PRE-MEDICAL

Academic Session: 2024-25

TARGET TEST PATTERN NEET

NEET (UG)
EXAMINATION
TEST TYPE CUMULATIVE TEST
TARGET YEAR 2026
TEST CODE &
CT-1
PAPER NO. ONE SEQUENCE
MAX. MARKS 720
PAPER CODE 1
TEST
3 Hrs. 20 Min.
CLASS XI DURATION
TEST DATE 11 TH May 2024
COURSE NAME SAKSHAM
TEST DAY SATURDAY
COURSE CODE MA TEST TIME Start: 2:30 PM
End : 5:50 PM
PHASE CODE(S) 01MA & MAZA TOTAL NO. OF
PAGES IN PAPER 24
BATCH CODE(S) 01MA & MAZA BOOKLET

TEST PAPER DETAILS MARKING SCHEME

Full If No
Subject Type (–)ve Total Subject
Qs. No. Section No. No. of Qs. Marks Per Option
Sequence of Qs.* Marks Marks Total
Qs. Chosen
1 to 35 1 MCQ 35 4 0 –1 140
Physics 180
36 to 50 2 MCQ 15** 4 0 –1 40
51 to 85 1 MCQ 35 4 0 –1 140
Chemistry 180
86 to 100 2 MCQ 15** 4 0 –1 40
101 to 135 1 Biology MCQ 35 4 0 –1 140
180
136 to 150 2 (Botany) MCQ 15** 4 0 –1 40
151 to 185 1 Biology MCQ 35 4 0 –1 140
180
186 to 200 2 (Zoology) MCQ 15** 4 0 –1 40
TOTAL Qs. 200 MAXIMUM MARKS 720
* Please turn overleaf to understand the meaning of coding for types of Questions.
**you have attempt any 10 Questions. If a student attempts more than 10 questions, then only first 10 questions which he has attempted will be checked.
A. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
A. lkekU; funsZ’'k
1. Darken the appropriate bubbles on the original
1. Åijh ewy i`"B ds vuq:i cqycqyksa (BUBBLES) dks
by applying sufficient pressure.
i;kZIr ncko Mkydj dkyk djsaA
2. The original is machine-gradable and will be
collected by the invigilator at the end of the 2. ewy i`"B e'khu&tk¡p gS rFkk ;g ijh{kk ds lekiu ij
examination. fujh{kd ds }kjk ,d=k dj fy;k tk;sxkA
3. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. 3. vks-vkj-,l- dks gsj&Qsj@fod`fr u djsaA
4. Write your name, roll number and the name of 4. viuk uke] jksy ua- vkSj ijh{kk dsna z dk uke ewy i`"B
the examination centre and sign with pen in the
esa fn, x, [kkuksa esa dye ls Hkjsa vkSj vius gLRkk{kj
space provided for this purpose on the original.
djsaA buesa ls dksbZ Hkh tkudkjh dgha vkSj u fy[ksaA
Do not write any of these details anywhere
jksy uEcj ds gj vad ds uhps vuq:i cqycqys dks dkyk
else. Darken the appropriate bubble under each
djsaA
digit of your roll number.

B. DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS : B. ORS ij cqycqyksa dks dkyk djus dh fof/k %

5. Use a BLACK BALL POINT to darken the 5. Åijh ewy i`"B ds cqycqyksa dks dkys ckWy ikbUV dye
bubbles in the upper sheet. ls dkyk djsaA
6. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY. 6. cqycqys dks iw.kZ :i ls dkyk djsaA
7. Darken the bubble ONLY if you are sure of the 7. cqycqyksa dks rHkh dkyk djsa tc vkidk mÙkj fuf'pr
answer. gksA
8. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as 8. cqycqyksa dks dkyk djus dk mi;qDr rjhdk ;gk¡ n'kkZ;k
shown here : x;k gS %
9. There is NO way to erase or "un-darkened 9. dkys fd;s gq;s cqycqys dks feVkus dk dksbZ rjhdk
bubble.
ugha gSA
10. The marking scheme given at the beginning of
10. gj [k.M ds izkjEHk esa nh x;h vadu ;kstuk esa dkys fd;s
each section gives details of how darkened and
x;s rFkk dkys u fd;s x;s cqycqyksa dks ewY;kafdr djus dk
not darkened bubbles are evaluated.
rjhdk fn;k x;k gSA

TYPE WISE CODES FOR QUESTIONS

SR# QUESTION TYPE CODE

1 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION (ONLY ONE CORRECT OPTION) MCQ

2 COLUMN MATCH QUESTION CMQ

3 ASSERTION & REASON / STATEMENT TYPE QUESTION ARQ

 PART-A 4. 2
 (1  tan )d
Physics
(1) tan  + C
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) (2) cot  + C
 This section contains THIRTY FIVE (35)
questions. (3) sec  + C
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) (4) cosec  + C
and (4) ONLY ONE of these four option is
correct
 Marking scheme : 2
1
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is 5. The value of (sin2 x )dx is

chosen. 
0
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen
(i.e. the question is unanswered). (1) 2 (2) 3
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (3) 1 (4) None of these
9
1. Find  ydx = ?
0
6. Value of sin (37°) cos (53°) is -
9 12
y (1) (2)
25 25

20 16 3
(3) (4)
25 5

x
0 3 6 9 12 7. Match the following : (Intigration)

Column-I Column-Il
–10 (A) sin(t + ) (P) 1
C + tan(t + )

(1) 75 (2) 45 (B) cos(t + ) (Q) 1
sin(t +  ) + C
(3) 30 (4) 60 
(C) tan(t + ) (R) 1
2. Which of the following represents a vector ?  cos(t + ) + C
sec(t + ) 
(1) (2)
 (D) sec 2 (t + ) (S) 1
(3) A (4) None of these sec(t + ) + C


3. Find the value of local maxima of the (1) A  P, B  Q, C  R, D  S.

3 2
following function, y = x + 3x – 9x + 2 (2) A  S, B  R, C  Q, D  P.
(1) 39 (2) 45
(3) A  R, B  Q, C  S, D  P.
(3) 29 (4) 35
(4) A  S, B  P, C  R, D  Q.

Space for Rough Work

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 x2 dy
8. =  (e )xdx is :
14. If y = sin x then is :
dx
2
x2 ex
(1) (e )  C (2) C
2 cos x
(1) cos x (2)
ex ex 4 x
(3) C (4) C
2 4
cos x cos x
(3) (4)
9. Find value of sin2 15º + sin2 645º : 4 x sin x 4 sin x
1
(1) (2) 1
2
15. If square of x varies as cube of y and x = 3
1
(3) (4) None of these when y = 4, the value of y at x = 1 will be :
3
3

10. If cos10º – sin10º = k, then cos20º is : 3 4

(1) (2)
4 3
(1) 2k  k 2 (2) k 2  k 2
k
4 4
(3) (4) k + 2 2  k 2 (3) (4)
3 3
2  k2

11. tan15° is equilvalent to : 16. Assertion : Anti derivative of (3x2 + 2) is

(1) (2  3 ) (2) (5  3 ) equal to (x3 + 2x).

Reason : Derivative of (x3 + 2x) is equal to
5 3  5 3 
(3)  (4)  (3x2 + 2).
 2   2 
   
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true
and the Reason is correct explanation of the
x 1
12. If f(x) = then find f {f(x)} Assertion.
x 1
(1) –1/x (2) –2/x (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,

(3) –3/x (4) –4/x but Reason is not correct explanation of the
Assertion.
13. log10 (1000) is equal to: (3) if Assertion is true, but the Reason is
(1) 1 (2) 2 false.
(3) 3 (4) 4 (4) if Assertion is false, but the Reason is
true.

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 dy
17. If y = sin(x) + ln(x 2 ) + e 2 x then will 21. If y = x 2 sin(x 3 ) , then  y dx will be :
dx
 cos x 3 
be : (1) –cos(x 3 ) + C (2)   C
 3 
2
(1) cos x + + e2x cos x3
x (3) cos(x 3 ) + C (4) C
3
2
(2) cos x + + 2e 2 x  /2
x
22. Value of  cos 3t dt is
2 0
(3) – cos x + + e2x
x 2 2 1
(1) (2) 
3 3
2
(4) – cos x – + 2e 2 x 2 1
x2 (3)  (4)
3 3

18. If y =
nx
then
dy
will be :
23. If y = t sin (t 2 ) then  ydt will be :
x dx cos(t 2 ) cos(t 2 )
(1) + c (2) + c
1  nx 1  nx 2 2
(1) (2)
x x2  cos(t 2 )
(3) + c (4) cos (t 2 )
2
1  nx nx  1
(3) (4)
x2 x2 24. Find the integration of the following :
 /2
sin 2 x
 dx
1
0
1  cos 2 x
19. If y = x 2 , then  ydx
0
will be :
(1) n(1) (2) n(3)
(3) n(2) (4) n(4)
x3 1
(1) C (2) 25. Shaded area of graph is :
3 3
2
(3) (4) 0
3

20. Differentiation of sin(x 2 ) w.r.t. x is -

(1) cos (x 2 ) (2) 2x cos(x 2 )
(1) a2 (2) 3a2
(3) x 2 cos(x 2 ) (4) – cos (2x) (3) a3 (4) 3a3

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 dx 1 dx
26. Find  ax  b 30. If y =nt, and x = 2
, Find at t = 1
t dy
(1) loge(ax + b) + C (1) –2 (2) +2
(3) –3 (4) –1
(2) a loge(ax + b) + C
31. cos2 300° + sin2 240° + tan 135° = ?
(3) C + 1/a loge(ax + b)
1
(4) 1/b loge(ax + b) + C (1) 1 (2)
2
1
(3) 0 (4) –
2
3
27.  (2  x) 2
dx
 3t   3t 
32. s = sin   + cos  
3 2  2   2 
(1) +C (2) C
2x 2– x 3   3 t   3t 
(1) cos  – sin 
1 3 2   2   2 
(3) C (4) C
2–x 2x 3   3t   3 t 
(2) cos   sin 
2   2   2 
28. If y = 2 sin (t + ) where  and  constants 3   3t   3t 
(3) cot   sin 
then dy/dt will be - 2   2   2 
(1) 2 cos (t + ) (4) None of these

(2) – 2 cos(t + ) 33. Slope of the shown graph.

(3) 2 sin(t + )
(4) 2 sin(t + )

 1 
29.   x  dx
 (1) First increases then decreases
 x (2) First decrease then increases
(3) increase
2 x
(1) +2 x–c (4) decrease
3
34. A uniform metallic solid sphere is heated
2 x2 uniformly. Due to thermal expansion, its
(2) –2 x + c
3 radius increases at the rate of 0.05
mm/second. Find its rate of change of
2 x3 volume with respect to time when its radius
(3) + 2 x +c
3 becomes 10 mm. (take  = 3.14)
(1) 31.4 mm3 /second
2 x (2) 62.8 mm3 /second
(4) +2 x – c
2 (3) 3.14 mm3 /second
(4) 6.28 mm3 /second

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35. cos2 = 39. (x + y)2 = 4
(1) 2cos2 –1
(2) 1–2sin2 dy dy
(1) = +1 (2) = –1
(3) cos2 – sin2  dx dx
(4) All of the above d dy
(3) = –1 (4) = –1
dx d
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
2 dy
 This section contains FIFTEEN (15) questions. 40. y = 6e x – 4x
, Find at x = 2 ?
dx
You have attempt any 10 Questions. If a
student attempts more than 10 questions, (1) 0 (2) 6
(3) 6e2 (4) 24°
then only first 10 questions which he has
attempted will be checked.
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) 41. f(x) = cos x , f'(x) = ?
and (4) ONLY ONE of these four option is – sin x
correct (1)
 Marking scheme : 4 x cos x
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is sin x
chosen. (2)
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen 4 x cos x
(i.e. the question is unanswered).  cos x  sin x
1    
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (3) 
4 x

sin x (4) 4 x cos x  sin x

36.  cos x2
dx =  

(1) tanx + c (2) secx + c

 3 1
(3) cosx + c (4) –secx + c 42.   x –  dx  ?
x
2x  5 1
37. y= (1) 3 x 2  +C
3x – 2 x2
19 x4
(1) y’ = (2) – nx +C
(3x  2)2 4
19 x4 1
(2) y’ = (3)  +C
( 3 x – 2) 4 x2
–19 (4) 4x4 – nx+C
(3) y’ =
( 3 x  2)
1
(4) y’ =
–19
2
43. x 3/2
dx = ?
(3 x  2)
1 2
(1) (2)
38. cos (90º + ) is - x x
(1) sin  (2) cos  –2 –2
(3) (4)
(3) – cos  (4) – sin  x 5x 5 / 2

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44. For The shown figure, Find the point where 49. Match the integrals (given in column-) with
dy the given functions (in column-)
<0?
dx
y Column-I Column-Il
(A) (p) cosecKx
 sec x tan xdx – +C
K
B (B) (q) cotKx
A C  cosec Kx cot Kx dx – +C
K
(C) 2 (r) sec x + C
x  cosec Kx dx

(D) (s) sinKx

 cosKx dx +C
K
(1) A (2) B
(1) (A) p, (B)  q, (C)  r, (D) s
(3) C (4) None of these
(2) (A) p, (B)  r, (C)  q, (D) s
45. Roots of the equation 2x2 + 5x – 12 = 0, are (3) (A) r, (B)  p, (C)  q, (D) s
(1) 3/2. 4 (2) 2/3, – 4
(4) (A) s, (B)  p, (C)  q, (D) r
(3) 3/2, – 4 (4) 2/3, 4

1
2
50. –sin is not equal to :
46. The value of  (3 x  6 x 5  3) dx is
1    
(1) cos     (2) cos    
(1) 8 (2) 10  2   2 
(3) 12 (4) 6
(3) sin ( –) (4) sin ()
47. A particle is moving along positive x-axis. Its
position varies as x = t3 – 3t2 + 12t + 20,
where x is in meters and t is in seconds
Initial velocity and Initial acceleration of the
particle is
(1) 1 m/s, – 6 m/s2
(2) 3 m/s, – 4 m/s2
(3) 12 m/s, – 6 m/s2
(4) 20 m/s, – 8 m/s2

1
48. f(x) = 2x2 + x + 1, g(y) =
y –1
f(g(2)) = ?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4

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 PART – B 52. 27 Kg of SO2Cl2 is reacted with excess of

Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, NaOH completely. If the difference between

N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, masses of Na2SO4 and NaCl produced is x Kg,
Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, then x is :
Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, (SO2Cl2 + NaOH Na2SO4 + NaCl + H2O)
As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137,
(1) 2 (2) 4
Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
(3) 5 (4) None of these
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140)

 This section contains THIRTY FIVE (35) 53. Rearrange the following (I to IV) in order of
questions. increasing masses:
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (I) 0.5 mole of O3
(3) and (4) ONLY ONE of these four option
(II) 0.5 gm atom of oxygen
is correct
(III) 3.011 × 1023 molecules of O2
 Marking scheme :
(IV) 5.6 lit of CO2 at STP
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option
(1) II < IV < III < I (2) II < I < IV < III
is chosen.
(3) IV < II < III < I (4) I < II < III < IV
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is
chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases 54. If 500 mL of a 5M solution is diluted to 1500


mL, what will be the molarity of the solution

51. At same temperature and pressure, two
obtained?
flasks of equal volume are filled with H2 and
(1) 1.5 M (2) 1.66 M
SO2 gases separately. Which of the (3) 0.017 M (4) 1.59 M

following is not equal in number, in the two

55. 1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with
flasks :
25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution, the mass of
(1) moles
sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to
(2) atoms
NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O
(3) molecules (1) Zero mg (2) 200 mg
(4) gram-molecules (3) 750 mg (4) 250 mg

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56. 94 g of phenol (C6H5OH) + 602 × 1023 60. Statement I : Equal volume of all gases
contains equal number of molecules at same
molecules of phenol –02 mol of phenol = x
temperature and pressure.
mol of phenol. Find the value of 100x. Statement II : At same temperature and
(1) 40 (2) 70 pressure vn for all gases.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
(3) 80 (4) 90
incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
57. 5 L of N2 gas is mixed with 15 L of O2 gas incorrect
and both are made to combine to form NO (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
gas. What volume of NO gas can be
(4) both statement I and statement II are
produced. (All volumes are measured correct
under same temperature and pressure
61. The volume of acetylene at NTP produced by
conditions) :
reaction of 50 gm of CaC2 with water is :
(1) 5 L (2) 10 L CaC2 + H2O  Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
(3) 20 L (4) 15 L (1) 10 L (2) 17.5 L
(3) 26.25 L (4) 35 L

58. Half mole of diatomic element X2 contains

62. 24 g of magnesium is made to react with 142 g
17 and 20 moles of electrons and neutrons of Cl2. If 0.35 moles of MgCl2 are produced,
then the % yield of reaction is :
respectively. Which of the following is/are
(1) 35 (2) 45
correct regarding this species ? (3) 15 (4) 25
(1) Atomic number of this element is 17
63. 5.4 g of Aluminium and 9.6 g of Oxygen are
(2) Atomic number of this element is 34
made to combine according to the following
(3) Gram atomic mass of this element is 37 u
unbalanced reaction :
(4) Gram atomic mass of this element is Al + O2  Al2O3
74 g Then, select the correct option(s) :
(1) Oxygen is the limiting reagent.
59. What will be the molality of the solution (2) 10.2 g of Al2O3 will be produced.
containing 18.25 g of HCl gas in 500 g of (3) 0.25 moles of excess reagent are left
behind.
water?
(4) 0.4 moles of limiting reagent are more
(1) 0.1 m (2) 1 M required to completely consume the extra
(3) 0.5 m (4) 1 m amount of excess reagent.

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64. What mass (in kg) of a 60 % pure sample 69. Atomic masses of two isotope of an element
of Fe2(SO4)3 would contain 6 moles of are Z & 3Z. Average atomic mass of element
Fe2(SO4)3 ? is 2Z. % composition by mass of heavier
(1) 1 (2) 4 isotope is:

(3) 3 (4) 2 (1) 75% (2) 50%

(3) 25% (4) None of these

65. Which of the following is not correctly

70. The highest number of helium atoms is in
matched ?
(1) 4 g of helium
(1) 1 atm > 1 torr > 1 Pa 
(2) 2.271098 L of helium at STP
(Units of pressure) (3) 4 mol of helium
(2) SO24  N2  O2  (4) 4 u of helium
(Number of electrons per species)
(3) 1 m3 < 1 L < 1 cm3 (Units of volume) 71. What volume of a 0.8 M solution contains 100

(4) None of these milli moles of the solute?

(1) 100 mL (2) 125 mL
(3) 500 mL (4) 62.5 mL
66. 2 L Hydrocarbon CXH2Y burns in air to give
2 L CO2 and 3 L H2O (At same temperature
72. If V ml of the vapours of substance at NTP
and presure). The value of (X + Y) is :
weight W g. Then molecular weight of
(1) 1 (2) 4
substance is :
(3) 2 (4) 3
V
(1) (W/V) × 22400 (2) × 22.4
W
67. 2L of 2M HCl solution is mixed with 2L of
W 1
5M Ba(OH)2 solution, calculate the molarity (3) (W–V) × 22400 (4)
V  22400
of OH– ions in the resulting solution.
(1) 4 (2) 3 73. Correct formula for the molality (m) is :
(1) 1 (1) 2 (1) mass of solute
Volume of solute
68. Calculate the molality of one litre solution of (2) mass of solute
49% H2SO4 (weight/volume). The density of volume of solution (litre)
the solution is 1.49 g/ml. (3) No. of mole of solute
(1) 3 (2) 1 Mass of solvent (kg)
(3) 4 (4) 5 (4) Mass of solute
Mass of solution

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74. In the reaction 4A + 2B + 3C  A4 B2 79. Under the same conditions, two gases have
C3 what will be the number of moles of the same number of molecules. They must
product formed. Starting from 2 moles of A, (1) be noble gases
1.2 moles of B & 1.44 moles of C : (2) have equal volumes
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.6 (3) have different volume
(3) 0.48 (4) 4.64 (4) have an equal number of atoms

75. Vapour density of a gas if its density is 80. Statement I : Concentration of solution
0.178 g/L at NTP is : represent quality of solution not quantity of
(1) 0.178 (2) 2 solution.
(3) 4 (4) 0.089 Statement II : Concentration decreases on
dilution.
76. What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured (1) Both statement I and statement II are
at 0°C and 1 atm is needed to burn incorrect
completely 1 L of propane gas (C3H8) (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is

measured under the same conditions? incorrect

(1) 7 L (2) 6 L (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is

(3) 5 L (4) 10 L correct

(4) both statement I and statement II are

77. Dissolving 180 g of glucose (mol. wt. 180) correct

in 1000 g of water gave a solution of

density 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the 81. 0.5 mole of H2SO4 is mixed with 0.2 mole of

solution is : Ca (OH)2. The maximum number of moles of

(1) 1.78 M (2) 2.00 M CaSO4 formed is

(3) 0.97 M (4) 2.22 M H2SO4 + Ca(OH)2  CaSO4 + 2H2O

(1) 0.2 (2) 0.5
78. 500 ml of a gaseous hydrocarbon when (3) 0.4 (4) 1.5
burnt in excess of O2 gave 2.5 litre of CO2
82. The densiy of 2 M aqueous solution of NaOH
and 3.0 litre of water vapours under same
is 1.28 g/cm3. The molality of the solution is
conditions. Molecular formula of the
[Given that molecular mass of NaOH = 40
hydrocarbon is :
gmol–1]
(1) C4H8 (2) C4H10
(1) 1.20 m (2) 1.56 m
(3) C5H10 (4) C5H12
(3) 1.67 m (4) 1.32 m

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83. When 100g of ethylene polymerises 86. The number of neutrons in a drop of water
entirely to polyethene, the weight of (20 drops = 1 mL, dH O = 1 g/mL)
2

polyethene formed as per the equation (1) 6.02 × 1023 (2) 6.02 × 1020
n(C2H4)  (CH2CH2)n is : (3) 1.33 × 1022 (4) 7.33 × 1022

(1) (n/2)g (2) 100g

87. How many ml water should be added to 100ml
(3) (100/n)g (4) 100ng HCl solution (d = 1.5 g/ml) 80% by wt. to make
it a solution of 40% by wt. of density = 1 g/ml.
84. The percentages of C, H and N in an (1) 100 (2) 150
organic compound are 40%, 13.3% and (3) 200 (4) 250

46.7%. The empirical formula of this

88. Statement I : Empirical formula of compound
compound is
may be equal to the molecular formula of
(1) CH2N (2) CH4N
compound.
(3) CH5N (4) C3H9N3. Statement II : E.F = n × M.F. where
n = 1, 2, 3, ............
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
85. The number of atoms of Cr and O in a
incorrect
compound are 4.8 × 1010 & 9.6  1010
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
respectively. Its empirical formula is– incorrect
(1) Cr2O3 (2) CrO2 (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(3) Cr2O4 (4) None correct
(4) both statement I and statement II are
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) correct
 This section contains FIFTEEN (15)
questions. You have attempt any 10 89. Assertion : One molal aqueous solution of
Questions. If a student attempts more glucose contains 180 g of glucose in 1 kg
than 10 questions, then only first 10 water.
questions which he has attempted will Reason : Solution containing one mole of
be checked.
solute in 1000 g of solvent is called one molal
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2),
solution.
(3) and (4) ONLY ONE of these four
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
option is correct.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
is chosen. reason is not the correct explanation of
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is assertion.
chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). (3) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.

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90. Which one of the following pairs of gases 94. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules
contains the same number of molecules required to produce 10 moles of ammonia
(1) 16g of O2 and 14g of N2 through Haber's process is :
(2) 8g of O2 and 22g of CO2 (1) 40 (2) 10
(3) 28g of N2 and 22g of CO2 (3) 20 (4) 15
(4) 32g of O2 and 32g of N2
95. 32 g of a gas SOx occupies 11.2 L at STP. The
value of 10x is:
91. X+Y  X3 Y4 (non-balanced)
(1) 30 (2) 40
Above reaction is carried out by taking 6 (3) 20 (4) 10
moles each of X and Y respectively then,
how many statement are correct : 96. Which of the following would contain 1 mole of
Statement-1 : X is the limiting reagent particles :
Statement-2 : 1.5 moles of X3 Y4 is formed (1) 0.5 mole of H2 (2) 2 g of H-atoms

Statement-3 : 1.5 moles of excess reagent (3) 16 g of O-18 (4) 16 g of methane

is left behind
97. How many atoms are there in 100 amu of He ?
Statement-4 : 33.3% excess of excess
(1) 25 (2) 50
reagent was present initally.
(3) 75 (4) 100
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 4 98. The number of mole of ammonia in 4.25 g of
ammonia is :
92. The volume of 30% (w/w) HNO3 solution (1) 0.425 (2) 0.25
(density 3 gm/mL) required by a student to (3) 0.236 (4) 0.2125

prepare 3 L of 3.0M HNO3 solution is :

99. One mole of P4 molecules contain :
(1) 350 mL (2) 410 mL
(1) 1 molecule
(3) 630 mL (4) 850 mL
(2) 4 molecules
1
93. Which of the following is dependent on (3)  6.022  1023 atoms
4
temperature ?
(4) 24.088 × 1023 atoms
(1) Molality
(2) Molarity 100. Number of electrons in 1.8 mL of H2O() is
(3) Mole fraction about :
(4) Weight percentage (1) 6.02 × 1023 (2) 3.011 × 1023
(3) 0.6022 × 10 21
(4) 60.22 × 1020

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 PART–C 104. Lysosomes have
(1) DNA.
Botany
(2) rRNA.
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) (3) hydrolytic enzymes.
 This section contains THIRTY FIVE (35) (4) all the above.
questions.
105. 30S ribosome + 50S ribosome =________
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3)
ribosome.
and (4) ONLY ONE of these four option is
(1) 90S (2) 80S
correct
(3) 60S (4) 70S
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : + 4 If ONLY the correct option is 106. Circular DNA is found in ________
chosen. (1) mice (2) bacteria
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is (3) maize plant (4) algae
chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases 107. Matrix of chloroplast is known as
___________
(1) stroma. (2) cytoplasm.
101. Which one of the following cellular parts is
(3) grana. (4) protoplasm
correctly described ?
(1) Thylakoids-flattened membranous sacs
forming the grana of chloroplasts 108. Match the column I with column II and select
(2) Centrioles-sites for active RNA synthesis the correct option -
(3) Ribosomes-those on chloroplasts are (A) Mitochondria (i) Without membrane
larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm (B) Centriole (ii) Single membraned
are smaller (70s) structure
(4) Lysosomes-optimally active at a pH of (C) Ribosome (iii)Double membraned
about 8.5 structure
(D) Lysosome (iv) Smallest cell
102. Which of the following statement is true for organelle
secretory cell ? (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) Golgi apparatus is absent (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum is easily (2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
observed in the cell (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Only smooth endoplasmic reticulum is (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
present
(4) Secretory granules are formed in the 109. In nucleoid ________is present.
mitochondria (1) ribosome
(2) Centriole
103. Match the following – (3) DNA
(A) Mitochondria (i) Ribophorin (4) plasma membrane
(B) ER (ii) Responsible of
detoxification of drugs 110. Heads of phospholipid molecule is ________
(C) Lysosomes (iii) having gene (1) polar (2) non polar
responsible for male (3) neutral (4) hydrophobic
sterility in maize
(D) SER (iv) Polymorphic 111. The most abundant material in the plant cell
(1) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (ii) wall is
(2) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (ii) (1) lignin. (2) hemicellulose.
(3) A = (iv), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (i) (3) starch. (4) cellulose.
(4) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
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112. 70 S ribosomes are absent in 120. The main organelle responsible for
(1) RER modification and packaging of protein is
(2) Mitochondria (1) ribosomes
(3) Chloroplast (2) endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Pseudomonas (3) Golgi complex
(4) microtubules
113. Select the correct statement from the following
regarding cell membrane. 121. The main function of plasma membrane is to
(1) regulate the flow of materials into and
(1) Na+ and K+ ions move across cell
outside the cell.
membrane by passive transport
(2) store cell material.
(2) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell
(3) maintain cell shape and size.
membrane.
(4) control cellular activities
(3) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar
heads towards the inner part. 122. Select the wrong pair
(4) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane (1) Chromatophores of blue green algae-
was proposed by Singer and Nicolson Pigments
(2) Lysosomes-Hydrolytic enzymes
114. The smooth E.R. synthesises (3) Golgi body-Cell plate formation in plants
(1) carbohydrates. (4) Plasmid-Intranuclear double stranded DNA
(2) proteins.
(3) steroids and lipids. 123. The main function of lysosome is
(4) all of these (1) digestion. (2) translation.
(3) translocation. (4) replication
115. Most abundant lipid of cell membrane is -
(1) Cholesterol (2) Phospholipid 124. Which of the following statement is
(3) Glycolipid (4) Cerebroside completely true
(1) cell wall is called the slime layer in
116. Chlorophyll pigments are present in mycoplasma
(1) thylakoid. (2) stroma. (2) Bacterial cell cannot be autotrophic
(3) matrix. (4) cristae. (3) Ribosomes of prokaryotes are larger than
eukaryotes
117. Select the incorrect pair (4) cyanophycean granules are present in
(1) Mesosome–Essential infolding of cell cytoplasm
membrane
125. Mark the correct statement for ER.
(2) Pinocytosis–Intake of liquid food
(1) It provides more surface for exchange.
substances by cell membrane
(2) It secretes calcium pectate through
(3) Polysome–m-RNA + Protein
plasmodesmata.
(4) Amyloplast–Storage of starch
(3) It provides mRNA for protein synthesis.
(4) It contains enzymes of Krebs cycle.
118. The Golgi apparatus is absent in
(1) yeasts. 126. Which of the following statement is wrong
(2) blue-green algae. (1) erythrocyte membrane has approximately
(3) higher plants. 52 per cent lipids and 40 per cent
(4) liver cells. proteins.
(2) The ribosomes associate to form polysome
119. In which pH enzymes of lysosomes are (3) Mitochondria help in oxidative
usually active? phosphorylation and generation of
(1) pH (2) pH 8 adenosine triphosphate
(3) pH 7 (4) pH 5 (4) Gram positive bacteria have wall rich in
peptidoglycan and poor in Lipid content
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127. P and Q are two cell organelles. Identify them 132. Assertion : Specialization of cells is
correctly: advantageous for the organisms.
Reason : It increases the operational
efficieny of an organism.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true,
reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true,
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
(1) P-Smooth endoplasmic reticulum,
a-Mitochondria 133. Which of the following is not a cell organelle
(2) P-Rough endoplasmic reticulum, (1) Chloroplast
a-Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria
(3) P-Golgi Body, a-Mitochondria (3) Plasma membrane
(4) P-Chloroplast, a-Golgi body (4) lysosome

128. In prokaryotes, genetic material is 134. Which one is single membrane cell organelle?
(1) Basically naked (1) Nucleus (2) Mitochondria
(2) Enveloped by a nuclear membrane (3) Lysosomes (4) Chloroplast
(3) Associated with histones
(4) Linear 135. Within the cell, ribosomes are found in/on
129. Which cell organelle is not matched with its (1) Cytoplasm
main function ? (2) Chloroplasts (in plants) and mitochondria
(1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum : Steroid (3) Rough ER
synthesis (4) All of the above
(2) Ribosomes : Protein synthesis
(3) Golgi bodies : Degradation of glycolipids SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
(4) Centrioles : Cell division  This section contains FIFTEEN (15)
questions. You have attempt any 10
130. Choose the incorrect match.
Questions. If a student attempts more than
(1) Nucleus – RNA
10 questions, then only first 10 questions
(2) Lysosome – Protein synthesis
which he has attempted will be checked.
(3) Mitochondria – Respiration
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3)
(4) Cytoskeleton – Microtubules
and (4) ONLY ONE of these four option is
131. Match the following and choose the correct correct
combination from the options given below  Marking scheme :
Cell organelle Function  Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is
(a) Endoplasmic (i) Takespart in cellular chosen.
Reticulum respiration  Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is
(b) Free ribosomes (ii) Takes part in chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
osmoregulation  Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(c) Mitochondrion (iii) Synthesis of lipids
(d) Contractile vacuole (iv) Synthesize 136. Thylakoids group to form __________
nonsecretory proteins (1) granum
(1) a iii, b iv, c ii, d i (2) stroma
(2) a i, b ii, c iv, d iii (3) cristae
(3) a iii, b iv, c i, d ii (4) microtubule
(4) a iii, b ii, c i, d iv

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137. Cell theory was propounded by 142. Autonomic genome system is present in
(1) Virchow (1) Golgi body and mitochondria.
(2) Hofmeister (2) mitochondria and chloroplasts.
(3) Mendel (3) mitochondria and ribosomes.
(4) Schleiden and Schwann (4) ribosomes and chloroplasts

138. A highly reductionist attribute of a living

143. The organelles that are included in
system is obseved in self-replicating
endomembrane system are
molecules. Autocatalytic RNA is the best
(1) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, ribosome
example of this, However, if a biological in the
and lysosome
form of primordial cell has to be designed
(2) Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum,
from chemical system, in addition to self-
Mitochondria and lysosome
repicating molecules, it requires energy
(3) Mitochondria, lysosome, vacuoles and
capturing and generating systems as well.
Golgi complex
Which of the following components would be
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex,
the most important in organizing as self-
lysosome and vacuoles
propagating biological system
(1) Enzymes
(2) Plasma Membrane 144. A high surface area to volume ratio in cells is
(3) Mitochondria important because it
(4) Chloroplasts (1) enables efficient transfer of wastes,
nutrients and gases across the cell
139. Mark mismatched pair membrane
(1) Amyloplast - Store protein granules (2) prevents overproduction of cell proteins
(2) Elaioplast - Store oils or fat due to structural limitations
(3) Chloroplast - Contain chlorophyll pigments (3) allows many antigens on the surface for
(4) Chromoplast - Contain coloured pigments identification of self and non self
other than chlorophyll (4) provides for better structural support to
cope with externel physical pressure
140. Cell membrane is mainly composed of lipids,
proteins and carbohydrates. With respect to 145. Which is important site of formation of
their mutual proportions, which of the glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic
following statements is correct? cells ?
(1) Lipids are least in proportion. (1) Peroxisomes
(2) Proteins are least in proportion. (2) Golgi Bodies
(3) Carbohydrates are least in proportion. (3) Polysomes
(4) All the three are in equal proportions (4) Vacuoles

141. Assertion: The number of cells in a 146. In eukaryotic cells there is

multicellular organism is inversely compartmentalisation of cytoplasm through
proportional to the size of body. (1) Membrane bound organelle
Reason : All the cells in the biological world (2) Centriole
are of same size. (3) Cell wall
(1) Both assertion and reason are true, (4) None of these
reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, 147. Cristae are foldings in _________
reason is not the correct explanation of (1) chromoplast.
assertion (2) ribosome.
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false (3) centrosome.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false (4) mitochondria

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148. Most of the water found in the cell occurs in 154. Cnidocytes are used for :-
(1) Cell wall (2) Nucleus (1) Anchorage
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Nucleolus (2) Defence
(3) Capturing of prey
149. Which organelle is present in high number in (4) All of these
secretory cells
(1) Dictyosome (2) ER 155. Alteration of generation is present in:-
(3) Lysosome (4) Vacuole (1) Sea anemone
(2) Aurelia
150. Ribosomes are present in how many types of (3) Obelia
semiautonomous organelles in animal and (4) Sea fan
plant cell respectively?
(1) One, two (2) Two, three 156. The number of ciliated rows present in comb
(3) Three, four (4) Two, one jellies:-
(1) 9
PART–D (2) 8
Zoology (3) 7
(4) 6
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140)
 This section contains THIRTY FIVE (35) 157. Physalia is also known as:-
questions. (1) Sea pen
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) (2) Sea fan
and (4) ONLY ONE of these four option is (3) Portuguese man of war
correct (4) Brain coral
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : + 4 If ONLY the correct option is 158. Planaria posses high capacity of
chosen. (1) metamorphosis
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is (2) metagenesis
chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). (3) metamerism
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (4) Regenaration

159. Which of the following is common in both

151. Water canal system in sponges helps in:-
(1) Food gathering ctenophora and cnidarians:
(2) Respiratory exchange (1) Digestion is both intracellular and
(3) Removal of waste extracellular
(4) All of above (2) Cnidoblast and tentacles
(3) only sexual means of reproduction
152. Find incorrect match:- (4) Metagenesis
(1) Sycon- Scypha
(2) Euspongia-bath sponge 160. Which of the following is known as Tapeworm
(1) Earthworm
(3) Spongilla – freshwater sponge
(2) Fasciola hepatica
(4) Sycon- bath sponge
(3) Taenia Solium
(4) Periplaneta americana
153. All the following are present in
sponges,except:-
161. The function of flame cells are :-
(1) Spicules
(1) Digestion and excretion
(2) Choanocytes
(2) Excretion and osmoregulation
(3) A digestive tract
(3) Excretion and anchorage
(4) Sexual and/ or asexual reproduction
(4) Attachment and osmoregulation

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162. Ctenophores are commonly called as:- 169. Chitinous exoskeleton is present in:-
(1) Cnidarians (1) Mollusca
(2) Sea almonds (2) Arthropoda
(3) Sea anemone (3) Echinodermata
(4) Sea walnuts (4) Porifera

163. Which is true for roundworms:- 170. Which of the following are member of largest
(1) Organ-system level of body organisation phylum:
(2) Tube within tube body plan (1) Hookworm
(3) Pseudo-coelomate animals (2) Pinworm
(4) All of these (3) Earthworm
(4) Silk worm
164. Which of the following groups of animals is
bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic? 171. Presence of radula and feather like gills are
(1) Coelentrates characteristics of:-
(2) Ctenophores (1) Delphinus (2) Pila
(3) Sponges (3) Pavo (4) Rattus
(4) Aschelminthes
172. Which is also called as pearl oyster:-
165. Digestive system consists of a mouth and (1) Pila (2) Pinctada
anus in which animals:- (3) Aplysia (4) Dentalium
(1) Adamsia (2) Wuchureria
(3) Physalia (4) spongilla 173. Which is also called Devil Fish:-
(1) Loligo
166. Which one of the following is not characteristic (2) Octopus
of phylum-Annelida:- (3) Echinus
(1) Closed circulatory system (4) Anteadon
(2) segmentation
(3) Pseudocoelom 174. In which of the following animal the adults
(4) Ventral nerve cord have radial symmetry while their larvae are
bilaterally symmetrical?
167. Select the group of animals belonging to same (1) Pinctada
phyla:- (2) Aplysia
(1) Cockroach, Limulus, laccifer (3) Echinus
(2) Pheretima, chaetopleura, Ophiura (4) Dentalium
(3) Nereis, Dentalium, Aplysia
(4) Cucumaria, Anteadon, Loligo 175. Endoskeleton of calcerous ossicles is found
in:-
168. Assertion (A): the body of reptiles is covered (1) Arthropoda
by dry and cornifies skin, epidermal scales or (2) Mollusca
scutes. (3) Echinodermata
Reason (R): reptiles are true terestrial (4) Sponges
vertebrates
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 176. Which of the following is not cnidarian:-
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (1) Sea anemone
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (2) Sea fan
correct explanation of (A) (3) Sea cucumber
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (4) Sea pen
the correct explanation of (A)

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177. In which of the following animals, the body is 183. Select the Incorrect statements with respect
cylindrical and composed of an anterior to Cyclostomes:
proboscis,a collar and a long trunk? (a) They lack scales and paired fins.
(1) Hemichordates (b) They have circular mouth with Jaws.
(2) Urochordates (c) They bear 6-15 pairs of gills.
(d) They migrate to deep sea for spawning.
(3) Cephalochordates
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(4) Vertebrates
options given below :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
178. Which of the following is not seen in (3) (b) and (d) only (4) (a) and (d) only
hemichordates?
(1) Rudimentary notochord 184. Air bladder is found in:
(2) Stomochord (1) Aves (2) Cyclostomata
(3) A tripartite body organisation (3 parts) (3) Chondrichthyes (4) Osteichthyes
(4) Proboscis gland 185. In which of the following animals, digestive
tract has additional chambers like crop and
179. The similarity between protochordate and gizzard?
hemichordate is: (1) Catla, Columba, Crocodilus
(1) Presence of notochord (2) Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
(2) Exclusively marine (3) Corvus, Columba ,Chameleon
(3) Exclusively parasitic (4) Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus
(4) Dorsal hollow and single central nervous
system SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
 This section contains FIFTEEN (15)
questions. You have attempt any 10
180. Which of the following is not excretory
Questions. If a student attempts more than
structure found in invertebrates:-
10 questions, then only first 10 questions
(1) Flame cells which he has attempted will be checked.
(2) Kidney  Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3)
(3) Malpighian tubules and (4) ONLY ONE of these four option is
(4) Nephridia correct
 Marking scheme :
181. Match the following columns and select the  Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is
correct option: chosen.
Column-l Column-ll  Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is
chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
(a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits (i) Trygon
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(b) placoid scales (ii) Cyclostomes
(c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
186. Given below are two statements:
(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
Statement-l: Amphibians and reptiles have a
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3-chambered heart with two atria and a single
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) ventricle; and oviparous in nature
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) Statement-ll: Crocodiles possess a 4
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) chambered heart with two ventricles and two
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) atria; and viviparous in nature.
In the light of the-above statements, choose
182. Which of the following animals has three the most appropriate answer from the options
chambered heart ? given below:
(1) Scoliodon (1) Statement-II is correct and statement I is
(2) Hippocampus wrong
(2) Both the statements I and II are correct
(3) Chelone
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is
(4) Pteropus
wrong
(4) Both the statements I and II are wrong

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187. Given below are two statements: one is 192. Statement I: Animals like annelids,
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is arthropods, etc. exhibit radial symmetry.
labelled as Reason: (R). Statement II: Any plane that passes through
Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates the centre does not divide them into equal
but all chordates are not vertebrates. halves
Reason (R) : Notochord is replaced by
(1) If both statement I and statement II are
vertebral column in the adult vertebrates
true.
In the light of the above statements, choose
(2) If statement I is false, but statement II is
the most appropriate answer from the options
given below: true.
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) If statement I is true, but statement II is
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (4) If both statement I and statement II are
correct explanation of (A) false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
193. Statement I: Osteichthyes fish swim
constantly to avoid sinking.
188. Choose the correct statement
Statement II: Air bladder is absent in fishes
(1) Arthropoda Head - Abdomen - tail
of class Osteichthyes.
(2) Mollusca  Head - Muscular - foot, trunk
(1) If both statement I and statement II are
(3) Mollusca Head - Muscular foot- visceral
hump true.
(2) If statement I is false, but statement II is
(4) Mollusca  Head - foot - trunk – hump
true.
(3) If statement I is true, but statement II is
189. Which of the following is a dioecious member
of Annelida false.
(1) Pheretima (4) If both statement I and statement II are
(2) Neries false.
(3) Hirudinaria
(4) None 194. Which one of the following characteristics is
not shared by birds and mammals?
190. Nereis possess lateral appendages called (1) Warm blooded nature
parapodia, they help in (2) Ossified endoskeleton
(1) Excretion (3) Breathing using lungs
(2) capturing prey
(4) Viviparity
(3) Swimming
(4) Respiration
195. Match the column I with column II and choose
191. Statement-I : Snakes and lizards shed their the correct option.
scales as skin cast Column I Column II
Statement-II: They are viviparous and a. Aves 1. Dual habitat
development is indirect b. Mammalia 2. Jaw absent
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is c. Amphibia 3. External ears
correct d. Cyclostomata 4. Pneumatic bones
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (1) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
correct (2) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (3) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
incorrect
(4) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect
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196. Statement I: In Earthworm, the body shows 200. Select the incorrect statement.
the phenomenon of metamerism. (1) In Urochordata, notochord is present only
Statement II: In Earthworm, the body is in larval tail.
externally and internally divided intos (2) In Cephalochordata, notochord is present
egments. in head region only and is persistent
(1) If both statement I and statement II are throughout their life.
true. (3) In vertebrata, notochord is replaced by
(2) If statement I is false, but statement II is vertebral column in adult.
true. (4) All vertebrates are chordates but all
(3) If statement I is true, but statement II is chordates are not vertebrates.
false.
(4) If both statement I and statement II are
false.

197. Statement I: The need for classification

becomes all the more important.
Statement II: Over a million species of
animals have been described till now
(1) If both statement I and statement II are
true.
(2) If statement I is false, but statement II is
true.
(3) If statement I is true, but statement II is
false.
(4) If both statement I and statement II are
false.

198. When body cavity is not lined by mesoderm,

instead, the mesoderm is present as
scattered pouches in between the ectoderm
and endoderm. Such a body cavity is called
(1) Coelom
(2) True coelom
(3) Pseudocoelom
(4) Acoelom

199. True segmentation or metamerism means

(1) Body is externally and internally divided
into segments
(2) Each segment of body have serial
repetition of at least some organs
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) There is no repetition of any organ in
successive segments.

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