11-01-2025

1001CMD303029240062 MD

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following will give NaOH soluble product after reaction with Hinsberg reagent.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) Both (1) & (2)

2) (A) (B) + (C)

Product (A) is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)
A & B Respectively-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A and B

(1)

CH3–I,

(2)

, CH3–OH
CH3–OH,

(3)

(4) All

5) PhMgBr + O = C = O (A) (B)

Product (B) is-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)
Product is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A compound which does not give a positive test in Lassaigen's test for nitrogen is -

(1) Urea
(2) Hydrazine
(3) Azobenzene
(4) Phenyl hydrazine
8) Given molecule is D-Glucose then find L-glucose-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

9) While preparing lassaigne solution nitrogen containing compound fused with sodium metal forms.

(1) NaNO2
(2) NaNH2
(3) NaN3
(4) NaCN

10) Which of the following give Bad smell when treated with CHCl3 / KOH?

(1)

(2) CH3 – NH – CH3

(3)

(4)

11)
[A] Reagent can be :

(1) CH3–CH2–OH + Δ
(2) H3PO4
(3) H3PO2/H2O/Δ
(4) Both (1) & (3)

12)

Compare the rate of SN1 reaction :

(a) (b) (c)

(1) a > c > b

(2) c > b > a
(3) a > b > c
(4) c > a > b

13) Which amongst the following metal carbonyls are inner orbital complex with diamagnetic
property :
(i) Ni(CO)4 (ii) Fe(CO)5
(iii) V(CO)6 (iv) Cr(CO)6
Select the correct code :

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

14) A complex of platinum, ammonia and chloride produces four ions per molecule in the solution.
The structure consists with the observation is :

(1) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl4
(2) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4]
(3) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3
(4) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2

15) [Co(NH3)Cl(en)2]2+ shows two geometrical isomers cis and trans. Which of the following
statements is correct ?

(1) trans-isomer will show optical isomerism.

(2) cis-isomer will show optical isomerism.
(3) Both trans and cis-isomers will show optical isomerism.
(4) Neither cis nor trans-isomer will show optical isomerism.

16) Assertion (A) : In lanthanoid series and actinoids series. Actinoids form compound in more
variable oxidation state.
Reason (R) : Due to less energy difference in between (n–2)f, (n–1)d & ns subshell in actinoids.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

17) X Y; Y Z+
X and Y are oxy anion of Cr than oxidation state of Cr in X, Y, Z will be respectively

(1) +3, +6, +6

(2) +6, +3, +6
(3) +6, +6, +6
(4) +6, +6, +3

18)

Potash alum is a double salt made up of two salts :

(1) Salt of a (SA + WB) + Salt of a (WA + WB)

(2) Salt of a (SA + SB) + Salt of a (SA + WB)
(3) Salt of a (SA + SB) + Salt of a (WA + WB)
(4) Salt of a (SA + WB) + Salt of a (WA + WB)

19)

aq. NaOH + P4(white) → PH3 + X; compound X is :-

(1) NaH2PO2
(2) NaH2PO4
(3) Na2CO3
(4) NaHCO3

20) Which of the following give propyne on hydrolysis?

(1) Al4C3
(2) CCl4
(3) CaC2
(4) Mg2C3

21) Match the column -

Column I
Column II
X = central atom
 –2
a X-X linkage p S2O8
–2
b X-O-X linkage q S4O6

c X-O-O-X linkage r H4P2O6

d Two type of oxidation state of C.A. s N2O5

(1) a-r, b-p, c-q, d-s
(2) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q
(3) a-p, b-s, c-r, d-q
(4) a-p, b-r, c-q, d-s

22) The compound present in borax bead is

(1) B2O3
(2) NaBO2
(3) NaBO3
(4) NaBO2 + B2O3

23) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Violet color gas (p) SO2

(b) Rotten egg smell (q) NO2

(c) Brown color (r) I2

(d) Suffocating smell (s) H2S

(t) Br2
(1) a-r; b-s; c-q,t; d-p
(2) a-p; b-q; c-r,s; d-p
(3) a-s; b-r; c-p,t; d-p
(4) a-p; b-q; c-r; d-p,s

24) During the testing of basic radicals the group reagent for group II is:

(1) dil HCl

(2) NH4OH in presence of NH4Cl
(3) H2S in presence of HCl
(4) H2S in presence of NH4OH and NH4Cl

25) How many statements are correct about Debye-Huckel-Onsager equation given as :

(a) It is valid for both weak and strong electrolytes.

(b) At 298K, aqueous solution of NaCl and KBr have the same value of constant A.
(c) It is valid only for strong electrolytes.
(d) It is valid for weak acids only.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

26) For the reaction A + B → C. The following data has been given for rate of reaction :-

Sr. No. [A] (M) [B] (M) ROR (Ms–1)

(A) 0.5 0.5 1.6 × 10–2

(B) 0.5 1 3.2 × 10–2

(C) 1 1 6.4 × 10–2

(D) 1 0.5 3.2 × 10–2

The rate law of the reaction is

(1) r = k[A]2[B]
(2) r = k[A][B]
(3) r = k[A][B]2
0
(4) r = k[A] [B]2

27) Assertion (A) : Phenol-aniline mixture shows negative deviation from Raoult's law.
Reason (R) : Intermolecular H-bonding between phenolic oxygen and hydrogen of aniline is
stronger than that between identical molecules.

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only R is correct
(3) A and R both are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(4) A and R both are incorrect

28) Equivalent conductivity of Fe2(SO4)3 is related to molar conductivity by the expression :-

(1) Λeq = Λm

(2)

(3) Λeq = 3Λm

(4)

29) The hypothetical reaction, P2 + Q2 → 2PQ follows the mechanism as given below :
P2 ⇌ 2P (fast)
P + Q2 → PQ + Q (slow)
P + Q → PQ (fast)
The overall order of reaction is :
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 1.5
(4) 2.5

30) Which of the following is correct for an non-ideal solution ?

(1) ΔHmix = 0
(2) ΔVmix = 0
(3)
(4) ΔSmix > 0

31) Which of the following aqueous solution will have highest boiling point?

(1) 0.1 m glucose

(2) 0.1 m K2SO4
(3) 0.1 m NaCl
(4) 0.01 m K4[Fe(CN)6]

32) Enthalpy of neutralization of which of the following acid, base is maximum ?

(1) HCN and NaOH

(2) HCl and KOH
(3) HCl and NH4OH
(4) HCOOH and NaOH

33) 1.5 Ampere current is passed through molten copper sulfate solution for 10 minutes. What mass
of copper will get deposited? (Cu = 63.5) ( F = 96500 C)

(1) 0.29 g
(2) 0.14 g
(3) 0.46 g
(4) 0.50 g

34) In a zero order reaction, for every 10°C rise in temperature, the rate is doubled, if temperature
rises from 30°C to 80°C, the rate of reaction will be

(1) 8 times
(2) 32 times
(3) 64 times
(4) 256 times
35) The correct statement (s) about following graph is/are :

(1) It is a complex reaction of two steps

(2) Step 1 of this reaction is rate determining step
(3) It is an exothermic reaction
(4) All are correct

SECTION-B

1) Give the product of the following reaction sequence :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) (i) Ph–COO⊖

Ph–CHO + H–CHO

(b) (ii) CHI3 + H–COONa

CH3–COOH
 (c) CH3–CHO (iii)

Ph–CH2–OH
(d) Ph–CHO (iv)
H–COOK
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

3)
Product (C) is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) CH3–CH2–COOH Major Product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
5) P; P is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Which is correct :-
Complex No. of Chilate rings
(1) [Co(ox)2Cl2]–3 4
(2) [Ni(dmg)2] 4
(3) [Ca(EDTA)]–2 6
(4) Brown ring complex 1

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Match the catalyst with the process:-

Catalyst Process
 The oxidation of ethyne
i. V2O5 a.
to ethanal

ii. TiCl4 + Al(CH3)3 b. Polymerisation of alkynes

Oxidation of SO2 in the

iii. PdCl2 c.
manufacture of H2SO4

Nickel Polymerisation of
iv d.
complexes ethylene
Which of the following is the correct option?
(1) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
(2) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(3) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

8) Which of the following reaction condition is correct for prepation of KMnO4

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

9) Which of the following set of given electronic configuration is correct

(1) Pd – (n–1)d8, ns2

(2) Pt – (n–1)d9, ns2
(3) Tc – (n–1)d6, ns2
(4) Nb – (n–1)d4, ns1

10) Orthoboric acid –

–
(1) Donate proton to form H2BO3
+
(2) Accept proton of form H4BO3
– +
(3) Donate OH to form H2BO2
– –
(4) Accept OH to form [B (OH)4]

11) Given below are two statements

Statement-I : Number of reacting species taking part in an elementary reaction which must collide
simultaneously in order to bring about a chemical reaction is called molecularity of a reaction.
Statement-II : Order of reaction is applicable to elementary reaction only, and for complex reaction
order has no meaning.
In light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are true.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

12) The oxidation potential of 0.1M solution of M+2 ions is if = –1.18V :-

(1) –1.15V
(2) 1.15V
(3) –1.21V
(4) 1.21V

13) When 5% solution of sucrose is isotonic with 1% solution of compound 'A', then the molecular
weight of compound A is :

(1) 32.4
(2) 68.4
(3) 129.6
(4) 32.2

14) A living plant cell shows neither exosmosis nor endosmosis in 0.1 M NaCl solution then in blood
it will show –

(1) Exosmosis
(2) Endosmosis
(3) Both simultaneously with same rate
(4) First exo osmosis then endo osmosis

15) The rate law for the reaction A+ B → C is : Rate = k[A] [B]1/3 . If the concentration of B is
increased by eight times while that of A is reduce to half then the rate of reaction becomes :

(1) Twice
(2) Thrice
(3) No change
(4) Half

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Given below are two statements. One is labelled as assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In dicotyledonous stems vascular bundles are called open.
Reason (R) : The presence of cambium is feature of open vascular bundle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) A is false but R is true

(2) A is true but R is false
(3) Both A & R true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A & R true but R is the correct explanation of A.

2) In which plant part two to four vascular bundles with radial and exarch xylem present :

(1) Monocot stem

(2) Dicot stem
(3) Monocot root
(4) Dicot root

3) Read carefully the following statements and find out the incorrect one :-

(1) There are usually two to four xylem and phloem patches in dicotyledonous root.
(2) Pith is very small and less developed in monocotyledon root.
(3) Endodermis store starch in dicotyledonous stem and hence it is called starch sheath.
In monocotyledonous stem, peripheral vascular bundles are generally smaller than the centrally
(4)
located bundles.

4) Match List I with List II

List-I List -II

(Character) (example)

A Twisted aestivation I Canna

B Irregular flower II Cassia

C Inferior ovary III China rose

D Imbricate aestivation IV Cucumber

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
(2) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(3) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
(4) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

5) Select the correct pair given below with example.

(1) Hypogynous flower - ovary half inferior - rose

(2) Perigynous flower - ovary superior - china rose
(3) Epigynous flower - ovary inferior - guava
(4) Hypogynous flower - ovary inferior - brinjal
6) Identify the part of the fruit from the given figure. which part of fruit is fleshy edible and fibrous ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

7) Following diagrams represent :

(A) Female flower of Hydrilla

(1)
(B) Male flower of Hydrilla
(A) Male flower of Hydrilla
(2)
(B) Female flower of Hydrilla
(A) Female flower of Vallisneria
(3)
(B) Male flower of Vallisneria
(A) Male flower of Vallisneria
(4)
(B) Female flower of Vallisneria

8) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Epidermis (i) Major role in dehiscence

(B) Tapetum (ii) Dense cytoplasm and more then one nuclei

(C) Endothecium (iii) Protection and outermost

(D) Middle layer (iv) Food storage

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

9) Find the incorrect statements :

(A) The proximal end of the filament is attached to the thalamus or the petal of the flower.
(B) The microsporangia develops further and become embryo sac.
(C) A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed and dithecous.
(D) A longitudinal groove runs lengthwise does not separating the theca.

(1) A, C and D
(2) B and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) A and C

10) Statement-I : Vallisneria, Hydrilla and lotus are some examples of hydrophily.
Statement-II : Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollinations.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

11) Statement-I : Beside autosomes in human the males have one X and one Y chromosome,
whereas females have a pair of X-chromosomes.
Statement-II : Sex determination mechanism in Grasshopper is example of male heterogamety.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

12) In Mendel's dihybrid cross F1 plant having genotype RrYy is self pollinated. What was the
percentage of offspring in F2 generation with genotype Rryy and RRYY ?

(1) 12.5% and 6.25%

(2) 12.5% and 12.5%
(3) 25% and 6.25%
(4) 12.5% and 25%

13) Match list-I with list-II.

List-I List-II
Type of inheritance Example

(A) Multiple Alleles I. Skin colour in human

(B) Co-dominance II. AB blood group in human

(C) Polygenic inheritance III. Phenylketonuria

 (D) Pleiotropy IV. ABO blood grouping in human
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

14) Statement-I : Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors.

Statement-II : When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of
characters is not independent of the other pair of character.

(1) Both Statement are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is not correct
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement are incorrect

15) How many statement are incorrect in given options ?

i. One of the causes of variation is sexual reproduction
ii. Mendel's experiments had a small sampling size.
iii. Mendel selected only 7 true breeding pea plant varieties.
iv. In Monohybrid cross mendel observed that all F1 progeny plants were similar to one of the
parent.

(1) two
(2) one
(3) four
(4) Three

16) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Colour blindness is due to a defect in the red or green cone of the eye.
(2) Haemophilia is a dominant disease.
(3) The genes that lead to red-green colour blindness are on the X chromosome.
A daughter will not normally be colour blind unless her mother is a carrier and her father is
(4)
colour blind.

17) Assertion : A single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic expressions.

Reason : This is due to the effect of a gene product on metabolic pathways which contribute
towards different phenotype.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

18) Match List I from List II

 List-I List-II

A Goal of HGP I Variation at genetic level

B DNA finger printing II Expressed sequence tag [EST]

C Polymorphism III repetitive DNA identification

D methodologies of HGP IV ethical, legal and social issues (ELSI)

(1) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
(2) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(3) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(4) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

19) Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Griffith injected R strain bacterium into mice which caused its death
(2) Hershey and Chase used a bacteriophage with RNA as a genetic material.
15
(3) Meselson and Stahl grew Streptococcus in NH4Cl containg medium.
(4) Severo ochoa enzyme can polymerise RNA in a template independent manner.

20) Which of the following statement is correct about DNA replication in prokaryotes ?

(1) RNA dependent DNA polymerase is the main enzyme

(2) Discontinuous strands are joined by Helicase
(3) DNA polymerase catalyze polymerization in 5' → 3' direction.
(4) DNA polymerase can initiate replication on its own.

21) In Eukaryotes, transcription and translation can not be coupled due to :-

(1) Transcription and translation occur in different compartments.

(2) Transcription and translation occur in same compartment.
(3) Splicing
(4) Both (1) and (3) are correct

22) Match list I with list II and choose the correct answer from the options given below.

List-I List-II

A RNA polymerase III I Rho factor

B Termination of transcription II SnRNAs. 5sRNA, tRNA

C Splicing III 5'end of hnRNA

D Capping IV Removal of introns

(1) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
(2) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
(3) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
(4) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

23) Select the incorrect statement regarding the salient features of the double helix structure of
DNA

(1) It is made of two polynucleotide chain

(2) The two chains have anti-parallel polarity
(3) Guanine is bonded with thymine by three H-bonds
(4) The two chains are coiled is a right handed fashion.

24) Identify the incorrect pair.

(1) Expressed sequence Tags - Genes that are express as RNA

(2) Sequence annotation - Sequencing genome with coding sequence only
(3) Automated DNA sequencers - Work on the principle of a method developed by Frederick Sanger
(4) None of the Above

25) What is the approximate annual net primary productivity of the entire biosphere?

(1) 55 billion tons of organic matter.

(2) 100 billion tons of organic matter.
(3) 170 billion tons of organic matter.
(4) 200 billion tons of organic matter.

26) Which of the following is a limitation of ecological pyramids ?

(1) Saprophytes are given a place in ecological pyramids.

(2) It assumes a simple food chain, that almost never exist in nature.
(3) It accomodates a food web.
(4) It takes into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.

27) Consider the pyramid of energy of an ecosystem given below :- If

T4 is equivalent to 100J, what is the value at T1 ?

(1) 1000 J
(2) 10000 J
(3) 100000 J
(4) 10 J

28) Which of the following is not correct for ecological pyramid.

(1) The base of each pyramid represents the producer.
(2) The Apex of pyramid represent top level consumer.
Large standing crop of phytoplankton support small standing crop of zooplankton in aquatic
(3)
ecosystem.
(4) The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.

29) Given below are two statement-

Statement-I : Death of organism is the beginning of the detritus food chain/web.
Statement-II : In a terrestrial ecosystem, GFC is the major conduct for energy flow.
Choose most appropriate answer from given below options?

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

30) Copepods on marine fishes are example of :-

(1) Predation
(2) Parasitism
(3) Competition
(4) Commensalism

31) Given below are two statement :

Statement-I : Some species of insects and frogs are cryptically-coloured to avoid being detected
easily by the predator.
Statement-II : Competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources
that are limiting. This is entirely true.

(1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true

(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

32) Assertion : Mycorrhizae are mutualistic association between fungi and the roots of higher
plants.
Reason : The fungi help the plant in the absorption of essential nutrients from the soil while the
plant in turn provides the fungi with energy yielding carbohydrates.
Select the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

33) Select the incorrect statements from the options given below :
 Exploring molecular genetic and species level diversity for product of economic importance is
(1)
known as bioprospecting.
(2) Biodiversity hot spots hold high degree of endemism
(3) Khasi and Janita are the sacred graves found in hills of meghalaya
(4) All the biodiversity hotspots put together more than 5 percent of earth's land area.

34) Assertion : Seed banks are used as ex-situ method of biodiversity conservation.
Reason : Seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants can be kept for long
periods in seed banks away from natural habitat.
Select the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

35) Which of the following statements regarding biodiversity is not correct :-

(1) Number of species of amphibians in western Ghats is an example of species diversity.

(2) Out of every 10 animals on this planet, 7 are insects
(3) In general species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.
(4) From year to year high variation in productivity is a characteristic of stable community.

SECTION-B

1) Select the incorrect match ?

(1) Dicot stem → conjoint, collateral, open

(2) Dicot Root → Radial, xylem is exarch
(3) Monocot stem→ xylem is exarch
(4) Monocot Root →Radial, xylem is exarch

2) Statement-I : Cuticle is Absent in roots.

Statement-II : The trichomes in the shoot system are usually multicellular.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.

3) Select incorrect statement from given below.

(1) Drupe fruits are develop from monocarpellary superior ovary

(2) Inferior ovary present in guava and cucumber
(3) In dianthus, the ovules are borne on central axis and septa are absent in ovary
 The stamens may be united in to one bunch or one bundle called monoadelphous androecium
(4)
such as pea

4) (i) In coconut mesocarp is __(a)__.

(ii) parietal placentation is found in __(b)__.
(iii) Valvate aestivation is found in __(c)__.
(iv) Epigynous flowers are found in __(d)__.

(1) (a) Fibrous, (b) Argemone, (c) lady's finger, (d) cucumber
(2) (a) Fleshy, (b) Mustard, (c) Calotropis, (d) Rose
(3) (a) Edible, (b) Argemone, (c) Pea, (d) Guava
(4) (a) Fibrous, (b) Mustard, (c) Calotropis, (d) Cucumber

5)

Which of the following statement is/are correct :-

(1) Cells of the nucellus does not have abundant reserve food.
(2) Typical angiosperm embryo sac is 7 celled 8 nucleated
(3) In embryo sac 5 of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell wall and organised into cells.
(4) Both (2) and (3) are correct.

6) If the child's blood group is 'O' his parents blood group cannot be :

(1) B & O
(2) A & O
(3) AB
(4) A & B

7) (a) Colour blindness occurs in about 8% of males and only about 0.4% of females.
(b) Carrier female for haemophilia may transmit the disease to daughter even if father is normal.
(c) Drosophila were suitable for Morgan's experiments as they have short life span of around two
weeks.
Read above mentioned sentences and select the option which shows wrong statements.

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) (b) only
(3) (b) & (c)
(4) (a) & (c)

8) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

Phenylketonuria is caused by mutation in the gene that codes for the enzyme phenyl alanine
(1)
hydroxylase.
(2) Heterozygous (HbA HbS) individuals of sickle-cell anaemia are example of incomplete dominance.
The substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth position on the beta globin
(3) chain of the haemoglobin molecule causes the shape of the RBC to change from biconcave disc
to elongated sickle like structure.
(4) Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosome linked recessive trait.

9)

Which of the following statement is correct :

(1) DNA is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides.

(2) ϕ × 174 bacteriophage has 48502 base pairs.
(3) Cytosine, uracil are purines.
(4) DNA as an basic substance present in nucleus.

10) Read the following statements :

(a) AUA codes for methionine (met) and it also act as initiator codon.
(b) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation.
(c) The Human genome project was completed in 2003.
(d) Inheritance of character is also affected by the promotor and regulatory sequences of structural
gene.
Select the correct option :

(1) a, b
(2) c, d
(3) a, c
(4) a, d

11) For the given DNA sequence :

3'-TACATGGGTCCG-5'.
Choose the correct sequential codes of m-RNA
I. UAC II. AUG III. GGC IV. CCA

(1) I, II, III and IV

(2) II, III, IV and I
(3) I, III, II and IV
(4) II, I, IV and III

12) Read the following statement and select correct ones :-

(a) The most spectacular and evolutionary fascinating examples of mutualism are found in plant
and animal relationship.
(b) The tiger census in our national parks and tiger reserves is often based on pug marks and fecal
pellets.
(c) Bacteria in culture plate is not a example of population.
(d) The size of population for any species is a static parameter.

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) (b) & (c)
(3) (c) & (d)
(4) (a) & (d)

13) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : When we think of predator and prey, most probability it is the tiger and deer that
readily come to our mind.
Statement-II : A sparrow eating any seed is no less a predator.
In the light of above statement, choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement II is false but Statement I is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Statement II is true and Statement I is false

14) What was the main purpose of world summit held in 2002 in Johannesburg, South Africa?

(1) Pollution control

(2) Sustainable development
(3) Global warming
(4) Industrial development

15) Select the correct option regarding the global biodiversity :-

(1) Fishes < Mammals

(2) Reptiles < Amphibians
(3) Lichens > Algae
(4) Mammals < Reptiles

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct options :

Column-I Column-II

Continuous rapid
(A) Fertilization I.
Mitotic division

(B) Implantation II. Inverted pear shape

(C) Cleavage III. Ampulla

(D) Morula IV. 8 to 16 blastomeres

Embedding of
(E) Uterus V. blastocyst in
endometrium
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-V, E-III
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II, E-V
(3) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-IV, E-II
(4) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-IV
2) What is true for the polar bodies formed during the gametogenesis in human?

(1) They are formed during the foetal life of female

(2) They contain same number of chromosomes as in the secondary oocyte
(3) They contain same number of chromosomes as in the primary oocyte
(4) They are formed during spermatogenesis and oogenesis

3) The shortest phase of the menstrual cycle is :-

(1) Menstrual phase

(2) Luteal phase
(3) Secretary phase
(4) Follicular phase

4) The unpaired male accessory gland(s) include(s) :-

(1) Seminal Vesicle

(2) Prostate gland
(3) Bulbourethral gland
(4) All of the above

5) Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by :-

(1) Fallopian tube

(2) Pituitary
(3) Ovary
(4) Placenta

6) Assertion : In males, gametogenesis continues even in old age.

Reason : Spermatogonia keeps multiplying by mitotic divisions.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(4) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.

7) A diagram showing human foetus within the uterus is given below. Identify the structure which
connects the placenta to the embryo and choose the correct option.
(1) D - it contains both foetal and maternal blood
(2) A - it contains both foetal and maternal blood
(3) A - it contains only foetal blood
(4) C - it contains only foetal blood

8) Match the following :

Column 1 Column 2

(A) Testis (i) Implantation

(B) Uterus (ii) Accessory gland

(C) Prostate (iii) External genitalia

(D) Vulva (iv) Gametogenesis

(1) A-iv, B-i ,C-ii, D-iii
(2) A-iii, B-i ,C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii ,C-iv, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-iv ,C-i, D-iii

9) Statement-I : In vasectomy, small part of vas deferens is removed or tied through incision on
scrotum.
Statement-II : Surgical methods are highly effective but their reversibility is poor.

(1) Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

10) Which of the following method of contraception is exclusively for female use only.
Barrier, IUDs, Saheli, Injectables, implants, surgical method.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

11) Match the following and give the answer for correct match :–

More than 8 blastomere stage transfer into the

(A) ZIFT (i)
uterus.

(B) IUT (ii) Sperm is directly injected into the cytoplasm of ovum.

Zygote or early embryo upto 8 blastomeres could be

(C) GIFT (iii)
transferred into the fallopian tube.

Transfer of an ovum collected from ovary into the

(D) ICSI (iv)
fallopian tube.
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(2) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
(3) A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii
(4) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii

12) In which year of family planning program were initiated and M.T.P. was legalised in India
respectively ?

(1) 1951, 1971

(2) 1970, 1951
(3) 1980, 1951
(4) 1971, 1970

13) Which of the following can not be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?

(1) Sex of foetus

(2) Jaundice
(3) Metabolic disorder
(4) Down syndrome

14) Computed tomography uses .................... to generate a three dimensional image of the internal
organs.

(1) Electric field

(2) Magnetic field
(3) Radio waves
(4) X-rays

15) Gametocytes of Plasmodium are formed in :-

(1) Human liver

(2) Mosquito gut
(3) Human RBC
(4) Salivary glands in human

16) (a) The lymph nodes are small solid structures

(b) The thymus is quite large at the time of birth
(c) Spleen is secondary lymphoid organ
(d) MALT constitute about 50% of lymphoid tissue in human body
identify the correct statement :-

(1) a,c only

(2) c only
(3) a,b,d only
(4) all are correct

17) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) IgE antibodies are involved in allergy

(2) Excessive dosage of cocaine causes hallucinations
(3) α-interferon prevents destruction of tumor
(4) Sometimes due to genetic or unknown reasons, body attacks self-cells

18) How many of these are side effects of using anabolic steroids in females ?
Masculanization, decreased aggressiveness, mood swings, depression, normal menstrual cycle,
enlargement of clitoris.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

19) A Russian scientist who proposed the theory of origin of life was ?

(1) Oparin
(2) Haldane
(3) Miller
(4) Fox

20) Which pair of organs shows analogy ?

(1) Mouth parts of insects

(2) Potato and Ginger
(3) Eye of octopus and mammals
(4) Radish and Turnip

21) Choose the correct sequence in case of plant evolution :

(1) Rhynia type → Chlorophytes → Psilophyton → Ferns

(2) Chlorophytes → Tracheophytes → Psilophyton → Bryophytes
(3) Chlorophytes → Tracheophytes → Rhynia type → Psilophyton
(4) Psilophyton → Tracheophyte → Conifers → Bryophytes

22) Mark the correct statement :-

(A) Hugo de Vries gave the idea of variation due to recombination.
(B) Saltation is kind of mutation.
(C) Mutation are directional.
(D) According to Hardy Weinberg the frequency of allele is supposed to remain fixed & even remain
same through generation.

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, D
(3) A, B
(4) Only B

23) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Propionibacterium sharmanii is useful to prepare swiss cheese.

(2) Azospirillum and Azotobacter performs N2 fixation.
Statins produced by Monascus purpureus have been commercialized as blood cholesterol
(3)
lowering agent.
(4) Bottled juices are clarified by the use of chitinase and proteases.

24) A piece of DNA if needed to be propagated during recombinant DNA procedures requires a
vector, because vector provide :-

(1) Origin of replication site

(2) Origin of transcription site
(3) Origin of translation site
(4) All the above

25) Which compound is used to stain DNA in Agarose Gel ?

(1) Ethidium bromide

(2) NaNO3
(3) Ammonium nitrate
(4) Polyethylene glycol

26)
Which of the following pairs of restriction enzymes have restriction site within ampR and tetR genes
respectively in pBR322 plasmid?
(1) Pvu II, BamH I
(2) Pst I, Sal I
(3) Hind III, EcoR I
(4) Cla I, Pst I

27) Which statement is incorrect ?

A. Genetic engineering includes formation of recombinant DNA.
B. Bacteriophage is not used as vector.
C. MALAYALAM is a palindrome.
D. Agarose gel can not be used for electrophoresis.

(1) A, B
(2) B, D
(3) C, D
(4) A, B, C, D

28) Which enzyme is used to break the fungal cell in order to release DNA ?

(1) Pectinase
(2) Cellulase
(3) Lysozyme
(4) Chitinase

29) The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by :-

(1) Hydrogen bonds

(2) Phosphodiester bond
(3) Covalent bond
(4) Disulphide bridge

30) DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called :-

(1) Clone
(2) Plasmid
(3) Vector
(4) Probe

31) Which one of the following is a case of correct matching ?

(1) Callus → Unorganised mass of cells produced in tissue culture

(2) Protoplast fusion → A technique of micropropagation
(3) Protoplast → A cell without cell membrane
(4) Green revolution → decreased food supply

32) Match the column–I with column–II :

Column-I Column-II
(i) Golden rice (A) Increased shelf life
(ii) Flavr savr tomato (B) Polio vaccine
(iii) Mouse (C) Vitamin A
(iv) Bt-cotton (D) Insect resistant
(1) (i) – C, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – D
(2) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – C, (iv) – D
(3) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – D
(4) (i) – D, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – C

33) Read the following statements :-

(a) The capacity to generate a whole plant from explant is called totipotency
(b) GM plant reduce the post harvest losses.
(c) GM plant enhance reliance on chemical pesticides
(d) RNAi take place in all eukaryotic organisms as method of cellular defense.
(e) Insulin consists of three polypeptide chains.
Choose the correct options :-

(1) a, b and c are correct

(2) a,b and e are correct
(3) a,b and d are correct
(4) b,c and e are incorrect

34) The use of bio-resources by multinational companies & other organisations without proper
authorisation from the countries & people concerned, is known as :

(1) Biopatent
(2) Biopiracy
(3) Biowar
(4) Biodiversity

35) Transgenic models exist for which of the following human diseases :
(a) Cancer
(b) Cystic fibrosis
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) Alzheimer's disease
(e) Emphysema

(1) only a, b and c

(2) a, b, c and d
(3) b, c, d and e
(4) a, b, d, c and e

SECTION-B

1)

It is a diagramic presentation of developing follicle events, find out correct statement :-

 A = Primary follicle, C = Secondary follicle,
(1)
E = Corpus haemorragicum, F = Corpus luteum
B = Secondary follicle, D = Mature follicle,
(2)
E = Corpus haemorragicum, F=Corpus luteum
A = Primary follicle, C = Mature follicle,
(3)
E = Corpus luteum, F = Corpus albicans
A = Primary follicle, B = Ovulation,
(4)
E = Corpus luteum, F = Corpus albicans

2) Which of the following is not a secondary sex organ of male ?

(1) Vas deferens

(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Testis
(4) Prostate gland

3) Statement-I : The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a morula.

Statement-II : The morula continues to divide and transforms into blastocyst.

(1) Both statement I and II are true.

(2) Both statement I and II are false.
(3) Statement I is true and statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false and statement II are true.

4) Which structure in embryo is formed at the end of 2nd month ?

(1) Heart
(2) Brain
(3) Limbs and digits
(4) Eye lashes

5) Person vulnerable to sexually transmitted disease belong to age group :-

(1) 12–15 years

(2) 15–24 years
(3) 25–30 years
(4) 40–50 years

6) Select the correct statements.

(1) Pelvic infilamentory diseases doesn’t occur in STDs
(2) MTP was legalised in india in 1951.
(3) Saheli is a weekly non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill.
(4) Genital herpes is curable

7) 'Infected cell can survive while viruses are being replicated and released'.
Given statement is true for which of the following in case of HIV infection ?

(1) B-lymphocyte
(2) T-Helper
(3) T-killer
(4) Macrophage

8) Neutrophils, monocytes and natural killers cells are form which type of barrier ?

(1) Physical barrier

(2) Physiological barrier
(3) Cellular barier
(4) Cytokine barrier

9) Given below are two statement : One is labelled as Assertion-A and the other is labelled as
Reason-R.
Assertion (A) : Each antibody molecule has four peptide chains.
Reason (R) : Each antibody molecule has two small light chains and two longer heavy chains.

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

10) The key concept of Darwinian theory was:

(1) Branching descent

(2) Reproductive isolation
(3) Natural selection
(4) Both (1) & (3)

11) The method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called............

(1) Somaclones
(2) Micropropagation
(3) Explant
(4) Macropropagation

12) Which of the following product is not obtained from fungus ?

(1) Cyclosporin A
(2) Citric acid
(3) Penicillin
(4) Butyric acid

13) How many of the following are biofertilizer ?

Oscillatoria, rhizobium, propionibacterium, Anabaena, Nostoc

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) All

14) Match column-I with column-II, and choose the correct combination from the option given below:

Column-I Column-II

(a) DNA Ligase (i) Agrobacterium

(b) Ti-plasmid (ii) Joining the DNA fragments

(c) Taq polymerase (iii) Beta galactosidase

(d) Insertional inactivation (iv) Thermostable DNA polymerase

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

15) If the plasmid in bacteria does not have any insert then in the presence or chromogenic
substrate it gives:

(1) Blue coloured colonies

(2) Colourless colonies
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Insertional inactivation of β-galactosidase enzyme

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) In the figure shown. A and B are two points at a distance d from each of two equal and unlike
charges. The work done in transferring a negative charge –q from A to B is :

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Assertion : Electrons move away from a low potential to high potential region.
Reason : Electrons have negative charge.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Figure shown below is a distribution of charges. The flux of electric field due to these charges

through the surface S is :

(1) 3q/ε0
(2) 2q/ε0
(3) q/ε0
(4) zero

4) Assertion :- Charge is invariant

Reason :- Charge does not depends on speed or frame of reference.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) A point charge is placed at origin as shown in the diagram. Which of the following statement is
true:-

(1) Potential at B may be greater than A

(2) Potential at A may be greater than B
Potential energy of a charge +q placed at B may be lesser than the potential energy when it is
(3)
placed at C
(4) All are possible

6) An electric dipole is placed in a non uniform electric field, then it experiences :–

(1) Zero net force

(2) a non zero torque
(3) a non zero net force
(4) both net force and torque which may be non zero

7) Identify the false statement :-

(1) Inside a charged or neutral conductor electric field is zero.

The electrostatic field at the surface of charged conductor must be tangential to the surface at
(2)
any point
(3) There is no net charge at any point inside the conductor
(4) Electrostatic potential is constant throughout the volume of the conductor

8) If current through 4Ω is 2A then calculate potential difference across A and B :-

(1) 8V
(2) 16 V
(3) 4 V
(4) None of these

9) ln a balanced wheat stone bridge, current in the galvanometer is zero. It remains zero when:
(A) battery emf is increased
(B) all resistances are increased by 10 ohms
(C) all resistances are made five times
(D) the battery and the galvanometer are interchanged

(1) Only (A) is correct

(2) (A), (B) and (C) are correct
(3) (A), (C) and (D) are correct
(4) Only (A) and (C) are correct

10) The range of a voltmeter is 5V and its resistance is 5000 Ω (4900 Ω connected in series with a
coil of resistance 100 Ω). What additional resistance should be connected in series with it so that its
range is doubled ?

(1) 5000 Ω
(2) 4500 Ω
(3) 4000 Ω
(4) 3500 Ω

11) In the following figure, the charge on each condenser in the steady state will be :-

(1) 3μC
(2) 6μC
(3) 9μC
(4) 12μC

12) Three capacitors each of 4 µF are to be connected in such a way that the effective capacitance is
6 µF. This can be done by connecting them :

(1) one in series with parallel combination of the other two.

(2) all in parallel
(3) one in parallel with series combination of the other two.
(4) all in series

13) As shown in the figure, a very thin sheet of aluminium is placed in between the plates of the

condenser. Then the capacity :-

(1) Will increase

(2) Will decrease
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) May increase or decrease

14) Two particles A and B of masses mA and mB respectively and having the same charge are moving
in a plane. A uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of the particles
are vA and vB respectively, and the trajectories are as shown in the figure. Then

(1) mAvA < mBvB

(2) mAvA > mBvB
(3) mA < mB and vA < vB
(4) mA = mB and vA = vB

15) If magnetic field at the centre is zero then find θ.

(1) 2 radian
(2) 4 radian
(3) 1 radian

(4)
radian

= µ Σi, where B also includes the contribution from

0
16) Assertion :- For Amperes law
current not enclosed by the loop.
Reason :- A moving charge produces magnetic field but no electric field

(1) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is a correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and reason are false

17) Assertion :- All magnetic materials lose their magnetic properties when strongly heated.
Reason :- Most of the substances show diamagnetism.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) A coil is wound over a iron rod and direct current flows through it. The nature of polarity at
different points will be :-

(1) A→North pole, B→North pole, C→South pole

(2) A→North pole, B→North pole, C→Neutral
(3) A→North pole, B→South pole, C→North pole
(4) A→South pole, B→North pole, C→Neutral

19)

A conducting loop carrying a current i is placed in a uniform magnetic field pointing into the plane of
the paper as shown. The loop will have a tendency to :-

(1) Contract
(2) Expand
(3) Move towards +ve x-axis
(4) Move towards –ve x-axis

20) When a current element is placed at point P along then magnetic field at point Q is

, then is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) A long solenoid has 20 turns/cm. The current necessary to produce a magnetic field of 20 mT at
mid point of the solenoid is approximately :-
(1) 1 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 4 A
(4) 8 A

22) A particle of charge q and mass m is moving along the x-axis with a velocity v and enters a
region of electric field E and magnetic field B as shown in figure below. For which figure the net
force on the charge may be zero ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The primary coil of a transformer has 400 turns while the secondary coil has 2000 turns. The
power output from the secondary coil at 1000 V is 12 kW. The current through the primary coil is :

(1) 15 A
(2) 12 A
(3) 60 A
(4) 6 A

24) Assertion:- During propagation of electromagnetic wave E, B & direction of propagation are
perpendicular to each other.
Reason:- During propagation of electromagnetic wave, the energy density due to electric &
magnetic fields are equal.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

25) A current of i = 20 sin ωt cos ωt ampere is flowing in a circuit. The reading of current was taken
by AC and DC meters respectively. The corresponding reading will be :-

AC meter DC meter
1 0 0
2 0 7A
3 7A 0
4 14A 0
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5, has both surfaces of same radius of curvature R. On
immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it will behave as a:

(1) Convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R

(2) Convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
(3) Divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
(4) Divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R

27) Figure shows graph of deviation (δ) versus angle of incidence (i) for a light ray incident on a

prism. Angle of prism is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

28) Assertion :- Microscope magnifies the image. Reason :- Angle subtended for image is more
than that of object in microscope.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) Assertion :- A light ray is incident on a glass slab. Some portion of it is reflected and some is
refracted. Refracted and reflected rays are always perpendicular to each other.
 Reason :- Angle of incidence is not equal to angle of reflection.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30) A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3
cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should be microscope moved to get the
mark in focus again :-

(1) 1 cm downward
(2) 2 cm upward
(3) 1 cm upward
(4) 4.5 cm downward

31) In the Young's double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the
path difference is λ is K, (λ being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a point where the
path difference is λ/4, will be :-

(1) K
(2) K/4
(3) K/2
(4) Zero

32) All diodes are ideal. Resistance between D1 and D2 is 2Ω then current through 2Ω resistance will

be :-

(1) 1A
(2) 2A
(3) 3A
(4) Zero

33) What will be input of A and B for the Boolean expression ?

(1) (0, 0)
(2) (0, 1)
(3) (1, 0)
(4) (1, 1)

34) When green light is incident on the surface of metal, it emits photo-electrons but there is no
such emission with yellow colour light. Which one of the colour can produce emission of photo-
electrons ?

(1) Orange
(2) Red
(3) Indigo
(4) None of the above

35) If the kinetic energy of a particle is increased to 16 times, the percentage change in the de-
Broglie wavelength of the particle is :-

(1) 25%
(2) 75%
(3) 60%
(4) 50%

SECTION-B

1) Charges Q, 2Q and 4Q are uniformly distributed in three dielectric solid spheres 1, 2 and 3 of
radii R/2, R and 2R respectively, as shown in figure. If magnitudes of the electric fields at point P at
a distance R from the center of spheres 1, 2 and 3 are E1, E2 and E3 respectively, then :-

(1) E1 > E2 > E3

(2) E3 > E1 > E2
(3) E2 > E1 > E3
(4) E3 > E2 > E1

2) Six charges, three positive and three negative of equal magnitude are to be placed at the vertices
of a regular hexagon such that the electric field at O is double the electric field (in same
direction) when only one positive charge of same magnitude is placed at R. Which of the following
arrangements of charges is possible for P, Q, R, S, T and U respectively

(1) +, –, +, –, –, +
(2) +, –, +, –, +, –
(3) +, +, –, +, –, –
(4) –, +, +, –, +, –

3)

A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal division. Its current sensitivity is 10 division per
milliampere and voltage sensitivity is 2 division per millivolt. In order that each division reads 1 volt,
the resistance in ohms needed to be connected in series with the coil will be :-

(1) 99995
(2) 9995
(3) 103
(4) 105

4) n cells of emfs E1, E2, E3...,En and internal resistance r1, r2, r3...,rn are connected in series to form a
closed circuit with zero external resistance. For each cell the ratio of emf to internal resistance is K,
where K is a constant; then current in the circuit is :

(1) (1/K)
(2) K
(3) K2
(4) (1/K2)

5) A piece of conducting wire of resistance R is cut into 2n equal parts. Half the parts are connected
in series to form a bundle and remaining half in parallel to form another bundle. These two bundles
are then connected to give maximum resistance. The resistance of the combination is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
R

6)

A microammeter has a resistance of 100Ω and full scale range of 50μA. It can be used as a voltmeter
or as higher range ammeter, provided a resistance is added to it. Pick the correct range and
resistance combination(s) :-

(1) 50 V range with 10 kΩ resistance in series

(2) 10 V range with 20 kΩ resistance in series
(3) 5 mA range with 1Ω resistance in parallel
(4) 10 mA range with 1Ω resistance in parallel

7) A conducting wire is bent in the form of concentric semicircles as shown in the figure. The

magnetic field at the point O is :-

(1) zero
(2) μ0i/ 6a
(3) μ0i/a
(4) μ0i/4a

8) In the inductive circuit given in figure, the current rises after the switch is closed. At instant,
when the current is 15 mA, the potential difference across the inductor is :-

(1) 40 V
(2) 80 V
(3) 160 V
(4) Zero

9) A thin wire of length 2m is perpendicular to the xy plane. It is moved with velocity

through a region of magnetic induction . Then potential
difference induced between the ends of the wire:

(1) 2 volt
(2) 4 volt
(3) 0 volt
(4) 8 volt

10) The diagram shows a capacitor C and a resistor R connected in series to an ac source. V1 and V2
are voltmeter and A is an ammeter :- Consider the following
statements
I. Readings in A and V2 are always in phase
II. Reading in V1 is ahead in phase with reading in V2
III. Readings in A and V1 are always in phase
Which of these statements are/ is correct

(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) I and II only
(4) II and III only

11) Magnification produced by astronomical telescope for normal adjustment is 20 and length of
telescope is 2.1 m. The magnification when the image is formed at least distance of distinct vision (D
= 25 cm) is -

(1) 14
(2) 6
(3) 16
(4) 28

12) Light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident normally on a slit of width 2.5 × 10–4 cm. The angular
position of second minimum from the central maximum is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Find current through zener diode :-

(1) 5 mA
(2) 7.5 mA
(3) 2.5 mA
(4) 12.5 mA

14) If the energy released in the fission of one nucleus 200 MeV, Then the number of nuclei required
per second in a power plant of 16 kW will be :-

(1) 0.5 × 1014

(2) 0.5 × 1012
(3) 5 × 1012
(4) 5 × 1014

15) The wavelength of the first line in balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum is λ . What is the
wavelength of the second line:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 2 2 2 4 2 2 4 1 4 3 3 3 2 4 4 2 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 4 1 3 2 2 1 4 3 4 2 2 1 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 1 1 4 1 2 2 4 4 4 3 4 2 1 3

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 4 2 3 3 2 4 1 2 3 1 1 4 2 1 2 1 1 4 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 2 1 4 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 1 4 4 2 3 2 2 1 2 4 1 3 2 4

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 2 1 2 4 4 3 1 1 1 4 1 2 4 3 4 3 3 1 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 4 1 1 2 2 4 4 4 1 1 3 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 1 3 2 3 4 3 4 4 2 4 3 2 1

PHYSICS
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 2 1 4 4 2 2 3 1 4 3 3 2 1 3 2 1 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 2 3 1 3 1 2 1 4 3 3 1 1 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 2 2 1 3 2 1 1 1 4 2 1 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

CHEMISTRY

7) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 284 (part - IInd)

15) cis isomer do not have plane of symmetry and will show optical isomerism.

16)

NCERT XII Pg. # 238 (Part-I)

26)

r = k[A]α [B]β

β=1

α=1
r = k[A]1 [B]1

27)

Intermolecular H-bonding occurs between phenolic proton and nitrogen of aniline.

28)
n–factor = 6

29)

From slow step.

r = K[P] [Q2] ......(I)
from reversible step

[P] = [P2]1/2 ...(II)

From (I) & (II)
r = K[P2]1/2 [Q2]
r = K' [P2]1/2 [Q2]1
order =1 + 1/2 = 1.5
 30)

For non-ideal solution ΔSmix > 0

31) BP ∝ iC
0.1 m glucose i × C = 1 × 0.1 = 0.1
0.1 m K2SO4 = 3 × 0.1 = 0.3
0.1 m NaCl = 2 × 0.1 = 0.2
0.01 m K4[Fe(CN)6] = 5 × 0.01 = 0.05

32) HCl and KOH both are strong acid and strong base.

33)
W = 0.29 g

34)

Given temperature coefficent is 2 & increased temp is 50°C.

K80 = K30 (2)5 = 32 (K30)

35) Number of steps = number of peak in graph, step having maximum Ea is RDS.

41)

[Ni(dmg)2] having 4 rings

42) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O is hydrate isomerism

46)

NCERT (OLD) Pg#103,104

47) M+2 + 2e– → M

Eo = – 1.18 V
⇒ M → M2+ + 2e– E° = 1.18 V

EO.P = EoO.P – log [Mn+2]

= 1.18 – log
= 1.18 + 0.03 = 1.21 V

48)
 π1 = π2
C1 RT = C2 RT

49) Since blood is isotonic with approx 0.16 M NaCl.

50)

ri = k[A][B]1/3

rf = k × × (8[B])1/3
= k[A][B]1/3
rf = ri

BOTANY

51) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 73, 76

52) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 74

53) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 73, 75

54) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 62 to 64

55) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 63

56) NCERT-XI, Pg. 66

57) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 14

58) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 5

59) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 4, 5

60) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 13

61) NCERT-XII, Pg # 70(E)/78(H)

62) NCERT-XII, Pg # 63(E)/70(H)

63) NCERT-XII, Pg # 61,62,69

64) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 64

65) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 55, 56

66) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 74, 73

67) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 69 and 74

68) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 102, 103, 105

69) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 84, 85, 96

70) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 90

71) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 94, 95

72) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 94-95

73) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 81

74) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. 103

75) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 207

76) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 214

77) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 213

78) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 212, 213

79) NCERT-XII, Pg # 209-210

80) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 200

81) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 198

82) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 201

83) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 223, 224, 225

84) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 225

85) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 217-21

86) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 74, 75

87) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72

88) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64

89) NCERT-XI, Pg. #63, 64, 65, 66

90)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 11

91) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 61

92) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 67, 73, 74

93) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 69 and 74, 75

95) NCERT-XII, Pg # 96,101,102,93(E) / 102,106,112,113(H)

96) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 99

97) NCERT-XII, Pg # 20, 30, 192, 202

98) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 197

99) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 225

100) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 218

ZOOLOGY

101)

NCERT XII Pg. # 35, 36, 37

103)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 50-51

104)

NCERT XII Pg # 44

106) NCERT XII Pg # 31,32

107) A = Umbilical cord,

B = Placental villi,
C = Cavity of uterus,
D = Yolk Sac,
E = Embryo

108) NCERT XII Pg # 26,27,28,29

109) NCERT Pg # 46

111) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 64

117)

NCERT XII Pg # 153, para 8.2.5 & 8.2.6, Pg 158 para 8.4, Pg 159 para 8.5

118) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 162

121) NCERT XIIth Pg.#138

122) NCERT Pg. # 140 Para 7.9

123) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 151, 153, 158

128) NCERT, Pg # 171(E)/188(H)

 133) NCERT Pg. # 178,179,180,181

138) NCERT Pg # 35-36

139)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 54

144) NCERT Pg # 151

148) NCERT Pg. # 181, 188

PHYSICS

151) The electric potential at any point on the perpendicular bisector of two equal and
opposite charges is zero. Therefore, the potential at A and B is zero. Work done in transferring
the charge from A to B is given by W = q × ΔV. But ΔV = 0. Therefore, W = 0
Aliter : V is a function of only X. Hence, the potential gradient which is the electric field is also
along X-axis. Since equipotential surfaces are always perpendicular to , the yz planes are
equipotential surfaces.

153)

156) In non uniform electric field

Torque and force both may be non-zero

158)
Since both resistance of 4Ω then current in other 4Ω would be 2A.
160)
V = Ig × (100 + 4900)

Now
2V = Ig(100 + 4900 + R)

= 10 × 1000 – 5000
= 5000 Ω

161)
At steady state

VAB = I(4) = 2 × 4 = 8V
potential across each capacitor = 4V
Now, Q = CV = 3μ × 4 = 12μC

162)

Ceq =
= (2 + 4)μF
= 6μF

163) Since aluminium is a metal, therefore field inside this will be zero. Hence it would not

affect the field in between the two plates, so capacity remains unchanged.

164)
r= , ∵ r A > rB

165)

for B0 = 0
|Bwire| = |Barc| and in opposite direction

⇒
⇒ θ = 2 radian

169)

170)

By Biot-Savart law

(where, )

171)

B = μ0nI
20 × 10–3 = 4π × 10–7 × 2000 × I
⇒ I = 7.957 A

173) Power output of the secondary, PS = VSIS

⇒ IS = But = 60 A

175)
i = 10 sin2ωt

irms = and iavg = 0

AC meter measure rms value while DC meter measure average value.

176)

⇒ f = 3.5 R (convergent lens)

177)

8=i+e–A
30 = 15 + 60 – A
⇒ A = 75 – 30
= 45°

180)

upward shift produce by slab

=
= 1 cm upward

181) For path difference λ, phase difference = 2π rad

For path difference , phase difference = rad

0
As K = 4I . so, intensity at given point where path difference is

=
182)

183) The given relation is satisfied if A = 0 and B = 0

184) Wave length of green light is threshold wavelength. Hence for emission of electron,
wavelength of incident light < wavelength of green light.

185)
As Ex → 16 EK

∴ λ →

186)

E3 < E1 < E2

187)

188)
⇒

⇒
= 15 mA
⇒ V = 150 volt
As V = Ig(R + G)
150 = 15 × 10–3 (R + 5)
⇒ R = 9995 Ω

189)

=K

190)

Resistance of 1 bundle =

Resistance of 2 bundle =

∴ Req =

192)

193)
By KVL in loop ABCDA
100 – VL – I(4000) = 0
⇒ VL = 100 – (15 × 10–3 × 4000)
⇒ VL = (100 – 60)V
= 40 V

194) = 2 Volts.

196)

f0 = 200cm, fe = 10cm, final magnification = = 28

197)

198)

IL = = 5 mA

I= = 10 mA
IZ = I – IL = 10 – 5 = 5 mA

199) Energy released in the fission of one nucleus = 200 MeV

= 200 × 106 × 1.6 × 10–19 J = 3.2 × 10–11 J
P = 16KW = 16 × 103 Watt
Now, number of nuclei required per second

200)
Similarly