MATHS PAPER
MATHS PAPER
Q1: What is the HCF of smallest prime number and the smallest composite number? (2018)
Q2: Given that √ 2 is irrational, prove that (5+3√ 2) is an irrational Number. (2018)
Q3: Find HCF and LCM OF 404 and 96 and verify that HCF × LCM = Product of the two
given numbers. (2018)
Q4: Find a rational number between √ 2 and √ 3. (2020-21)
Q5: Find the HCF of 1260 and 7344 using Euclid’s algorithm. (2020-21)
OR
Show that every positive odd integer is of the form (4q+1) or (4q+3), where q is some integer.
Q6: Prove that √ 2 is an irrational number. (2020-21)
Q7: The total number of factors of a prime number is: (2021-22)
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3
Q8: The HCF and the LCM of 12,21,15 respectively are (2021-22)
(a) 3, 140 (b) 12, 420 (c) 3, 420 (d) 420, 3
Q9: Show that the square of any positive integer cannot be of the form (5q+2) or (5q+3) for any (2021-22)
integer q.
OR
Prove that one of every three consecutive positive integers is divisible by 3.
Q10: Assertion (A): The number 5n cannot end with the digit 0, where n is a natural number. (2022-23)
Reason (R) : Prime factorization of 5 has only two factors, 1 and 5.
Q11: Using prime factorization, find HCF and LCM of 96 and 120. (2022-23)
Q12: (a) Prove that √ 3 is an irrational number. (2022-23)
OR
(b) The traffic lights at three different road crossings change after every 48 seconds,
72 seconds and 108 seconds respectively. If they change simultaneously at 7 a.m.,
at what time will they change together next?
Chapter-2
Q1: If x=3 is one root of the quadratic equation x2-2kx-6=0, then find the value of k. (2018)
Q2: Find all Zeroes of the polynomial (2x4-9x3+5x2+3x-1) if two of its zeroes are (2+√ 3) and (2-√ 3). (2018)
Q3: Find the value of k such that the polynomial x2 - (k+6)x + 2(2k -1) has sum of its zeros equal
to half of their product. (2020-21)
Q4: If one of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2+3x+k is 2,then the value of k is (2021-22)
(a) 10 (b) -10 (c) -7 (d) -2
Q5: The quadratic polynomial, the sum of whose zeroes is -5 and their product is 6, is: (2021-22)
(a) x2 + 5x + 6 (b) x2 - 5x + 6 (c) x2 - 5x - 6 (d) - x2 + 5x + 6
Q6: The number of polynomials having zeroes -1 and 2 is: (2022-23)
(a) exactly 2 (b) only 1 (c) at most 2 (d) infinite
Q7: In a pool at an aquarium, a dolphin jumps out of the water travelling at 20 cm per second. (2022-23)
Its height above water level after t seconds is given by h= 20t – 16t2.
3
(iii) What would be the value of h at t= ? Interpret the result.
2
OR
How much distance has the dolphin covered before hitting the water level again?
Chapter-3
Q1: A plane left 30 minutes late than its scheduled time and in order to reach the destination 1500 km
away in time, it had to increase its speed by 100 km/h from the usual speed. Find its usual speed. (2018)
Q2: A father's age is three times the sum of the ages of his two children. After 5 years his age will be
two times the sum of their ages. Find the present age of the father.
Or
1 1
A fraction becomes 3 when 2 is subtracted from the numerator and it becomes 2 when 1 is
Q3: The value of k for which the system of equations x+y-4=0 and 2x+ky=3, has no solution, is (2021-22)
Q4: In a triangle, if square of one side is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two side,
then prove that the angle opposite to the first side is a right angle. (2021-22)
Q5: The pair of equations ax + 2y = 9 and 3x + by = 18 represent parallel lines, where a,b are (2022-23)
Integers, if:
Q6: A 2-digit number is seven times the sum of its digits. The number formed by reversing the
digits is 18 less than the given number. Find the given number. (2022-23)
Chapter-4
Q 1: Prove that the area of an equilateral triangle described on one side of the square is equal to
half the area of the equilateral triangle described on one of its diagonal. (2018)
Q2: A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels at a distance
of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours to
OR
Q4: (a) Find the value of m for which the quadratic equation has two real and equal roots. (2019-20)
(m 1) x2 + 2 (m 1) x + 1 = 0
OR
√ 3 x2 + 10x + 7√ 3 = 0
Q5: The product of Rehan’s age (in years) 5 years ago and his age 7 years from now, is one more
than twice his present age. Find his present age. (2019-20)
Q6: For what values of k, the roots of the equation x: +4x+k = 0 are real? (2020-21)
OR
Find the value of k for which the roots of the equation 3x2 —10x + k =0 are reciprocal of
each other.
Q7: Find c if the system of equation cx + 3y + (3 – c) =0; 12x + cy – c = 0 has infinitely many
Solutions? (2020-21)
7
Q8: Two water taps together can fill a tank in 1 hours. The tap with longer diameter takes 2 hours
8
Less than the tap with smaller one to fill the tank separately. Find the time in which each tap
Can fill the tank separately.
OR
A boat goes 30 km upstream and 44 km downstream in 10 hours. In 13 hours, it can go
40 km upstream and 55 downstream. Determine the speed of the stream and that of the boat
in still water. (2020-21)
Q9: A quadratic equation whose roots are (2 + √ 3) and (2 - √ 3) is: (2022-23)
(a) x2 – 4x + 1 = 0 (b) x2 + 4x + 1 = 0
(b) (c) 4x2 - 3 = 0 (d) x2 – 1 = 0
Q10: (a) A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 54 km and then travels a
distance of 63 km at an average speed of 6 km/h more than the first speed. If it takes
3 hours to complete the journey, what was its first average speed?
OR
15
(b) Two pipes together can fill a tank in hours. The pipe with larger diameter takes
8
2 hours Less than the pipe with smaller diameter to fill the tank separately. Find
the time in which each pipe can fill the tank separately. (2022-23)
Chapter-5
Q1: In an AP, if the common difference (d) = –4, and the seventh term (a7) is 4, then find the
first term. (2018)
Q2: The sum of four consecutive numbers in an AP is 32 and the ratio of the product of the first
and the last term to the product of two middle terms is 7 : 15. Find the numbers. (2018)
Q3: (a) In an AP, if a = 50, d = 4 and Sn = 0, then find the value of n.
OR
(b) Find the sum of the first twelve 2-digit multiples of 7, using an AP. (2019-20)
Q4: Do you know old clothes which are thrown as waste not only fill the landfill site but also
produce very harmful greenhouse gas. So, it is very important that we reuse old clothes in
whatever way we can. The picture given below on the right, shows a footmat (rug) made out
of old t-shirts yarn. Observing the picture, you will notice that a number of stitches in circular
rows are making a pattern : 6, 12, 18, 24, ...
(a) Check whether the given pattern forms an AP. If yes, find the common difference and the
next term of the AP.
(b) Write the nth term of the AP. Hence, find the number of stitches in the 10th circular row. (2019-20)
Q5: (a) Find the sum of first 30 terms of AP : 30, 24, 18, ..... .
OR
(b) In an AP if Sn = n (4n + 1), then find the AP. (2019-20)
Q6: In Mathematics, relations can be expressed in various ways. The matchstick patterns are based
on linear relations. Different strategies can be used to calculate the number of matchsticks used
in different figures. One such pattern is shown below. Observe the pattern and answer the
(a) Write the AP for the number of triangles used in the figures. Also, write the nth term of this AP.
Q8: Which term of the AP 3, 15, 27, 39, .... will be 120 more than its 21st term ?
Or
If Sn,the sum of first n terms of an AP is given by Sn = 3n 2 —4/1, find the nth term. (2020-21)
Q9: If the sum of first four terms of an AP is 40 and that of first 14 terms is 280. Find the sum
Q10: The value of x for which 2x,(x+10) and (3x+2) are the three consecutive terms of an AP, is (2021-22)
Q11: The first term of an AP is p and the common difference is q, then its 10th term is (2021-22)
Q12: If the mean of the first n natural number is 15, then find n. (2021-22)
Q13: Show that (a – b)2, (a2 + b2) and (a + b)2 are in AP. (2021-22)
Q14: The sum of four consecutive numbers in AP is 32 and the ratio of the product of the first and
last terms to the product of two middle terms is 7:15. Find the numbers. (2021-22)
Or
Solve: 1+4+7+10+...+x=287
Q15: The 13th term from the end of the A.P.: 20, 13, 6, -1, ……….,-148 is: (2022-23)
Q16: The common difference of the A.P. whose nth term is given by an = 5n – 7 is: (2022-23)
Q17: In an A.P., the sum of the first n terms is given by Sn = 6n – n2. Find its 30th term. (2022-23)
Chapter-6
AB 1 ar (∆ ABC )
Q1: Given ABC ~ PQR, if = , then find . (2018),
PQ 3 ar (∆ PQR)
(2021-22)
Q2: If the area of two similar triangles are equal, prove that they are congruent. (2018)
1
Q3: In an equilateral ABC, D is a point on side BC such that BD = BC. Prove that
3
9(AD)2 = 7(AB)2
OR
Prove that, in a right triangle, the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares
Q4: In DE∥BC, AD = 1 cm and BD = 2 cm. What is the ratio of the ar ( ABC) to the
ar ( ADE)? (2020-21)
If P and Q are the points on side CA and CB respectively of ABC, right angled at C,
prove that (AQ 2 + BP 2 ) = (AB 2 + PQ 2 )
Q6: Prove that in a right angle triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal the sum of squares
AD AE
Q7: In ∠D =∠E and = , prove that BAC is an isosceles triangle. (2021-
DB EC
22)
Q8: ABC is an equilateral triangle of side 2a, then length of one of its altitude is__________. (2021-22)
AB 1 ar (∆ ABC )
Q9: Given ∆ ABC ∆ PQR, if = , then = --------------
PQ 3 ar (∆ PQR)
(2021-22)
BE BC
Q10: DE ∥ AC and DC ∥ AP. Prove that ∥ (2021-22)
EC CP
Two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point T.
Pove that ∠ PTQ=2 ∠ OPQ .
AB BC
Q11: In ∆ ABC and ∆ DEF, = . Which of the following makes the two triangle similar? (2022-
DE FD
23)
Q12: In the given figure, AB = BC = 10cm. If AC = 7cm, then the length of BP is: (2022-23)
Q14: (a) In the given figure, CD is the perpendicular bisector of AB. EF is perpendicular to CD. (2022-2023)
CF FG
AE intersects CD at G. Prove that = .
CD DG
OR
Q1: Find the distance of a point P(x, y) from the origin. (2018)
Q2: Find the ratio in which P(4, m) divides the line segment joining the points A(2, 3) and B(6, –3).
Hence find m. (2018)
Q3: If A(–2, 1), B(a, 0), C(4, b) and D(1, 2) are the vertices of a parallelogram ABCD, find the values
of a and b. Hence find the lengths of its sides.
OR
If A(–5, 7), B(–4, –5), C(–1, –6) and D(4, 5) are the vertices of a quadrilateral, find the area of the
quadrilateral ABCD. (2018)
Q4: If the point P ( k, 0) divides the line segment joining the points A(2, -2) and B(-7, 4 ) in the ratio 1:2, (2021-22)
then the value of k is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) -2 (d) -1
Q5: The value of p, for which the points A(3,1), B(5,p) and C(7,-5) are collinear, is (2021-22)
(a) -2 (b) 2 (c) -1 (d) 1
Q6: Find the area of triangle PQR formed by the points P (-5, 7), Q (-4,-5) and R (4,5) (2021-22)
OR
If the point C (-1,2) divides internally the line segment joining A (2,5) and B (x,y) in the ratio 3:4,
find the coordinates of B.
Q7: If end points of a diameter of a circle are (-5,4) and (1,0), then the radius of the circle is: (2022-23)
(a) 2 √ 13 units (b) √ 13 units (c) 4 √ 2 units (d) 2 √ 2 units
Q8: Assertion (A): If the points A (4,3) and B (x,5) lie on a circle with centre O(2,3), then the
Value of x is 2. (2022-23)
Reason (R) : Centre of a circle is the mid-point of each chord of the circle.
Q9: Find the ratio in which line y = x divides the line segment joining the points (6, -3) and (1, 6). (2022-23)
Q10: (a) The line segment joining the points A(4, - 5) and B(4 , 5) is divided by the point P such (2022-23)
that AP : AB =2 : 5. Find the coordinates of P.
OR
(b)Point P( x, y) is equidistant from points A (5 , 1) and B (1, 5). Prove that x = y.
Chapter-8
Q9: (a) If a cos θ + b sin θ = m and a sin θ - b cos θ = n, then prove that a2 + b2 = m2 + n2. (2022-23)
OR
(b)Prove that:
sec A−1 sec A +1
√ + √ = 2 cosec A
sec A +1 sec A−1
Q10: Prove that: (2022-23)
tan θ cot θ
+ = 1+ sec θ cosec θ
1−cot θ 1−tanθ
Chapter-9
Q1: As observed from the top of a 100 m high light house from the sea-level, the angles of (2018)
depression of two ships are 30 and 45. If one ship is exactly behind the other on the same
side of the light house, find the distance between the two ships. [Use 3 = 1.732]
Q2: (a) The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 30 and (2019-20)
the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60 .
If the tower is 50 m high, then find the height of the building.
OR
(b) From a point on a bridge across a river, the angles of depression of the banks on
opposite sides of the river are 30 and 45 respectively. If the bridge is at a height of
3 m from the banks, then find the width of the river.
Q3: The angles of elevation of the top of a tower AB of height ‘h’m, from two points P and Q at (2019-20)
a distance of x m and y m from the base of the tower respectively and in the same straight
line with it, are 600 and 300 , respectively. Prove that h2 = xy.
Q4: The following TV Tower was built in 1988 and is located in Pitampura, Delhi. It has an
The TV Tower stands vertically on the ground. From a point ‘A’ on the ground, the angle of
elevation of top of the tower (point ‘B’) is 600. There is a point ‘C’ on the tower which is
(b) Find the height of the tower and the distance of the tower from point A.
Q5: A man in a boat rowing away from a light house 100m high takes 2 minutes to change the (2020-21)
angle of elevation of the top of the light house from 600 and 300. Find the speed of the boat
OR
Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite each other on either side of the road, which
is 80 m wide. From a point between them on the road, the angles of elevation of the top of the
poles are 600 and 300 respectively. Find the height of the poles and the distances of the point
Q6: The ratio of the length of a vertical rod and the length of its shadow is 1:√ 3. Find the angle
Q7: A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and is surmounted by a vertical flag-staff of height
6m. At a point on the plane, the angle of elevation of the bottom and top of the flag-staff are
30° and 45° respectively. Find the height of the tower. (Take √3-1.73) (2021-22)
Q8: The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point P on the ground is 600 . From
Another point Q, 10 m vertically above the first point P, its angle of elevation is 300 . Find:
Chapter-10
Q1: Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal. (2018)
Q2: Two concentric circles are of radii 4 cm and 3 cm. Find the length of the chord of the
Q3: Draw a circle of radius 3 cm. Take two points P and Q on one of its extended diameter
each at a distance of 7 cm from its centre. Construct tangents to the circle from these two
Q4: If tangents PA and PB drawn from a point P to a circle with centre O, are inclined to each other at an
Q6: A triangle ABC with ∠ B = 900 is shown. Taking AB as diameter, a circle has been drawn (2019-
20)
intersecting AC at point P. Prove that the tangent drawn at point P bisects BC.
Q7: PQ is a chord of length 8 cm of a circle of radius 5 cm and centre O. The tangents at P and (2020-21)
Q10: In the given figure, AC and AB a tangent to a circle centered at O. ∠ COD = 120°, (2022-
23)
Q11: In the given figure, PQ is a chord of the circle centered at O. PT is a tangent to the circle (2022-23)
OR
b) Two circles with centres O and O' of radii 6 cm and 8 cm, respectively intersect at two
points P and Q such that OP and O'P are tangents to the two circles. Find the length of
the common chord PQ.
Chapter-11
Q1: (a) Draw a circle of radius 4 cm. Construct a pair of tangents to the circle from a point 6 cm (2019-20)
away from its centre.
OR
(b) Draw a line segment PQ = 7·5 cm. Divide it in the ratio 3 : 1.
Q2: Draw a line segment AB of length 7 cm. Taking A as centre, draw a circle of radius 3 cm and (2021-22)
taking B as centre, draw another circle of radius 2 cm. Construct tangents to each circle from
Chapter-12
Q1: Find the area of the shaded region in Fig. 3, where arcs drawn with centres A, B, C and D (2018)
intersect in pairs at mid-points P, Q, R and S of the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively
of a square ABCD of side 12 cm. [Use = 3.14]
Q2: Find the area of the shaded region , if ABCD is a rectangle with sides 8 cm and 6 cm and O (2020-21)
is the centre of circle. (Take π =3.14)
Q3: A piece of wire 22 cm long is bent into the form of an are of a circle subtending an angle of (2021-22)
22
600 at its centre. Find the radius of the circle. [Use π= ]
7
Q4: A horse is tied to a peg at one corner of a square shaped grass field of side 15 m by means of (2022-23)
a 5 m long rope. Find the area of that part of the field in which the horse can graze. Also,
find the increase in grazing area if length of rope is increased to 10 m. (Use π = 3.14)
Chapter-13
Q1: A wooden article was made by scooping out a hemisphere from each end of a solid cylinder. (2018)
If the height of the cylinder is 10 cm and its base is of radius 3.5 cm. Find the total surface
area of the article.
OR
A heap of rice is in the form of a cone of base diameter 24 m and height 3.5 m. Find the
volume of the rice. How much canvas cloth is required to just cover the heap ?
Q2: The diameters of the lower and upper ends of a bucket in the form of a frustum of a cone are (2018)
10 cm and 30 cm respectively. If its height is 24 cm, find :
(i) The area of the metal sheet used to make the bucket.
(ii) Why we should avoid the bucket made by ordinary plastic ? [Use = 3.14]
Q3: A solid metallic sphere of radius 10·5 cm is melted and recast into a number of smaller
cones, each of radius 3·5 cm and height 3 cm. Find the number of cones so formed. (2019-20)
Q4: (a) A spherical glass vessel has a cylindrical neck 8 cm long and 1 cm in radius. The (2019-20)
radius of the spherical part is 9 cm. Find the amount of water (in litres) it can hold,
when filled completely.
OR
(b) From a solid cylinder, whose height is 2·4 cm and diameter 1·4 cm, a conical cavity
of the same height and same diameter is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of
the remaining solid.
Q5: (a) From a solid cylinder of height 30 cm and radius 7 cm, a conical cavity of height 24 cm (2019-20)
and same radius is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid.
OR
(b) Water in a canal, 8 m wide and 6 m deep, is flowing with a speed of 12 km/hour. How
much area will it irrigate in one hour, if 0·05 m of standing water is required ?
Q6: Gadisar Lake is located in the Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan. It was built by the King of (2019-20)
Jaisalmer and rebuilt by Gadsi Singh in 14th century. The lake has many Chhatris. One
of them is shown below :
Observe the picture. From a point A h m above from water level, the angle of elevation
of top of Chhatri (point B) is 45 and angle of depression of its reflection in water (point C)
is 60 . If the height of Chhatri above water level is (approximately) 10 m, then
(a) draw a well-labelled figure based on the above information;
(b) find the height (h) of the point A above water level. (Use √ 3 = 1·73)
Q7: Water in a canal, 6m wide and 1.5 m deep, is flowing with a speed of 10 km/hour. How much (2020-21)
Area will it irrigate in 30 minutes; if 8 cm standing water is needed?
Q8: A bucket open at the top is in the form of a frustum of a cone with a capacity of 12308.8 cm³. (2020-21)
The radii of the top and bottom of circular ends of the bucket are 20 cm and 12 cm
respectively. Find the height of the bucket and also the area of the metal sheet used in
making it. (Use π=¿ 3.14)
Q9: Two cones have their heights in the ratio 1:3 and radii in the ratio 3:1. What is the ratio of (2021- 22)
their volumes?
Q10: A bucket in the form of a frustum of a cone of height 30 cm with radii of its lower and upper (2021-22)
ends as 10 cm and 20 cm, respectively. Find the capacity of the bucket. Also find the cost of
milk which can completely fill the bucket at the rate 22 of Rs. 40 per litre. [Use = 3.14]
Q11: A cone of base radius 4 cm is divided into two parts by drawing a plane through the (2021-22)
mid-point of its height and parallel to its base. Compare the volume of the two parts.
Q12: Water in a river which is 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km/h. How (2022-23)
much water will fall into the sea in 2 minutes?
(a) 800 m3 (b) 4000 m3 (c) 8000 m3 (d) 2000 m3
Q13: A golf ball is spherical with about 300-500 dimples that help increase its velocity while in (2022-23)
play. Golf balls are traditionally white but available in colours also. In the given figure,
a golf ball has diameter 4.2 cm and the surface has 315 dimples (hemi-spherical) of radius 2 mm.
Based on the above, answer the following questions:
(i) Find the surface area of one such dimple.
(ii) Find the volume of the material dug out to make one dimple.
(iii) (a) Find the total surface area exposed to the surroundings.
OR
(b) Find the volume of the golf ball
Chapter-14
Q1: The table below shows the salaries of 280 persons : (2018)
Salary (In thousand ₹) No. of Persons
5-10 49
10-15 133
15-20 63
20-25 15
25-30 6
30-35 7
35-40 4
40-45 2
45-50 1
OR
The following distribution gives the daily income of 50 workers of a factory :
Daily Income (in ₹) 100-120 120-140 140-160 160-180 180-200
Number of workers 12 14 8 6 10
Convert the distribution above to a less than type cumulative frequency distribution
and draw its ogive.
Q3: Find the mode of the following frequency distribution : (2019-20)
Class 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100
Frequency 8 7 12 5 3
Q4: The frequency distribution given below shows the weight of 40 students of a class. Find the
median weight of the students. (2019-20)
Weight (in kg) Number of Students
40-45 9
45-50 5
50-55 8
55-60 9
60-65 6
65-70 3
Q5: The following table shows the age of patients admitted in a hospital during a particular week : (2019-20)
Age (in years) 5 -15 15-25 25-35 35-45 45-55 55-65
Number of Patients 5 12 20 24 15 4
Find the mean age of the patients.
Q7: Find the mode of the following frequency distribution : (2019-20)
Class 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60
Frequency 15 10 12 17 4
Q11: If the median of the following frequency distribution is 32.5. Find the values of f1 and f2. (2020-21)
Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 Total
Frequency f1 5 9 12 f2 3 2 40
OR
The marks obtained by 100 students of a class in an examination are given below.
Marks No. of Students
5-10 2
10-15 5
15-20 6
20-25 8
25-30 10
30-35 25
35-40 20
40-45 18
45-50 4
Q12: The following table gives production yield per hectare (in quintals) of wheat of 100 farms of a
village : (2021-2022)
Q13: If the mean and the median of a data are 12 and 15 respectively, then its mode is (2022-23)
(a) 13.5 (b) 21 (c) 6 (d) 14
Q14: If every term of the statistical data consisting of n terms is decreased by 2, then the mean of (2022-23)
the data :
(a) decreases by 2 (b) remains unchanged (c) decreases by 2n (d) decreases by 1
Q15: Find the mean of the following distribution: (2022-23)
Class 0-15 15-30 30-45 45-60 60-75 75-90
Frequency 17 20 18 21 15 9
Chapter-15
Q1: Two different dice are tossed together. Find the probability : (2018)
(i) of getting a doublet
(ii) of getting a sum 10, of the numbers on the two dice.
Q2: An integer is chosen at random between 1 and 100. Find the probability that it is : (2018)
(i) divisible by 8.
(ii) not divisible by 8.
Q3: Find the sum of first 8 multiples of 3. (2018)
Q4: A letter of English alphabet is chosen at random. What is the probability that the chosen (2021-22)
letter is a Consonant.
Q5: A die is thrown once. What is the probability of getting a number less than 3? (2021-22)
OR
If the probability of winning a game is 0.07, what is the probability of losing it?
Q6: Two dice are rolled together. What is the probability of getting a sum greater than 10? (2022-23)
1 1 1 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 6 12 18
Q7: Which of following number cannot be the probability of happening of an event? (2022-23)
7 0.07
(a) 0 (b) (c) 0.07 (d)
0.01 3
Q8: A middle school decided to run the following spinner game as a fund-raiser on Christmas (2022-23)
Carnival.
Making Purple: Spin each spinner once. Blue and red make purple. So, if one spinner shows
Red (R) and another Blue (B), then you ‘win’. One such outcome is written as ‘RB’.
Based on the above, answer the following questions:
OR
(iii) (b) If the same amount of 5 has been decided for winning or losing the game, then how much
fund had been collected by school? (Number of participants = 99)