©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ ‚’‚ ™§¬⁄UË ‚Ë‹ ∑§Ê πÊ‹∑§⁄U ¬Îc∆U ‚¥ÅÿÊ 2 •ÊÒ⁄U 3 ∑§ ◊äÿ SÕÊÁ¬Ã OMR

©ûÊ⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ∑§Ê ÁŸ∑§Ê‹ ‹¥– ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‚¥. :

Candidates should open the top side of the seal of this Booklet and take Booklet No. :
out the OMR Answer Sheet placed at page no. 2 and 3.
¬⁄ˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê oÎ¥π‹Ê —
SB-CS ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê / EXAMINATION QUESTION BOOKLET Test Booklet Series : A
ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà ‚◊ÿ — 180 Á◊Ÿ≈U •Áœ∑§Ã◊ •¥∑§ — 120
Time Allowed : 180 Minutes COMPUTER SCIENCE Maximum Marks : 120
⁄UÊ‹ Ÿ¥. ©ûÊ⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ‚¥.—
Roll No. : Answer Sheet No. :
¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ ‚ ¬„‹ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà •ŸÈŒ‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ ‚ ¬…∏ ‹¥– / Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ •ŸÈŒ‡Ê Instructions to the Candidates
1. ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U Á‹πŸÊ •Ê⁄¥U÷ ∑§⁄UŸ ‚ ¬„‹ •Ê¬ ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ë ¡Ê°ø ∑§⁄U∑§ ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øà 1. Before you start to answer the questions you must check this booklet and
∑§⁄U ‹¥ Á∑§ ß‚◊¥ ¬Í⁄U ¬Îc∆U (1-16) „Ò¥ ÃÕÊ ∑§Ê߸ ¬Îc∆U ÿÊ ©‚∑§Ê ÷ʪ ∑§◊ ÿÊ ŒÈ’Ê⁄UÊ ÃÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ensure that it contains all the pages (1-16) and see that no page or portion
•Ê ªÿÊ „Ò– ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ÿ„ ÷Ë ¡Ê°ø ∑§⁄UŸË „Ò Á∑§ ©Ÿ∑§Ê ∑§fl‹ ©‚ S≈˛UË◊ ∑§Ë ‚„Ë thereof is missing or repeated. Candidates are also required to check that
¬⁄UˡÊÊ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê Á◊‹Ë „Ò Á¡‚∑§ Á‹∞ ©ã„Ê¥Ÿ •ÊflŒŸ Á∑§ÿÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ¡Ê ©Ÿ∑§ Admit they have got the right question booklet strictly from the stream candidate has
applied for and printed on the Admit Card i.e. Computer Science OR Information
Card ◊¥ ¿U¬Ê „Ò •ÕʸØ ∑¥§åÿÍ≈U⁄U ‚Êߥ‚ ÿÊ ‚ÍøŸÊ ¬˝ÊlÊÁª∑§Ë ÿÊ ß‹Ä≈˛UÊÚÁŸÄ‚– ÿÁŒ •Ê¬
Technology OR Electronics. If you find any defect in this Booklet, you must
ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ ∑§Ê߸ òÊÈÁ≈U ¬Ê∞¥, ÃÊ Ãà∑§Ê‹ ß‚∑§ ’Œ‹ ŒÍ‚⁄UË ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‹– get it replaced immediately.
2. •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U-‡ÊË≈U ¬˝‡Ÿ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ „Ë ©¬‹éœ ⁄U„ªË– ∑Χ¬ÿÊ ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øà ∑§⁄¥U Á∑§ 2. OMR Answer-Sheet is within the Question Booklet. Please ensure
•Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ‚¥ÅÿÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬⁄UˡÊáÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‚¥ÅÿÊ ‚◊ÊŸ „Ò¥– •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ¬⁄U OMR Answer-Sheet number and Test Booklet No. of Question Paper
¡ÊŸ∑§Ê⁄UË ÷⁄UŸ ‚ ¬„‹ •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ¬⁄U ¿U¬ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ ‚ ¬…∏¥– •Ê¬∑§Ê are same. Read the instructions printed on OMR Answer-Sheet
•Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U-¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U ‚÷Ë Áflfl⁄UáÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê ‚„Ë …¥Uª ‚ ¬Í⁄UÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§Ê«U ∑§⁄UŸÊ „ÊªÊ, ∞‚Ê carefully before filling the information on the OMR Answer-Sheet.
Ÿ ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U •Ê¬∑§Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê ◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑§Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò– ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U You must complete and code all the details on the OMR answer sheet
ŒŸÊ ‡ÊÈM§ ∑§⁄UŸ ‚ ¬„‹ •Ê¬∑§Ê •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U-¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U ÁŒÿ ª∞ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U correctly failing which your answer sheet may not be evaluated. You
•¬Ÿ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U ∑§⁄UŸ „Ê¥ª– ߟ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬Íáʸ M§¬ ‚ ¬Ê‹Ÿ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞, ∞‚Ê must also put your signature on the OMR Answer-Sheet at the
Ÿ ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U •Ê¬∑§Ë •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê ◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑§Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò– prescribed place before you actually start answering the questions.
These instructions must be fully complied with, failing which, your
(ŒÎÁc≈U„ËŸ ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÿ„ Áflfl⁄UáÊ ‹π∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ ÷⁄U ¡Êÿ¥ª– Á»§⁄U ÷Ë, ‚÷Ë OMR Answer-Sheet may not be evaluated. (For V.H. candidates these
ŒÎÁc≈U„ËŸ ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U-‡ÊË≈U ◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U •¬Ÿ ’Ê∞¥ „ÊÕ ∑§ details will be filled in by the scribe. However, all V.H. candidates must put
•¥ªÍ∆U ∑§Ê ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ •fl‡ÿ ‹ªÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞– ß‚∑§ •ÁÃÁ⁄UÄÃ, ¡Ê ŒÎÁc≈U„ËŸ ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U their left-hand thumb impression at the space provided in the OMR Answer-
•¬ŸÊ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U ∑§⁄U ‚∑§Ã „Ò¥, fl •¥ªÍ∆U ∑§ ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ ∑§ •‹ÊflÊ •¬Ÿ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U ÷Ë ∑§⁄¥U–) Sheet. In addition, those V.H. candidates who can sign should also put their
3. •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U-‡ÊË≈U ÃËŸ ¬˝ÁÃÿÊ¥ ◊¥ „Ê¥ªË (◊Í‹ ÃÕÊ ∑§Ê’¸Ÿ ∑§Ë ŒÊ ¬˝ÁÃÁ‹Á¬ÿÊ°)– signatures in addition to thumb impression.)
¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁåà ∑§ ’ÊŒ •Ê.∞◊˜.•Ê⁄.U ∑§Ë ◊Í‹ ‡ÊË≈U ÃÕÊ ∞∑§ ∑§Ê’¸Ÿ ¬˝ÁÃÁ‹Á¬ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ 3. The OMR Answer-Sheet will be in triplicate (Original and two carbon copies).
∑§Ê ‚ÊÒ¥¬Ÿ ∑§ ¬‡øÊØ ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ∞∑§ ∑§Ê’¸Ÿ ¬˝ÁÃÁ‹Á¬ ‹ ¡Ê ‚∑§Ã/‚∑§ÃË „Ò¥– Candidate has to take one carbon copy (marked as ‘candidate copy’) with
ÿÁŒ ∑§Ê߸ ÷Ë ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U ∞‚Ê ∑§⁄UŸ ◊¥ •‚»§‹ ⁄U„ÃÊ/⁄U„ÃË „Ò ÃÊ ©‚∑§Ë ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UË ⁄Ug ∑§⁄U him/her after examination and handover the original OMR along with one
ŒË ¡ÊÿªË– ÿÁŒ ∑§Ê߸ ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U •¬ŸË ∑§Ê’¸Ÿ ¬˝ÁÃÁ‹Á¬ ◊¥ Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê »§⁄U- carbon copy to invigilator. If candidate fails to handover the original OMR
’Œ‹ ∑§⁄U ©‚∑§Ê ŒÊflÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ/ ∑§⁄UÃË „Ò ÃÊ ß‚ ÁSÕÁà ◊¥ ÷Ë ©‚∑§Ê/©‚∑§Ë ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UË ⁄Ug along with one carbon copy to invigilator, his /her candidature will be cancelled.
Further, if the candidate tampers with candidate OMR carbon copy and
∑§Ë ¡ÊÿªË– claims for same, in that case also his/her candidature will be cancelled.
4. ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ 120 ’„ÈÁfl∑§À¬Ëÿ ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¥– ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ 4 Áfl∑§À¬ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥, 4. This booklet consists of 120 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4
(A), (B), (C) •ÊÒ⁄U (D)– Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ÁSÕÁà ◊¥ ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ∑§fl‹ ∞∑§ Áfl∑§À¬ „Ë ‚„Ë (four) alternatives (A), (B), (C) and (D). In any case only one alternative will
©ûÊ⁄U „Ò– ÿÁŒ •Ê¬∑§Ê ∞∑§ ‚ •Áœ∑§ Áfl∑§À¬ ‚„Ë ‹ª¥ ÃÊ ‚’‚ •Áœ∑§ ©Áøà ∞∑§ be the correct answer. In case if you find more than one correct answer, then
Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§Ê øÈŸÊfl ∑§⁄¥U •ÊÒ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ◊¥ ‚ê’¥ÁœÃ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ ‚Ê◊Ÿ flÊ‹ ©¬ÿÈÄà ªÊ‹ ∑§Ê choose the most appropriate single option and darken the appropriate circle in
∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄¥U– the answer sheet in front of the related question.
5. ¬˝‡Ÿ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ ŒÊ ÷ʪ „Ò¥ — ÷ʪ A : ‚Ê◊Êãÿ (42 ¬˝‡Ÿ) •ÊÒ⁄U ÷ʪ B : Ã∑§ŸË∑§Ë (78 5. Question Booklet consists of two parts : Part A : Generic (having 42 questions)
¬˝‡Ÿ)– ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U ∑§Ê ŒÊŸÊ¥ ÷ʪÊ¥ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U Á‹πŸÊ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸ „Ò¥– and Part B : Technical (having 78 questions). Candidates has to attempt both
6. ¬˝àÿ∑§ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ 1 •¥∑§ ÁŒÿÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝àÿ∑§ ª‹Ã ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ 0.25 •¥∑§ parts compulsorily.
∑§Ê≈U Á‹ÿÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ– 6. For each correct answer One mark will be given and for each incorrect
7. ªÊ‹ ∑§Ê ∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§fl‹ ∑§Ê‹/ŸË‹ ’ÊÚ‹ åflÊߥ≈U ¬UŸ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄¥U– ªÊ‹ ∑§Ê answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
7. Use Black/Blue ball point Pen to darken the circle. Answer once darkened is
∞∑§ ’Ê⁄U ∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ ’ÊŒ ß‚∑§Ê Á◊≈UÊŸ ÿÊ ’Œ‹Ÿ ∑§Ë •ŸÈ◊Áà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò– ÿÁŒ Á∑§‚Ë not allowed to be erased or altered. Against any question if more than one
¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ ‚Ê◊Ÿ ∞∑§ ‚ íÿÊŒÊ ªÊ‹ ∑§Ê‹ Á∑§ÿ ª∞ „Ê¥ ÃÊ ◊‡ÊËŸ mÊ⁄UÊ ©‚∑§ Á‹∞ ‡ÊÍãÿ circle is darkened, machine will allot zero mark for that question.
•¥∑§ ÁŒÿÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ– 8. Do not fold answer sheet in any case.
8. Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ÁSÕÁà ◊¥ ©ûÊ⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ∑§Ê Ÿ ◊Ê«∏¥– 9. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet. Space for rough work has
9. ©ûÊ⁄U-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ¬⁄U ∑§Ê߸ ÷Ë ⁄U»§ ∑§Êÿ¸ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UŸÊ „Ò– ⁄U»§ ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ been provided in this booklet.
SÕÊŸ ÁŒÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò– 10. Mobile phones and wireless communication devices are completely banned
10. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§◊⁄UÊ¥ ◊¥ ◊Ê’Êß‹ $»§ÊŸ ÃÕÊ ’ÃÊ⁄U ‚¥øÊ⁄U ‚ÊœŸ ¬Í⁄UË Ã⁄U„ ÁŸÁ·h „Ò¥– in the examination hall/rooms. Candidates are advised not to keep mobile
©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©Ÿ∑§ •¬Ÿ Á„à ◊¥ ‚‹Ê„ ŒË ¡ÊÃË „Ò Á∑§ ◊Ê’Êß‹ $»§ÊŸ/Á∑§‚Ë •ãÿ ’ÃÊ⁄U phones/any other wireless communication devices with them even switching
‚¥øÊ⁄U ‚ÊœŸ ∑§Ê ÁSflø •ÊÚ»§ ∑§⁄U∑§ ÷Ë •¬Ÿ ¬Ê‚ Ÿ ⁄Uπ¥– ß‚ ¬˝ÊflœÊŸ ∑§Ê •ŸÈ¬Ê‹Ÿ Ÿ it off, in their own interest. Failing to comply with this provision will be
∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ê ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ◊¥ •ŸÈÁøà ©¬ÊÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ©Ÿ∑§ ÁflL§h ∑§Êÿ¸flÊ„Ë considered as using unfair means in the examination and action will be taken
against them including cancellation of their candidature.
∑§Ë ¡Ê∞ªË, Á¡‚◊¥ ©Ÿ∑§Ë ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UË ⁄Ug ∑§⁄UŸÊ ÷Ë ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ „Ò–
11. Candidate should not leave the examination hall / room without
11. •èÿÕ˸ •¬ŸË ©ûÊ⁄U ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ¬ÿ¸flˇÊ∑§ ∑§Ê ‚ÊÒ¥¬ Á’ŸÊ •ÊÒ⁄U •¬Ÿ ⁄UÊ‹ Ÿ¥’⁄U ∑§ ‚Ê◊Ÿ handing over his/her Answer-Sheet to the invigilator and without
©Áøà SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U ©¬ÁSÕÁà ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U Á∑§∞ Á’ŸÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ‚ ’Ê„⁄U Ÿ„Ë¥ signing on the attendance sheet at proper place against your roll
¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ– ß‚∑§ •‹ÊflÊ •èÿÕ˸ ∑§Ê ©¬ÁSÕÁà ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U ∑§⁄UŸ ‚ ¬„‹ ÿ„ number, further candidate should also ensure that booklet no., booklet
÷Ë ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øà ∑§⁄UŸÊ øÊÁ„∞ Á∑§ ’È∑§‹≈U Ÿ¥’⁄U, ’È∑§‹≈U ‚Ë⁄UË¡ •ÊÒ⁄U •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U series and OMR Answer-Sheet No. are correctly written on attendance
¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‚¥ÅÿÊ ‚„Ë …¥Uª ‚ Á‹πË ªß¸ „Ê– ∞‚Ê ŸÊ ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U, •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê sheet before signing on it, failing in doing so, may lead to
∑§Ê •◊Êãÿ ◊ÊŸÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ/◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑§Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò– disqualification / no evaluation of OMR Answer-Sheet.
¡’ Ã∑§ •Ê¬‚ ∑§„Ê Ÿ ¡Ê∞ Ã’ Ã∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê Ÿ πÊ‹¥ / DO NOT OPEN THE QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U ∑§Ê ŸÊ◊/Name of Candidate : ________________________ ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U ∑§ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U/Signature of Candidate : ___________________
 PART - A 6. Rakesh is standing at a point. He walks
20 m towards the East and further 10 m
GENERIC towards the South, then he walks 35 m
towards the West and further 5 m towards
the North, then he walks 15 m towards
Directions (1-2) : Use following diagrams to the East. What is the straight distance in
answer question number 1 to 2 : metres between his starting point and the
point where he reached last ?
(A) 0 (B) 5
(C) 10 (D) 15

(I) (II) (III) (IV) Directions (7 - 8) : In the given questions below,

a statement is given followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
1. Cloud, River, Mountain :
take the statement to be true. Read both the
(A) II (B) I conclusions and decide which of the two or
both follow from the given statement. Give
(C) IV (D) III
answer :
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
2. Oxygen, Atmosphere, Nitrogen : (B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either I or II follows.
(A) II (B) I
(D) If neither I nor II follows.
(C) IV (D) III
7. The top management has asked the four
managers either to resign by tomorrow or
Directions (3-5) : In each of the following face the order of service termination. Three
questions, one number is wrong in the series. of them have resigned till this very
Find out the wrong number. evening.
I The manager who did not resign
3. 3, 5, 12, 39, 154, 772, 4634 : yesterday will resign tomorrow.
II The management will terminate the
(A) 5 (B) 3
service of one manager.
(C) 39 (D) 154
8. A study of planning commission reveals
boom in revenues. However, this has been
4. 1, 9, 25, 49, 86, 121 :
of little avail owing to soaring expenditure.
(A) 25 (B) 121 In the event, there has been a high dose of
deficit financing, leading to marked rise
(C) 166 (D) 86
in prices. Large financial outlays year after
year had little impact on level of living.
5. 701, 348, 173, 85, 41, 19, 8 : I A boom in revenues leads to rise in
prices.
(A) 173 (B) 41 II Large financial outlays should be
(C) 19 (D) 348 avoided.

A/Page 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SB-CS

Directions (9-13) : Read the information given Directions (14-18) : Read the information given
below and on the basis of the information, below and on the basis of the information,
select the correct alternative for each question select the correct alternative for each question
given after the information. given after the information.
There are five persons P, Q, R, S and T. One is M and N are good at hockey and volleyball.
football player, one is chess player, one is hockey O and M are good at hockey and baseball.
player. P and S are unmarried ladies and do not P and N are good at cricket and volleyball. O, P
participate in any game. None of the ladies plays and Q are good at football and basketball.
chess or football. There is a married couple in
which T is the husband. Q is the brother of R
and is neither a chess player nor a hockey player. 14. Who is good at cricket, volleyball and
hockey ?

9. Which of the following is the correct group (A) Q (B) P

of ladies ?
(C) O (D) N
(A) P, Q and R (B) Q, R and S
(C) P, Q and S (D) P, R and S
15. Who is good at baseball, hockey and
volleyball ?
10. Who is the football player ? (A) Q (B) P
(A) Q (B) R
(C) O (D) M
(C) S (D) T

16. Who is good at the largest number of

11. Who is the hockey player ? games ?
(A) T (B) S (A) Q (B) P
(C) R (D) Q (C) O (D) N

12. Who is the wife of T ?

17. Who is good at cricket, baseball and
(A) Q volleyball ?
(B) R (A) Q (B) P
(C) S (C) O (D) N
(D) None of these

18. Who among the following is good at four

13. Who is the chess player ? games ?

(A) Q (B) R (A) Q (B) P

(C) S (D) T (C) O (D) M

A/Page 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SB-CS

Directions (19-21) : Read the information given 23. The students in a class are seated
below and on the basis of the information, according to their marks in the previous
select the correct alternative for each question examination. Once it so happens that four
given after the information. of these students get equal marks and
(i) Six flats on a floor in two rows facing therefore the same rank. To decide their
North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, seating arrangement, the teacher wants to
T and U. write down all possible arrangements, one
in each of separate bits of paper, in order
(ii) Q gets a north facing flat and is not next
to choose one of these by lots. How many
to S.
bits of paper are required ?
(iii) S and U get diagonally opposite flats.
(iv) R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T (A) 9 (B) 12
gets a north facing flat.
(C) 15 (D) 24
19. Whose flat is between Q and S ?
(A) T (B) U
(C) R (D) P 24. In a mixture of 60 L, the ratio of milk and
water is 2 : 1. If the ratio of milk and water
is to be 1 : 2, then the amount of water to
20. If the flats of T and P are interchanged,
be further added must be :
who’s flat will be next to that of U ?
(A) Q (B) T (A) 40 L (B) 30 L
(C) P (D) R
(C) 20 L (D) 60 L

21. The flats of which of the other pairs than

SU, is diagonally opposite to each other ?
(A) PT (B) PQ 25. Instead of walking along two adjacent
sides of a rectangular field, a boy took a
(C) QR (D) TS short cut along the diagonal and saved a
distance equal to half the longer side. Then,
22. A factory employs skilled workers, the ratio of the shorter side to the longer
unskilled workers and clerks in the side is :
proportion 8 : 5 : 1, and the wages of a
skilled worker, an unskilled worker and a (A) 1/2 (B) 2/3
clerk are in the ratio 5 : 2 : 3. When 20
(C) 1/4 (D) 3/4
unskilled workers are employed, the total
daily wages of all (skilled workers,
unskilled workers and clerks) amount to
` 318. The wages paid to each category of 26. In a parallelogram ABCD, AP and BP are
workers are : the angle bisectors of ∠DAB and ∠ABC.
(A) ` 240, ` 60, ` 18 Find ∠APB :
(B) ` 200, ` 90, ` 28
(A) 858 (B) 908
(C) ` 150, ` 108, ` 60
(D) ` 250, ` 50, ` 18 (C) 948 (D) 868

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27. In a fraction, numerator is increased by 31. A, B and C rented a pasture by paying
25% and the denominator is diminished ` 2160 per month. They put 60, 40 and
by 10%. The new fraction obtained is 5/9. 20 sheep respectively. A sells 1/3 of his
The original fraction is : sheep to B after 6 months and after
3 months more C sells 2/5 of his sheep to
(A) 2/5 A. Find the rent paid by C at the end of
the year :
(B) 5/9 (A) ` 4355 (B) ` 3888
(C) ` 2464 (D) ` 6224
(C) 3/5

(D) None of the above 32. A cuboid of dimension 24 cm×9 cm×8 cm

is melted and smaller cubes of side 3 cm
are formed. Find how many such cubes
can be formed :
28. ½ log10 25−2 log10 3+log10 18 equals : (A) 27 (B) 64
(C) 54 (D) 32
(A) 18

(B) 1 Directions (33-34) : Read the information given

below and on the basis of the information,
(C) log10 3 select the correct alternative for each question
given after the information.
(D) None of these RURAL SEMI-URBAN STATE CAPITAL METROPOLITAN
YEAR
App Pass App Pass App Pass App Pass
2015 1652 208 7894 2513 5054 1468 9538 3214
2016 1839 317 8562 2933 7164 3248 10158 4018
2017 2153 932 8139 2468 8258 3159 9695 3038
29. If x=p, y=q then which of following are *2018 5032 1798 9432 3528 8529 3628 11247 5158
p and q respectively for pair of equations 2019 4915 1668 9784 4015 9015 4311 12518 6328
2020 5628 2392 9969 4263 10725 4526 13624 6449
3x−7y+10=0 and y−2x−3=0 :
*App - Appeared *Pass - Passed
(A) −1, 1 (B) 1, 1
33. What approximate value was the
(C) 1, 0 (D) 0, 1 percentage drop in the number of
semi-urban candidates appeared from
2016 to 2017 ?
(A) 15 (B) 10
30. A cylindrical vessel 60 cm in diameter is
partially filled with water. A sphere 30 cm (C) 5 (D) 8
in a diameter is dropped into it. The
increase in the level of water in the vessel 34. In which of the following years was the
is : percentage passed to appeared candidates
from semi-urban area the least ?
(A) 2 cm (B) 3 cm
(A) 2015 (B) 2016
(C) 4 cm (D) 5 cm (C) 2017 (D) 2018

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35. He was not only accused of theft 39. Identify the correct spelling out of the given
__________ of conspiracy. options :

(A) rather (B) but also

(A) Managable (B) Manageable
(C) but even (D) rather than
(C) Mangaeble (D) Managible

36. “The dress __________ him so well that

she immediately __________ him on his
appearance.” The words that best fill the 40. “Going by the __________ that many
blanks in the above sentence are : hands make light work, the school
__________ involved all the students in the
(A) complemented, complemented task.” The words that best fill the blanks
in the above sentence are :
(B) complimented, complemented

(C) complimented, complimented (A) principle, principal

(D) complemented, complimented (B) principal, principle

(C) principle, principle

Each of these questions (37-38) has an
idiomatic expression followed by four options. (D) principal, principal
Choose the one closest to its meaning.

37. Talk shop :

41. Which of the following options is the
(A) Talk about once profession closest in meaning to the word below ?
DELETERIOUS
(B) Talk about shopping
(A) delaying (B) glorious
(C) Ridicule

(D) Treat lightly (C) harmful (D) graduating

38. Stick to once guns :

42. The fisherman, __________ the flood
(A) remain faithful to the cause victims owed their lives, were rewarded
by the govt.
(B) suspect something
(A) whom (B) to which
(C) make something fail

(D) be satisfied (C) to whom (D) to that

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 PART - B 47. The following circuit depicts the
implementation of __________.
TECHNICAL

43. Write Recurrence of Quick Sort in worst

case.
(A) T(n)=T(n−1)+1 (A) XOR Gate (B) AND Gate
(B) T(n)=T(n−1)+n (C) OR Gate (D) NAND Gate

(C) T(n)=2T(n−1)+n
48. The following type definition is for
(D) T(n)=T(n/3)+T(2n/2)+n
a __________.
type pointer=↑node
44. y=10 cos (1800 πt)+20 cos (2000 πt) node = record
+10 cos (220 πt). Find the modulation
index (µ) of the given wave. data : integer
link : pointer
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.5
(C) 0.7 (D) 1
end;
(A) Structure
45. Match the following :
(B) Link List
List - I List - II (C) Stack
W. Condition coverage 1. Black-box testing
(D) Doubly link list
X. Equivalence class 2. System testing
partitioning
Y. Volume testing 3. White-box testing 49. Let P(x) be “x is perfect”, F(x) be “x is your
friend” and the domain be all people. The
Z. Alpha testing 4. Performance testing
statement, “At least one of your friends is
(A) W-2, X-3, Y-1, Z-4 perfect” is :
(B) W-3, X-4, Y-2, Z-1 (A) ∀x (F(x) → P(x))

(C) W-3, X-1, Y-4, Z-2 (B) ∀x (F(x) v P(x))

(C) ∃x (F(x) v P(x))
(D) W-3, X-1, Y-2, Z-4
(D) ∃x (F(x) → P(x))

46. __________ is the class of decision

problems that can be solved by non- 50. When factorizing the Boolean equation
deterministic polynomial algorithms. Y = AB + AB , the result will be :
(A) NP (B) P (A) AB (B) AB
(C) Hard (D) Complete (C) A (D) B

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51. The __________ of a relationship is 0 if 55. 100 elements can be sorted in 100 sec using
there is no explicit need for the relationship bubble sort. In 400 sec, approximately
to occur or the relationship is optional. __________ elements can be sorted.

(A) modality (A) 100 (B) 200

(C) 300 (D) 400
(B) cardinality

(C) entity
56. The maximum number of times the
(D) structured analysis decrease key operation performed in
Dijkstra’s algorithm will be equal
to __________.

52. A language L is recognizable by a turing (A) Total number of vertices

machine M if and only if L is a __________
(B) Total number of edges
language.
(C) Number of vertices −1
(A) Type 0 (B) Type 1
(D) Number of edges −1
(C) Type 2 (D) Type 3

57. __________ is the elapsed time between

the time a program or job is submitted and
53. The __________ enables the software
the time when it is completed.
engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional (A) Response time
domain at the same time.
(B) Turnaround time
(A) data flow diagram
(C) Waiting time
(B) state transition diagram (D) Throughput
(C) control specification

(D) activity diagram 58. The determinant of matrix

 0 p− q p− r 
 q− p 0 q − r  is __________.

54. An analog signal having 3 kHz bandwidth  r − p r− q 0 
is sampled at 1.5 times the Nyquist rate.
The successive samples are statistically
independent. Each sample is quantized
into one of 256 equally likely levels. The (A) 0
information rate of the source is :
(B) (p−q)(q−r)(r−p)
(A) 3 kbps (B) 72 kbps (C) pqr
(C) 256 kbps (D) 9 kbps (D) 3pqr

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59. A wireless network interface controller can 64. The operating system stores an
work in __________. __________ in order to decide to which
user to grant which access rights to which
(A) infrastructure mode file ?
(B) ad-hoc mode (A) File allocation table
(C) both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc (B) Process control block
mode (C) Access control matrix
(D) WDS mode (D) File control matrix

65. Assume that a DBA issued the following

60. ABC *+ is the postfix form of : create table command :
(A) A * B+C (B) A*+BC create table A (Aid, ………)
(C) A+B * C (D) none of these storage (initial 20480, next 20480,
maxextents 8, minextents 3,
pctincrease 0 );
61. If developer wants to transform model into How many bytes of disk space will be
source code is also known as__________. allocated to this file when it is first
created ?
(A) Backward Testing/Engineering
(A) 163,840 bytes
(B) Forward Engineering
(B) 20480 bytes
(C) Forward Testing (C) 61,440 bytes
(D) Reverse Engineering (D) 8 bytes

66. Dijkstra’s Algorithm cannot be applied on

62. The number of 4 digit numbers which
__________.
contain not more than two different digits
is : (A) Directed and weighted graphs

(A) 576 (B) 567 (B) Graphs having negative weight

function
(C) 513 (D) 504 (C) Unweighted graph
(D) Undirected and unweighted graphs
63. In Software Modeling ‘IS A’ represents
__________ relationship. 67. The channel capacity of a noise free
channel having M symbols is given by :
(A) Aggregation
(A) M
(B) Over loading
(B) 2M
(C) Inheritance (C) log M
(D) Design Patterns (D) None of these

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68. Which type of illustration lists the 72. What is the value of f (4) using the
functionality of whole project ? following C code :
int f (int k) {
(A) DFD-0
if (k < 3)
(B) Class Diagram return k;
(C) Use case Diagram else
return f (k−1) * f (k−2)+f (k−3);
(D) State Diagram
}
(A) 5 (B) 6
69. If the size of the logical address space is (C) 7 (D) 8
2m and the page size is 2n addressing
units, then the high order m-n bits of a 73. What will be the Eulerian tour of the
logical address designate the __________. following graph G ?
(A) offset
(B) page no

(C) frame no
(D) physical address

(A) 1−2−3−4−5−6−7−8−
70. A bottom-up parser generates __________. 6−4−2−8−1
(A) Rightmost derivation (B) 1−2−3−4−5−6−7−8
(C) 1−2−3−4−5−6−7−8−
(B) Rightmost derivation in reverse 1
(C) Leftmost derivation (D) 8−7−6−5−4−3−2−1

(D) Leftmost derivation in reverse

74. DELETE [FROM] table [WHERE
condition]; from the syntax if you omit the
WHERE clause.
71. Let the random variable X has a mixed
(A) All rows in the table are deleted.
distributions with probability P(X=0)=α,
and the density function. (B) It will give you an error.
(C) No rows will be deleted.
βx 2 (1 − x ), 0 < x < 1
fx ( x ) =  (D) Only one row will be deleted.
 0, otherwise
75. What is WPA ?
If the expectation of X is α, then the value
(A) wi-fi protected access
of 4α+β is equal to :
(B) wired protected access
(A) 9/2 (B) 6 (C) wired process access
(C) 9 (D) 5/2 (D) wi-fi process access

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76. In a paging scheme if page size is of 2048 80. The following grammer is an example
bytes, then while accommodating a of __________.
process of 72, 766 bytes, how much
A→aABC
internal fragmentation occurs ?
CB → B c
(A) 962 bytes (B) 2048 bytes
A→abc

(C) 1024 bytes (D) 1086 bytes bB→bb

B→cba
(A) Type 0 Grammer
77. A high resolution B/w TV picture contains (B) Type 1 Grammer
3×106 picture elements and 16 different
(C) Type 2 Grammer
brightness levels. Pictures are repeated at
a rate of 24 per second. All levels have (D) Type 3 Grammer
equal likelihood of occurrence and all
picture elements are assumed to be
independent. What will be the average 81. The two numbers represented in Signed
rate of information carried by this TV 2’s complement form are
picture source ?
A=11101101 and B=11100110. If B is
subtracted from A, the value obtained in
(A) 288 Mbps (B) 24 Mbps
signed 2’s complement is :

(C) 132 Mbps (D) 3 Mbps (A) 111000101 (B) 00000111

(C) 11111000 (D) 10000011

78. Which of the following sorting algorithms 82. The equivalent relational algebra
has the lowest worst-case complexity ? expression for the query “Find the names
of suppliers who supplied all the items to
(A) Merge sort (B) Bubble sort all the customers”.
(A) ¬ t/t ∈ supplier (Q(t))
(C) Quick sort (D) Insertion sort
(B) ∀ t [ Sname] / t ∈ supplier (Q(t))
(C) t/¬ t ∈ supplier (Q(t))
(D) ∀ t / ( ~Q(t))
79. A protected variable which can be
accessed and changed by particular set of
operation is called : 83. The number of un-labeled non-isomorphic
graphs with four vertices is :
(A) interrupt (B) monitor
(A) 12 (B) 11
(C) semaphore (D) IPC (C) 10 (D) 9

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84. TCP/IP model does not have __________ 89. Who developed standards for the OSI
layer but OSI model have this layer. reference model ?

(A) session layer (A) ANSI - American National

Standards Institute
(B) transport layer
(B) ISO - International Standards
(C) application layer Organization

(D) network layer (C) IEEE - Institute of Electrical and

Electronics Engineering
(D) ACM - Association for Computing
85. The bit transmission rate in a pulse coded Machinery
modulation system with number of
quantization levels 8 and maximum signal
frequency 4000 Hz is given by : 90. A binary tree of depth K is called a full
binary tree of depth K, if it has exactly
(A) 16 kbps (B) 24 kbps __________ nodes.

(C) 32 kbps (D) 8 kbps (A) K (B) 2k

(C) 2 k −1 (D) 2 k +1

86. The bit rate of digital communication

system is R kbit/s. The modulation used is 91. Following are implicitly provided in C
32-QAM. The minimum bandwidth programming language :
required for ISI free transmission is : (A) Output facility
(A) R/10 Hz (B) R/10 kHz (B) Input facility

(C) R/5 Hz (D) R/5 kHz (C) Both Input and Output facility
(D) No input and Output facility

87. Convert (503201)6 into (?)4

92. Which address is used to identify a process
(A) 12122231 (B) 11000011 on a host by the transport layer ?
(C) 21222301 (D) 22323301 (A) physical address
(B) logical address
(C) port address
88. Each layer of the OSI model receives
services or data from a __________ layer. (D) specific address

(A) below layer

93. The spectral efficiency of QPSK null to null
(B) above layer
having a width 4 Hz will be :
(C) both (A) and (B) (A) ½ (B) 1
(D) None of the above (C) ¼ (D) 4

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94. The complement of the expression 99. Two Important lexical categories
are __________.
Y = ABC + ABC + A B C + A BC is :
(A) White Space
(A) ( A + B) ( A + C ) (B) Comments
(C) White Space & Comments
(B) ( A + B) ( A + C )
(D) None of the options
(C) ( A+ B ) ( A + C )
100. Delivery of the software product on time
(D) ( A+ B ) ( A+ C ) is considered as __________.
(A) SDLC
(B) User Satisfaction
x x (C) Planning
95. If z = cos   + sin   , then xzx+yzy
y y (D) UI/UX design for software
is equal to __________.
(A) z (B) 2z 101. Which of the following Boolean
expressions is not logically equivalent to
(C) 4z (D) 0 all of the rest ?
(A) ab+(cd)’+cd+bd’
96. For which one of the following sequences (B) a (b+c)+cd
CAN NOT be a degree sequence of a graph (C) ab+ac+(cd)’
of order 5 ?
(D) bd’+c’d’+ab+cd
(A) 3, 3, 2, 2, 2 (B) 3, 3, 3, 3, 2
(C) 3, 3, 3, 2, 2 (D) 4, 3, 3, 2, 2 102. On changing to spherical co-ordinates, the
integral ∫∫∫Vdy dxdz, where V is the volume
of the hemisphere x 2 +y 2 +z 2 =a 2 , is
97. If integer means to 2 bytes of storage then equivalent to the integral __________.
maximum value of a signed integer is :
π
2π a
2 16 −1 2 15 −1
∫0 ∫ ∫0 r
(A) (B) 2 2
(A) sinθ drdθ dφ
0
(C) 2 16 (D) 2 15
2π π a
∫0 ∫0 ∫0 r
2
(B) sinθ drdθ dφ
98. Which is the layer that converts Packets
to Frames and Frames to Packets in the
OSI model ? π π
a
∫ ∫ ∫0 r
2 2 2
(C) sinθ drdθ dφ
(A) Physical Layer 0 0
(B) Data Link Layer
π
2π a
(C) Network Layer
∫0 ∫ ∫0 r
2 2
(D) cosθ drdθ dφ
0
(D) Transport Layer

A/Page 13 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SB-CS

103. For a hamming code of parity bit m=5, 108. What will be the result of following
what is the total bits and data bits ? relational algebra expression ?
(A) (255, 247) (B) (127, 119)
πA, B (σC=10(R))
(C) (31, 26) (D) (0, 8)
(A) Print columns A & B from relation R
when C=10
104. What is the access point (AP) in a wireless
LAN ? (B) Print C=10 from relation R

(A) device that allows wireless devices (C) Print all data of relation R when
to connect to a wired network C=10
(B) wireless devices itself (D) Print A, B, C from relation B when
(C) both device that allows wireless C=10
devices to connect to a wired
network and wireless devices itself
109. What does the following code do ?
(D) all the nodes in the network
int a, b;
105. A sequence of statement of the form x=y a=a+b;
op z is called a :
b=a−b;
(A) Three address code
a=a−b;
(B) Syntax tree
(C) Postfix notation (A) leaves a and b unchanged
(D) Operator (B) a doubles and stores in a
(C) b doubles and stores in a
106. One root of x3−x−4=0 lies in (1, 2). In
(D) Exchanges a and b
bisection method, after first iteration the
root lies in the interval __________.
(A) (1, 1.5) 110. In __________, machine is executing
(B) (1.5, 2) operating system instruction :
(C) (1.25, 1.75) (A) System mode (B) User mode
(D) (1.75, 2)
(C) Normal mode (D) Safe mode

107. If all transactions obey the __________,

then all possible interleaved schedules (non 111. If the Value of Register A=9B h & Carry
- serial schedules) are serializable. =1. What will be the value of Register
A after executing the RORC instruction
(A) Lock based protocol
1 time ?
(B) Two phase Locking protocol
(A) AB h (B) CD h
(C) Read - write lock based protocol
(D) Time stamp based protocol (C) EF h (D) AC h

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112. (a+b)2 corresponds to the language : 117. A variable p is said to be live at point m if
and only if :
(A) {a+b, a+b}
(A) p is assigned at point m
(B) {aa, ab, ba, bb}
(B) p is not assigned at point m
(C) {abab, baba}
(C) Value of p at m would be used along
(D) {a+b, (a+b)2} some path in the flow graph starting
at point m
(D) Value of p at m would be used along
113. When a cache is 10 times faster than main some path in the flow graph ending
memory, and the cache can be used 70% at point m
of the time, how much speed can be
gained using cache ?
(A) ≃ 10 (B) ≃ 0.3 118. Number of entity types participating in
E-R diagrams is represented by :
(C) ≃ 0.7 (D) ≃ 2.7
(A) Degree of relationship
(B) Structure of relationship
114. If data stored in AC=5F h and DR=C2 h (C) Instance of relationship
what is value of AC after AC^DR
operation ? (D) Role of relationship

(A) 9D (B) 42
119. Integration testing, Unit Testing & System
(C) DF (D) DE
Testing are __________ .
(A) Fundamental logic of Testing
115. If A and B are two sets. A binary relation (B) Level Testing
from set A and set B is any subset of
the __________. (C) Core Testing
(D) Testing Suites
(A) Cartesian Product A×B
(B) Union A ∪ B
120. Let Bn denote the number of full binary
(C) Intersection A ∩ B trees with n vertices. Then a recurrence
(D) Addition A+B relation for Bn is :
(A) Bn=Bn−1 +O(1)
(B) Bn=2Bn−1 +O(1)
116. Which notation gives the lower bound of
a function ? (C) Bn=Bn−1 +O(n)

(A) y - notation (D) Bn=2Bn−1 +O(n)

(B) ○ - notation
-o0o-
(C) Ω - notation
(D) None of the these

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 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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