage, and the ability of an instance to read
from a specific disk of a diskgroup
E (Not A): SYSDBA is like a role in the sense that it is granted, but SYSDBA is a special built-in privilege to allow the DBA full control over the database
Incorrect:
Not C: SYSKM. SYSKM administrative privilege has ability to perform transparent data encryption wallet operations.
Note:
Use the V$PWFILE_USERS view to see the users who have been granted administrative privileges.

QUESTION 139
In your Database, the TBS PERCENT USED parameter is set to 60 and the TBS PERCENT FREE parameter is set to 20.
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement?

A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds
TBS PERCENT USED
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds
TBS PERCENT USED
D. Setting the target tablespace offline
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS
PERCENT USED

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The value for TBS_PERCENT_USED specifies the percentage of the tablespace quota when a tablespace is considered full. The value for
TBS_PERCENT_FREE specifies the targeted free percentage for the tablespace. When the percentage of the tablespace quota reaches the value of
TBS_PERCENT_USED, ADO begins to move data so that percent free of the tablespace quota approaches the value of TBS_PERCENT_FREE. This action by
ADO is a best effort and not a guarantee.

QUESTION 140
Which three statements are true about Flashback Database?

A. Flashback logs are written sequentially, and are archived.


B. Flashback Database uses a restored control file to recover a database.

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C. The Oracle database automatically creates, deletes, and resides flashback logs in the Fast Recovery Area.
D. Flashback Database can recover a database to the state that it was in before a reset logs operation.
E. Flashback Database can recover a data file that was dropped during the span of time of the flashback.
F. Flashback logs are used to restore to the blocks' before images, and then the redo data may be used to roll forward to the desired flashback time.

Correct Answer: BCF


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*Flashback Database uses its own logging mechanism, creating flashback logs and storing them in the fast recovery area (C). You can only useFlashback
Database if flashback logs are available. To take advantage of this feature, you must set up your database in advance to create flashback logs.
*To enable Flashback Database, you configure a fast recovery area and set a flashback retention target. This retention target specifies how far backyou can rewind
a database with Flashback Database.
From that time onwards, at regular intervals, the database copies images of each altered block in every data file into the flashback logs. These block images can
later be reused to reconstruct the data file contents for any moment at which logs were captured. (F)
Incorrect:
Not E: You cannot use Flashback Database alone to retrieve a dropped data file. If you flash back a database to a time when a dropped data file existed in the
database, only the data file entry is added to the control file. You can only recover the dropped data file by using RMAN to fully restore and recover the data file.

QUESTION 141
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?

A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.


B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D. You cannot start up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
EM Express is built inside the database.
Note:
Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Express (EM Express) is a web-based database management tool that is built inside the Oracle Database. It supports key
performance management and basic database administration functions. From an architectural perspective, EM Express has no mid-tier or middleware
components, ensuring that its overhead on the database server is negligible.

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QUESTION 142
Examine the following command;
ALTER SYSTEM SET enable_ddl_logging = TRUE;
Which statement is true?

A. Only the data definition language (DDL) commands that resulted in errors are logged in the alert log file.
B. All DDL commands are logged in the alert log file.
C. All DDL commands are logged in a different log file that contains DDL statements and their execution dates.
D. Only DDL commands that resulted in the creation of new segments are logged.
E. All DDL commands are logged in XML format in the alert directory under the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) home.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Once DDL logging is turned on, every DDL command will be logged in the alert log file and also the log.xml file.
Note:
*By default Oracle database does not log any DDL operations performed by any user. The default settings for auditing only logs DML operations.* Oracle 12c DDL
Logging – ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING
The first method is by using the enabling a DDL logging feature built into the database. By default it is turned off and you can turn it on by setting the value of
ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING initialization parameter to true.
*We can turn it on using the following command. The parameter is dynamic and you can turn it on/off on the go.SQL> alter system set
ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING=true; System altered.
Elapsed: 00:00:00.05
SQL>
Once it is turned on, every DDL command will be logged in the alert log file and also the log.xml file.

QUESTION 143
In which two scenarios do you use SQL* Loader to load data?

A. Transform the data while it is being loaded into the database.


B. Use transparent parallel processing without having to split the external data first.
C. Load data into multiple tables during the same load statement.
D. Generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
You can use SQL*Loader to do the following:
/ (A) Manipulate the data before loading it, using SQL functions. / (D) Generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.
etc:
/ Load data into multiple tables during the same load session.
/ Load data across a network. This means that you can run the SQL*Loader client on a different system from the one that is running the SQL*Loader server.
/ Load data from multiple datafiles during the same load session.
/Specify the character set of the data.
/ Selectively load data (you can load records based on the records' values).
/Use the operating system's file system to access the datafiles.
/ Load data from disk, tape, or named pipe.
/ Generate sophisticated error reports, which greatly aid troubleshooting.
/ Load arbitrarily complex object-relational data.
/ Use secondary datafiles for loading LOBs and collections.
/ Use either conventional or direct path loading. While conventional path loading is very flexible, direct path loading provides superior loading performance.
Note:
* SQL*Loader loads data from external files into tables of an Oracle database. It has a powerful data parsing engine that puts little limitation on the format of the
data in the datafile.

QUESTION 144
You are connected to a pluggable database (PDB) as a common user with DBA privileges.
The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is PDB_MODIFIABLE. You execute the following:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL = ALL SID = ‘*’ SCOPE = SPFILE; Which is true about the result of this command?

A. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever this PDB is re-opened.


B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL whenever any PDB is reopened.
C. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever the multitenant container database (CDB) is restarted.
D. Nothing happens; because there is no SPFILE for each PDB, the statement is ignored.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* In a container architecture, the parameters for PDB will inherit from the root database. That means if statistics_level=all in the root that will cascade to the PDB
databases.
You can override this by using Alter system set, if that parameter is pdb modifiable, there is a new column in v$system_parameter for the same.

QUESTION 145

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Which two are prerequisites for performing a flashback transaction?

A. Flashback Database must be enabled.


B. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
C. EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user flashing back transaction.
D. Supplemental logging must be enabled.
E. Recycle bin must be enabled for the database.
F. Block change tracking must be enabled tor the database.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 146
A database is stored in an Automatic Storage Management (ASM) disk group, disk group, DGROUP1 with SQL:

There is enough free space in the disk group for mirroring to be done.
What happens if the CONTROLLER1 failure group becomes unavailable due to error of for maintenance?

A. Transactions and queries accessing database objects contained in any tablespace stored in DGROUP1 will fall.
B. Mirroring of allocation units will be done to ASM disks in the CONTROLLER2 failure group until the CONTROLLER1 for failure group is brought back online.
C. The data in the CONTROLLER1 failure group is copied to the controller2 failure group and rebalancing is initiated.
D. ASM does not mirror any data until the controller failure group is brought back online, and newly allocated primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the
controller2 failure group, without mirroring.
E. Transactions accessing database objects contained in any tablespace stored in DGROUP1 will fail but queries will succeed.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
CREATE DISKGROUP NORMAL REDUNDANCY
* For Oracle ASM to mirror files, specify the redundancy level as NORMAL REDUNDANCY (2-way mirroring by default for most file types) or HIGH REDUNDANCY

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(3-way mirroring for all files).

QUESTION 147
On your Oracle 12c database, you Issue the following commands to create indexes
SQL > CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id) INVISIBLE;
SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id);
Which two statements are correct?

A. Both the indexes are created; however, only the ORD_COSTOMER index is visible.
B. The optimizer evaluates index access from both the Indexes before deciding on which index to use for query execution plan.
C. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is created.
D. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX2 index is created.
E. Both the indexes are updated when a new row is inserted, updated, or deleted In the orders table.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
11G has a new feature called Invisible Indexes. An invisible index is invisible to the optimizer as default. Using this feature we can test a new index without effecting
the execution plans of the existing sql statements or we can test the effect of dropping an index without dropping it.

QUESTION 148
Your multitenant container database has three pluggable databases (PDBs): PDB1, PDB2, and PDB3.
Which two RMAN commands may be; used to back up only the PDB1 pluggable database?

A. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the root container


B. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the PDB1 container
C. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the PDB1 container
D. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the boot container
E. BACKUP PLUGGABLE database PDB1 while connected to PDB2

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
To perform operations on a single PDB, you can connect as target either to the root or directly to the PDB.
*(A) If you connect to the root, you must use the PLUGGABLE DATABASE syntax in your RMAN commands. For example, to back up a PDB, you usethe BACKUP

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PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.
*(C)If instead you connect directly to a PDB, you can use the same commands that you would use when connecting to a non-CDB. For example, toback up a PDB,
you would use the BACKUP DATABASE command.

QUESTION 149
Identify three benefits of Unified Auditing.

A. Decreased use of storage to store audit trail rows in the database.


B. It improves overall auditing performance.
C. It guarantees zero-loss auditing.
D. The audit trail cannot be easily modified because it is read-only.
E. It automatically audits Recovery Manager (RMAN) events.

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A: Starting with 12c, Oracle has unified all of the auditing types into one single unit called Unified auditing. You don’t have to turn on or off all of the different
auidting types individually and as a matter of fact auditing is enabled by default right out of the box. The AUD$ and FGA$ tables have been replaced with one single
audit trail table. All of the audit data is now stored in Secure Files table thus improving the overall management aspects of audit data itself.
B: Further the audit data can also be buffered solving most of the common performance related problems seen on busy environments.
E: Unified Auditing is able to collect audit data for Fine Grained Audit, RMAN, Data Pump, Label Security, Database Vault and Real Application Security operations.
Note:
* Benefits of the Unified Audit Trail
The benefits of a unified audit trail are many:
/ (B) Overall auditing performance is greatly improved. The default mode that unified audit works is Queued Write mode. In this mode, the audit records are
batched in SGA queue and is persisted in a periodic way. Because the audit records are written to SGA queue, there is a significant performance improvement.
/ The unified auditing functionality is always enabled and does not depend on the initialization parameters that were used in previous releases
/ (A) The audit records, including records from the SYS audit trail, for all the audited components of your Oracle Database installation are placed in one location
and in one format, rather than your having to look in different places to find audit trails in varying formats. This consolidated view enables auditors to co-relate audit
information from different components. For example, if an error occurred during an INSERT statement, standard auditing can indicate the error number and the
SQL that was executed. Oracle Database Vault-specific information can indicate whether this error happened because of a command rule violation or realm
violation. Note that there will be two audit records with a distinct AUDIT_TYPE. With this unification in place, SYS audit records appear with AUDIT_TYPE set to
Standard Audit.
/ The management and security of the audit trail is also improved by having it in single audit trail.
/ You can create named audit policies that enable you to audit the supported components listed at the beginning of this section, as well as SYS administrative
users. Furthermore, you can build conditions and exclusions into your policies.
*Oracle Database 12c Unified Auditing enables selective and effective auditing inside the Oracle database using policies and conditions. The new policybased
syntax simplifies management of auditing within the database and provides the ability to accelerate auditing based on conditions.
*The new architecture unifies the existing audit trails into a single audit trail, enabling simplified management and increasing the security of audit datagenerated by

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the database.

QUESTION 150
You upgraded from a previous Oracle database version to Oracle Database version to Oracle Database 12c. Your database supports a mixed workload.
During the day, lots of insert, update, and delete operations are performed. At night, Extract, Transform, Load (ETL) and batch reporting jobs are run. The ETL jobs
perform certain database operations using two or more concurrent sessions.
After the upgrade, you notice that the performance of ETL jobs has degraded. To ascertain the cause of performance degradation, you want to collect basic
statistics such as the level of parallelism, total database time, and the number of I/O requests for the ETL jobs.
How do you accomplish this?

A. Examine the Active Session History (ASH) reports for the time period of the ETL or batch reporting runs.
B. Enable SQL tracing for the queries in the ETL and batch reporting queries and gather diagnostic data from the trace file.
C. Enable real-time SQL monitoring for ETL jobs and gather diagnostic data from the V$SQL_MONITOR view.
D. Enable real-time database operation monitoring using the DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION function, and then use the
DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.REPORT_SQL_MONITOR function to view the required information.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
* Monitoring database operations
Real-Time Database Operations Monitoring enables you to monitor long running database tasks such as batch jobs, scheduler jobs, and Extraction,
Transformation, and Loading (ETL) jobs as a composite business operation. This feature tracks the progress of SQL and PL/SQL queries associated with the
business operation being monitored. As a DBA or developer, you can define business operations for monitoring by explicitly specifying the start and end of the
operation or implicitly with tags that identify the operation.

QUESTION 151
Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file
is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file ‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/temp01.tmp’ ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status Identify two ways to rectify the error.

A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart the database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then open the database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.

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Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN doestrack the
names of temp files, but only so that it can automatically re-create them when needed.
*If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control files to standby control files and vice versa. RMANautomatically
updates file names for data files, online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.

QUESTION 152
Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies:

Which two statements are true about redefining the table?

A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column types in the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.

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D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
C (not D): CONS_VPD_AUTO
Used to indicate to copy VPD policies automatically
*DBMS_RLS.ADD_POLICY
/ The DBMS_RLS package contains the fine-grained access control administrative interface, which is used to implement Virtual Private Database
(VPD).DBMS_RLS is available with the Enterprise Edition only.
Note:
*CONS_USE_PK and CONS_USE_ROWID are constants used as input to the "options_flag" parameter in both the START_REDEF_TABLE Procedureand
CAN_REDEF_TABLE Procedure. CONS_USE_ROWID is used to indicate that the redefinition should be done using rowids while CONS_USE_PK implies that the
redefinition should be done using primary keys or pseudo-primary keys (which are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints).
*DBMS_REDEFINITION.START_REDEF_TABLE
To achieve online redefinition, incrementally maintainable local materialized views are used. These logs keep track of the changes to the master tables and are
used by the materialized views during refresh synchronization.
*START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure
Prior to calling this procedure, you must manually create an empty interim table (in the same schema as the table to be redefined) with the desired attributes of the
post-redefinition table, and then call this procedure to initiate the redefinition.

QUESTION 153
Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column?

A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 154
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?

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A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (LREG) process of each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 155
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You use RMAN to back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to
back up the ASM metadata regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure.
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data?

A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the existing disk group name as an input parameter and use
RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up disk group and data on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group specification, failure group specification, name, and other attributes
and use RMAN to restore the data.
D. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up disk group name and same set of disks and failure group
configuration, and use RMAN to restore the data.
E. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications for failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore
the data.

Correct Answer: ACF


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
AC (not E):
The md_restore command allows you to restore a disk group from the metadata created by the md_backup command.
md_restore can’t restore data, only metadata.

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QUESTION 156
Your multitenant container database, CDB1, is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and has two pluggable databases, HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB. An RMAN
backup exists for the database.
You issue the command to open ACCOUNTS_PDB and find that the USERDATA.DBF data file for the default permanent tablespace USERDATA belonging to
ACCOUNTS_PDB is corrupted.
What should you do before executing the commands to restore and recover the data file in ACCOUNTS_PDB?

A. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and then the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
B. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb CLOSE IMMEDIATE command.
C. Issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb RESTRICTED command.
D. Take the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
* You can take an online tablespace offline so that it is temporarily unavailable for general use. The rest of the database remains open and available for users to
access data. Conversely, you can bring an offline tablespace online to make the schema objects within the tablespace available to database users. The database
must be open to alter the availability of a tablespace.

QUESTION 157
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?

A. Oracle Data Pump


B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 158
Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is

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corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
1.Mount the CDB.
2.Close all the PDBs.
3.Open the database.
4.Apply the archive redo logs.
5.Restore the data file.
6.Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7.Place the SYSAUX tablespace online.
8.Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.
9.Open the database with RESETLOGS.
10.Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?

A. 6, 5, 4, 7
B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux OFFLINE IMMEDIATE;
RMAN> RESTORE TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> RECOVER TABLESPACE sysaux; RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux ONLINE;
*Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to do the recover while testing “all pdb files lost”. Cannot close the pdb as the system datafile was missing… So only
option to recover was: Shutdown cdb (10) startup mount; (1) restore pluggable database recover pluggable database
alter database open;
alter pluggable database name open;
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the pdb and restore/recover the system tablespace of PDB.
*Inconsistent backups are usually created by taking online database backups. You can also make an inconsistent backup by backing up data files whilea database
is closed, either:
/ Immediately after the crash of an Oracle instance (or, in an Oracle RAC configuration, all instances) / After shutting down the database using SHUTDOWN
ABORT
Inconsistent backups are only useful if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and all archived redo logs created since the backup are available.
*Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;

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QUESTION 159
Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled?

A. Reduced logical I/O


B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O
F. Reduced CPU utilization

Correct Answer: BCF


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems
Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional
Oracle processes for the users—either one process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users. Most databases are multiuser
because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple users simultaneously.
Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database and applications into several processes, multiple users and
applications can connect to an instance simultaneously while the system gives good performance.
*In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded OracleDatabase
model enables Oracle processes to execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.

QUESTION 160
In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other
tablespaces in your Oracle 12c database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions access it at night and during weekends.
Minimal disrupt ion to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement?

A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.


B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.

Correct Answer: ACD

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A: You can create and rebuild indexes online. Therefore, you can update base tables at the same time you are building or rebuilding indexes on that table. You can
perform DML operations while the index build is taking place, but DDL operations are not allowed. Parallel execution is not supported when creating or rebuilding
an index online.
D: Moving (Rebuilding) Index-Organized Tables
Because index-organized tables are primarily stored in a B-tree index, you can encounter fragmentation as a consequence of incremental updates. However, you
can use the ALTER TABLE...MOVE statement to rebuild the index and reduce this fragmentation.
C: If a table can be compressed in the new tablespace, also it can be compressed in the same tablespace.
Incorrect:
Not B, not E: Local and Global indexes can be automatically rebuild with UPDATE INDEXES when you move the table.

QUESTION 161
Which two statements are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)

A. The ADDM requires at least four AWR snapshots for analysis


B. The ADDM runs after each AWR snapshot is collected automatically by MMON
C. The results of the ADDM analysis are stored in the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)
D. The ADDM analysis provides only diagnostics information but does not provide recommendations
E. The ADDM calls other advisors if required, but does not provide recommendations about the advisors

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 162
In your production database, data manipulation language (DML) operations are executed on the SALES table.
You have noticed some dubious values in the SALES table during the last few days. You are able to track users, actions taken, and the time of the action for this
particular period but the changes in data are not tracked. You decide to keep track of both the old data and new data in the table long with the user information.
What action would you take to achieve this task?

A. Apply fine-grained auditing.


B. Implement value-based auditing.
C. Impose standard database auditing to audit object privileges.
D. Impose standard database auditing to audit SQL statements.

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Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 163
The user SCOTT owns the CUST table that is placed in the SALES tablespace. The user SCOTT opens a session and executes commands as follows:
SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(101, 'JACK'); 1 row created.
SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(102, 'SMITH'); 1 row created.
As a DBA, you execute the following command from another session:
ALTER TABLESPACE sales READ ONLY;
Which statement is true regarding the effect of this command on the transaction in Scott's session?

A. The command fails as a transaction is still pending.


B. The transaction in Scott's session is rolled back and the tablespace becomes readonly.
C. The command waits and the user SCOTT can execute data manipulation language (DML) statements only as part of the current transaction.
D. The command hangs until all transactions on the objects in the tablespace commit or rollback, and then the tablespace is placed in readonly mode.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
You can issue the ALTER TABLESPACE…READ ONLY statement while the database is processing transactions. After the statement is issued, the tablespace is
put into a transitional read-only state. No transactions are allowed to make further changes (using DML statements) to the tablespace. If a transaction attempts
further changes, it is terminated and rolled back. However, transactions that already made changes and that attempt no further changes are allowed to commit or
roll back.

QUESTION 164
You plan to implement the distributed database system in your company. You invoke Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create a database on the server.
During the installation, DBCA prompts you to specify the Global Database Name. What must this name be made up of?

A. It must be made up of a database name and a domain name.


B. It must be made up of the value in ORACLE_SID and HOSTNAME.
C. It must be made up of the value that you plan to assign for INSTANCE_NAME and HOSTNAME.
D. It must be made up of the value that you plan to assign for ORACLE_SID and SERVICE_NAMES.

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Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Using the DBCA to Create a Database (continued)
3.Database Identification: Enter the Global Database Name in The form database_name.domain_name, and the system identifier (SID). The SIDdefaults lo the
database name and uniquely identifies the instance associated with the database.
4.Management Options: Use this page to set up your database so that it can be managed with Oracle Enterprise Manager. Select the default:
"Configure the Database with Enterprise Manager." Optionally, this page allows you to configure alert notifications and daily disk backup area settings.
Note: Yon must configure the listener before you can configure Enterprise Manager (as shown earlier).

QUESTION 165
Which two statements are true about standard database auditing? (Choose two.)

A. DDL statements can be audited.


B. Statements that refer to standalone procedure can be audited.
C. Operations by the users logged on as SYSDBA cannot be audited.
D. Only one audit record is ever created for a session per audited statement even though it is executed more than once.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 166
You executed the following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 5 ignorecase=N
Which statement describes the purpose of the above password file?

A. It records usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role
B. It contains usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled
C. It is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administrator
D. It records usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to OSDBA or OSOPER operating groups

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 167
Which three statements are true about space usage alerts?

A. Alerts are issued only when the critical threshold for space available in a tablespace is breached.
B. The sum of active extents and allocated user quotas is considered to compute space usage for an undo tablespace.
C. Database alerts can provide warnings about low space availability at both tablespace and segment levels.
D. Alerts are not issued for locally managed tablespaces that are offline or in read-only mode.
E. A newly created locally managed tablespace is automatically assigned the default threshold values defined for a database

Correct Answer: ADE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B2S359_01/server.111/b28310/schema001 htm#ADMIN10120

QUESTION 168
Which three statements are true about Oracle Data Pump?

A. IMPDP can be used to change target data file names, schemas, and tablespaces during import.
B. The DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL package can be used independently of Data Pump clients to perform export and import operations.
C. EXPDP and IMPDP are the client components of Oracle Data Pump.
D. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA privilege.
E. IMPDP always use the conventional path insert method to import data.

Correct Answer: ABC


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E1_188201/server.112/e22490/dp overview. htm#SUTlL2880

QUESTION 169
Your database instance has started using an SPFILE,
Examine the RMAN configuration settings:

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You execute the command:
RMAN> BACKUP AS COPY TABLESPACE TEST;
Which three types of files are backed up by using this command?

A. online redo log files


B. control file
C. SPFILE
D. archived redo log files
E. datafile(s)
F. PFILE

Correct Answer: BCE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://www.juliandyke.com/Research/RMAN/BackupCommand.php

QUESTION 170
Which three factors influence the optimizer's choice of an execution plan?

A. the optimizer_nnûde initialization parameter


B. type of connection used to connect to database instance
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
E. fixed baselines

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 171
Which three statements are true about Oracle Restart?

A. It can be configured to automatically attempt to restart various components after a hardware or software failure.
B. While starting any components, it automatically attempts to start all dependencies first and in proper order.
C. It can be configured to automatically restart a database in case of normal shutdown of the database instance.
D. It can be used to only start Oracle components.
E. It runs periodic check operations to monitor the health of Oracle components.

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 172
You want to schedule a job to rebuild a table’s indexes after a bulk insert, which must be scheduled as soon as a file containing data arrives on the system.
What would you do to accomplish this?

A. Create a file watcher and an event-based job for bulk insert and then create another job to rebuild indexes on the table.
B. Create a file watcher for the bulk inserts and then create a job to rebuild indexes.
C. Create a job array and add a job for bulk insert and a job to rebuild indexes to the job array.
D. Create an event-based job for the file arrival event, then create a job for bulk insert, and then create a job to rebuild indexes.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 173
You execute this command:

Which two statements are true about segment space management for segments in this tablespace?

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A. Space utilization inside segments is mapped by bitmaps
B. Segments are automatically shrunk and compressed when rows are deleted.
C. The PCTFREE storage parameter has no effect on segments created in this tablespace.
D. The PCTUSED storage parameter has no effect or segments created in this tablespace

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 174
Which two statements are true about the (PMON) background process in Oracle Database 12c?

A. It records checkpoint information in the control file.


B. It frees unused temporary segments.
C. It kills sessions that exceed idle time,
D. It registers database services with all local and remote listeners known to the database instance.
E. It frees resources held by abnormally terminated processes

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.eom/database/122/CNCPT/process-architecture.htm#CNCPT9840

QUESTION 175
You have successfully taken a database backup by using the command:
RMAN> BACKUP AS BACKUPSET DATABASE;
Now you execute this command:
RMAN> BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1 DATABASE;
What is the outcome?

A. It fails because an incremental level 1 backup always searches for an image copy as level 0 backup,
B. It fails because an incremental level 0 backup does not exist
C. It takes a backup of blocks that have been formatted since the last full database backup.

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D. It takes an incremental level 0 backup of the database.
E. It first takes an incremental level 0 backup and then an incremental level 1 backup.

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01 /backup 102/b 14192/bkup004.htm (4.4.1.2)

QUESTION 176
Which two actions does an incremental checkpoint perform?

A. It signals CKPT to write the checkpoint position to the data file headers
B. It writes the checkpoint position to the data file headers.
C. It advances the checkpoint position in the checkpoint queue.
D. It writes the checkpoint position to the control file.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t incremental checkpoint.htm

QUESTION 177
You want to prevent a group of users in your database from performing long-running transactions that consume huge amounts of space in the undo tablespace. If
the
guota for these users is exceeded during execution of a data manipulation language (DML) statement, the operation should abort and return an error. However,
queries
should still be allowed, even if users have exceeded the undo space limitation.
How would you achieve this?

A. Specify the maximum amount of quota a user can be allocated in the undo tablespace
B. Decrease the number of Interested Transaction List (ITL) slots for the segments on which these users perform transactions
C. Implement a profile for these users.
D. Implement a Database Resource Manager plan

Correct Answer: A

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 178
A database instance is started by using an SPFILE. The database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode and the control file autobackup is configured. Daily full
database
backups are performed by using RMAN.
You lost all control files due to media failure.
Given the steps to recover from the error in random order:
1.Shut down the instance, if it is not already down.
2.Restore the control file from autobackup to a new location.
3.Start the database instance to NOMOUNT state.
4.Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.
5.Open the database with the RESETLOGS option.
6.Mount the database.
7.Update the SPFILE with the new location of the control file by using the ALTER SYSTEM command.
Identify the correct sequence of the required steps.

A. 13,2,6,7,4,5
B. 1,3, 7, 2, 6, 4,5
C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 1,2, 6,4,5
E. 1,6, 2,4, 5

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 179
What can be automatically implemented after the SQL Tuning Advisor is run as part of the Automated Maintenance Task?

A. statistics recommendations
B. SQL profile recommendations
C. SQL statement restructure recommendations

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D. creation of materialized views to improve query performance

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359 01/server.l 11/b28274/sql_tune.htm#i36217

QUESTION 180
You have just completed a manual upgrade of an Oracle 11 g Database to Oracle Database 12c.
The Post-Upgrade Status Tool reports an INVALID status for some of the components after the upgrade.
What must you do f rst in this situation to attempt to fix this problem?

A. Run catuppst. sql to perform revalidation actions


B. Run utluxobj , sql to filter out objects that were invalidated by the upgrade process
C. Run preupgrd. sql and then execute the generated "fix-up" scripts to resolve status issues.
D. Run utlrp. sql to recompile stored PL/SQL and Java code and check the DBA_REGISTRY view

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 181
What should you do to ensure that a job stored minimal job metadata and runtime data on disk, and uses only existing PL/SQL programs?

A. Create an event-based job


B. Create a lightweight job.
C. Specify the job as a member of a job class.
D. Use a job array

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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References: https://docs-oracle.com/cd/B2S359_01/server.111/b28310/schedover004 htm#BGBJGHBH

QUESTION 182
You plan to install the Oracle Database 12c software on a new server. The database will use Automatic Storage Management (ASM) and Oracle Restart. Oracle
Grid
Infrastructure for a standalone server is already installed on the server.
You want to configure job role separation. You create the following operating system users and groups:
-The user oracle as the owner of the Oracle database installation
-The user grid as the owner of Oracle Grid Infrastructure
-The group oinstall as an Oracle Inventory group
-The group dba as the OSDBA group for Oracle database
-The group asmdba as the OSDBA group for Oracle ASM
-The group asmadmin as the administration privileges group for Oracle ASM
-The group asmoper as the group for Oracle ASM
Which two additional tasks should you perform with regard to the OS-level owners and groups?

A. creating a separate central inventory group for the Oracle Database 12c installation
B. assigning oinstall as the primary groupfor the oracle user
C. assigning asmadmin and asmoper as primary groups for the oracle user
D. creating OS groups associated with the OSBACKUPDBA, OSDGDBAj and OS KMDBA system privileges
E. assigning asmdba as the secondary group for the oracle user

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 183
Examine the parameters for a database instance:

Your database has three undo tablespaces and the default undo tablespace is not autoextensible.
Resumable space allocation is not enabled for any sessions in the database instance.
What is the effect on new transactions when all undo space in the default undo tablespace is in use by active transactions?

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A. Transactions write their undo in the SYSTEM undo segment.
B. Transactions fail
C. Transactions wait until space becomes available in UNDOTBS1.
D. Transactions write their undo in a temporary tablespace.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306 01/server.102/bl4231/undo.htm (undo retention)

QUESTION 184
The DEFERRED_SEGMENT_CREATION parameter is set to TRUE in your database instance,
You execute the following command to create a table:

Which two statements are true?

A. The table is created without a segment because the storage clause is missing.
B. A segment is allocated when the first row is inserted in the table-
ts A segment is allocated when an index is created for any column in the table.
C. The table is created and extents are immediately allocated as per the default storage defined for its tablespace.
D. A segment is allocated for the table if the ALTER TABLE- ALLOCATE EXTENT command is issued.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 185
Which three statements are true about automated maintenance tasks?

A. They run at predefined time intervals that are intended to occur during a period of low system load.
B. An Oracle Scheduler job is created for each maintenance task that is scheduled to run in a maintenance window.

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C. A maintenance window is automatically extended until all the maintenance tasks defined are completed.
D. A repository is maintained in the SYSTEM tablespace to store the history of execution of all tasks.
E. Predefined maintenance tasks consist of automatic optimizer statistics collection, running Automatic Segment Advisor, and running Automatic SQL Tuning
Advisor

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11 BS2_01 /server.112/e25494/tasks htm#ADMIN12331

QUESTION 186
You want to reduce fragmentation and reclaim unused space for the SALES table but not its dependent objects. During this operation, you want to ensure the
following
-Long-running queries are not affected.
-No extra space is used.
-Data manipulation language (DML) operations on the table succeed at all times throughout the process.
-Unused space is reclaimed both above and below the high water mark.
Which ALTER TABLE option would you recommend?

A. DEALLOCATE UNUSED
B. SHRINK SPACE CASCADE
C. SHRINK SPACE COMPACT
D. ROW STORE COMPRESS BASIC

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.eom/cd/B28359_01/server.111 /b28310/schema003.htm

QUESTION 187

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Which two statements are true?

A. Undo records for temporary tables are stored in a temporary tablespace.


B. Undo records for temporary tables are stored in the undo tablespace and logged in the redo.
C. Undo records for temporary tables are stored in the undo tablespace and logged in the redo only for those sessions where temporary undo is enabled.
D. No redo is generated for the undo records belonging to temporary tables.
E. No redo and undo records are generated for temporary tables.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 188
You set the following parameters in the parameter file and restart the database instance:

Which two statements are true?

A. The MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter is automatically set to 500 MB.


B. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are automatically set to zero.
C. The value of the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter remains zero for the database instance.
D. The lower limits of the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to 90 MB and 270 MB respectively.
E. The instance does not start up because Automatic Memory Management (AMM) is enabled but PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters
are set to
nonzero values.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 189
Which three statements are true about the purpose of checkpoints?

A. They ensure that uncommitted transactions are rolled back in case of an instance failure
B. They ensure that all the dirty buffers are written to disk during a normal shutdown
C. They ensure that instance recovery starts in the event of an instance failure.
D. They ensure that dirty buffers in the buffer cache are written to disk regularly
E. They reduce the time required for recovery in case of an instance failure

Correct Answer: CDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E36909_01/server.1111 /e25789/startup.htm#BABGDACG

QUESTION 190
Your database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode,
Examine the RMAM configuration parameters:

Examine the command:


RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;
What is the outcome?

A. It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP ASBACKUPSET command.
B. It executes successfully and creates a backup set of the database along with archived log files and then deletes the original archived log files.
C. It executed successfully and creates a copy of the database along with archive log files and then deletes the original archived log files.
D. It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP AS COPY command.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B13789_01/server.101/b10734/rcmbackp.htm

QUESTION 191
Your production database uses file system storage. You want to move storage to Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM).
How would you achieve this?

A. by using a transportable database


B. by using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA)
C. by using Data Pump
D. by using RMAN

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882J31 /server.112/el8951.pdf {p. 184)

QUESTION 192
The HR user executes the following query on the EMPLOYEES table but does not issue COMMIT, ROLLBACK, or any data definition language (DDL) command
after that:

HR then opens a second session.


Which two operations wait when executed in HR's second session?

A. LOCK TABLE employees IN EXCLUSIVE MODE;


B. INSERT INTO employees(empno,ename) VALUES (1289, 'Dick');
C. SELECT job FROM employees WHERE job='CLERK' FOR UPDATE OF empno;
D. SELECT empno,ename FROM employees WHERE job='CLERK';
E. INSERT INTO employees(empno,ename,job) VALUES (2001,'Harry','CLERK);

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 193
In your Oracle 12c database, you plan to execute the command:
SQL> CREATE TABLESPACE tbs1 DATAFILE '/u02/oracle/data/tbs01.dbf' SIZE 50M;
The u02 file system has 1 GB of free space available.
What is the outcome?

A. It creates a locally managed tablespace with manual segment space management enabled.
B. It raises an error because extent management is not specified.
C. It creates a locally managed tablespace with automatic segment space management enabled.
D. It creates a dictionary-managed tablespace with manual segment space management enabled.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/tspaces002.htm#ADMIN11359

QUESTION 194
In your database, USERS is the default permanent tablespace.
Examine the commands and their outcome:

You plan to execute the commands:

Which two statements are true?

A. The MYTAB table is created in the SYSTEM tablespace but no rows can be inserted into the table by USER02.
B. The MYTAB table is created in the SYSTEM tablespace and rows can be inserted into the table by USER02.
C. The MYTAB table is created in the USERS tablespace but no rows can be inserted into the table by USER02.
D. The CREATE TABLE statement generates an error because the SYSDBA privilege does not provide any space quota on the SYSTEM tablespace by default

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E. The MYTAB table is owned by the SYS user.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 195
You use multiple temporary tables frequently in your database. Which two are benefits of configuring temporary undo?

A. Performance improves because less redo is written to the redo log.


B. Temporary undo reduces the amount of undo stored in undo tablespaces.
C. Performance improves because data manipulation language (DML) operations performed on temporary tables do not use the buffer cache.
D. Performance improves because no redo and undo are generated for the temporary tables.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://oracle-base.com/articles/12c/temporary-undo-12cr1

QUESTION 196
Which three statements are true about the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool?

A. It generates a script to recompile invalid objects post-upgrade.


B. The preupgrade_f lxups. sql script is created to list and describe issues in the source database.
C. A log file, preupgrade. log, is created that contains the output of the Pre-Upgrade Information tool.
D. It checks for required tablespaces and if they are not available, creates them automatically.
E. The preupgrade_f lxups. sql script is executed automatically to fix issues in the source database.
F. The por tupgrade_f ixups. sql script is created to address issues that can be fixed after a database has been upgraded.

Correct Answer: ACE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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References https://docs oracle.com/database/122/UPGRD/usina-Dreupqrade-information-tool-for-oracle-database htm#UPGRD-GUID-C0219AFl-AD43-4097-
B358-E53E48958647

QUESTION 197
Which activity is audited by default and recorded in the operating system audit trail irrespective of whether or not database auditing is enabled?

A. execution of SQL statements by users connected with the SYSDBA privilege


B. creation of a fine-grained audit policy
C. configuration of unified auditing mode
D. usage of the AUDIT statement

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359 Ql /network. 111 /b28531 /auditing. htm#DBSEG0622

QUESTION 198
You want to create a role that;
-is protected from unauthorized usage
-does not use a password embedded in the application source code or stored in a table
-is enabled for a user based on security policies defined in a PL/SQL package
How would you create this role?

A. as a secure application role


B. with defmer's rights
C. with global authentication
D. with external authentication

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References; https://docs oracle com/cd/B28359_01/network.111/b28531/authorization.htm#DBSEG97973

QUESTION 199
You perform RMAN backups for your database and use a recovery catalog for managing the backups. To free space, you execute this command;
RMAN> DELETE OBSOLETE;

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Which three statements are true is this scenario?

A. A backup sets marked as expired are deleted


B. The information related to the backups is removed from the recovery catalog and the control file.
C. The physical f les related to the backup need to be manually deleted,
D. The physical files related to the backup are deleted automatically.
E. The backups deleted are based on the backup retention policy

Correct Answer: BDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 200
Your database instance is started by using a server parameter file (SPFILE). You execute the following command to change the value of the LOG_BUFFER
initialization
parameter:
ALTER SYSTEM SET LOG_BUFFER=32 M;
What is the outcome of this command?

A. The parameter value is changed and it comes into effect as soon as space becomes available in the SGA
B. It returns an error because the value of this parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
C. The parameter value is changed and it comes into effect at the next instance startup.
D. It returns an error because SCOPE should be set to MEMORY.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 201
You want to create a database and you have the following:
-Oracle Grid Infrastructure is installed and configured.
-Oracle Database Vault is installed in ORACLE_HOME to be used for this database.
-Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control is available and an agent is deployed on the database server.

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Examine the requirements:
1.configuring the database instance to support shared server mode
2.using Automatic Storage Management (ASM) for storing database files.
3.configuring a naming method to help a remote user connect to a database instance
4.configuring the Fast Recovery Area
5.configuring Database Vault
6.configuring Enterprise Manager (EM) Database Express
7.registering with EM Cloud Control
8.configuring remote log archive destinations
9.enabling daily incremental backups
10.configuring a nondefault block size for nondefault block size tablespaces
Which of these requirements can be met while creating a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)?

A. 1,2,4,5,7,8,9 and 10
B. 1,2,4,5,6 and 7
C. 1,2,3,8,9 and 10
D. 1,2,3,4,6,8,9 and 10
E. 1,2,4,5,6,7 and 8

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 202
You want execution of large database operations to suspend, and then resume, in the event of space allocation failures.
You set the value of the initialization parameter RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT to 3600.
Which two statements are true?

A. Before a statement executes in resumable mode, the ALTER SESSION ENABLE RESUMABLE statement must be issued in its session
B. Data Manipulation Language (DML) operations are resumable, provided that they are not embedded in a PL/SQL block.
C. A resumable statement can be suspended and resumed only once during execution.
D. A suspended statement will report an error if no corrective action has taken place during a timeout period.
E. Suspending a statement automatically results in suspending a transaction and releasing all the resources held by the transaction.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/serverl 11/b28310/schema002.htm#ADMIN11581

QUESTION 203
Which two statements are true about Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)?

A. It calls SQL advisors automatically if required.


B. It provides recommendations only for poorly performing SQL statements.
C. Its results are stored in AWR.
D. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot is created and requires at least two snapshots for analysis.
E. It requires at least one Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot for analysis.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 204
Which statement is true about using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade your database from Oracle Database 11 g to Oracle Database 12c?

A. It terminates if the SYSTEM tablespace in the source database is not autoextensible.


B. It automatically makes necessary changes to Oracle environment variables.
C. It automatically enables unified auditing in the upgraded database.
D. It automatically adds new data files if there is not enough disk space to grow.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283 01/server. 112/el7222/upgrade.htm#insertedlD5

QUESTION 205
Identify two prerequisites for configuring Enterprise Manager Database Express (EM Express).

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A. Grant the APEX_PUBLIC_USER role to the SYSLIAN user.
B. Use the DBMS XDB CONFIG. SETHTTPPORT procedure to configure a port number for Oracle HTTP Server.
C. Install Oracle HTTP Server.
D. Configure at least one dispatcher for the TCP/IP protocol.
E. Create a SYSMAN user with the SYSDBA privilege as an administrator for EM Express.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 206
Your production database PROD uses file system storage. You want to migrate storage including the Fast Recovery Area for the PROD database to Oracle
Automatic
Storage Management (ASM) by using RMAN. You back up the entire database.
What should the next step be in this migration process?

A. enabling row movement for the database


B. disabling Oracle Flashback Database if enabled
C. opening the database in exclusive mode
D. placing all tablespaces in read-only mode

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01 /server. 112/el 8951 /asm rman.htm#OSTMG89995

QUESTION 207
Your database supports a Decision Support System (DSS) workload that involves the execution of complex queries. Currently, the database is running with peak
workload
You want to analyze some of the most resource-intensive statements cached in the library cache.
What must you run to receive recommendations on the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to improve query performance?

A. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)


B. SQL Tuning Advisor

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C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
E. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359 01/server.111/b28314/tdpdw perform htm#TDPDW00813

QUESTION 208
In which situations does the Database Writer process (DBWn) write to data files?

A. when the RMANI recovery process starts


B. when a user process commits a transaction
C. when a tablespace is made read-only or taken offline
D. when PMON cleans up dirty buffers in the database buffer cache
E. when clean buffers for reading new blocks into the database buffer cache are not found easily

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References https://docs.oracle-com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/process.htm

QUESTION 209
Which two statements are true about availability audit features after migration to unified auditing?

A. The ability of users to audit their own schema objects is not available in the post-migrated database
B. Operating system audit trail is available in the post-migrated database.
C. Network auditing is available in the post-migrated database.
D. Mandatory auditing of audit administrative actions is available in the post-migrated database.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/DBSEG/audit chanaes.htm#DBSEG341

QUESTION 210
Which three statements are true about Database Resource Manager?

A. A resource plan change can be automated by using the Oracle Scheduler.


B. It can be used to control the consumption of only physical I/Os where excessive physical I/Os can trigger an automatic session termination but excessive logical
I/Os cannot.
C. It can be used to control the usage of the undo tablespace by consumer groups.
D. A resource plan can have multiple resource plan directives, each of which controls resource allocation for a different consumer group.
E. It can be used to enable resumable timeout for user sessions.
F. It can be used to control the usage of the temp tablespace by consumer groups.

Correct Answer: ACD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 211
Which two statements describe the relationship between a scheduler window, a resource manager plan, and a job class?

A. A scheduler window together with a job class, controls resource allocation for a job using that job class in that scheduler window.
B. A job class specifies a scheduler window that will be open when that job class becomes active.
C. A scheduler window specifies a resource manager plan that will be activated when that scheduler window becomes active.
D. A scheduler window specifies a job class that will be activated when that scheduler window becomes active.
E. A scheduler window can control resource allocation by itself.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 212

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What is the effect of setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL initia lization parameter to BASIC?

A. Optimizer statistics are collected automatically


B. Only timed operating system (OS) statistics and plan execution statistics are collected
C. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots are not generated automatically.
D. The Oracle server dynamically generates the necessary object-level statistics on tables as part of query optimization.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359 01/server. 111/b28320/initparams240.htnn#REFRN10214

QUESTION 213
Your database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode, and daily full database backups are taken. RMAN is configured to perform control file autobackups.
Which statement is true about the loss of a duplexed control file?

A. The database remains open but transactions are not permitted.


B. The database instance aborts, and media recovery is required after restoration of the control file to open the database.
C. The database instance remains open and the control file can be restored without shutting down the database
D. The database instance aborts and a control file restore operation does not require media recovery.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 214
Examine the parameter settings in your local ORCL database:

Examine the parameter settings for the remote SALES database:

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As the SYS user, you issue the following command on ORCL:
CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK sales.us.example.com USING 'sales1';
The sales1 tnsnames entry points to the sales database instance.
Which two are requirements to ensure that you can successfully connect by using this database link?

A. The GLOBALNAMES initialization parameter should be set to FALSE in the ORCL database.
B. The SALES1 net service name should be known to both the local and remote databases.
C. Local database users who use this database link should have accounts and the required privileges in the remote database.
D. The REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT initialization parameter should be set to FALSE in the remote database
E. Only the user creating the database link must have an account and the required privileges in the remote database.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 215
Which three are activities performed by SMON?

A. cleaning up the database buffer cache and freeing resources that a client process was using
B. applying online redo during instance recovery
C. cleaning up temporary segments that are no longer needed
D. performing database services registration with the default listener
E. restarting a server or a dispatcher process that terminated abnormally
F. recovering failed transactions that were skipped during instance recovery because of file-read or tablespace offline errors

Correct Answer: BCF


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 216
You are administering a database that supports an OLTP workload.
The default UNDO tablespace is a fixed size tablespace with the RETENTION NOGUARATNEE clause and undo retention set to 12 minutes
The user SCOTT queries a large table during peak activity.
The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
Which is possible reason for this?

A. The Oracle server is unable to generate a read-consistent image for a block containing updates.committed after the query began.
B. The query is unable to place data blocks in the UNDO tablespace
C. The flashback data archive is not enabled for the table on which the query is issued.
D. There is not enough space in Fast Recovery Area.
E. The Oracle server is unable to generate a read-consistent image for a block containing uncommitted updates.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 217
Which two categories of segments are analyzed by the Automatic Segment Advisor?

A. segments in tablespaces that have exceeded a critical or warning space threshold


B. segments that have the highest growth rate in a database
C. segments that are sparsely populated and have more than 10% of free space below the high water mark.
D. segments that have unusable indexes
E. segments for tables created using ADVANCED ROW COMPRESSION

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://www dba-oracle.com/t_segment_advisor_log.htm

QUESTION 218
Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) is enabled for your database instance. You execute the following command;

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SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE = 100M;
Which statement is true?

A. It succeeds and the minimum size for the DEFAULT buffer pool is set to 100M.
B. It fails because DB_CACHE_SIZE is a static initialization parameter.
C. It fails because ASMM is enabled and individual SGA components cannot be sized.
D. It succeeds and the value is changed in the SPFILE immediately, but the change takes effect only at the next instance startup.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 219
A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net.
You want to ensure that:
1.The user account must be locked after five consecutive unsuccessful login attempts.
2.Data read per session must be limited for the user.
3 The user cannot have more than three simultaneous sessions.
4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes session idle time before being logged off automatically.
Which two would you do to implement this?

A. by alerting the appropriate user attributes with an ALTER USER command


B. by using appropriate PASSWORD parameters set in the profile assigned to the user
C. by implementing Database Resource Manager and assign it a profile for the user
D. by implementing Database Resource Manager and assign it a role for the user
E. by using appropriate KERNEL parameters set in the profile assigned to the user

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 220
Which two statements are true about SQL *Loader Express Mode in an Oracle 12c database?

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A. The DEGREE_OF_PARALLELISM parameter is set to AUTO.
B. You cannot have multiple SQL *Loader data files.
C. If no data file Is specified, it assumes the data file to be <table-name>.dat in the current directory and uses it,
D. You can have multiple bad files created when loading in parallel
E. You can selectively load rows into a table based on a filer.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.eom/database/121/SUTIL/GUID-0F35B551-861B-450D-8BF3-2312893A67D7.htm#SUTIL3951

QUESTION 221
You install "Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a standalone server" on a host on which the 0RCL1 and 0RCL2 databases both have their instances running.
Which two statements are true?

A. All databases subsequently created by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) are automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
B. Thesrvctl add database command must be used to add 0RCL1 and 0RCL2 to the ORACLE Restart configuration.
C. Both 0RCL1 and 0RCL2 are automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
D. All database listeners running from the database home are automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
E. The crsctl start has command must be used to start software services for Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) after the "Oracle GridInfrastructure for
a standalone server" installation is complete.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 222
Which statement is true about unified auditing?

A. The unified audit trail, by default, resides in a read-only table in the AUDSVS schema in the SYSAUX tablespace.
B. Only the CREATE, ALTER, and DROP statements are audited for all users, including SYS.
C. Unified auditing is enabled only if the AUDIT_TRAIL parameter is set to NONE.

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D. The unified audit trail contains audit records only from unified audit policies and AUDIT settings.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.orade.com/database/121/DBSEG/audit_admin.htm#DBSEG370

QUESTION 223
Which two statements are true about Oracle network connections?

A. A listener may listen on behalf of only one database instance at a time.


B. A server process checks a user's authentication credentials and creates a session if the credentials are valid.
C. The listener continuously monitors a connection after the user process connects to a service handler.
D. The listener always spawns a new server process to deal with each new connection.
E. A connection request from a client is always first received by a listener running on the port that is used for the connection request for the database server

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 224
Which two options can be configured for an existing database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)?

A. Configure Label Security


B. Database Vault in ORACLEHOME
C. Oracle Suggested Backup Strategy
D. Database Resident Connection Pooling
E. Nondefault blocksize tablespaces

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 225
You want to create a database with a block size other than the default 8 kilobytes (KB) by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA).
Which option should you use?

A. Automatic Storage Management (ASM) for storage of data files


B. a file system for storage of data files
C. a Data Warehouse database template
D. a custom database template

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 226
Which two statements are true about using SQL ^Loader?

A. It can load data from external files by using the direct path only.
B. It can load data into multiple tables using the same load statement
C. It can load data into one table at a time.
D. It can generate unique sequential key values in specified columns
E. It can load data from external files by using the conventional path only

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14215/ldr concepts.htm (sql*loader features)

QUESTION 227
The HR user owns the BONUSES table HR grants privileges to the user TOM by using the command:
SQL> GRANT SELECT ON bonuses TO tom WITH GRANT OPTION;
TOM then executes this command to grant privileges to the user JIM:
SQL> GRANT SELET ON hr.bonuses TO jim;

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Which statement is true?

A. TOM cannot revoke the SELECT ON HR. BONUSES privilege from JIM.
B. HR can revoke the SELECT ON HR.BINUSES privilege from JIM.
C. JIM can grant the SELECT ON HR. BONUSES privilege to other users, but cannot revoke the privilege from them.
D. HR can revoke the SELECT ON HR. BONUSES privilege from TOM, which will automatically revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from JIM

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 228
Your database is running in NOARCHIVING mode.
Examine the following parameters:

You execute the following command after performing a STARTUP MOUNT:


SQL> ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG;
Which statement is true about the execution of the command?

A. It executes successfully and sets the Fast Recovery Area as the local archive destination.
B. It executes successfully and issues a warning to set LOG ARCHIVE DEST while opening the database
C. It fails and returns an error about LQG_ARCHIVE_DEST not being set.
D. It executes successfully and sets $0RACLE_H0ME/dbs as the default archive destination.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 229
Which set of statements is true about data dictionary views?

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1 They are stored in the SYSTEM tablespace
2.They are based on virtual tables
3.They are owned by the SYS user,
4.They can be queried by a normal user only if the 07_DICTIONARY_ACCESSIBILITY parameter is set to TRUE.
5 The V$FIXED_TABLE view can be queried to list the names of these views
6. They are owned by the SYSTEM user.

A. 2,5, and 6
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 2,3,4, and 5

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01 /server.112/e40540/datadict.htm#CNCPTC002

QUESTION 230
What is the benefit of running the catctl. pl script during an upgrade of a pre-12c database to an Oracle 12c database?

A. It provides a summary of the upgrade results.


B. It recompiles all invalid PL/SQL and Java code.
C. It generates a log file containing the fixes that can be made to the source database.
D. It provides parallel upgrade options to finish the upgrade process with a reduced down time.
E. It generates fix-up scripts to be run on the source database before upgrade

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121 /UPGRD/upgrade.htm#UPGRD52860

QUESTION 231
Which statement is true about redo log f les during instance recovery?

A. All current, online, and archived redo logs are required to complete instance recovery.

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B. All redo log entries in the current and active logs are applied to data files to reconstruct changes made after the most recent checkpoint.
C. All redo log entries in the current log are applied to data files until the checkpoint position is reached.
D. All current, active, and inactive redo logs are required to complete instance recovery

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References https://docs.oracle.com/cd/A58617_01/server.804/a58396/ch2.htm

QUESTION 232
A database uses Automatic Storage Management (ASM) as database storage, which has a diskgroup, DATA1, which is created as follows:

What happens when the FAILGRP1 failure group is corrupted?

A. Mirroring of allocation units occurs within the FAILGRP2 failure group.


B. Transactions that are using the diskgroup fail.
C. ASM does not mirror any data and newly allocated primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the FAILGRP2 failure group.
D. Data in the FAILGRP1 failure group is moved to the FAILGRP2 failure group and rebalancing is started.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 233
Your database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You want to take a consistent whole database backup.
Which two statements are true in this scenario?

A. The user-managed backup consists of only formatted data blocks,


B. The database must be shut down to take a user-managed backup.
C. The RMAN backup contains only datafiles
D. The RMAN backup can be performed while the database is open.

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E. The database must be in MOUNT state to take RMAN backup.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 234
Your database is configured for ARCHIVELOG mode, and a daily full database backup is taken. RMAN is configured to perform control file autobackup.
In which three scenarios do you need media recovery?

A. loss of all the copies of the control file


B. loss of all the inactive online redo log group members
C. loss of a data file that belongs to the active undo tablespace
D. loss of data files that belong to the SYSTEM tablespace
E. logical corruption of data that is caused by a wrong transaction
F. abnormal termination of the database instance

Correct Answer: ABC


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 235
You plan to install the Oracle Database 12c software. You want to use Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) for storage and Oracle Restart for managing
components. Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server is already installed on the server.
Which three statements must be true for successful installation of the Oracle Database 12c software?

A. The OSBACKUPDBA, OSDGDBA, and OSKMDBA OS groups must be created.


B. An operating system OSDBA group must be created for users with the SYSDBA system privilege.
C. The Oracle Database 12c software owner and the Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner must belong to the same Oracle Inventory Group.
D. The Oracle Database 12c installation must have a separate Oracle inventory directory.
E. An operating system OSOPER group be created for users with the SYSOPER system privilege

Correct Answer: BCE

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 236
Which two statements are true about Oracle Data Pump export and import operations?

A. You cannot specify how partitioned tables should be handled during an import operation
B. Only data can be compressed during an export operation
C. Existing dump files can be overwritten during an export operation.
D. Tables cannot be renamed during an import operation.
E. Metadata that is exported and imported can be filtered based on objects and object types.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359 01/server.111/b28300/expimp.htm#UPGRD12560

QUESTION 237
Your database instance has the following parameter setting;
OS_AUTHENT_PREFIX = OPS$
You execute the following command;

And then grant OPS$GUEST_USER the CREATE SESSION privilege.


Which two statements are true?

A. GUEST_USER can query the tables created in the USERS tablespace by default,
B. The authentication details for GUEST_USER are stored in the database password file,
C. A local GUEST_USER OS account should exist before GUEST USER can log on to the database
D. GUEST_USER can log on to the database without specifying a username and password,
E. GUEST_USER is forced to change the password at the first login.

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Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 238
You want to upgrade an Oracle Database running Oracle Database 11 g to Oracle Database 12c,
Which three tasks should be performed before a manual upgrade?

A. running preupgrad. sql in Oracle Database 11g to generate fix-up scripts and a log file
B. running utlu121s. sql from the new Oracle home to display information about the required initialization parameters
C. copying the initialization parameter file to the new Oracle home
D. copying the password file to the new Oracle home
E. copying net configuration files to the new Oracle home

Correct Answer: ACE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 239
Your database has been running with a peak load for the past hour. You want to preserve the performance statistics collected during this period for comparison
when you
analyze the performance of the database later.
What must you do to achieve this?

A. Increase the window size of the moving window baseline so that it equals the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot retention period.
B. Create a baseline on a pair of snapshots that span the peak load period.
C. Generate Active Session History reports for the peak load period.
D. Set the snapshot retention period in AWR to 60 to avoid automatic purging of snapshots for the past hour.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 240
Which four operations performed after the Oracle Restart installation are automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration?

A. listener configured by using NETCA


B. database service created by using SRVCTL
C. database created by using a SQL statement
D. database created by using DBCA
E. ASM instance created by using ASMCA
F. database service created by using DBMS_SERVICE.GREATE_SERVICE
G. database service created by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter

Correct Answer: BCEF


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283 01/server.112/e17120/restart002.htm#insertedlD3

QUESTION 241
Your single-instance Oracle 12c database home currently supports conventional auditing and uses Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You want to enable
unified
auditing by executing the command:

Which two steps should you perform before executing this command?

A. Ensure that the initialization parameter AUDITTRAIL is set toDB.


B. Drop any existing fine-grained audit (FGA) policies.
C. Stop the listener,
D. Shit down the database instance.
E. Disable auditing by setting the initialization parameter AUDIT_TRAIL to NONE,

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
References: https://blogs.oracle.com/UPGRADE/entrv/unif1ed_auditing_is_it_on

QUESTION 242
You create an Oracle 12c database and then import schemas that are required by an application which has not yet been developed.
You want to get advice on creation of or modifications to indexes, materialized views and partitioning in these schemas.
What must you run to achieve this?

A. SQL Access Advisor with a SQL tuning set


B. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report
C. SQL Tuning Advisor
D. SQL Access Advisor with a hypothetical workload
E. SQL Performance Analyzer

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 243
The HR user updates the salary of one of the employees in the non-partitioned EMPLOYEES table, but does not commit the transaction
Which two types of lock exist in this situation?

A. exclusive lock on the EMPLOYEES table


B. null lock on the row being updated
C. null lock on the EMPLOYEES table
D. row level lock on the row being updated
E. shared lock on the EMPLOYEES table

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 244

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You have a production Oracle 12c database running on a host.
You want to install and create databases across multiple new machines that do not have any Oracle database software installed You also want the new databases
to have
the same directory structure and components as your existing 12c database.
The steps in random order:
1.Create directory structures similar to the production database on all new machines.
2.Create a response file for Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) with the same configurations as the production database.
3.Create a database clone template for the database.
4.Run the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create the database.
5 Run OUI in graphical mode on each machine.
6. Run OUI in silent mode using the OUI response file
Identify the required steps in the correct sequence to achieve the requirement with minimal human intervention.

A. 1, 5, and 4
B. 3,1, 5, and 6
C. 2,3,6, and 4
D. 2,1,6, and 4
E. 2,3,1, and 6

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 245
The HR. DEPARTMENTS table is the parent of the HR. EMPLOYEES table. The EMPLOYEES. DEPARTMENT_ID column has a foreign key constraint with the
ON DELETE CASCADE option that refers to the DEPARTMENTS. DEPARTMENT_ID column. An index exists on the DEPARTMENTS. DEPARTMENT_ID
column. A transaction deletes a primary key in the DEPARTMENTS table, which has child rows in the EMPLOYEES table.
Which statement is true?

A. The transaction acquires a table lock only on the DEPARTMENTS table until the transaction is complete.
B. The transaction acquires a table lock on the DEPARTMENTS table. This lock enables other sessions to query but not update the DEPARTMENTS table until
the transaction on the DEPARTMENTS table is complete.
C. The transaction acquires a table lock on the EMPLOYEES table. This lock enables other sessions to query but not update the EMPLOYEES table until the
transaction on the DEPARTMENTS table is complete.
D. Only the rows that are deleted in the DEPARTMENTS and EMPLOYEES tables are locked until the transactions on the DEPARTMENTS table is complete.

Correct Answer: C

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 246
For which three requirements would you use the Database Resource Manager?

A. specifying an idle time limit that applies to sessions that are idle and blocking other sessions
B. limiting the degree of parallelism of operations performed by user sessions in a consumer group
C. specifying the maximum number of concurrent sessions allowed for a user
D. limiting the CPU used per database call
E. specifying the amount of private space a session can allocate in the shared pool of the SGA.

Correct Answer: ABC


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://docs oracle com/cd/Bl 9306 01 /server ! 02/bl 4231/dbrm.htm

QUESTION 247
SMD is a smallfile locally managed tablespace with manual segment space management.
The SH user receives the following error whi le inserting data into the s a les table:

Which three actions can be taken to enable the user to insert data? (Choose three.)

A. altering the data file associated with the SMD tablespace to grow automatically
B. adding a data file to the SMD tablespace, provided the tablespace has not reached its maximum number of file
C. changing segment space management for the SMD tablespace to automatic
D. resizing the data file associated with the SMD tablespace to make it larger, provided all data files have not yet reached their maximum size
E. increasing the space quota on the SMD tablespace for the SH user, provided the files have not yet reached their maximum size

Correct Answer: CDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 248
In your database instance, the UNDO_RETENTION parameter is set to 1000 and undo retention is not guaranteed for the fixed size undo tablespace.
Which statement is true about undo retention?

A. Undo is retained in the UNDO tablespace for 1000 seconds, and then moved to the SYSTEM tablespace to provide read consistency.
B. Inactive undo is retained for at least 1000 seconds if free undo space is available
C. I nactive undo is retained for 1000 seconds even if new transactions fall due to lack of space in the undo tablespace.
D. Undo becomes expired obsolete after 1000 seconds.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14231/und.htm

QUESTION 249
Which two files must you copy from the Oracle home of the database that is being upgraded to the new Oracle home for Oracle Database 12c? (Choose three.)

A. the tnsnames .ora file


B. the sqlnet .ora file
C. the initialization parameter file
D. the password file
E. the listener .ora file

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References https://docs.Oracle.conn/ccl/E11882_01 /server.112/e23633/afterup.htm#UPGRD52747

QUESTION 250
In your Oracle 12c database, you Invoke SQL ^Loader Express Mode command to load data:
$> sqlldr hr/hr table=employees

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Which two statements are true about this command? (Choose two.)

A. It succeeds and creates the EMPLOYEES table in the HR schema if the table does not exist
B. It fails because the SQL *Loader control file location is not specified.
C. It fails because the SQL *Loader data file location is not specified.
D. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to the HR schema is already defined in the database.
E. It succeeds even if the HR user does not have the CREATE DIRECTORY privilege.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 251
Backup requirements for a database:
*Level 0 backup on Sunday
*Cumulative incremental level 1 backup on Monday, Wednesday, and Saturday
*Differential incremental level 1 backup on Tuesday, Thursday, and Friday
Which three statements are true about the strategy? {Choose three.)

A. Level 0 backup on Sunday contains all the blocks that have been formatted.
B. Level 0 backup on Sunday contains all the blocks that have been changed since the last level 1 backup.
C. Level 1 backup on Tuesday, Thursday, and Friday contains all the blocks that have been changed since the last level 1 backup.
D. Level 1 backup on Monday, Wednesday, and Saturday contains all the blocks that have been changed since the last level 0 backup.
E. Level 1 backup on Tuesday, Thursday, and Friday contains all the blocks that have been changed since the last level 0 backup

Correct Answer: BDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 252
When is the UNDO_RETENTIGI\l parameter value ignored by a transaction?

A. when there are multiple undo tablespaces available in a database

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B. when the data file of the undo tablespace is autoextensible
C. when the undo tablespace is of a fixed size and retention guarantee is not enabled
D. when Flashback Database is enabled

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01 /server.102/bl4231/undo.htm(undo retention)

QUESTION 253
Which two statements are true about the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)? (Choose two.)

A. It can be used to create a database template from an existing database.


B. It can be used to add a new tablespace
C. It can generate SQL database creation scripts.
D. It can be used to copy an existing Oracle database to a new host and apply any patches necessary in the new host
E. It can configure Automatic Storage Management (ASM) diskgroups.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.conn/cd/E17559_01/em.111/e16599/appdx_creating_db_templates.htm#CJACEDCD

QUESTION 254
You are managing an Oracle Database 12c database. The database is open, and you plan to perform Recovery Manager (RMAN) backups.
Which three statements are true about these backups? (Choose three.)

A. The backups would be consistent.


B. The backups would be possible only if the database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode,
C. The backups need to be restored and the database has to be recovered in case of a media failure.
D. The backups would be inconsistent.
E. The backups by default consist of all the data blocks within the chosen files or the full database.

Correct Answer: BDE

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.Qracle.com/cd/E182B3_01/server112/e10897/backrest.htm#insertedlD4

QUESTION 255
Which three tools or tasks are run by default as part automated maintenance tasks? (Choose three.)

A. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor


B. optimizer statistics gathering
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. Segment Advisor
E. Automatic SQL Tuning Advisor

Correct Answer: CDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/123/ADMIN/tasks.htm#ADMIN11836

QUESTION 256
You plan to upgrade your Oracle Database 9i to Oracle Database 12c,
Which two methods can you use? (Choose two.)

A. Perform a rolling upgrade.


B. Perform a direct upgrade by running the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA).
C. Perform a direct upgrade by manually running the catctl.pl and catupgrd. sql scripts before issuing the STARTUPUPGRADE command.
D. Install the Oracle Database 12c software, create a new Oracle 12c database, and then use the Oracle Data Pump to import data from the source Oracle 9i
database
to the target Oracle 12c database.
E. Upgrade your current database to Oracle Database release 10 2 0 5, and then upgrade to Oracle Database 12c.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 257
Examine the following command;

What is the effect of executing this command?

A. Existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table become unusable for the query optimizer
B. Automatic statistics collection is stopped for the CUSTOMERS table.
C. Statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are locked and cannot be overwritten,
D. Statistics subsequently gathered on the CUSTOMERS table are stored as pending statistics.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 258
Which four statements are true about the components of the Oracle Scheduler? (Choose four.)

A. A schedule can be specified to a single job only.


B. A scheduler job can point to a chain instead of pointing to a single program object,
C. A job may get started automatically when a window opens.
D. A program and job can be specified as part of a schedule definition.
E. A job is specified as part of a program specification.
F. A program can be used in the definition of multiple jobs.
G. A program and schedule can be specified as part of a job def nition.

Correct Answer: BCFG


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server. 102/b14231 /schedover.htm

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QUESTION 259
Which three statements are true about checkpointing? (Choose three.)

A. It prompts the Checkpoint (CKPT) process to write data to the data files and redo information to the online redo log files
B. It ensures that all dirty buffers are written to data files during consistent shutdown.
C. It reduces the time required for recovery in case of an instance failure,
D. Frequent thread checkpoints can degrade database performance
E. It prompts the Database Writer (DBWn) process to write checkpoint information into data file headers and the control file

Correct Answer: BCE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e40540/startup.htm#CNCPT89043

QUESTION 260
Your database instance has Automatic Memory Management enabled and supports shared server connections.
Examine the following:
1.Parallel execution messages and control structures
2.Local variables for a process
3.Security and resource usage information
4.Runtime memory values, such as rows retrieved for a SQL statement using a serial execution plan
5.SQL execution work areas
Which option indicates what is allocated from the large pool in this instance?

A. only 1
B. 1,2, and 5
C. 1,2,3, and 5
D. 1,2, and 4

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 261

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You install Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a standalone server,
Which two components are automatically included in the Oracle Restart corfiguration ? (Chcose two )

A. A pre-existing Oracle Net Listener


B. Oracle Notification services
C. A pre-existing database
D. A pre-existing Oracle management agent
E. Oracle CSSD service

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs-oracle.eom/database/121/LADBI/oraclerestart htm#LADBI999

QUESTION 262
The performance of your database degrades between 11 :00 AM and 3:00 PM, Automatic Workload
Repository (AWR) snapshots are collected on an hourly basis.
What is the most efficient way of diagnosing this problem?

A. Create a custom ADDM task for the period defined by the snapshots taken between 11:00 AM and 3:00 PM.
B. Analyze the latest Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report.
C. Analyze the hourly ADDM reports generated between 11:00 AM and 3:00 PM.
D. Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) for the currently cached SQL statements in the shared pool and run SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA) to generate
recommendations

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 263
Automatic Shared Memory Management is enabled for your database instance. You notice that there are SQL statements performing poorly because of repeated
parsing activity.
Which action generates recommendations to overcome the performance issues?

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A. running the Memory Advisor for the buffer cache
B. running the Memory Advisor for the library cache
C. running the Memory Advisor for the SGA
D. running the Memory Advisor for the PGA

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 264
In your database, the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to TYPICAL and an Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot is taken every 30 minutes.
Which two statements are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)

A. It measures database performance by analyzing the wait time and CPU time of all non-idle user sessions.
B. It always compares the latest snapshot with the baseline snapshot for analysis
C. It runs after each AWR snapshot is created and it requires at least two snapshots for analysis.
D. It requires at least four AWR snapshots for analysis,
E. It calls other advisors if required, but does not provide recommendations about the advisors to be used.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 265
Which two statements are true about a server parameter file (SPFILE)? (Choose two.)

A. An SPFILE can be created from a PFILE or from memory.


B. A PFILE can be used to start up a database instance even if an SPFILE exists.
C. An SPFILE must reside in the ORACLE_HOME/dbs directory.
D. An SPFILE can be created only before a database instance is started.
E. An SPFILE contains only those dynamic parameters that can be changed without having to restart the database instance.

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Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 266
Your database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode, and a daily full database backup is taken by using RMAN. Control file autobackup is configured
Loss of which three database files can lead to an incomplete recovery? (Choose three.)

A. inactive online redo log file group


B. a data file belonging to the default temporary tablespace
C. a data file belonging to the SYSAUX tablespace
D. server parameter file (SPFILE)
E. active online redo log file group
F. all the control flies

Correct Answer: AEF


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 267
Which two statements are true about resumable space allocation? (Choose two.)

A. A database-level LOGON trigger can be used to automatically configure resumable statement settings for individual sessions
B. SELECT statements that run out of temporary space for sort areas are candidates for resumable execution
C. A resumable statement can be suspended and resumed only once during a session.
D. Resumable space allocation does not apply when a database instance uses asynchronous commit.
E. Resumable space allocation does not apply when users exceed their assigned space quota in a tablespace
F. Free space in a segment is automatically reclaimed when a resumable statement is suspended because of an out-of-space condition.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schema002 htm#ADMIN11581

QUESTION 268
Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) workload in which one of the applications creates a temporary table for a session and performs
transactions on it. This consumes a lot of undo tablespace and generates lots of redo.
Which two actions would you take to solve this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Increase the size of the temporary tablespace.


B. Enable Automatic Memory Management (AMM).
C. Enable undo retention guarantee.
D. Enable temporary undo for the database.
E. Increase the size of the redo log buffer.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 269
You want to create a file watcher and an event-based job for detecting the arrival of files on the local server from various locations. To achieve this, you enable the
raising of file arrival events from remote systems.
Which two conditions must be satisfied to receive file arrival events from a remote system?

A. The remote system must have a running Oracle Database instance and a scheduler agent installed.
B. The initialization parameter REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT must he set to TRUE on your database.
C. The local database must be set up to run remote external jobs.
D. The remote system s scheduler agent must be registered with your database.
E. Database links to remote databases must be created

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17120/scheduse005.htm

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QUESTION 270
Unified auditing is enabled in your database. The HR_ADMIN and OE_ADMIN roles exist and are granted system privileges.
You execute the command:

Which statement is true?

A. It succeeds and needs to be enabled to capture all SQL statements that require either the specified privileges or any privilege granted to the HR_ADMIN and
OE_ADMIN role.
B. It fails because system privileges cannot be granted with roles in the same audit policy.
C. It succeeds and starts capturing only successful SQL statements for all users who have either the specified privileges or roles granted to them.
D. It fails because the command does not specify when the unified audit policy should be enforced.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 271
You determine that database performance is sub-optimal due to hard parsing statements. Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) is disabled for your
database instance.
Which tool would you use to get advice on how to improve performance?

A. Memory Advisor for the PGA


B. SQL Access Advisor
C. Memory Advisor for the shared pool
D. SQL Tuning Advisor

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://docs.oracle.conn/cd/E25178 01 /server. 1111 /el0897/montune.htm#CHDGFCFJ

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QUESTION 272
Identify three uses of the CROSSCHECK command (Choose three.)

A. to validate the database backup


B. to synchronize logical backup records with physical files in backup storage
C. to check the obsolete backups that can be deleted from the file system
D. to update information about backups that are deleted, corrupted, or inaccessible in a recovery catalog or control file
E. to update the recovery catalog or control file if archived log files are deleted with operating system commands

Correct Answer: BDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 273
Which statement is true about the Oracle central inventory directory (oralnventory)?

A. oralnventory must not be shared by all Oracle software installations on a single system.
B. If ORACLE_BASE is set to /u01 /app/oracle for the oracle user during an installation, OUI creates the Oracle Inventory directory in the /u01 /app/oracle/
oralnventory path.
C. If an OFA-compliant path is not created and the ORACLE_BASE environment variable is not set during an Oracle Database installation, the Oracle Inventory
directory is placed in the home directory of the user that is performing the installation.
D. Oracle software owners must be members of the same central oral nventory group, but they need not have this group as their primary group.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWLIN/usrarDS.htm#CWLIN483

QUESTION 274
Which three statements are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose three.)

A. An AWR snapshot shows the SQL statements that are producing the highest load on the system, based on criteria such as elapsed time and CPU time.
B. AWR data is stored in memory and in a database.
C. All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.

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D. The manageability monitor (MMON) process gathers statistics and creates an AWR snapshot that is used by the self-tuning components in a database.
E. An AWR snapshot contains system-wide tracing and logging information.

Correct Answer: ABD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 275
You want to import the schema objects of the HR user from the development database DEVDB to the production database PRODDB by using Oracle Data Pump.
A database
linkdevdb.us. oracle.com is created between PRODDB and DEVDB.
You execute the following command on the PRODDB database server:

What should you do to resolve the error?

A. Add network_link = devdb.us.oracle.com.


B. Add the SYSTEM user to the schemas option.
C. Change the dumpf ile option value to schema.dat@devdb.us.oracle.com.
D. Replace the schemas option with network_link = devdb.us. oracle. com.
E. Replace the dumpfile option with network_link = devdb.us.oracle.com.

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 276
Which three statements are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose three.)

A. Server-generated alerts notify administrators of problems that cannot be resolved automatically


B. Alerts are not issued for locally managed read-only tablespaces
C. Response actions cannot be specified for server-generated alerts.
D. Stateful alerts car be queried only from the DBA_ALERT_HISTORY view.
E. When an alert is cleared, it Is moved to the DBA_ALERT_HISTQRY view.

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References https://docs.Qracle.conn/cd/B28359 01/server.111/b28310/schema001.htm#ADMIN10120

QUESTION 277
Which two statements are true about Automatic Storage Management (ASM)? (Choose two.)

A. It mounts databases and diskgroups to make ASM files available to database instances.
B. It spreads files proportionally across all disks in a diskgroup, aiming to ensure that all the disks in a diskgroup have the same I/O load.
C. It automatically places each disk from an external redundancy diskgroup in its own failure group.
D. It divides files into extents and allows an extent to span disks.
E. It mirrors data at the allocation unit (AU) level across failure groups within a normal or high redundancy diskgroup.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882 01/server.112/el 8951 /asmcon.htm#OSTMG94058

QUESTION 278
You want to create a test database as a replica of your production database with minimum intervention from a DBA.
Which method would you use?

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A. Use DBCA to create a template from the existing database to contain the database structure and then manually copy the data by using Oracle Data Pump.
B. Use Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create a template from the existing database to contain the database structure.
C. Create the database by using the CREATE DATAEASE. . . command and manually import data by using Data Pump.
D. Use DBCA to create a template from the existing database to contain the database structure with data files and then use the same template to create the
database in the new location.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E17559 01/em.111/e16599/appdx_creating_db_templates.htm

QUESTION 279
You want to load data from a large file into your database without causing an overhead on the SGA.
Which tool would you use.

A. external table
B. Oracle data Pump
C. SQL*Loader with a direct data path
D. SGL*Loader with a conventional data path
E. Enterprise Manager Database Express

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14215/ldr modes.htm#i1007501

QUESTION 280
You are using R MAN to back up your database. All the data files are in read/write mode.
Examine the RMAN configuration parameters:

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Which two statements are true about a whole consistent backup of a database running in ARCHIVELOG mode? (Choose two.)

A. The backup can be used as an incremental level 0 backup.


B. The database instance must be shut down to take the backup.
C. The database must be in MOUNT state to take the backup.
D. The backup consists of blocks that have been formatted,
E. The system Change Number (SCN) is the same for all the data files in the backup.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 281
As part of a manual upgrade of your database to Oracle Database 12c, you plan to issue the command:
SQL> STARTUP UPGRADE
Which three statements are true about the upgrade process? (Choose three.)

A. All system triggers are disabled during the upgrade process.


B. Only queries on fixed views execute without errors until you run the catctl. pl script.
C. The COMPATIBLE parameter must be set to at least 12.1.0 before issuing the command,
D. All job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
E. Only connections AS SYSDBA are allowed during the upgrade process.

Correct Answer: ABC


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 282
Which statement is true about using the Export/lmport method for migrating data when upgrading to Oracle Database 12c?

A. It automatically restarts a Data Pump Export or Import job after a failure is connected and the job continues from the point of failure
B. It can be used to migrate a database only if the source and target databases are hosted on the same endian format
C. It can be used to migrate a database only if the source database does not have any tablespace in read-only mode.
D. It allows migration of a database directly over network links

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 283
Your database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and you want to automate the backup scheduling for your database.
Which two tools or utilities would you use to achieve this? (Choose two)

A. Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Express (EM Express)


B. Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control
C. Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)
D. Recovery Manager (RMAN) script invoked by using scheduler

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B 9 305_01 /server.132/b14196/backrest.htm#i1006198

QUESTION 284
Which two would you recommend to an application developer for reducing locking conflicts on tables in an Oracle database? (Choose two.)

A. Create objects in locally managed tablespaces with Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
B. Avoid coding long-running transactions
C. Allow the database to handle locks In default locking mode,
D. Create objects in locally managed tablespaces with manual segment space management enabled.

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E. Enable undo retention guarantee.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 285
Which three functions can be performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor? (Choose three.)

A. recommending creation of indexes based on SQL workload


B. recommending restructuring of SQL statements that have suboptimal plans
C. checking schema objects for missing and state statistics
D. recommending optimization of materialized views
E. generating SQL profiles

Correct Answer: ADE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 286
Examine the parameters:

Users complain that their sessions for certain transactions hang. You investigate and discover that some users fail to complete their transactions, causing other
transactions to wait on row-level locks.
Which two actions would you take to prevent this problem? (Choose two.)

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A. Increase the maximum number of ITL slots for segments on which a blocking user performs a transaction.
B. Decrease the SESSIONS_PER_UBER limit in the profiles assigned to blocking users.
C. Set a limit in the prof les of blacking users to control the number of data blocks that can be accessed in a session,
D. Use Database Resource Manager to automatically kill the sessions that are idle and are blocking other sessions.
E. Decrease the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the profiles assigned to blocking users.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 287
Which statement is true about the loss of a data file belonging to the default undo tablespace?

A. The database remains open in read-only mode.


B. The database is put in MOUNT state and requires recovery to be opened.
C. The database remains open for querying but no DML statements can be executed except by the users with SYSDBA privilege.
D. All the noncommitted transactions are lost.
E. The database instance aborts.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 288
Examine the following steps:
A DBA grants the CREATE TABLE system privilege with ADMIN OPTION to the user SIDNEY.
SIDNEY grants the CREATE TABLE system privilege to the HR user.
Which statement is true?

A. SIDNEY can revoke the CREATE TABLE system privilege only from HR, to whom he granted it.
B. HR can grant the CREATE TABLE system privilege toother users.
C. Neither SIDNEY nor HR can create new tables if the DBA revokes the CREATE TABLE privilege from SIDNEY.

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D. HR still retains the CREATE TABLE system privilege if the DBA revokes the CREATE TABLE privilege from SIDNEY

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://www.dba.oracle.com/t_with_grant_admin_privileqes.htm

QUESTION 289
What is pre-requisite to alter a role?

A. You should be granted the DBA role.


B. You should set the OS_ROLES parameter to true.
C. You should be granted the role with the GRANT OPTION.
D. You should have the ALTER ANY ROLE system privilege

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 290
Your database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode. You want to enable archiving for the database. Examine the steps:
1.Execute the ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG command.
2.Execute SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE.
3.Execute STARTUP MOUNT.
4.Set the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter to $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/.
5.Execute STARTUP NOMOUNT.
6.Open the database.
Identify the required steps in the correct sequence.

A. 4,2,5,1,6
B. 1,2,3, 4, 6
C. 2,3,1,6
D. 2, 5,1,6

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Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 291
Identify the access that is initially available to connect to your Database as a Service (DBaaS) environment,

A. Enterprise Manager on port 1158


B. telnet on port 23
C. Cloud Control on port 7799
D. SSH on port 22
E. SSL/TLS on port 443

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 292
Which statement is true about profiles?

A. Resource limits specified in a profile assigned to a user are always enabled


B. A user can exist without any profile.
C. A profile can be assigned only to one user.
D. Password management using profiles is always enabled.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 293

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Which three statements are true about naming methods? (Choose three.)

A. Local naming supports multiple protocols, but for any one connection, the client and server must use the same protocol.
B. In the Easy Connect method, clients can connect to a database server by using the host name of the database with an optional port and service name.
C. In the Easy Connect method, the listener port and IP address must be provided for the connection to be successful.
D. The local naming method does not support connect-time failover and load-balancing options.
E. The directory naming method supports connect-time failover and load-balancing options.

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 294
Which task is performed by a background process in a database instance?

A. Connecting between a client process and a dispatcher


B. Executing PL/SQL code
C. Creating dedicated server connections
D. Copying online redo log files to offline storage

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 295
Your database instance is started with a PFILE.

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You want to increase the size of the buffer cache. Free memory is available to increase the size of the buffer cache.
You execute the command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=1024M;
Which is the outcome?

A. Change is applied to the current instance, but does not persist after instance restart.
B. The value is changed only in the PFILE and takes effect at the next instance startup.
C. The value is changed for the current instance and in the PFILE.
D. It fails because the SCOPE clause is missing.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 296
Which statement is true redo log files during instance recovery?

A. All redo log entries in the current log are applied to data files until the checkpoint position is reached.
B. All redo log entries in the current and active logs are applied to data files to reconstruct changes made after the most recent checkpoint
C. All current, active, and inactive redo logs are required to complete instance recovery.
D. All current, online, and archived redo logs are required to complete instance recovery.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 297
Examine the command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING=TRUE;
Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. All data definition language (DDL) commands ae logged in to the alert log file.
B. All DDL commands are logged in to a text file in Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) home.
C. A subset of executed DDL statements is written into an XML file in ADR home.
D. A subset of executed DDL statements is written to the DDL log in ADR home.
E. All DDL commands are logged in to a trace file in ADR home.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 298
What is the outcome of the SHUTDOWN ABORT command?

A. Pending transactions are committed and the database is closed.


B. Dirty buffers in the buffer cache and unwritten redo are not written to the data files and redo log files respectively
C. Uncommitted transactions are rolled back
D. Instance recovery must be requested by the DBA at the next startup

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 299
Which component resides in the System Global Area (SGA) of a database instance only in shared server connections?

A. User Global Area


B. Program Global Area
C. SQL Query Result Cache

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D. PL/SQL Function Result Cache

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 300
Identify three situations in which messages are written to the alert log file. (Choose three.)

A. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX ... REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file #14, block # 50)"
B. Creating a table returns "ORA-00955: name is already in used by an existing object”
C. Inserting a value into a table returns "ORA-01722: invalid number”
D. Updating a record in a table returns "ORA-00060: deadlock detected while waiting for resource"
E. Inserting a value into a table returns "ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS_PKLXXXX) violated"
F. Running a query on a table returns "ORA-01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 4, block #131)"

Correct Answer: ADF


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 301
Which three statements are true about Enterprise Manager Database Express? (Choose three.)

A. It can be used to perform database backup operations.


B. It can use the HTTP protocol.
C. The same port number is used for multiple Database Express configurations on the same host
D. It can use the HTTPS protocol.
E. It is available only when the database is open.

Correct Answer: BDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 302
When does a database checkpoint occur?

A. When there is an online redo log switch.


B. When a user session terminates abnormally.
C. When a server process terminates abnormally.
D. When the SHUTDOWN ABORT command is issued

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 303
What action must you take to ensure complete database recovery till the point of failure?

A. Multiplex the control files


B. Duplex the RMAN backup sets.
C. Multiplex the online redo log files.
D. Configure the database to run in ARCHIVELOG mode.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 304
You want to create a table, DAILY_ORDERS, for an OLTP application, where data should be compressed during both direct-path INSERT and conventional DML.
The table will also be used for queries.
Which compression option should be used?

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A. ROW STORE COMPRESS
B. COLUMN STORE COMPRESS FOR QUERY
C. COLUMN STORE COMPRESS FOR ARCHIVE LOW
D. ROW STORE COMPRESS ADVANCED

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 305
An application repeatedly accesses small lookup tables, causing a lot of physical I/O operations.
What do you recommend to minimize this?

A. Configure the nonstandard buffer cache with a buffer size greater than the size of the default buffer cache.
B. Increase the size of the shared pool
C. Configure the KEEP buffer cache and alter the tables to use the KEEP cache.
D. Configure the RECYCLE buffer cache and alter the tables to use the RECYCLE cache.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 306
Examine the command:

Which statement is true?

A. The data file, TEST01 .DBF, can be auto extended to a maximum size of 5M.
B. The tablespace, TEST1, can contain a maximum of one data file.
C. Allocated and free extents are tracked using bitmaps.

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D. Segment free space is tracked in the data dictionary.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 307
Your database is open in read/write mode and multiple users are connected to the database instance.
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM ENABLE RESTRICTED SESSION;
What would be the effect on current sessions?

A. They are not terminated but may only issue queries.


B. They are not affected.
C. They are terminated immediately.
D. They are terminated after completing the transaction.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 308
You want to distribute a set of structured data to your customers who can integrate this data into their existing databases irrespective of the platform.
Which method provides the fastest way of achieving this?

A. using the DBVERIFY utility


B. using direct-path INSERT SQL statements
C. using SQL*Loader
D. using RMAN transportable tablespace operation

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 309
You create a locally managed tablespace ORDERS_TBS with automatic segment management.
You then create the table DAILY_ORDS_LST in the ORDERS_TBS tablespace using the command.
CREATE TABLE daily_ords_1st(ordno NUMBER, ord_date DATE) PCTFREE 20;
How does the PCTFREE storage parameter influence data storage for this table?

A. It allows only 80% of space to be occupied in all data blocks of this table.
B. It minimizes row chaining during row insertion.
C. It minimizes row migration during existing row data updation.
D. It automatically coalesces free space of a data block when it reaches 20% of available space

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 310
What must you use to read data from a table in your database and write it to an external table?

A. Use SQL* LOADER conventional path load.


B. Use SQL* LOADER direct path load.
C. Use CREATE TABLE.. ORAGANIZATION EXTERNAL command with ORACLE_LOADER access driver.
D. Use CREATE TABLE.. ORGANIZATION EXTERNAL command with ORACLE_DATAPUMP access driver

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 311
Which three statements are true about user account administration? (Choose three.)

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A. A user's current session is not affected when the user's profile is changed.
B. Only users with the SYSDBA privilege can change the tablespace quota for other users.
C. A new user account can be created only by SYS or SYSTEM users.
D. A user's quota can be set for any permanent tablespace but not for the default temporary tablespace
E. A user requires only the CREATE SESSION privilege to change his or her own password.

Correct Answer: ABC


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 312
Which two statements are true about initialization parameter files? (Choose two.)

A. A lost or damaged SPFILE can be re-created by using the parameter values listed in the alert log.
B. A PFILE must exist for an SPFILE to be created.
C. The ALTER SYSTEM command cannot be used to change the value of any parameter if a database instance has started using a PFILE
D. Both the SPFILE and PFILE must always reside on a file system accessible from the database host server.
E. On startup, by default a database instance always first searches for an SPFILE, and if it does not find any, searches for a PFILE.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 313
You configured the Fast Recovery Area (FRA) for your database. The database instance is in ARCFIIVELOG mode. The default location for the archived redo log
files is the FRA.
Which two files are removed automatically if space is required in the FRA as per the retention policy? (Choose two.)

A. Archived redo log files that have multiple copies in a different archive location
B. user-managed backups of data files and control files
C. RMAN backups that are obsolete
D. flashback logs

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Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 314
Which three database operations can be performed only at MOUNT state? (Choose three.)

A. performing Flashback Database


B. renaming control files
C. enabling or disabling ARCHIVELOG mode
D. re-creating control files
E. performing full database recovery

Correct Answer: ACE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 315
Which statement is true about a database in ARCHIVELOG mode?

A. All backups taken prior to switching to ARCHIVELOG mode can be used to perform complete recovery
B. Online redo log files have to be multiplexed before putting the database in ARCHIVELOG mode.
C. A Fast Recovery Area (FRA) must be configured for the database.
D. Full database backups can be performed when the database is opened.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 316
You want to create a locally managed tablespace called NEWTBS to store segments with different extent sizes
Which set of tablespace attributes can be specified for a tablespace that satifies the requirements?

A. EXTENT MANAGEMENT LOCAL STORAGE (INITIAL 5M MAXSIZE 10M)


B. REUSE AUTOEXTEND ON MAXSIZE UNLIMITED
C. EXTENT MNAGMENT LOCAL SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT UNIFORM
D. EXTENT MANAGEMENT LOCAL AUTOALLOCATE

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 317
The schema SALES exists in two databases, ORCL1 and ORCL2, and has the same password, SALES123.
User SALES has CREATE DATABASE LINK and CREATE SESSION privileges on both databases.
Examine these commands:
Conn SALES/SALES123
CREATE DATABASE LINK orc12 USING 'orc12';
What is the outcome of executing these commands in the ORCL1 database?

A. ORCL2 is created as a public database link to connect a single session to the SALES schema in the ORCL2 database
B. ORCL2 is created as a shared database link to connect multiple sessions to the SALES schema in the ORCL2 database,
C. ORCL2 is created as a private database link to connect to only the SALES schema in the ORCL2 database.
D. ORCL2 database link creation fails.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 318
Which two services may you see on the My Service Dashboard page? (Choose two.)

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A. Network Cloud Service
B. User Cloud Service
C. Compute Cloud Service
D. Database Cloud Service

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 319
What is a requirement for creating a remote database scheduler job?

A. The remote database job must run as a user that is valid on the target remote database.
B. A private database link must be created from the originating database to the target remote database.
C. The target remote database on which the job is scheduled must be Oracle Database 11g Release 2 or later.
D. The target remote database must be on a different host form the originating scheduler database host.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 320
The HR schema exists in two databases, BOSTON and DENVER, and has the same password, HR.
You have the CREATE DATABASE LINK and CREATE SESSION privileges on both the database.
BOSTON is defined as a service name in the tnsnames.ora of both the databases.
You plan to use the command:
CREATE DATABASE LINK hr_link CONNECT to hr IDENTIFIED BY hr USING 'denver';
What must be done to ensure only the HR user in the BOSTON database can access the HR schema in the DENVER database?

A. Execute this command as HR user in the BOSTON database and SYS user in the DENVER database.
B. Execute this command as SYS user in both the databases.
C. Execute this command as HR user in the DENVER database.
D. Execute this command as HR user in the BOSTON database.

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Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 321
Examine the command:
SQL> CONNECT hr/hr@orc1
Which two configurations allow this command to execute successfully? (Choose two.)

A. In the tnsnames.ora file, the SERVICE_NAME value of CONNECT_DATA should be explicitly suffixed with the domain name,
B. The SERVICE.NAMES initialization parameter should contain the name orcl in the database host.
C. The orcl TNS alias should be defined such that it is resolvable by a client running on the database host.
D. The orcl TNS alias should be defined in the tnsnames.ora file on both the client and the database host.
E. The TNS_ADMIN environment variable should be set to orcl on the client.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 322
Which users are created and can be used for database and host management of your DBaaS database servers?

A. opc and oracle users


B. root, oracle and cloud users
C. root and oracle users
D. root, opc and oracle users
E. cloud and oracle users

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 323
Which three statements are true about Oracle Data Pump? (Choose three.)

A. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed to move data across different database releases.
B. DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL packages can be used independent of Data Pump clients.
C. A directory object must exist and a user performing an EXPDP or IMPDP operation must have read and write permission on that directory object.
D. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA privilege.
E. Oracle Data Pump export operations invoked from the clients that are connected remotely by using a connection string, create Data Pump files on the client file
system.

Correct Answer: ABC


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 324
In your database, archive logging and control file autobackup are enabled.
The data files and redo log files are intact but control files are impacted due to media failure.
In which two recovery scenarios must you use the RESETLOGS option? (Choose two.)

A. One control file copy is intact so the spfile is changed to refer to only one copy.
B. One control file copy is intact and damaged control file copies have to be restored to the default location.
C. All copies of the control file are damaged and the CREATE CONTROLFILE statement is executed manually.
D. All copies of the control file are damaged and the auto backed up control file is used for recovery.
E. One control file copy is intact and damaged control file copies have to be restored to a non-default location.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 325

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Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. The expdp operation exports data that satisfies the condition of the defining query used to create the EMP_DEPT view.
B. The impdp operation creates the view and dependent objects.
C. All rows from the dependent objects, along with the metadata required to create the EMP_DEPT view, are exported.
D. Objects dependent on the EMP_DEPT view are exported.
E. The impdp operation creates EMP_DEPT as table and populates it with the data from the export dump file.

Correct Answer: ADE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 326
Examine the details of the uncompressed, non-partitioned heap table CITIES.

What must you do before executing it?

A. Ensure free space that is approximately equal to the space used by the table should be available.
B. Ensure there are no pending transactions on the table.
C. Enable row movement is enabled.
D. Disable all indexes on the table.

Correct Answer: C

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 327
Your database has archive logging enabled and RMAN backups are taken at regular intervals. A data file in the USERS tablespace is damaged.
Which command must you execute before starting the recovery of this tablespace?

A. ALTER TABELSPACE users OFFLINE


B. STARTUP FORCE NOMOUNT
C. STARTUP FORCE
D. SWITCH DATAFILE ALL

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 328
Which statement is true regarding the DEFAULT profile?

A. The values assigned to the resource limits and password parameters in the default profile can be altered.
B. A different DEFAULT profile can be created before each user in a database.
C. It can be dropped and recreated.
D. it must be explicitly assigned to the user.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 329
Your database is running in ARCHIVEVLOG mode.

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You want to take a consistent whole database backup.
Which two statements are true in this scenario?

A. RMAN backups contain only data files.


B. The database instance must be shut down to take a user-managed consistent backup
C. Consistent RMAN backups can be taken while the database is open.
D. User-managed backups only contain formatted data blocks.
E. The database must be in MOUNT state to take consistent RMAN backups.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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