21-07-2024

1103CMD303001240006 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) If a body starts from rest, the time in which it covers a particular displacement with uniform
acceleration is :

(1) inversely proportional to the square root of the displacement

(2) inversely proportional to the displacement
(3) directly proportional to the displacement
(4) directly proportional to the square root of the displacement

2) Which of the following four statements is false?

(1) A body can have zero velocity and still be accelerated

(2) A body can have a constant velocity and still have a varying speed
(3) A body can have a constant speed and still have a varying velocity
(4) The direction of the velocity of a body can change when its acceleration is constant.

3) Three different objects of masses m1, m2 and m3 are allowed to fall from rest and from the same
point 'O' along three different frictionless paths. The speeds of the three objects on reaching the
ground, will be in the ratio of :-

(1) m1 : m2 : m3
(2) m1 : 2m2 : 3m3
(3) 1 : 1 : 1

(4)

4) The fig. shows the position time graph of a particle moving on a straight line path. What is the

magnitude of average velocity of the particle over 10 seconds ?

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

5) The graph between the displacement x and time t for a particle moving in a straight line is shown
in figure. During the interval OA, AB, BC and CD, the acceleration of the particle is :

OA AB BC CD

(1) + 0 + +

(2) – 0 + 0

(3) + 0 – +

(4) – 0 – 0
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) A ball was thrown from height H and the ball hit the floor with velocity after 1.5 sec of its

projection. Find initial speed of ball.

(1)
(2)
(3) 15 m/s
(4) 30 m/s

7) The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is times of its initial speed 'u' of projection. Its
range on the horizontal plane is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A shell is fired vertically upwards with a velocity v1 from the deck of a ship moving with a speed
v2. A person on the shore observes the motion of the shell as a parabola. Its horizontal range is given
by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Two balls A and B are thrown with speeds u and u/2 respectively. Both the balls cover the same
horizontal distance before returning to the plane of projection. If the angle of projection of ball B is
15° with the horizontal, then the angle of projection of A is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Three particles A, B and C are projected from the same point with the same initial speeds
making angles 30°, 45° and 60° respectively with the horizontal. Which of the following statements
are correct ?

(1) A, B and C have unequal ranges

(2) Ranges of A and C are equal and less than that of B
(3) Ranges of A and C are equal and greater than that of B
(4) A, B and C have equal ranges

11) A boat takes 2 hours to go 8 km and come back in still water lake. The time taken for going 8 km
upstream and coming back with water velocity of 4 km/h is :
(1) 140 min
(2) 150 min
(3) 160 min
(4) 170 min

12) Two cars are moving in the same direction with the same speed of 30 km/h. They are separated
by 5 km. What is the speed of a car moving in the opposite direction if it meets the two cars at an
interval of 4 minute ?

(1) 45 km/h
(2) 60 km/h
(3) 105 km/h
(4) None

13) A bird is flying with a speed of 40 km/h in the north direction. A train is moving with a speed of
40 km/h in the west direction. A passenger sitting in the train will see the bird moving with velocity :

(1) 40 km/h in N-E direction

(2) km/h in N-E direction
(3) 40 km/h in N-W direction
(4) km/h in N-W direction

14) Two particles A and B, move with constant velocities and . At the initial moment their
position vectors are and respectively. The condition for particle A and B for their collision is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

15) Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up
the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator,
then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk up on the moving escalator
will be

(1)

(2)

(3) t1 – t2

(4)

16) For a body, angular velocity and radius vector then its velocity
 is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors,
the angle between these vectors is :-

(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) 45°
(4) 180°

18) Six vectors, through have the magnitudes and directions indicated in the figure. Which of the

following statements is true ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) A physical quantity which has a direction :

(1) must be a vector

(2) may be a vector
(3) must be a scalar
(4) none of the above

20) A ball weighing 10 g hits a hard surface vertically with a speed of 5 m/s and rebounds with the
same speed. The ball remains in contact with the surface for (0.01) s. The average force exerted by
the surface on the ball is :-

(1) 100 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 1 N
(4) 0.1 N

21) Force-time graph for the motion of a body is shown in fig. Change in linear momentum between
0 to 8 s is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 4 N-s
(3) 8 N-s
(4) None

22) A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30° with the wall.
It is reflected with the same speed and at the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the wall for

0.25 seconds, the average force acting on the wall is :-

(1) 48 N
(2) 24 N
(3) 12 N
(4) 96 N

23) Action and reaction :- (For a given system)

(a) Act on the two different objects
(b) Have opposite directions
(c) Have equal magnitudes
(d) Have zero resultant

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) All of the above
(4) None of the above

24) The pulleys and strings shown in the fig. are smooth and are of negligible mass. For the system
to remain in equilibrium, the angle should be

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

25) Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected by a massless spring as shown in the
figure. A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg mass. At the instant shown the 10 kg mass has an
acceleration 4 m/s2 rightwards. What is the acceleration of 20 kg mass ?

(1) Zero
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 8 m/s2

26) Two masses of 1 kg and 2 kg are attached to the ends of a massless string passing over a pulley
of negligible weight. The pulley itself is attached to a light spring balance as shown in figure. The
masses start moving; during this interval the reading of spring balance will be :-

(1) More than 3 kg.

(2) Less than 3 kg.
(3) Equal to 3 kg.
(4) None of the above
27) Three masses M1, M2 and M3 are lying on a frictionless table. The masses are connected by
massless threads as shown. The mass M3 is pulled by a constant force F as shown. The tension in the

thread between masses M2 and M3 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Two blocks each of mass M are resting on a frictionless inclined planes as shown in fig. then

(1) The block A moves down the plane

(2) The block B moves down the plane
(3) Both the blocks remain at rest
(4) Both the blocks move down the plane.

29) In the fig. mass M = 10 g. is placed on an inclined plane. In order to keep it at rest, the value of

mass m will be :

(1) 5 g
(2)
(3) 0.10 g
(4)

30) Three blocks A, B and C of masses 4 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on a
frictionless surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg block, then the contact force
between A and B is :

(1) 6 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 18 N
(4) 2 N

31) Find contact force between 10 kg & 20 kg :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 0 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 60 N

32) Three masses of 1 kg, 6 kg and 3 kg are connected to each other with threads and are placed on
table as shown in figure. What is the acceleration with which the system is moving ? Take g = 10 m

s–2.

(1) Zero
(2) 1 m s–2
(3) 2 m s–2
(4) 3 m s–2

33) Three blocks A, B and C are vertically stagged at rest as shown in the figure. Magnitude of

contact force between blocks B and C will be equal to –

(1) 20 N
(2) 70 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 50 N
34) Two bodies of masses m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 3 kg are connected by a light string going over a
smooth light pulley on a smooth inclined plane as shown in the figure. The system is at rest. The
force exerted by the inclined plane on the body of mass m1 will be : [Take g = 10 ms–2]

(1) 30 N
(2) 40 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 60 N

35) The equation of a circle is given by x2 + y2 = a2, where a is the radius. If the equation is modified
to change the origin other than (0, 0), then find out the correct dimensions of A and B in a new

equation : . The dimensions of t is given as .

(1) A = [LT], B = [L–1T–1]

(2) A = [L–1T–1], B = [LT]
(3) A = [L–1T], B = [LT–1]
(4) A = [L–1T–1], B = [LT–1]

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following has the highest number of significant figures ?

(1) 0.007 m2
(2) 2.64 × 1024 kg
(3) 0.0006032 m2
(4) 6.3200 J

2) A physical quantity X is given by . The percentage error in the measurements of

are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. The value of X is uncertain by

(1) 8%
(2) 10%
(3) 12%
(4) None

3) The figure shows a horizontal force acting on a block of mass M on an inclined plane (angle ).
What is the normal reaction on the block ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) A small sphere is suspended by a string from the ceiling of a car. If the car begins to move with a

constant acceleration the inclination of the string with the vertical is :-

(1)
in the direction of motion

(2)
opposite to the direction of motion
(3) tan–1(2) in the direction of motion
(4) tan–1(2) opposite to the direction of motion

5) The force exerted by a person on the floor of an elevator is more than the weight of the person if
the elevator is :-
(a) Going up and slowing down
(b) Going up and speeding up
(c) Going down and slowing down
(d) Going down and speeding up

(1) a, c
(2) b, c
(3) a, d
(4) b, d

6) A man weighs 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a
uniform acceleration of 5 m/s2. What would be the reading on the scale ? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) Zero
(2) 400 N
(3) 800 N
(4) 1200 N

7) A person travelling in a straight line moves with a constant velocity v1 for certain distance 'x' and
with a constant velocity v2 for next equal distance. The average velocity v is given by the relation
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A metal sphere is hung by a string fixed to a wall. The forces acting on the sphere are shown in

fig. Which of the following statements is correct ? (a)

(b)
(c) (d)

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, b, c, d

9) If and , then the angle between may be :

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4) None

10) One centimetre on the main scale of vernier callipers is divided into ten equal parts. If 10
divisions of vernier scale coincide with 8 small divisions of the main scale, the least count of the
callipers is

(1) 0.01 cm
(2) 0.02 cm
(3) 0.05 cm
(4) 0.005 cm

11) A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100 m, taking 62.8 seconds for every
circular lap. The average velocity and average speed for each circular lap respectively is :-
(1) 0, 0
(2) 0, 10 m/s
(3) 10 m/s, 10 m/s
(4) 10 m/s, 0

12) The forces, which meet at one point but their lines of action do not lie in one plane, are called :

(1) non-coplanar and non-concurrent forces

(2) coplanar and non-concurrent forces
(3) non-coplanar and concurrent forces
(4) coplanar and concurrent forces

13) Which of the following velocity–time graphs shows a realistic situation for a body in motion ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A particular moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10
m/s to 20 m/s while passing through a distance of 135 m in t seconds. The value of t is :-

(1) 12
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 1.8

15) A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x = (t + 5)–1. The acceleration of
particle is proportional to :-

(1) (velocity)2/3
(2) (velocity)3/2
(3) (distance)2
(4) (distance)–2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which condition favours the bond formation:

(1) Maximum attraction and maximum potential energy

(2) Minimum attraction and minimum potential energy
(3) Minimum potential energy and maximum attraction
(4) None of these

2) What is the maximum wavelength line in the lyman series of He+ ion ?

(1) 3R

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

3) For H– spectrum, electron transition takes place from n = 5, to n = 2, then emitted wave length of
photon is 434 nm. The wave length of photon in electron transition from n = 4 to n = 2 will be :-

(1) 586 nm
(2) 49 nm
(3) 486 nm
(4) 400 nm

4) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Promotion of electron is an essential condition prior to Hybridisation.
Statement-II : Half filled, full filled and vacant orbital can participate in the process of
Hybridisation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
5) Find the number of photons of light whose λ = 5000Å and provide 1 joule energy?

(1) 4 × 1018 photons

(2) 4.5 × 1018 photons
(3) 2.5 × 1016 photons
(4) 2.5 × 1018 photons

6) Order of electronic repulsion is-

(LP = lone pair, BP = bond pair)

(1) LP-LP > BP - BP > LP - BP

(2) BP-BP > LP - LP > LP - BP
(3) LP-LP > LP - BP > BP - BP
(4) LP-BP > LP - LP > BP - BP

7) In argon (Ar) atom how many electrons have magnetic quantum number = 1 ?

(1) 1
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 2

8) Which two orbitals are located along the axis, and not between the axis ?

(1) dxy,
(2) dxy, pz
(3) dyz, px
(4) ,

9) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II
Odd electron
(A) BeH2 (P)
molecules
(B) SF6 (Q) Expanded octet
Incomplete octet
(C) NO2 (R)
Central atom
(1) (A) -P; (B) -Q; (C) -R
(2) (A) -Q; (B) -R; (C) -P
(3) (A) -R; (B) -Q; (C) -P
(4) (A) -R; (B) -P; (C) -Q

10) If in mass of protons are doubled and mass of neutrons are halved then atomic weight will
be:-
(1) Increased by 12.5%
(2) Increased by 25%
(3) Increased by 37.5%
(4) Remains same

11) A 0.66 Kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be (h = 6.6 ×
10–34 Js)

(1) 6.6 × 10–34 m

(2) 1 × 10–35 m
(3) 1 × 1032 m
(4) 6.6 × 10–32 m

12) The correct set of four quantum numbers for the outermost electron of Zn (Z = 30) is

(1)
3, 2, 0, +

(2)
4, 1, 0, –

(3)
4, 0, 0, +
3, 2, –1, +
(4)

13) The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p orbitals are respectively

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) Which is not characteristic of Planck's quantum theory of radiation?

(1) Radiation is associated with energy.

(2) Energy is neither absorbed nor emitted in whole number or multiples of quanta.
(3) The magnitude of energy associated with quanta is proportional to the frequency.
Radiation energy is neither emitted nor absorbed continuously but in small packets called
(4)
quanta.

15) Which of the following transition of Bohr Atom emits maximum wavelength

(1) 2 1
(2) 3 2
(3) 4 3
(4) 4 1
16) Which of the following has the minimum C–C bond length ?

(1) C2H2
(2) C2H4
(3) C2H6
(4) All are same

17) Nitrogen does not form NF5 because

(1) Nitrogen is member of V group

(2) It contain no d-orbital
(3) The bond energy of N ≡ N is very high
(4) Inert pair effect exists in the molecule

18)

Correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is :-

(1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

(2) B <Al < Ga < In < Tl
(3) B < Ga < Al < TI < In
(4) B< Ga < Al < In <TI

19)

In sp2 hybridisation how many angles are of 120°?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Bond length in sp3d hybridization

(1) Equitorial > axial

(2) Axial > Equitorial
(3) Equitorial = axial
(4) None

21)

Calculate total number of σ & π bond ?

(i) CH3CN -
(ii) H2NCONH2 -

(iii) HClO4 -

(1) (i) 5σ, 2π (ii) 7σ, 1π (iii) 5σ, 3π

(2) (i) 5σ, 3π (ii) 7σ, 2π (iii) 5σ, 2π
(3) (i) 6σ, 2π (ii) 5σ, 3π (iii) 6σ, 2π
(4) (i) 7σ, 2π (ii) 9σ, 2π (iii) 7σ, 2π

22)

A has 2 electrons and B has 7e- in valence shell, its molecular formula will be:

(1) A2B5
(2) A3B4
(3) AB2
(4) A2B

23)

NH3 is isostructural with

(1) BCl3

(2)

(3)

(4)

24)

The molecular geometry of H3O+ is-

(1) Trigonal planner

(2) Angular
(3) Tetrahedral
(4) Pyramidal

25) The percentage of p-character is the orbitals of central atom in BCl3 is -

(1) 75%
(2) 50%
(3) 66.66%
(4) 10%

26) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) AlCl3 follows octet rule

(2) AlF3 does not follow octet rule
(3) B2H6 follows octet rule
3
(4) In B2H6 each B has hybridisation sp

27) Given below are two statement:

Statement-I: H2O molecules has V-shape with two lone pairs of electron.
Statement-II: ClF3 has T-shaped with two lone pair of electrons.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given
below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

28) Incorrect match is :

Electron geometry – Possible molecular shape from respective electron geometry

(1) Tetrahedral – Bent

(2) Trigonal bipyramidal – Triangular planar
(3) Octahedral – Square pyramidal
(4) Pentagonal bipyramidal – Pentagonal planar

29)

How many number of lone pairs are there in XeF2 molecule

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12

30) Compound of a metal ‘M’ is M2O3. The formula of its nitride will be:

(1) M3N
(2) MN
(3) M3N2
(4) M2N3
31) Choose the incorrect order of hydrated size of the ions :

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

32) Hybridisation of B in BCl3 is

(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3
(4) sp3d

33) The number of sigma and pi-bonds in a molecule of cyanogen (CN)2 are

(1) 4, 3
(2) 3, 4
(3) 5, 2
(4) 3, 5

34) Which of the following is a polar molecule?

(1) XeF4
(2) BF3
(3) SF4
(4) SiF4

35) Assertion: -bond is a strong bond, while -bond is weak bond.

Reason: Atoms rotate freely about -bond.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

SECTION-B

1)

Which of the following species are polar :

(a) C6H6 (b) XeF2
(c) SO2 (d) SF4
(e) SF6
Correct answer is :-
(1) (b) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (e)
(3) (a) and (e)
(4) (c) and (d)

2) One litre of a certain gas weighs 1.16 g at STP. The gas may possibly be -

(1) C2H2
(2) CO
(3) O2
(4) NH3

3) The empirical formula of an organic compound containing carbon and hydrogen is CH2. The mass
of one litre of this organic gas is exactly equal to that of one litre of N2 at same temperature and
pressure. Therefore, the molecular formula of the organic gas is –

(1) C2H4
(2) C3H6
(3) C6H12
(4) C4H8

4) 20 mL of methane is completely burnt using 50 mL of oxygen. The volume of the gaseous mixture
left after cooling to room temperature is :-

(1) 80 mL
(2) 40 mL
(3) 60 mL
(4) 30 mL

5) 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water
produced in this reaction will be :-

(1) 2 mole
(2) 3 mole
(3) 4 mole
(4) 1 mole

6) Number of molecules in 100 mL of each of O2, NH3 and CO2 at STP are –

(1) in the order CO2 < O2 < NH3

(2) in the order NH3 < O2 < CO2
(3) same
(4) NH3 = CO2 < O2
7) Number of neutrons present in 1.7 g of ammonia is -

(1) NA
(2) (NA/10) × 4
(3) (NA/10) × 7
(4) NA × 10 × 7

8) The ionic radii (Å) of N–3, Na+ and Al+3 are respectively given by :-

(1) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71

(2) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40
(3) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36
(4) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

9) Correct order of I.P. is :-

(1) Be < B < Mg < Al

(2) Be < B < Al < Mg
(3) Be > B > Mg > Al
(4) B < Be > Mg < Al

10) The correct order of size for iodine species I, I–, I+ is :-

(1) I > I– > I+

(2) I > I+ > I–
(3) I+ > I– > I
(4) I– > I > I+

11) The number of element present in 5th period ?

(1) 18
(2) 32
(3) 8
(4) 24

12) Which of the following oxide is differ from others?

(1) ZnO
(2) BeO
(3) Al2O3
(4) MgO

13) Maximum number of electrons in outermost shell of s, p, d, f block elements respectively :-

(1) 2,8,2,2
(2) 2,6,10,14
(3) 2,8,18,32
(4) 2,8,10,8

14)

What is the correct of electronegativity for group-14 elements?

(1) C > Si > Ge > Sn < Pb

(2) C > Si = Ge = Sn > Pb
(3) C > Pb > Si = Ge = Sn
(4) C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb

15) Arrange N, O and S in order to decreasing electron affinity :

(1) S > O > N

(2) O > S > N
(3) N > O > S
(4) S > N > O

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Growth and locomotion are the defining feature of life.
(b) Cell is the basic unit of life in all living organisms.
(c) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.
(d) In unicellular organisms all functions are performed in a single cell.
Options :

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) only
(3) Statements (a), (d) only
(4) Statements (a), (c) only

2) Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Robert brown observed nucleus
(b) A german botanist observed and studied plant cells.
(c) Ominous cellula e cellula was given by Rudolf Virchow.

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c
3) According to the size of the organism, which sequence is not correct :

(1) Eukaryotic cell > Prokaryotic cell > PPLO > Virus
(2) Virus < PPLO < Prokaryotic cell < Eukaryotic cell
(3) Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Prokaryotic cell > Virus
(4) PPLO < Prokaryotic cell < Eukaryotic cell < Tissue

4) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

A Algae i Peptidoglycans

B Fungi ii Chitin and polysaccharide

C Bacteria iii Cellulose, Galactans, Mannan

D Higher plants iv Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Pectin

(1) A → ii; B → iii; C → i; D → iv
(2) A → ii; B → iii; C → iv; D → i
(3) A → iii; B → ii; C → i; D → iv
(4) A → iii; B → ii; C → iv; D → i

5) Which of following is mismatched for cell membrane ?

(1) Active transport → ATPase enzyme

(2) Quasifluid nature → Cholesterol
(3) Prokaryote → Hopanoides
(4) Cell recognition → Protein

6) In which stage of meiosis chromosome is composed of two chromatids ?

(1) Anaphase-II
(2) Telophase-II
(3) Anaphase-I
(4) Both (1) and (3)

7) Identify structure A,B,C and D in given diagram :-

A B C D
 Peripheral Central Radial Central
(1)
microtubule sheath spoke microtubule

Interdoublet Central Central Central

(2)
bridge microtubule sheath bridge

Interdoublet Central Radial Central

(3)
bridge sheath spoke microtubule

Interdoublet Radial Central Central

(4)
bridge spoke sheath microtubule
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Kinetochores are associated with :-

(1) Outer part of primary constriction

(2) Centromere in its central part
(3) Secondary constriction
(4) Satellite

9)

(a) Cell wall (i) Protein synthesis

(b) Cell membrane (ii) Hydrolytic enzyme

(c) SER (iii) Lipid synthesis

(d) RER (iv) Cellulose

(e) Lysosome (v) Quasifluid nature

Match the following and choose the correct option-
(1) a = v, b = iv, c = iii, d = i, e = ii
(2) a = i, b = ii, c = iii, d = iv, e = v
(3) a = iv, b = v, c = i, d = iii, e = ii
(4) a = iv, b = v, c = iii, d = i, e = ii

10) Choose the correct statement among the following.

(1) Vacuole in bound by double membrane. Which is known as tonoplast

(2) Tonoplast, facilitates the transport of ions against the concentration gradient into the vacuole.
(3) The average length of mitochondria is 0.5mm.
(4) Mitochondria may contain 70S or 80S ribosome

11) Microtubules are the constituents of :-

(1) Spidle fibers, cilia, centrioles

(2) Cilia, flagella, peroxysome
(3) Centrioles, chromatin, spindle fibers
(4) Centrosome, nucleosome, centrioles

12) An organelle which is surrounded by double membrane structure, contain small circular DNA
molecule and ribosome and also having the site for aerobic respiration:-

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Centriole
(3) Mesosome
(4) Mitochondria

13) Which structure in bacteria functionally similar to mitochondria ?

(1) Ribosomes
(2) Oxysomes
(3) Mesosomes
(4) Peroxysomes

14) Match the column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

Gives the appearance of small

(I) Primary constriction (a)
fragmet called satellite

Beads on string structure in

(II) Secondary constriction (b)
chromatin

(III) Telomere (c) Kinetochore is present

(IV) Nucleosome (d) Seal the end of chromosome

(1) I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
(2) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(3) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
(4) I-c, II-b, IV-a, IV-d

15) The crossing - over take place between :-

(1) Two paternal - chromosome

(2) Two maternal chromosome
(3) One maternal and one paternal chromosome
(4) Non-homologous chromosomes

16) In a container 2.5 × 1025 bacteria are reproducing by binary fission with rate of 25 minutes. How
many bacteria will be produced after 1 hour 40 minutes.

(1) 40 × 1025
(2) 24 × 1025
(3) 16 × 1025
(4) 4.4 × 1026

17) How many chromosome shall be present in a diploid cell at mitotic anaphase & metaphase if its
egg cell has ten chromosome.

(1) 40, 20
(2) 20, 40
(3) 10, 20
(4) 20, 10

18) No. of chromosome and content of DNA in S phase is n and 2C than calculate no. of chromosome
and content of DNA in G1 and G2

(1) n, C, n, 2C
(2) 2n 2C, n, 2C
(3) n 2C, n, 2C
(4) All of the above

19) A cell examined during prophase of cell cycle contained 100 chromatids and 50 chromosomes.
What would be the number of chromatids and chromosomes in anaphase of this cell cycle ?

(1) 200 chromatids & 100 chromosomes

(2) 100 chromatids & 50 chromosomes
(3) 100 chromatids & 100 chromosomes
(4) 50 chromatids & 25 chromosomes

20) If number of chromosome is 26 and DNA amount is 2c in a cell before S phase. What will
be chromosome number and DNA amount in cell after S phase ?

(1) 26, 2c
(2) 52, 2c
(3) 26, 4c
(4) 52, 4c

21) Growth and Reproduction are mutually exclusive events in

(1) Unicellular organisms

(2) Multicellular organisms
(3) Amoeba
(4) Bacteria

22) Which of the following is a defining property of all living organism :-

(1) Reproduction
(2) Growth
(3) Consciousness
(4) Self consciousness

23) Self consciousness is the property of :-

(1) All living organisms

(2) Prokaryotes only
(3) All multicellular organisms
(4) Human being only

24) Assertion: In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydononas and Chlorella have been included
in Protista.
Reason: Chlamydononas and Chlorella are unicellular eukaryotic organisms.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but reason is false
(3) Assertion and reason are false
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

25) Practical classification is mainly based on..........

(1) flower
(2) shape
(3) uses
(4) vegetative characters

26) Anacardiaceae is the family of :-

(1) Wheat
(2) Tobacco
(3) Mango
(4) Datura

27) Which of the following is not a correct name ?

(1) Rattus rattus

(2) Homo sapien sapien
(3) Mangifera indica
(4) Brassica oleracea oleracea

28) In which of the following system of classification each character (vegetative and sexual) is given
equal importance ?
(a) Artificial system
(b) Numerical system
(c) Natural system
(d) Phylogenetic system

(1) a, d
(2) only b
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and b

29) Which of the following classification system is based on evolutionary relationship between the
various organisms ?

(1) Artificial classification

(2) Cladistic classification
(3) Phylogenetic classification
(4) (2) & (3) both

30) Which of the following taxonomic category has real existence?

(1) Kingdom
(2) Family
(3) Species
(4) Genus

31) How many of the following are correct statements?

(A) A genus is a group of related species which has move characters in common in comparison to
species of other genera.
(B) Families are characterised on basis of both vegetative and reproductive features of plant species.
(C) Solanaceae and convolvulaceae family are included in order Polymonials
(D) As we move from species to kingdom, number of common characters gradually increase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 3

32) Find out the incorrect statement from the following:-

(1) Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant in nature.

(2) Bacterial structure is very complex and they have very simple behaviour.
(3) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission.
(4) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having different cell wall structure.

33) Floral features are commonly used for identification of angiosperms because :-

(1) reproductive parts are more conservative

(2) flowers can be safely preserved
(3) flowers are nice to work with
(4) flowers have various colour and scents.

34) Animals, mammals and dogs represent :-

(1) Taxa at different levels

(2) Taxa at same level
(3) Different levels of same taxa
(4) All are correct

35) Mango and wheat plants belong to :-

(1) Order sapindales

(2) Family Ancardiaceae
(3) Class Dicotyledonae
(4) Division Angiospermae

SECTION-B

1) In which of following statement does not support numerical taxonomy ?

(1) Application of computer

(2) Based on observable characters
(3) Equal weightage to vegetative and reproductive characters.
(4) Only a few characters are considered at a time.

2) According to hierarchical system of classification which of the following is correct ?

(A) Similarities decrease from species to kingdom
(B) Similarities increase from kingdom to species
(C) Dissimilarities decrease from phylum to species
(D) Similarities decrease from species to class

(1) Only A,B,C

(2) Only B,C,D
(3) Only B,C
(4) A,B,C,D all

3) Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
Natural system of
A. 1. Linnaeus
classification
Artificial system of Bentham and
B. 2.
classification Hooker
Phylogenetic system
C. 3. Angler and Prantl
of classification
Codes :
A B C
 (1) 2 1 3

(2) 3 1 2

(3) 2 3 1

(4) 1 2 3
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Main criteria used by R.H. Whittaker in his five kingdom classification was not the :-

(1) Cell structure

(2) Thallus (Body) organization
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Ecological role

5) Match the column I, II and III

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Cellulosic Parasitic and

A Monera I P
cell wall saprophytic

Nuclear
B Protista II membrane Q Holozoic
absent

May form
C Fungi III loose R Photosynthetic
tissue

Tissue/organ
Cell wall made
D Plantae IV grade S
of chitin
of organisation
(1) A-I,Q ; B-II,P,S ; C-IV,P ; D-III,Q
(2) A-II,P ; B-I,P,Q,R ; C-III,S,P ; D-I,IV,R
(3) A-III,Q ; B-II,P,S ; C-III,S,P ; D-II,Q
(4) A-IV,P ; B-I,R,S ; C-II,Q ; D-III,P

6) According to Whittaker, how many kingdoms belong to eukaryotes?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

7) The processes that are basic to taxonomy are

(1) Characteristics
(2) More than 1 option is correct
(3) Classification
(4) Identification

8) An organism with following characters. Belongs to :-

Cellwall cellulosic and xylem present.

A. Well defined nucleus

B. Photosynthesis takes place in chloroplast

(1) Kingdom monera

(2) Kingdom protista
(3) Kingdom fungi
(4) Domain Eukarya

9) The activity of recombinase enzyme is seem in________stage of meiosis:

(1) Diakinesis
(2) Pachytene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Diplotene

10) How many of the following are character of plasmid?

(A) Smaller DNA
(B) Circular ds
(C) Chromosomal DNA
(D) Confers antibiotic resistance

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 0

11) Which of the following kingdom is metabolically most diverse ?

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Fungi

12) Polyribosomes/Polysomes are made up of :-

(1) Ribosomes only

(2) Only larger subunit of ribosomes
(3) Ribosomes & m-RNA
(4) Ribosomes & DNA
13) Bacterial genomic DNA is :-

(1) Circular and single stranded

(2) Circular and double stranded
(3) Linear and double stranded
(4) Linear and single stranded

14) Some characters are written below about the bacterial flagella, which of them are correct and
incorrect ?
(A) Made of three parts filament, hook and basal body
(B) Made of longest protion called filament
(C) Made of central and peripheral protein fibres
(D) They help attach the bacteria to rocks and also to the host cells.

(1) A, B, C - correct ; D - incorrect

(2) A, B - correct ; C, D - incorrect
(3) A, C - correct ; B , D - incorrect
(4) A, B - incorrect; C, D - correct

15) Find the correct statements :-

(1) Vast majority of Bacteria are autotrophic

(2) The majority of Bacteria are Heterotrophic
(3) The majority of Bacteria are found in Human
(4) Majority of Bacteria are symbiotic

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) The distinctive feature of echinoderms is the:-

(1) Presence of endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles

(2) Presence of excretory system
(3) Presence of water vascular system
(4) Both (1) and (3)

2) Identify the given diagram A, B and C for phylum :-

 A B C

1 Platyhelminthes Aschelminthes Annelida

2 Platyhelminthes Annelida Aschelminthes

3 Annelida Platyhelminthes Aschelminthes

4 Annelida Aschelminthes Platyhelminthes

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which of the following cells of porifera act as totipotent cells and responsible for high power of
regeneration ?

(1) Pinacocyte
(2) Porocyte
(3) Scleroblasts
(4) Archaeocytes

4) In the given list, segmentation is present in how many of the following ?

Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata, Mollusca, Aschelminthes

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

5) Choose the locomotory structures of the phylum to which the given animal
belongs :-

(1) Comb plates (flagellated)

(2) Ventral muscular foot
(3) Tube feet
(4) Comb plates (ciliated)

6) Rasping organ 'radula' is found in :-

(1) Echinus
(2) Limulus
(3) Ctenoplana
(4) Chaetopleura

7) One example of animal having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as
anus is :-

(1) Octopus
(2) Asterias
(3) Ascidia
(4) Fasciola

8) Which of the following is incorrect about platyhelminthes :-

(1) Mostly endoparasites, Planaria is freeliving

(2) Suckers, hooks helps in attachment
(3) Flame cells help in osmoregulation, excertion
(4) Circular in cross section

9) Find out the correct one :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of chordata ?

(1) Post anal tail

(2) Paired pharyngeal gill slits
(3) Ventral solid nerve cord
(4) Dorsal rod like notochord

11) Which of the following is not a feature of cartilaginous fish ?

(1) Absence of air bladder

(2) Presence of operculum
(3) Mouth is ventral side
(4) Presence of claspers

12) Match the column-I with column-II :-

 Column-I Column-II
(A) Organ-system level organisation (i) Platyhelminthes
(B) Tissue level organisation (ii) Poriferans
(C) Organ level organisation (iii) Ctenophores and coelenterates
Aschelminthes, annelida, arthropoda, mollusca
(D) Cellular level organisation (iv)
echinodermata and chordates
(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)

13) Members of which of the following subphylums are exclusively marine :-

(1) Ctenophora, Echinodermata

(2) Urochordata, Chondrichthyes
(3) Hemichordata, Cyclostomata
(4) Urochordata, Cephalochordata

14) Read the following four statements A-D :-

(A) over two-thirds of all named species on earth are arthropodes.
(B) The body of arthropods consist of head thorax and abdomen.
(C) Fertilisation is usually external.
(D) The body of arthropods is covered by chitinous exoskeleton.
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) All of these

15) Find out the correct statement about sponges :-

(1) All sponges are motile

(2) Few are motile and rest are sessile
(3) Few are sessile and rest are motile
(4) All sponges are sessile

16)

Vertebrates include, fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals. How many of them respire
through lungs ?

(1) Only fishes, reptiles, birds and mammals

(2) only amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals
(3) only fishes, birds and mammals
(4) Fishes, amphibia, reptiles and mammals
17)

Which of the following is incorrect about cartilaginous fish?

(1) Teeth are modified placoid scales which are backwardly directed.
(2) 5 to 7 pair of gills for respiration but without operculum (i.e. gill cover)
(3) Air bladder absent so they have to swim constantly to avoid sinking
(4) In males, pelvic fins claspers are absent

18) Match the following sets correctly:

Column-I Column-II

a Annelids i Flame cells

b Arthropods ii Nephridia

c Platyhelminthes iii Malpighian tubules

d Molluscs iv Feathery gills

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

19) Which one of the following features is common in Ancylostoma, Fasciola, and cyclostomes?

(1) Body plan

(2) Symmetry
(3) Body cavity
(4) None of the above

20) Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in :-

(1) House lizard

(2) Flying fish
(3) Pigeon
(4) Tadpole of frog

21) Which one of the following statement about Hyla, Rana, Rattus and Elephas is correct?

(1) All are poikilotherms

(2) All have 12 pairs of cranial nerve
(3) All have dicondylic skull
(4) Sexes are separate and fertilisation is internal

22)

Find out the Incorrect match from the table given below :
 Animal Class Character

(1) Hippocampus Osteichthyes Sea horse,Pregnant male

(2) Pristis Chondrichthyes Saw fish, Placoid scales

Flying fish,Operculum
(3) Exocoetus Osteichthyes
absent

Sting ray, Air bladder

(4) Trygon Chondrichthyes
absent
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Animals belonging to phylum chordata are fundamentally characterized by the presence of

structure noted as A, B, C and D. Identify the A, B, C and D.

(1) A-Nerve cord, B-Gill slits, C-Notochord, D-Post-anal tail

(2) A-Nerve cord, B-Notochord, C-Post-anal tail, D-Gill slits
(3) A-Nerve cord, B-Notochord, C-Gill slits, D-Post-anal tail
(4) A-Notochord, B-Nerve cord, C-Gill slits, D-Post-anal tail

24) Statement-I :- Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are poikilothermous.

Statement-II :- The unique feature of mammals are the presence of mammary gland and hair on
the skin. They always shows viviparity.

statement I and statement II both are correct and statemement II is correct explanation of
(1)
statement I
statement I and satement II both are correct and but statement II is not correct explanation of
(2)
statement I
(3) statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Both statement are incorrect

25) Assertion (A) :– Amphioxus is exclusively marine.

Reason (R) :– Notochord is present from head to tail and persistent through out the life.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) Assertion: Aschelminthes and Annelids possess bilateral symmetry.

Reason: Both Aschelminthes and Annelids are coelomates.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

27) Reptilia means :-

(1) Flying mode of locomotion

(2) Swim mode of locomotion
(3) Saltation mode of locomotion
(4) Creeping or crawling mode of locomotion

28) All living members are ectoparasites on some fishes in–

(1) Hemichordata
(2) Urochordata
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Chondrichthyes

29) Which one of the following is correct with respect to chordata–

(1) Presence of notochord and a dorsal solid nerve cord.

(2) Presence of notochord and a ventral hollow nerve cord.
(3) Presence of vertebral column and a dorsal solid nerve cord.
(4) Presence of notochord and a dorsal hollow nerve cord.

30) Which of the following is incorrect about reptilia?

(1) Body is covered by dry and cornified skin, epidermal scales or scutes.
(2) They do not have external ear opening
(3) Heart is usually three chambered.
(4) Respiration occur through lungs and skin.

31) Which of the following is not an exclusive characteristic of the chordate?

(i) Hollow nerve cord (ii) Paired pharyngeal gill slits
(iii) Closed circulatory system (iv) Post anal tail
(v) Bilateral symmetry (vi) Triploblastic
(vii) Presence of notochord

(1) (i), (vi), (vii)

(2) (iii), (v), (vi)
(3) (i), (ii), (iv), (vii)
(4) (iv), (i), (vii)

32) Select the correct option of classification of Rana tigrina upto genus :-
(1) Chordata → Vertebrata → Amphibia → Gnathostomata → Rana
(2) Chordata → Vertebrata → Gnathostomata → Amphibia → Rana
(3) Chordata → Amphibia → Gnathostomata → Vertebrata → Rana
(4) Chordata → Vertebrata → Amphibia → Tetrapoda → Rana

33) Air sacs connected to lungs supplement respiration in :-

(1) Birds
(2) Reptiles
(3) Amphibians
(4) Mammals

34) Assertion :- most unique mammalian characteristic is the presence of mammary gland.
Reason : By mammary gland young ones are nourished.
(A) both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) assertion is true but reason is false. (D) assertion and reason both are false.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

35) Forelimbs are modified into wings in :-

(1) Chelone
(2) Pteropus
(3) Echidna
(4) Both 1 & 2

SECTION-B

1) Match the column-I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(a) (1) Corvus (E) Penguin

(b) (2) Columba (F) Vulture

 (c) (3) Psittacula (G) Ostrich

(d) (4) Struthio (H) Crow

(5) Pavo (I) Pigeon

(6) Aptenodytes (J) Parrot

(7) Neophron (K) Peacock

(1) a-6-G, b-3-K, c-2-F, d-5-J
(2) a-4-G, b-5-K, c-7-F, d-3-J
(3) a-1-G, b-3-K, c-2-I, d-5-H
(4) a-4-E, b-5-K, c-7-F, d-3-J

2)

Which of the following is not a character of amphibians ?

(1) Body is divided into head and trunk and there is no neck
(2) A tympanum is present in place of external ear
(3) The amphibian skin is moist and naked (without scales)
(4) Pentadactyl limbs with claws

3) Unique feature of Aves is ?

(1) Presence of feathers

(2) Presence of wings
(3) Presence of oviparity
(4) Presence of 4 chambered heart

4) Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II
 Help to stop substances
Adhering
(a) (i) from leaking across a
junction
tissue

Perform cementing to
Gap
(b) (ii) keep neighbouring cells
junction
together

Facilitate the cells to

Tight
(c) (iii) communicate with each
junction
other.
(1) a – iii, b – ii, c–i
(2) a – ii, b – iii, c–i
(3) a – ii, b – i, c – iii
(4) a – i, b – iii, c – ii

5) Which of the following is not an example of elastic cartilage ?

(1) Ear pinna

(2) Eustachian tube
(3) Nasal septum
(4) Epiglottis

6)

Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1 : Bone and cartilage are speacialised connective tissues.

Statement 2 : Blood is a connective tissue with fluid (plasma) matrix.

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
Both statement 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement
(2)
1.
(3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

7) Fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells are seen in :-

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Muscle tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) Connective tissue

8) Salivary gland is an example of :-

(1) Exocrine gland

(2) Endocrine gland
(3) Mixed gland
(4) Holocrine gland
9) Which of the following is not a part of connective tissue ?

(1) Fibroblasts
(2) Adipocytes
(3) Elastin fibers
(4) Basement membrane

10)

Which statement/s is/are true about compound epithelium ?

(A) It has a limited role in secretion and absorption.
(B) Their main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
(C) They cover the dry surface of the skin.

(D) They cover the moist surface of buccal cavity.

(1) Only A and B
(2) Only A, B and C
(3) Only A and C
(4) All A, B, C and D

11) Identify the following simple epithelial tissues and select the correct option.

A B C D
(1) Cuboidal Squamous Columnar Ciliated columnar
(2) Squamous Cuboidal Columnar Ciliated columnar
Pseudo-stratified
(3) Columnar Cuboidal Ciliated columnar
squamous
Pseudo-stratified
(4) Squamous Columnar Cuboidal
squamous (Ciliated)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Mast cells secrete :-

(1) Haemoglobin
(2) Myoglobin
(3) Histamine
(4) Hippurin

13)

Cartilage found in the intervertebral discs is

(1) Hyaline
(2) Fibrous
(3) Elastic
(4) Calcified.

14)

Non-keratinised stratified epithelium occurs in

(1) Vagina, cervix and buccal cavity

(2) Vagina, cervix, buccal cavity and stomach
(3) Vagina and nasopharynx
(4) Buccal cavity and skin

15) How many statements are correct for bone?

(a) Bones support & protect soft tissues & organs.
(b) Bones of limbs serves as weight bearing function.
(c) It is main tissue that provide structural framework to body.
(d) Matrix of bone is hard and pliable.
(e) Matrix of bone is rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 3 1 2 2 1 3 2 2 3 1 2 2 2 1 2 4 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 2 3 3 4 2 1 1 1 1 2 3 4 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 3 4 2 2 4 2 3 1 2 2 3 2 2 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 3 1 4 3 3 4 3 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 4 3 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 4 4 3 4 4 2 3 2 2 2 2 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 1 1 4 3 3 3 3 3 4 1 4 1 3 1

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 4 3 3 4 3 3 1 4 2 1 4 3 3 3 1 1 1 3 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 4 1 3 3 4 4 4 3 4 2 1 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 1 4 2 3 2 4 2 2 1 3 2 2 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 4 2 4 4 4 4 3 3 2 3 4 3 4 2 4 2 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 3 3 3 2 3 4 3 4 4 2 2 1 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 4 1 2 3 2 4 1 4 4 2 3 2 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

51)

52)

53)

54)

S–I Promotion of e¯ is not required condition prior to hybridisation.

S–II Yes, its true.

55) We know, E =

n=

n=
n = 2.5 × 1018 photons

56)

NCERT Pg. # 113

57)

Ar has z = 18 and its electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6. m = 1 is for one 2p orbital and
one 3p orbital in it.
i.e. 4e–, (2e– in each orbital)

58)
Two orbitals that are located along the axis and not between the axis are –

59) BeH2 ⇒ H–Be–H

incomplete octate (hypovalent species)

expanded octate (hypervalent species)

NO2 ⇒ Incomplete octate central atom

60)

p w A.W.

Old 8 8 16
New 16 4 20

% change =

61)

62)

Hint : Zn (Z = 30): [Ar]3d104s2

Sol. : Outermost electron of Zn is present in 4s orbital hence, n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +

63) Number of radial nodes

For
(Number of radial node =2)
For
(Number of radial node = 0)

64)

(2)

65)

NCERT page no. 45

λ is maximum in this case.

66) H3C–CH3 H2C=CH2 HC≡CH

B.O 1 2 3
B.L 1.54 Å 1.34 Å 1.20 Å
B.O↑ B. L↓

67) It contain no d-orbital

68) Due to transition contraction

69)

Two-hybrid orbitals 120 degrees apart are sp2​ hybridized.

Percentage of s character =31​×100% = 33%

70)

71) (i) 5σ, 2π

(ii) 7σ, 1π

(iii) 5σ, 3π

72) AB2
 73)

74) Pyramidal

75) BCl3 has sp2 hybridization so it has 33% s-character and 66% p-character.

76) FACT

77)

Both statement I and statement II are correct

78)

In trigonal bipyramidal geometry lone pairs (if present) never placed at axial positions.
At axial position more repulsion occurs & they should be placed at equatorial position

79)

80)
Valency of Metal is 3

81)

82)

sp2

83)

Cyanogen, has 3σ and 4π - bonds

84)

Irregular molecule

85)

-bond is formed due to end to end overlapping of the two atomic orbitals, example: between s and
s, s and p and p and p-orbitals.
-boding is formed due to side wise overlapping of the two atomic orbitals. Example: between p and
p orbitals.
Overlapping of orbitals is more effective in sigma bonding than in -bonding. Rotation of an atom is
not possible around -bond due to the geometry of the overlapping orbitals.

86)

If Central atom has only 1 Lone pair then molecule will be polar always like SO2 and SF4.

87)

moles of gas =

molecular mass =
= 25.98 ≃ 26
C2H2

88)

∵ mass of 1 L of this organic gas

= mass of 1 L of N2
∴ mass of 22.4 L (1 mol) organic gas
= mass of 22.4 L of N2 (mol wt) ⇒ 28 g
∴ mol. wt of organic gas = 28 g
empirical formula = CH2, It's wt. =14

n= =2
mol. formula = C2H4
 89)

20 ml 40ml 20ml
Volume of gases left = 10 ml O2 and 20 ml
CO2 = 30 ml

90)

H2(g) + O2(g) —→ H2O(ℓ)

Moles 5 2 4 moles
LR

H2 + O2 → H2O

= 4mol 1 mol

91)

Number of molecule = n × NA
n is same for all O2, NH3 & CO2.

92) 1 mol. of NH3 contains 7 × NA neutrons.

1.7 g of NH3 = = 0.1 mol.

∴ 0.1 mol contains ⇒ 0.1 × 7 × NA neutrons

93)

N–3 > Na+ > Al+3 (Iso electronic species)

94)

95) I– > I > I+

96) 5th period number of elements

97)
∵ MgO is basic oxide
∴ while others are amphoteric.

98)

As per e– Configuration

99) Theory.

100)

Electron affinity of third period elements is greater than electron affinity of second period
elements in the respective group except alkali and alkaline earth metals.
Nitrogen has half-filled electronic configuration that's why it has less electron affinity.
S>O>N

BOTANY

101)

NCERT XI (Eng.) Pg. # 125, Para 1, 2 and 3

107)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 137, Fig. 8.9

120)

NCERT XII Pg # 163

134) NCERT XI, Pg. # 7

142)

NCERT XII Pg.# 259

143)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 343 (Supliment)

150)

NCERT Pg. # 19

ZOOLOGY

157)

Module No. 5
 158)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 51

159)

NCERT Pg. # 56 Fig : 4.19 (a), 4.20 (a), 4.19 (b), 4.20 (b)

161)

NCERT-(XIth) Pg. # 56

162)

NCERT-XI, Page#46, 47, 48

163) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 55

164)

NCERT XI Pg.#53, Para-4.2.7

172)

NCERT Pg. # 57 Para 4.2.11.2, 4.2.11.3

175)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 55

181)

Chordates are fundamentally characterised by

→ a notochord
→ a dorsal hollow nerve cord
→ Paired pharyngeal gill slits
→ Post anal tail

182)

NCERT-XI, Pg#56, 57, 58

185)

NCERT XI Pg. # 59

186)

NCERT XI, Page # 59

188)
NCERT Page # 58

191)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 104 (E)

194)

NCERT-XI Pg.# 103

195) NCERT Pg # 102

All (A), (B), (C) and (D) are true about compound epithelium

196)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 101

200)

NCERT, Pg. # 104