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Book Code: R-2125

ISBN: 978-93-89480-70-2
HSN Code: 49011010
 SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
 The Examination will consist of Objective Type, Multiple Choice Questions
only and shall be OMR based. The questions will be set in English
only.
 There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer.

SYLLABUS

1. BASIC MATHEMATICS 20 Marks

 Percentage  Average  Time, Work and Distance  Ration
and Proportions  Problem of Age  Probability  LCM, HCF
 Mensuration.
2. BASIC REASONING 20 Marks
 Analogies  Relationship Concepts  Figure Odd One Out
 Direct Sense  Figure Series Completion  Venn Diagram
 Number Series  Coding/Decoding.
3. BASIC ENGLISH 20 Marks
 Articles  Synonyms  Antonyms  Preposition  Verbs
 Reading Comprehension  Determiners  Spellings
 Sentences.
4. GENERAL AWARENESS AND SCIENCE 40 Marks
 General Current Events (National Level)  Sports  Indian
Culture  Indian History  Indian Geography  Capital/State
 General Science  Health, Hygiene and Sanitation  Geography
of Jammu and Kashmir  Culture of Jammu and Kashmir  History
of Jammu and Kashmir.

(iii)
 CONTENTS
Current Affairs .............................................................................................. v-viii

Model Paper (Solved) ...................................................................................... 1-8

BASIC MATHEMATICS .................................................................................. 1-56

 Percentage  Average  Time, Work and Distance  Ration
and Proportions  Problem of Age  Probability  LCM, HCF
 Mensuration.

BASIC REASONING ...................................................................................... 1-56

 Analogies  Relationship Concepts  Figure Odd One Out  Direct
Sense  Figure Series Completion  Venn Diagram  Number Series
 Coding/Decoding.

BASIC ENGLISH ............................................................................................ 1-64

 Articles  Synonyms  Antonyms  Preposition  Verbs  Reading
Comprehension  Determiners  Spellings  Sentences.

GENERAL AWARENESS AND SCIENCE .................................................... 1-72

 Sports  Indian Culture  Indian History  Indian Geography
 Capital/State  General Science  Health, Hygiene and Sanitation
 Geography of Jammu and Kashmir  Culture of Jammu and Kashmir
 History of Jammu and Kashmir.

(iv)
 As per the Act the Lieutenant Governor of
J&K and Ladakh are
the successor UT of J&K may nominate two
Now Union Territories members to the Legislative Assembly to give
Ending Jammu and Kashmir’s special status in representation to women, if in his opinion
the Indian Union, the BJP government extended women are not adequately represented in the
all provisions of the Constitution to the State in Legislative Assembly. The Act said the Lok
one go, downsized the State into two Union Sabha would have five seats from the UT of J&K,
Territories and allowed all citizens to vote and while Ladakh would have one seat. With this,
buy property in the State. The Union Territory the total number of UTs in the country will go up
(UT) of Jammu and Kashmir will have a to eight—J&K, Ladakh, Delhi, Puducherry,
Lieutenant Governor and the maximum strength Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Diu & Daman,
of its Assembly will be of 107 seats, which will Chandigarh, Lakshadweep and Andaman and
be further enhanced to 114 after a delimitation Nicobar Islands. Currently, only two UTs—Delhi
exercise according to the act passed by and Puducherry—have Legislative Assemblies.
Parliament on August 6, 2019. Twenty-four With addition of J&K, the number will go up to
seats of the Assembly continue to remain three. UTs with Legislative Assemblies have Lt
vacant as they fall under Pakistan-occupied Governors.
Kashmir (PoK). Article 370: Article 370 was incorporated in
The UT of Ladakh will have Kargil and Leh Part XXI (temporary provisions with respect to the
districts. There shall be a Council of Ministers in State of Jammu and Kashmir) of the Constition.
the successor UT of J&K consisting of not more The state’s constituent assembly had wanted
than 10 per cent of the total number of members only those aspects of the Indian Constitution that
in the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief reflected what Hari Singh had signed away.
Minister as the head to aid and advise the Besides Article 1, it was the only other article of
Lieutenant Governor in the exercise of his the Indian Constitution that automatically applied
functions in relation to matters with respect to to J&K. The other provisions of the Indian statute
which the Legislative Assembly has power to could apply to the state only if its constituent
make laws. The new UT would have reservation assembly concurred. Article 370 provided Jammu
in the Assembly seats. & Kashmir with special status, allowing it its own

(v)
 (vi)

state constitution. The Union of India could other officers as number of employees from
legislate/act only in defence, foreign affairs and Ladakh are posted in Jammu and Kashmir
communications. Since the 1950s, there have divisions and vice versa.
been afforts to pull the state into a deeper Jammu and Kashmir Police will come under
embrace with the Union, but Art 370 was control of the Union Home Ministry.
strengthened when Sheikh Abdullah, who had
The process for fresh delimitation will be
become the second Prime Minister of J&K in
carried out be setting up a Delimitation
1948 and was later dismissed, came to an
Commission.
agreement—after spells of detention—with Prime
Minister Indira Gandhi in 1975. J&K, Reorganization Bill comes into forces
and J&K and Ladakh are declared as UTs.
35A Defines w ho is a Perm anent
Resident: Article 35A was made part of the No permission will be required to set up
Indian Constitution in 1954, through a industry and non-locals will be eligible to
presidential order — through its genesis goes apply for jobs in the UTs unless the
back to early 20th century Dogra apprehensions administration imposes a cap, with effect
of an influx from Punjab, which they feared from 31st Oct. 2019.
would change the state’s demographic and land There will be no separate Constitution.
ownership patterns. The article, which defines West Pakistani refugees and Valmikis, who
who is a permanent resident of J&K and lays had been denied state subject right even
down laws restricting property purchase and after 72 years of settlement in the State, will
ownership to such permanent residents, also be equal stakeholders now.
discriminated against women, depriving them of
Leh and Kargil districts will have
their state subject rights if they married non-
Autonomous Councils, Municipalities and
permanent residents. Panchayats. It may be mentioned here that
law and order of the UTs is directly
Jammu and Kashmir After controlled by the Central.
Reorganisation Act, 2019 UT can’t make laws pertaining to Law and
People from other states will now be eligible Orders, Police.
to serve and purchase land. UT of Jammu and Kashmir to have only nine
Legislative Assembly duration in Union Ministers.
Territory of J&K will be 5 years. UT Ladakh to have Advisors.
There will be Common HC for J&K, and PSC for J&K UT, UPSC for Ladakh.
Ladakh UTs. 4 RS members to continue with their term.
There will be Single citizenship only. With abrogation of Article 370, Jammu and
Tricolour flag will be the only flag to hoisted Kashmir is as much part of India as all other
in Jammu & Kashmir (UT) and Ladakh (UT). States.
Provisions of the Indians Constitution are Article 360 (Financial Emergency) will be
applicable in the State. applicable.
UT Administration will have to frame the Minorities will be eligible for reservation in
rules of the services of State cadre and services.
 (vii)

Land—the rights in or over it—will be with Land revenue, including the assessment
the elected governm ent of the Union and collection of revenue, maintanance of
Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, unlike in land records, survey for revenue purposes
Delhi where the L-G exercises control and records of rights, and alienation of
through the Delhi Development Authority revenues will also come under the purview of
(DDA), a central government entity. the elected government of UT of Jammu and
The UT of Jammu and Kashmir will have a Kashmir.
Lieutenant Governor and the maximum Police, law and order, and land in the UT of
strength of its assembly will be 107, which Ladakh will be under the direct control of its
will be enhanced to 114 after a delimitation L-G , through whom the Centre will
exercise. Twenty-four seats of the
adm inister the high-altitude region.
Assembly will continue to remain vacant as
According to the Act, Ladakh will not have
they fall under Pakistan-occupied Kashmir
a legislative assembly.
(PoK).
All India Services lik e the Indian
According to the Jammu and Kashmir
Administrative Service (IAS) and the Indian
Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Legislative
Police Service (IPS), and the Anti-Corruption
Assembly of the UT of Jammu and Kashmir
may make laws for the whole or any part of Bureau (ACB) will be under the control of
the union territory with respect to any of the the L-G and not the elected government of
matters enumerated in the state list of the the UT of J&K.
Constitution except the subjects mentioned The Act says the cadres of the IAS and IPS
in entries one and two—‘public order’ and for the existing state of Jam mu and
‘police’ respectively— or the Concurrent List Kashmir, on and from the appointed day,
in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. shall continue to function on the existing
Matters related to land, that is to say, rights cadres. However, in future, the all India
in or over it, land tenures, transfer and service officers to be posted to UTs of
alienation of agricultural land, land Jammu and Kashmir or Ladakh shall be
improvement and agricultural loans will be borne on the Arunachal Pradesh, Goa
under the domain of the elected government Mizoram and Union Territory cadre, more
of UT of Jammu and Kashmir. popularly known as UT cadre.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The state of Jammu and Kashmir formally A. Aug. 15, 2019
split into two Union Territories (UTs) on: B. Aug. 5, 2019
A. Oct. 31, 2019 C. Aug. 9, 2019
B. Nov. 30, 2019 D. None of these
C. Aug. 31, 2019 3. Lieutenant Governor of J&K (UT) will be
D. Dec. 31, 2019 appointed by:
2. On which date the J&K reorganization bill A. Prime Minister of India
discussed in Rajya Sabha? B. President of India
 (viii)

C. Home Minister in India A. Lieutenant Governor

D. None of these B. Governor
4. The Union territory of Ladakh will include C. President of India
the districts: D. None of these
A. Leh and Kargil 7. Number of districts included in Jammu and
B. Jammu and Srinagar Kashmir (UT) will be:
C. Doda and Kishtwar A. 22 B. 18
D. None of these C. 20 D. 16
5. High Court of Jammu and Kashmir will 8. The union territory of Ladakh is similar to:
function as: A. Delhi B. Chandigarh
A. High Court Jammu C. Puducherry D. Dadar-Haveli
B. High Court of Kashmir 9. The union territory of J&K is similar to:
C. UT of Jammu and Kashmir and UT of A. Delhi B. Chandigarh
Ladakh C. Puducherry D. Dadar-Haveli
D. All of these
10. Sanctioned strength of Minister of Cabinet
6. The council of Ministers including Chief according to J&K (UT) formation is:
Minister of Jammu and Kashmir union A. 9 B. 35
territory will be appointed by C. 10 D. 20

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B B A C C C B A A

2007
 1
Model Paper (Solved)
Jammu & Kashmir Services Selection Board (JKSSB)
CLASS-IV POSTS
Recruitment Examination
Basic Mathematics
1. A bag contains 6 tennis balls and 8 cricket A. 32 cms B. 36 cms
balls. Three balls are randomly drawn from C. 42 cms D. 45 cms
the bag. What is the probability that at least
7. The total surface area of a cylinder whose
one of the drawn balls is cricket ball? diameter is 30 cms and height is 13 cms is
2 3 A. 2480 sq. cms B. 2640 sq. cms
A. B.
91 91 C. 2865 sq. cms D. 2768 sq. cms
5 86
C. D. 8. If the ratio of the areas of two squares are in
91 91 the ratio 9 : 4, then the ratio of their perimeters
2. The diameter of a wheel is 35 cms. The will be in the ratio
distance travelled by the wheel, if it makes 50 A. 5 : 3 B. 3 : 2
revolutions is C. 2 : 3 D. 3 : 5
A. 43 metres B. 52 metres
C. 55 metres D. 58 metres 9. If A and B are mutually exclusive events, the
probability of A  B is:
3. One card is drawn at random from a pack of A. 0 B. 1
52 cards. What is the probability that the card C. 0.3 D. 0.4
drawn is either a black card or a Jack?
10. The average of eleven numbers is 30. If
7 13 average of first ten numbers is 22 then what
A. B.
13 15 is the eleventh number?
13 8 A. 8 B. 80
C. D.
18 13 C. 30 D. 110
4. If a square is inscribed in a circle, the ratio of 11. Deepa and Seema together do a work in 6
the areas of the square and the circle is days. Deepa can complete the same work alone
A. 2 : 7 B. 2 :  in 9 days. In how many days will Seema
C.  : 3 D. 4 : 5 complete the work alone?
5. In a simultaneous throw of three coins, the A. 18 days B. 3 days
probability of getting atmost two tails is C. 12 days D. 15 days

1 7 12. The population of a city was 70,000, it

A. B. increased by 8%. What is the population now?
2 8
A. 76,000 B. 76,500
2 3
C. D. C. 76,600 D. 75,600
3 4
13. What will be the Highest Common Factor of
6. The length of a rectangle is thrice its width. If
4, 8 and 12?
the length of its diagonal is 410 cms, the
A. 1 B. 4
perimeter of the rectangle is
C. 8 D. 2
1 (2125) Model Paper—1
 2 (2125) Model Paper—1-II

14. A motorcycle covers 60 km in 3 hours. Its A. 1470 B. 700

speed is doubled. What distance will it cover C. 1050 D. 1200
in the next 1 hour?
18. 60% is equal to:
A. 360 km B. 40 km
C. 60 km D. 120 km 6 9
A. B.
9 10
15. The length of a rectangular field is increased
3 7
by 20% and breadth is decreased by 20%. C. D.
What is the per cent increase or decrease in 5 9
its area? 19. A bus travels at a speed of 75 km/hr for 45
A. 20% increase B. 4% decrease minutes and then travels at a speed of 90 km/
C. 1% increase D. No change hr for 45 minutes. What distance will it cover
16. What is the Lowest Common Multiple of 2, 3 in one and a half hour?
and 7? A. 123.75 km B. 165 km
A. 42 B. 21 C. 125 km D. 82.5 km
C. 14 D. 6 20. A shopkeeper sold a shirt for ` 728 at a loss
17. There are 1500 students in a school. 15% are of 9%. If he had sold for ` 792, what would
Muslims, 7% Sikhs, 8% Christians and have been the gain/loss per cent?
remaining are Hindus. How many Hindu A. 8% loss B. 9% profit
students are there in the school? C. 1% loss D. 8% profit

Basic Reasoning
Directions (21-24): Complete the following series 27. A. 18 B. 27
each of which follows a certain pattern. C. 33 D. 9
21. 3, 12, 27, 48, 75, 108, ...?... Directions (28-31): The figure given below consists
A. 162 B. 183 of three intersecting circles which represent set of
C. 192 D. 147 players who play Tennis, Badminton and Kabaddi.
Each region in the figure is represented by a number.
22. 49, 121, 169, 289, ...?...
A. 361 B. 529
C. 400 D. 441
23. a_ccabc_a_cc_bcc
A. c b c b B. b c b a
28. How many players play Kabaddi?
C. b a c b D. b b c c A. 48 B. 28
24. _cbacb_dbad_adc_. C. 38 D. 43
A. d a c b B. b c a a 29. Which number represents the set of players
C. c c a a D. c b d d who play only Tennis?
Directions (25-27): In the following questions, find A. 20 B. 15
the odd one out. C. 5 D. 18
25. A. Nepal B. Germany 30. Which number represents the set of players
C. China D. India who play both Tennis and Badminton but not
Kabaddi?
26. A. BY B. CV A. 10 B. 12
C. DW D. AZ C. 15 D. 5
 3

31. Which game is played by least number of 15, 29, 56, 108, 205, 400 _____ .
players? A. 756 B. 768
A. Tennis B. Badminton C. 758 D. 770
C. Kabaddi D. All the three Directions (Q. 38): In this question below four
32. If CORRECTION is coded as DPSSFDUJPO, figures are given. Three are similar in a certain way
how would EMOTION be coded? and so form a group. The question is— which one
A. FPNUJPO B. FNPUJOP of the figures does not belong to that group?
C. FNPUPOJ D. FNPUJPO
33. If BANGLE is coded as ELGNAB. How 38.
would SANDAL be coded?
A. LADNSA B. LANDAS A. B. C. D.
C. LADNAS D. LADANS
39. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, ‘–’ means ‘÷’
34. ‘P’ is the only daughter of ‘R’. ‘R’ is a and ‘×’ means ‘–’. Find the value of
grandmother of ‘Q’. The name of ‘Q’s sister 56 – 8 × 5 ÷ 4 + 7:
is ‘S’, then what is the relation of ‘S’ to ‘P’? A. 25 B. 30
A. Daughter B. Mother C. 27 D. 32
C. Sister D. Aunt 40. Based on the given figure, following conclu-
35. In certain code language, the w ord sions are drawn. Identify the true conclusion.
RESPONSE is coded as ESNOPSER. Then
the word SYMBOLIC will be coded as:
A. LYMBOCIS B. BOSLYCIS
C. CILYMBOS D. CILOBMYS
36. A man moves 3 km North, then turns West Conclusion:
and moves 2 km, again he turns North and I. All boys are sons.
walks 1 km, and 5 km towards East. How far II. Some graduates are post Graduates.
is he now from his original place? III. Some boys are graduates.
A. 11 km B. 8 km IV. Some post graduates are boys.
C. 10 km D. 5 km A. I, II and III are true
B. III and IV are true
37. Write the next term of the following number C. II, III and IV are true
series. D. I and III are true

Basic English
41. Fill in the blanks with the correct articles: C. they D. I
____ traveller told us ____ interesting story. 44. Identify the sentence which is correct:
A. the, the B. the, an
A. There is no danger of the bridge’s collapsing.
C. a, the D. the, a B. There is not danger of the bridge will collapse.
42. Fill in the blanks with the correct articles: C. There is no danger of the bridge collapsing.
____ Amazon is ____ river in South America. D. There is no danger that the bridge is to be
A. the, the B. the, a collapsing.
C. a, an D. a, the
45. Choose the correct verb to fill in the blanks:
43. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: It ____ very heavily last night.
He is two years older than ____. A. will be raining B. rains
A. she B. me C. rained D. is raining
 4

46. Identify the meaning of the underlined phrase: A. could B. can

She looks down upon her poor neighbours. C. will D. might
A. behaves rudely with
51. Choose the correct article to complete the
B. watches from an elevated position
sentence:
C. shows animosity towards
D. despises Have you ever seen .......... Taj Mahal in Agra?
A. a B. an
Directions (Qs. Nos. 47-48): Read the passage and C. the D. No article required
answer the question that follows:
52. Choose the correct tense to complete the
At about 8 O’clock in the evening I entered the sentence:
little town near the airport and made my way to the I ................ down the lane for quite some time.
inn in which I had passed the first night of my A. have walk B. had walking
holiday. I had chosen this particular inn at random, C. had been walking D. have been walk
but it had been comfortable and quiet as there were
few other guests. On my walking tour, I had stopped 53. Choose the correct preposition to complete the
where my fancy dictated and lingered on in one sentence:
place, with no one to please but onself. I had The dog sat .............. the tree.
experienced no difficulty anywhere in finding A. besides B. through
accommodation, so it had never entered my head C. beneath D. beyond
that it would be sensible to make arrangements in 54. Rearrange the following words to make a
advance for my last night. Imagine my surprise when
meaningful sentence:
I discovered that the inn was overflowing with
Published / well / is / a / poet / Gorden
delegates to some conference. The inn-keeper
A. Gorden is a well published poet
apologized profusely for having no room, and offered
B. Poet is a well published gorden
me a most inviting dinner. But I did not stop for this
C. Well published poet gorden is
because I wanted to find some place to sleep.
D. Published well is a poet gorden
47. The author is describing
A. a river cruise 55. Identify the antonym of the given word:
B. a walking tour “BARREN”
C. a trekking expedition A. desert B. arid
D. a train journey C. fertile D. empty
48. The author did not make arrangements in 56. Choose the most appropriate sentence for the
advance for his last night because he given sentence in Indirect or Direct speech:
A. had no one to please but himself. They said that we can not live without oxygen.
B. expected the inn-keeper to give him a room. A. They said, “That we can not live without
C. found no difficulty anywhere in finding oxygen”.
accommodation. B. They said, “We can not live without
D. did not plan his trip very well. oxygen”.
49. Choose the correct word to complete the C. They said, “We could not live without
sentence: oxygen”.
The students are anxious ____ their results. D. They said, “They can not live without
A. for B. about oxygen”.
C. at D. with 57. Fill in the blanks with the correct Model Verb:
50. Choose the correct word to complete the Tina watched the movie in Marathi so, ..........
sentence: understand very much of it.
It is difficult to say, if I ____ attend the A. can’t B. wouldn’t
function. C. shouldn’t D. couldn’t
 5

58. Indentify the Synonym of the word given: A. among B. in

ALERT C. about D. through
A. lethargic B. energetic
60. Identify the Antonym of the given word:
C. watchful D. inattentive
MITIGATE
59. Fill in the blanks with the correct option:
The village head brought ............... a A. intensify B. compose
reconciliation between the two enemies. C. calm D. abate

General Awareness and Science

61. The first commercial train journey in India 68. Which of the following plants belongs to the
between Bombay and Thane was in the year: grass family?
A. 1757 B. 1863 A. Bamboo B. Alicia
C. 1853 D. 1894 C. Aloe Vera D. Hibiscus
62. Table sugar is the commonly used sweetner 69. Khashaba Jadhav won an individual Olympic
in households. The chemical name for this Bronze Medal at the 1952, Summer Olympics
sugar is: held in:
A. Sucrose B. Glucose A. Melbourne B. Helsinki
C. Dextrose D. Maltose C. Tokyo D. Munich
63. Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through 70. Which of the following exquisite mountain
which of the following states in India? stream flows through the valleys between the
A. Jharkhand B. Rajasthan beautiful Chinamarg and Nurpur Pass in the
C. Chattisgarh D. Uttar Pradesh state of Jammu and Kashmir?
A. Yousmarg B. Baisaran
64. “The Faravahar” is one of the best-known C. Ferozpur Nallah D. Betab valley
symbols of:
A. Hinduism B. Christianity 71. In the history of Jammu and Kashmir the ruler
of Darvabhisara nam ed Samgramaraja
C. Zoroastrianism D. Islam
belonged to which of the following dynasties?
65. A war was fought between the East India A. Kutumbi B. Lohara
Company and the army of Siraj-ud-daulah in C. Utpala D. Huna
the year 1757. This battle was known as:
72. On October 1947, who among the following
A. Battle of Panipat
was appointed as the Emergency Administrator
B. Battle of Tarain
for the state of Jammu and Kashmir by
C. Battle of Plassey Maharaja Hari Singh?
D. Battle of Chandawar A. Yuvaraj Karan Singh
66. The loudness of sound is measured in units B. Sheikh Abdullah
called: C. Bakshi Ghulam Mohammed
A. Hertz B. Ohms D. Ghulam Mohammed Sadiq
C. Decibels D. Moles 73. Which among the following is an oxbow type
67. The first war of Indian independence also of lake of Jammu and Kashmir and has
known as the Indian Sepoy Mutiny against probably originated by the meandering of the
the British broke out in the year: alluvial deposits?
A. 1947 B. 1857 A. Dal Lake B. Ahansar Lake
C. 1877 D. 1907 C. Nilnag Lake D. Sheikhsar Lake
 6

74. The kings named Toramana and Mihirakula 83. Which of the following battery is a primary
belonged to which dynasty in the history of battery?
Jammu and Kashmir? A. Lead acid
A. Gonandiya B. Utpala B. Nickel-Metal Hydride
C. Huna D. Kutumbi C. Lithium
D. Nickel-Cadmium
75. Which of the following is TRUE about the
historical personality ‘Kalhana’ with respect 84. Which of the following is a major kharif crop
to Jammu and Kashmir region? in India?
A. He was the first Home Minister of Jammu A. Barley B. Mustard
and Kashmir state C. Wheat D. Maize
B. He was a santoor player, an ancient stringed 85. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations,
musical instrument or ASEAN, was established in Bangkok,
C. He wrote “Rajatarangini” that records Thailand on
complete history of the legendary kings of A. 08 August 1969 B. 08 August 1967
Kashmir C. 08 August 1971 D. 08 August 1973
D. He served under the king Pratap Singh of
Jammu and Kashmir 86. Which of the following rivers of Jammu and
Kashmir has its source in Verinag spring in
76. The construction of Raghunath Temple in Anantnag district?
Jammu was started by which of the following A. Jhelum B. Kishan Ganga
rulers in the history of Jammu and Kashmir? C. Tawi D. Indus
A. Pratap Singh B. Hari Singh
87. Hiuen-Tsang, the eminent Chinese traveller
C. Ranjit Singh D. Gulab Singh
visited Kashmir during the rule of which
77. Which of the following is a renewable resource? dynasty?
A. Petrol B. LPG A. Karakota B. Gonanda
C. Coal D. Wind C. Aditya D. Utpala
78. Which among the following belongs to autotroph? 88. The Bag-e-Bahu fort remains to be the oldest
A. Lion B. Cow and the most iconic of all monumental marvels
C. Grass D. Cat in Jammu, and was built by
A. Raja Bahulochan B. Dara Shikoh
79. Which of the following disease results from
C. Sampuran Singh D. Mian Hathu
the breakdown of collagen?
A. Beriberi B. Scurvy 89. Which of the following is an INCORRECT
C. Blindness D. Anaemia statement with respect to the Bag-e-Bahu Fort?
A. It was built by Raja Bahulochan
80. Which among the following is a less polluting
B. It is believed to be approximately 3000
fuel with respect to global emissions? years old
A. Coal B. Petrol C. It was revamped by the Kings of the Dogra
C. Natural gas D. Kerosene Dynasty
81. Which among the following is a Greenhouse D. It is beside the Jhelum River
gas? 90. Liquids are used in car brake systems because
A. Nitrogen B. Methane they are
C. Oxygen D. Sulphur dioxide A. incompressible and can flow easily
82. Which of the following devices converts B. compressible but cannot flow
electrical energy to sound? C. incompressible and cannot diffuse into
A. Loudspeaker B. Solar cell another liquid
C. Wind turbine D. Microphone D. compressible and can flow easily
 7

91. Pellagra is a disease caused due to the B. Chandragupta Maurya

deficiency of Vitamin C. Shivaji Maharaj
A. B2 Riboflavin B. B12 Cobalamin D. Atta Mohammad Khan
C. B3 Niacin D. B1 Thiamine 97. Which of the following places is known as
92. Which gas was responsible for the Bhopal Gas ‘The Meadow of Flower’?
Tragedy that took place on Decembe 2, 1984? A. Kangra B. Gulmarg
A. Methylamine B. Methyl isocyanate C. Dibang D. Neora
C. Carbon monoxide D. Phosgene 98. Air pollution from automobiles can be
93. The temple of Vaishno Devi is located on the controlled by fitting :
mountain : A. Cyclone separator
A. Nanda Devi B. Nyegyi Kansang B. Electrostatic precipitator
C. Padmanabh D. Trikuta C. Catalytic converter
D. Wet scrubber
94. Which one of the following lakes is connected
with Jhelum by a canal near Sumbal? 99. The speedometer of a vehicle shows which
A. Mansbal B. Dal one of the following?
C. Anchar D. Gangabal A. Acceleration
B. Average speed
95. Mamleshwar temple in Phalgam is devoted to C. Instantaneous speed
the Hindu God : D. Velocity
A. Kali B. Shiva
C. Krishna D. Vishnu 100. The most common material used in making
solar cells is :
96. Hari Parbat Fort was built by: A. Silver B. Iron
A. Emperor Humayun C. Aluminium D. Silicon

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D C A B B A B B A D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A D B B B A C C A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D A B A B B C A A B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A D C A D D B D B C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B B B C C A B C B C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C C C A C B D C C A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C A D C C C B A B C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B B B C C D D C B C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B A C D B A A A D A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C B D A B D B C C D
 8

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
2. Given, diameter of wheel = 35 cm 9. If A and B are mutually exclusive events,
i.e., 2r = 35 cm Then, (A  B) = 0
35 10. Eleventh Number = 30 × 11 – 10 × 22
 r= cm
2 = 330 – 220 = 110.
Circumference of wheel = 2r 11. Time taken by Seema = x days (let)
5
According to the question,
22 35
= 2  = 110 cm 1 1 1
7 2  =
x 9 6
It makes 50 revolutions
1 1 1 3–2 1
 Distance travelled by the wheel = 50 × 2r  = – = 
x 6 9 18 18
= 50 × 110 cm = 5500 cm
 x = 18 days.
55 00 12. Present population of city
= m = 55 m
1 00 T
5. In a simultaneous throw of three coins  R   8 
= P0  1   = 70000 1  100 
 Sample space, S = {HHH, HHT, THH, HTH,  100   
TTT, TTH, HTT, THT} 108
= 70000   75, 600.
 n(S) = 8 100
E = getting almost of two tails 13. 4= 2 × 2
 n(E) = 7 8= 2 × 2 × 2
n(E) 7 12 = 2 × 2 × 3
 Probability = 
n(S) 8  HCF = 2 × 2 = 4.
7. Given, a cylinder
Distance 60
diameter = 2r = 30 cm 14. Speed =  = 20 kmph
Time 3
 r = 15 cm and h = 13 cm New speed = 2 × 20 = 40 kmph
 The total surface area = 2rh + 2r2  Required distance = 40 km.
= 2r(h + r) 15. Required answer
22  xy 
= 2  15(13  15)  20  20 
7 = xy  % =  20 – 20 – %
 100   100 
4 = – 4%
22
= 2  15  28
7 Negative sign shows decrease.
= 44 × 60 = 2640 sq. cm 16. Required LCM = 2 × 3 × 7 = 42.
8. The ratio of the areas of two squares = 9 : 4 17. Percentage of Hindu students
A1 9 32 = 100 – (15 + 7 + 8) = 100 – 30 = 70%
=  [Area = (side)2]  Number of Hindu students
A2 4 22
 Side of square is 3 and 2 [P = 4 × side] 1500  70
=  1050.
 Perimeter = 4 × 3 and 4 × 2 100
4 3 3 60 3
 Ratio =  =3 :2 18. 60%   .
4 2 2 100 5
1 (2125) Math—1
2
 3

1 Percentage

The word ‘per cent’ or ‘percentage’ means ‘for every (c) If two numbers are respectively x% and y%
one hundred’. In other words, it gives an indication more than a third number, then the first
of rate per hundred. It is denoted by the symbol %.
FG 100  x  100IJ %
For example, 5% means 5 out of one hundred
5
number will be
H 100  y K of the
or . second.
100
(d) If two numbers are respectively x% and y%
Remember less than a third number, then the first
(i) For converting a per cent into a fraction,
FG 100  x  100IJ % of the
divide it by 100.
(ii) For converting a fraction into a per cent,
number will be
H 100  y K
multiply it by 100. second.
(iii) For converting a per cent into a decimal,
shift the decimal point two places to the
Rule 2
left. (a) If a number or quantity is increased by x%
(iv) For converting one given quantity (x) as a then in order to restore its original value it
percentage of another given quantity (y), LM100  x OP % .
x
find  100 .
y
must be decreased by
N100  x Q
(v) There is no unit of percentage. (b) If a number or quantity is decreased by x%
then in order to restore its original value it
Important Facts: LM
100  x OP
For quickly solving the problems related to
must be increased by
N
100  x
%.
Q
percentage, remember following rules:
Rule 3
Rule 1 (a) If a number is successively increased by
(a) Of the given two numbers if the first is x% x% and y% then a single equivalent increase
more than the second, then the second will F xy I
F 100  xI in that number will be x  y H 100
%
K
be H 100  xK % less than the first.
(b) If two successive discounts of x% and y%
(b) Of the given two numbers if the first is x% are allowed on a particular amount, then a
less than the second, then the second will single discount that is equivalent to the two
F 100  xI F xy I
be H 100  xK % more than the first.
H
successive discounts will be x  y 
100
%
K
3
 4

(c) If a number is successively increased by Fx I2

x%, y% and z%, then a single equivalent
increase in that number will be
will be reduced by GH 100 JK per cent.
(b) If a number is reduced by x% and thereafter
LMa x  y  zf  F xy  yz  zx I  a xyzf OP % increased by x% then the number will be
N H 100 K 10000 Q Fx I 2

(d) If three successive discounts of x%, y% and

reduced by GH 100 JK per cent.

z% are allowed on an amount, then a single (c) If due to an increase of x% in the selling
discount that is equivalent to the three price of certain commodity the sell/
successive discounts will be consumption of the commodity decreases
by y%, then gross receipts on account of
LM x  y  z  a xy  yz  zx f  xyz OP % sale of that commodity will be increased or
N 100 10000 Q F xy I
H
decreased by x  y 
100 K
% , where x > y

Rule 4 FGxy IJ
(a) If a number is increased by x% and
and will be decreased by y  x 
H
100
%,
K
thereafter reduced by x%, then the number where y > x.

ultiple Choice Questions

1. If x is 90% of y, then what per cent of x is y? A. ` 6000 B. ` 18000
A. 90 B. 190 C. ` 20000 D. ` 14000
C. 101.1 D. 111.1 6. A student who secures 20% marks in an
2. A number exceeds 20% of itself by 40. The examination fails by 30 marks. Another student
number is: who secures 32% gets 42 marks more than
A. 50 B. 60 those required to pass. The percentage of marks
C. 80 D. 320 required to pass is:
3. The price of an article is cut by 10%. To restore A. 20 B. 25
it to the former value, the new price must be C. 28 D. 30
increased by: 7. In a college election, a candidate secured 62%
1 of the votes and is elected by a majority of 144
A. 10% B. 9 %
11 votes. The total number of votes polled is:
1 A. 600 B. 800
C. 11 % D. 11%
9 C. 925 D. 1200
4. The income of a broker remains unchanged 8. What will be 80% of a number whose 200% is
though the rate of commission is increased from 90?
4% to 5%. The percentage of slump business A. 144 B. 72
is: C. 36 D. None of these
A. 8% B. 1%
C. 20% D. 80% 9. p is six times as large as q. The per cent that
q is less than p, is:
5. 5% income of A is equal to 15% income of B
1 2
and 10% income of B is equal to 20% income A. 83 B. 16
of C. If income of C is ` 2000, then total 3 3
income of A, B and C is: C. 90 D. 60
 5

10. The price of an article has been reduced by 17. A mixture of 40 litres of milk and water
25%. In order to restore the original price, the contains 10% water. How much water must be
new price must be increased by: added to make water 20% in the new mixture?
1 1 A. 10 litres B. 7 litres
A. 33 % B. 11 % C. 5 litres D. 3 litres
3 9
1 2 x2
C. 9 % D. 66 % 18. If z = and x, y both are increased in value
11 3 y
11. The price of cooking oil has increased by 25%. by 10%, then the value of z is:
The percentage of reduction that a family A. unchanged B. increased by 10%
should effect in the use of cooking oil so as C. increased by 11% D. increased by 20%
not to increase the expenditure on this account 19. In an examination, 35% of the examinees failed
is: in G.K. and 25% in English. If 10% of the
A. 25% B. 30% examinees failed in both, then the percentage
C. 20% D. 15% of examinees passed will be:
A. 40% B. 45%
12. In an organisation, 40% of the employees are
C. 48% D. 50%
matriculates, 50% of the remaining are gra-
duates and the remaining 180 are postgraduates. 20. If the price of a television set is increased by
How many employees are graduates? 25%, then by what percentage should the new
A. 360 B. 240 price be reduced to bring the price back to
C. 300 D. 180 original level?
A. 15% B. 20%
13. In 40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% C. 25% D. 30%
read newspaper Y, and 10% read both the
21. The number of grams of water needed to reduce
papers. What percentage of the people read
9 grams of shaving lotion containing 50%
neither newspaper? alcohol to a lotion containing 30% alcohol, is:
A. 10% B. 15% A. 4 B. 5
C. 20% D. 25% C. 6 D. 7
14. The population of a town increases by 5% 22. A candidate needs 35% marks to pass. If he
annually. If its population in 2008 was 138915, gets 96 marks and fails by 16 marks, then the
what it was in 2005? maximum marks are:
A. 110000 B. 100000 A. 250 B. 320
C. 120000 D. 90000 C. 300 D. 425
5 23. In an election one of the two candidates gets
15. The population of a village is 4500. th of 40% votes and loses by 100 votes. Total number
9
of votes is:
them are males and rest females. If 40% of the
A. 500 B. 400
males are married, then the percentage of
C. 600 D. 1000
married female is:
A. 35 B. 40 24. If the income tax is decreased by 26%, a man’s
C. 50 D. 60 2
net income increases by % . The rate of
16. A’s income is 10% more than B’s. How much 3
income tax is:
per cent is B’s income is less than A’s? 1 1
A. 10% B. 7% A. 3 % B. 2 %
2 2
1 1 1
C. 9 % D. 6 % C. 1 % D. 3%
11 2 2
 6

25. The gross income of a person is ` 20000. 10% 28. The gross income of a person is ` 16000. A
of his income is exempted from income tax part of his income is exempted from income
and his net income is ` 19100. The rate of tax and his net income is ` 14480. If the rate
income tax is: of income tax is 8%, the income exempted from
A. 3% B. 2% income tax is :
C. 4% D. 5% A. 1600
26. If the rate of income tax is 5%, the net income B. 1700
of a person is ` 17100. If the rate of income C. 1800
tax is 6%, how much will be the net income? D. 1500
A. 15820 B. 16920 29. One-eight of a number is 17.25. What will 73%
C. 17820 D. 18920 of number be?
27. The gross income of a person is ` 15000, 20% A. 82.66 B. 96.42
of his income is exempted from income tax C. 100.74 D. 138.00
and the rate of income tax is ` 4%. The net 30. If 58% of 960 – x% of 635 = 277.4, find the
income is : value of x.
A. 14520 B. 14620 A. 24 B. 36
C. 15520 D. 15620 C. 44 D. 58

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D A C C B B A C A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C D C C C C C B D B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B A B D B A D C C

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. x = 90% of y 4. Let the business value changes from x to y
90 Then 4% of x = 5% of y
 x = y 4 5 4
100  x = yy = x
100 100 5
Required percentage
F 4 I 1
=
y
9 y / 10
=
10
9
 100 = 111.1%. H
 Changes in business = x  x = x
5 K 5
 Percentage slump in business
2. x – 20% of x = 40
F 1 x  1  100I % = 20%.

x
x  = 40
5
=
H5 x K
5. 5% A = 15% B, and 10% B = 20% C
4x 40  5
 = 40  x = = 50. Then, A = 3B and B = 2C
5 4
 B = 2C = 2 × 2000 = ` 4000
3. Required percentage And A = 3B = 3 × 4000 = ` 12000
10 10 1  A + B + C = 12000 + 4000 + 2000
=  100 =  100  11 % . = ` 18000.
100  10 90 9
 7

6. 20% of x + 30 = 32% of x – 42 13. Number of people read either one or both

 12% of x = 72 = 40 + 50 – 10 = 80%
72  100 Hence, num ber of people read neither
 x= = 600 newspaper = 100 – 80 = 20%
12
Pass Mark = 20% of 600 + 30 = 150 5 F I 3

F 150  100I % = 25%. 14. H

x  1
100
= 138915 K
Pass percentage = H 600 K  x
21 21 21 21
  = 138915
20 20 20 20
7. (62% of x – 38% of x) = 144 138915  20  20  20
 24% of x = 144  x =
21  21  21
144  100 = 120000.
 x=
24
= 600.
F 5  4500I
8. 200% of x = 90 15. Males =
H9 K = 2500
90  100 Females = 2000
 x= = 45
200 40
F80 I  Married males =
100
 2500 = 1000
 80% of x = H
100 K
 45 = 36
and married females = 1000
9. p = 6q  Percentage of married females
Required percentage F 1000  100I % = 50%.
=
6q  q 5
 100 =  100  83 % .
1 = H 2000 K
6q 6 3 16. Required percentage
10. Required percentage
LM 10  100OP % = 9 1 % .
N a100  10f Q
25 25 1 =
=  100   100  33 %  11
100  25 75 3
11. Required reduction 17. Water = 10/100 × 40 = 4 litres

LM r  100OP = F 25  100I % = 20%. Let x litres of water be added,

MN b100  rg PQ H 125 K b g
= 20
Then, x+ 4= 40  x
100
40 2x  5x + 20 = 40 + x
12. Matriculates = x =
100 5  4x = 20
F 2x I 3x  x = 5 litres .
Remaining = x  H 5 K
=
5 x2
50 3 x 3x 18. z=
Graduates =  = y
100 5 10  New value of z
3x 3x 3x
  F 110 xI 2
Remaining =
5 10 10 H 100 K 11 x 2 11
3x =
F 110 yI =
100 y
=
10
z
Now,
10
 180
H 100 K
10  180  Increase percentage
 x=  600
3 F 11 z  zI
 Graduates =
3  600
 180 . H
= 10
K  100 = 10%
10 z
 8

19. Failed in either one or both subjects  Income on which income tax is chargeable
= 35 + 25 – 10 = 50% = (100 – 10%) = 90% of gross income
 Number of examinees passed 90
= 20000  = ` 18000
= (100 – 50) = 50%. 100
 Total income tax paid on
25
20. Required reduction =  100 = 20% = ` 20000 – ` 19100 = ` 900
100  25
50F I  Rate per cent of income tax
21. Alcohol in 9 gms =
100H K
 9 = 4.5 gms.
=
900
18000
 100 = 5%
Let x gm of water be added.
100
4.5 26. Gross income =  17100 = ` 18000
Then,  100 = 30 95
9 x
 270 +30x = 450 94
New net income =  18000 = ` 16920
 30x = 180 100
 x = 6 gms. 27. Gross income = ` 15000
22. 35% of x = 96 + 16 = 112 Income on which income tax is chargeable
35 = (100 – 20)% = 80% of gross income
  x = 112
100 80
= 15000  = ` 12000
112  100 100
 x= = 320.  Income tax paid @ 4%
35
23. Out of 100, difference in votes 4
= 12000  = ` 480
= (60 – 40) = 20 100
 Net income = 15000 – 480 = ` 14520
20% of x = 100
28. Gross income = ` 16000
100  100
 x=  500 Net income = ` 14840
20  Income tax paid
2
24. 26% of income tax = % of the net income = ` 16000 – ` 14840 = ` 1160
3
LM
2 100 OP  Chargeable income is
 Income tax =
N 
3 26 Q
% of the net
= 1160 
100
8
= ` 14500
100 Hence, income exempted from income tax
income = % of the net income
39 = 16000 – 14500 = ` 1500
Let net income = ` 3900
29. The number = 8 × 17.25 = 138.00
100 73% of the number
 Income tax = 3900  = ` 100
39  100 73 10074
Gross income = ` 3900 + ` 100 =  138  = 100.74
100 100
= ` 4000 30. 58% of 960 – x% of 635 = 277.4
 Rate % of income tax 58 x
F100 I1   960   635  277.4
= H
4000 K
 100 % = 2 % .
2
100
127 x
100

25. Gross income = ` 20000   556.8  277.4

20
Income exempted from income tax 20  279.4
= 10% of gross income  x = 44
127
  
 9

2 Average

The average of any number of quantities of the Sum of quantities

same kind can be found by dividing their sum by Number of quantities =
Their average
their number. Thus,
When a body coveres the same distance at two
Sum of quantities different speeds p km/hr and q km/hr, then its
Average =
No. of quantities 2 pq
Sum of quantities = Their average × Their number average speed for the whole journey is km/hr.
pq

ultiple Choice Questions

1. The average of the fractions 5. Nine men went to a hotel. Eight of them spent
` 3 for each over their meals and the ninth
1 1 1 5
1 , 2 , 3 and 4 is spent ` 2 more than the average expenditure
2 3 3 6 of all the nine. What is the total money spent
1 by them?
A. 2 B. 2
2 A. ` 29.25 B. ` 29.50
C. 3 D. 4 C. ` 29 D. ` 30
2. The average of first nine multiples of 3 is 6. An establishment is permitted an average
A. 12.0 B. 12.5 monthly contingency expenditure of ` 500 per
C. 15.0 D. 18.5 month during the financial year. When a trial
3. The average of 13 numbers is 68, the average check was made at the end of the first nine
of first 7 numbers is 63 and the average of last months of the year it was found that the average
7 numbers is 70. What is the 7th number? monthly contingency expenditure worked out
A. 43 B. 45 to be ` 511. What average monthly expenditure
C. 47 D. 49 for the next three months should be aimed at
4. One-third of a certain journey was covered at in order to attain the permissible average of
the rate of 25 km per hour, one-fourth at the ` 500 per month for the whole year?
rate of 30 km per hour and the rest at the 50 A. ` 567 B. ` 467
km per hour. What is the average speed per C. ` 367 D. ` 667
hour for whole journey? 7. Average age of 8 persons increased by 2 years,
when two men whose ages are 20 and 24 years
1 1
A. 33 kmph B. 44 kmph are replaced by two women. What is the
3 4 average age of women?
1 A. 30 years B. 31 years
C. 22 kmph D. 33 kmph
2 C. 28 years D. 33 years
9 (2125) Math—2
 10

8. A man had seven children. When their average A. 100 B. 110

age was 12 years, the child who was 6 years of C. 120 D. 150
age died. What was the average of the surviving 15. The average of three numbers is 42. The first
children 5 years after the death of the child? is twice the second and the second is twice the
A. 15 years B. 16 years third. The difference between the largest and
C. 17 years D. 18 years the smallest number is
9. The weight of a body, calculated as the average A. 18 B. 36
of seven different experiments is 53.735 grams. C. 54 D. 72
The average of the first three is 54.005 grams, 16. Out of three numbers, the first is twice the
the fourth was greater than the fifth by 0.004 second and is half of the third. If the average
gram, while the average of the sixth and seventh of the three numbers is 56, the three numbers
was 0.010 gram less than the average of the in order are
first three. What is the weight of the body as A. 48, 96, 24 B. 48, 24, 96
obtained by the fourth experiment? C. 96, 24, 48 D. 96, 48, 24
A. 53.068 gm B. 53.078 gm
C. 53.086 gm D. 53.072 gm 17. The average age of 30 students in a class is 12
years. The average age of a group of 5 of the
10. A batsman has a certain average of runs for 16 students is 10 years and that of another group
innings. In the 17th innings, he makes a score of 5 of them is 14 years. The average age of
of 85 runs thereby increasing his average by 3. the remaining students is
What is the average after the 17th inning? A. 8 years B. 10 years
A. 33 runs B. 34 runs C. 12 years D. 14 years
C. 37 runs D. 36 runs
18. Out of four numbers, the average of first three
11. The average of 50 numbers is 38. If two is 15 and that of the last three is 16. If the last
numbers namely 45 and 55 are discarded, the number is 19, the first is
average of the remaining numbers is A. 15 B. 16
A. 36.5 B. 37 C. 18 D. 19
C. 37.5 D. 37.52
19. The average age of an adult class is 40 years.
12. The average of 6 observations is 12. A new 12 new students with an average age of 32
seventh observation is included and the new years join the class, thereby decreasing the
average is decreased by 1. The seventh average by 4 years. The original strength of
observation is the class was
A. 1 B. 3 A. 10 B. 11
C. 5 D. 6 C. 12 D. 15
13. A man whose bowling average is 12.4 takes 5 20. The average age of 24 students in a class is 10.
wickets for 26 runs and thereby decreases his If the teacher’s age is included, the average
average by 0.4. The number of wickets, taken increases by one. The age of the teacher is
by him, before his last match, is A. 25 B. 30
A. 85 B. 78 C. 35 D. 40
C. 72 D. 64
21. The average age of A, B, C and D five years
14. The average of marks obtained by 120 ago was 45 years. By including X, the present
candidates was 35. If the average of marks of age of all the five is 49 years. The present age
passed candidates was 39 and that of failed of X is
candidates was 15, the number of candidates A. 64 years B. 48 years
who passed the examination is C. 45 years D. 40 years
 11

22. The average expenditure of a man for the first 26. The average of four positive integers is 72.5.
five months is ` 120 and for the next seven The highest integer is 117 and the lowest integer
months it is ` 130. If he saves ` 290 in that is 15. The difference between the remaining
year, his monthly average income is two integers is 12. Which integer is higher of
A. ` 1000 B. ` 1800 these two remaining integers?
C. ` 2000 D. ` 2500 A. 85 B. 84
23. The average weight of a class of 40 students is C. 73 D. 70
40 kg. If the weight of the teacher be included, 27. Out of the three given numbers, the first number
the average weight increases by 500 gms. The is twice the second and thrice the third. If the
weight of the teacher is average of three numbers is 121, what is the
A. 40.5 kg B. 60 kg difference between the first and third number?
C. 60.5 kg D. 62 kg A. 144 B. 77
24. The average weight of 8 persons is increased C. 99 D. 132
by 2.5 kg when one of them whose weight is 28. The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers A,
56 kg is replaced by a new man. The weight of B, C, D and E is 41. What is the product of A
the new man is and E?
A. 66 kg A. 1591 B. 1665
B. 75 kg C. 1517 D. 1677
C. 76 kg 29. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A,
D. 86 kg B, C, D and E is 34. What is the product of B
25. If a, b, c, d, e are five consecutive odd numbers, and D?
their average is A. 1152 B. 1368
A. (a + 4) C. 1224 D. 1088
abcde 30. The average of four consecutive odd numbers
B.
5 is 12. What is the lowest odd number?
C. 5(a + b + c + d + e) A. 3 B. 5
D. None of these C. 7 D. 9

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C C A A B A D D C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C C A A C B C B C C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B C C A A D B A D

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
FG
1 3 7 10 29 IJ 3(1  2  3  4  5  6  7  8  9)
1. Average =
H
 
4 2 3 3

6 K 2. Average =
9

FG 9  14  20  29 IJ 72 =
135
= 15
=
H 24 K =
24
= 3 9
 12

3. Average of 13 numbers = 68 and total spent by the ninth = ` x + 2

 Total of 13 numbers = 13 × 68 = 884 26  x
Average of last 7 numbers = 70  =x
9
 Total of last 7 numbers = 7 × 70 = 490 26  x
 Average of first 6 numbers  Average amount spent by nine =
9
= 884 – 490 = 394 Total amount spent by nine
 Average of first 7 numbers = 63 = 24 + x + 2 = 26 + x
 Total of first 7 numbers = 63 × 7 = 441  9x = 26 + x
 7th number = 441 – 394 = 47 or, 8x = 26
4. Let the total distance covered during journey 26
= 60 km  x= = ` 3.25
8
1 Hence total money spent
of the distance covered during journey
3 = ` (3.25 × 9) = ` 29.25.
1 6. Average monthly expenditure permitted
= 60  = 20 km
3 = ` 500
1 Total expenditure permitted for 12 months
of the distance covered during journey
4 = ` 500 × 12 = ` 6000
1 Expenditure incurred during the first nine
=  60 = 15 km months
4
 The distance covered during the rest of = ` 511 × 9 = ` 4,599
journey = 60 – (20 + 15) = 25 km Expenditure for the last three month
Time taken to cover 20 km at 25 km/h = ` (6000 – 4599) = ` 1,401
20 4  Average monthly expenditure for the three
= hours  hour months
25 5
Time taken to cover 15 km at 30 km/h 1401
= Rs. = ` 467.
15 1 3
= hours  hour 7. Total increase in the age of 8 persons
30 2
Time taken to cover 25 km at 50 km/h = 2 × 8 = 16 years
25 1 Total age of two men being replaced
= hours  hour = 20 + 24 = 44 years
50 2
Total of the age of two women
4 1 1 9
Total time taken =   = hours = 44 + 16 = 60 years
5 2 2 5
 The average age of women
Hence average speed per hour
60
9 60  5 = = 30 years.
= 60  = 2
5 9 8. Average age of 7 children = 12 years
100 1 Total ages of 7 children = 12 × 7 = 84 years
= km / h = 33 km / h
3 3 Age of 1 child who died = 6 years
5. Let the average expenditure of all the nine = ` x Total ages of remaining 6 children
Now amount spent by eight = ` 3 × 8 = ` 24 = 84 – 6 = 78 years
 13

 Average age of 6 children 13. Suppose the number of wickets taken before
78 the last match = x
= = 13 years
6 12.4 x  26
 = 12
 Average age of 6 children after 5 years x5
= 13 + 5 = 18 years.  12.4x + 26 = 12x + 60
9. Total weight of 7 experiments  x = 85.
= 53.735 × 7 = 376.145 gm 14. Let the number of candidates who passed = x
Total weight of first three  39 × x + 15 × (120 – x) = 120 × 35
= 54.005 × 3 = 162.015 gm  24x = 4200 – 1800
The average of the 6th and 7th was 0.010 gm 2400
less than that of the first three.  x= = 100.
24
 Average of the 6th and 7th 15. Let the third number = x
= 54.005 – 0.010 = 53.995 gm Then, second number = 2x
 Total of the 6th and 7th and first number = 4x
= 53.995 × 2 = 107.990 gm x  2x  4 x
Thus, total of 4th and 5th  = 42
3
= 376.145 – (162.015 + 107.990) 7x
= 106.140 gm  = 42
3
The fourth was greater than the fifth by 0.004 42  3
gm  x=
7
 b
The fifth = 106.140 – 0.004 g 1
2
 x = 18
So, (largest) – (smallest) = (4x – x) = 3x = 54
106.136 16. Letsecond number = x
= = 53.068 gm
2 Then, first number = 2x
Hence, the fourth and third number = 4x
= 53.068 + 0.004 = 53.072 gm. x  2x  4 x
10. Average increase in the score of 17 innings  = 56
3
= 3 runs 7x
Total increase in the score of 17 innings  = 56
3
= 3 × 17 = 51 runs  7x = 56 × 3
 His average of 16 innings  x = 24
= 85 – 51 = 34 runs So, the numbers are 48, 24, 96
Hence, average after the 17th innings 17. Let, the required average age be x
= 34 + 3 = 37 runs. Then, 5 × 10 + 5 × 14 + 20 × x = 30 × 12
11. Total of 50 numbers = 50 × 38 = 1900  20x = 360 – 120
Total of 48 numbers  20x = 240
= 1900 – (45 + 55) = 1800  x = 12 years
1800 18. Sum of four numbers = (15 × 3 + 19) = 64
 Average = = 37.5
48 Sum of last three numbers = (16 × 3) = 48
12. Seventh observation = (7 × 11 – 6 × 12) = 5.  First number = (64 – 48) = 16
 14

19. Let the original strength = x

121  3  6
Then, 40x + 12 × 32 = (x + 12) × 36  x= = 198
11
 40x + 384 = 36x + 432
Hence, required difference
 4x = 48
 x = 12 x 2x 2
= x    198  132
3 3 3
20. Age of the teacher
= (25 × 11 – 24 × 10) years = 35 years 28. Let 5 consecutive odd numbers be (x + 1),
(x + 3), (x + 5), (x + 7) and (x + 9) respectively.
21. Present age of x
= [(49 × 5) – (4 × 45 + 4 × 5)] years x 1  x  3  x  5  x  7  x  9
Now ,  41
= 45 years 5
 5x + 25 = 205
22. Total income
 5x = 180
= (120 × 5 + 130 × 7 + 290) = ` 1800
 x = 36
23. Weight of the teacher Then, A = x + 1 = 36 + 1 = 37;
= (41 × 40.5 – 40 × 40) kg = 60.5 kg E = x + 9 = 36 + 9 = 45
24. Total increase = (8 × 2.5) kg = 20 kg Hence, their product = 37 × 45 = 1665
Weight of new man = (56 + 20)kg = 76 kg. 29. Let 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D
and E be x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6 and x + 8
a  (a  2)  (a  4)  (a  6)  (a  8)
25. Average  respectively.
5
= (a + 4) x  x 2 x  4 x 6 x 8
Now, = 34
26. Let the remaining two positve integers be x 5
and x + 12  5x + 20 = 170
Now, 117 + x + 12 + x + 15 = 4 × 72.5  5x = 150
 2x + 144 = 290  x = 30
 2x = 146 Then, B = x + 2 = 30 + 2 = 32;
 x = 73 D = x + 6 = 30 + 6 = 36
Hence, required number Hence, their product = 32 × 36 = 1152
= x + 12 = 73 + 12 = 85 30. Let 4 consecutive odd numbers be (x + 1),
(x + 3), (x + 5) and (x + 7).
x x
27. Let the three numbers be x, and
2 3 x 1  x  3  x  5  x  7
Now,  12
respectively, 4
1 FGx x IJ  4x + 16 = 48
Now,
3 H
x 
2 3
 121
K 

4x = 32
x=8
11x Hence, lowest odd number
 = 121 × 3
6 = x + 1 = 8 + 1 = 9.

  
 15

3 Time, Work and Distance

TIME AND WORK 3. Time = Distance ÷ Speed

F 5 I
1. If A can do a piece of work in n days, then
1 H
4. x km/hr = x 
18 K m/sec
work done by A in 1 day = .
n F 18 I
1
2. If work done by A in 1 day = ; then A can
H
5. x metres/sec = x 
5 K km/hr.
n
finish the whole work in n days. 6. If the speed of a body is changed in the ratio
m : n, then the ratio of the time taken changes
3. If A is twice as good a workman as B then;
Ratio of work done by A and B = 2 : 1 in the ratio n : m.
Ratio of times taken by A and B to finish a 7. When a man covers a certain distance with a
work = 1 : 2. speed of x km/h and another equal distance at
the rate of y km/h, then for the whole journey,
TIME AND DISTANCE the average speed is given by
1. Speed = Distance ÷ Time 2xy
Average speed = km/h.
2. Distance = Time × Speed xy

ultiple Choice Questions

1. 12 boys can do a piece of work in 16 days. In 3. A can do a piece of work in 4 days. B is 50%
how many days can 6 boys do the same work? more efficient than A. How long would B alone
A. 16 days B. 32 days take to finish this work?
C. 23 days D. 24 days 1 1
A. 3 days B. 5 days
2. A can do a piece of work in 8 days while B 3 4
can do the same work in 16 days. If they start 2 2
working together, how long would they take to C. 2 days D. 1 days
3 3
complete half portion of this work?
4. A and B working together complete a work in
2 5
A. 2 days B. 3 days 35 days. If A takes 60 days to complete it, how
3 7 long would B alone take to complete it?
1 1 A. 64 days B. 72 days
C. 4 days D. 3 days
2 2 C. 81 days D. 84 days
15
 16

5. A few children working together can do a piece 10. A and B working together can complete a piece
of work in 18 days. If the number of children of work in 12 days and B and C working
employed on the work is made double, how together can complete the same work in 16
long would they take to complete half of the days. A worked at it for 5 days and B worked
work? at it for 7 days. C finished the remaining work
1 1 in 13 days. How many days would C alone
A. 4 days B. 2 days take to complete it?
2 3
3 1 A. 10 days B. 24 days
C. 8 days D. 6 days C. 32 days D. 40 days
4 2
6. 10 men or 18 boys can do a piece of work in 1
11. A cistern is filled by a tap in 3 hours. Due
15 days. In how many days would 25 men and 2
15 boys complete the same work working to a leak in the bottom of the cistern, it takes
together? half an hour longer to fill the cistern. If the
1 1 cistern is full, how long will it take the leak to
A. 5 days B. 4 days empty it?
2 2
A. 28 hours B. 29 hours
2 1
C. 6 days D. 2 days 1
3 3 C. 31 hours D. 38 hours
3
7. A can do a piece of work in 40 days. He starts 12. A is twice as good a workman as B and thrice
working, but having some other engagements as good a workman as C. If C alone can do a
he drops out after 5 days. Thereafter B piece of work in 24 days, how long would the
completes this work in 21 days. How many three persons take to finish the work working
days would A and B take to complete this work together?
working together? 3 4
A. 15 days B. 16 days A. 3 days B. 4 days
11 7
C. 17 days D. 11 days 4 4
C. 4 days D. 3 days
8. Two persons A and B can complete a piece of 11 11
work in 8 hours and 16 hours respectively. If
13. Two pipes can fill a tank in 8 hours and 12
they work at it alternately for an hour, A starting
hours respectively whereas an escape pipe can
first, in how many hours will the work be
empty it in 6 hours. If the three pipes are opened
finished?
at 1 p.m., 2 p.m. and 3 p.m. respectively, at
1 1
A. 9 hours B. 10 hours what time will the tank be filled?
3 2 A. 7.00 a.m. B. 8.00 a.m.
1 1 C. 5.00 a.m. D. 7.30 a.m.
C. 11 hours D. 8 hours
2 2
14. Working 7 hours daily 24 men can complete a
9. 15 men can complete a work in 210 days. They piece of work in 27 days. In how many days
started the work but at the end of 10 days 15 would 14 men complete the same piece of work
additional men, with double efficiency, were working 9 hours daily?
inducted. How many days, in whole, did they A. 32 days B. 31 days
take to finish the work? C. 36 days D. 39 days
2 3
A. 76 days B. 84 days 15. A, B and C undertake to do a piece of work
3 4 for ` 529. If A and B working together do
1 19 8
C. 72 days D. 70 days work and B and C working together do
2 23 23
 17 (2125) Math—3

work, how should the money be divided among 21. Kanchan walks from her home at 4 kms per
them? hour and reaches her school 5 minutes late. If
A. ` 345, ` 102, ` 82 she walks at 5 kms per hour, she reaches the
B. ` 345, ` 92, ` 92 school 2½ minutes earlier. How far is the school
C. ` 330, ` 107, ` 92 from her home?
D. ` 330, ` 92, ` 107 A. 3.5 kms B. 2.5 kms
C. 2.75 kms D. 3.2 kms
16. A car moving at 48 km/hr completes a journey
in 10 hours. By how much the speed of this 22. A monkey wants to climb up a glazed pole. He
car should be increased so as to do this journey climbs 12 metres in 1 minute and then he slips
in 8 hours? back 3 metres in the next minute. If the pole is
A. 8 km/hr B. 12 km/hr 63 metre high, how long does he take to climb
C. 10 km/hr D. 15 km/hr at the top of the pole?
17. Starting from a point at a speed of 4 km/hr a 1 1
A. 11 min B. 12 min
man reaches at a cerain place and returns back 4 2
to the point from where he had started journey 3 3
C. 12 min D. 14 min
on bicycle at the speed of 16 km/hr. His average 4 4
speed during the entire journey will be: 23. A and B start walking at the same time on a
A. 6.4 km/h B. 8.4 km/h circular path with circumference 35 metre. If
C. 5.4 km/h D. 10 km/h they walk in the same direction at 4 km/hr and
18. A motorist covers a certain distance at a average 5 km/hr respectively, after what time will they
speed of 48 km/h in 45 minutes. What speed in meet together?
km/h he must maintain to cover the same A. 35 hours B. 27 hours
distance in 30 minutes? C. 24 hours D. 40 hours
A. 66 km/h B. 79 km/h 3
C. 80 km/h D. 72 km/h 24. While walking at of his usual speed
5
19. Two points A and B are 150 km apart. A man Kamalkant reaches at his destination late by 30
completes his onward journey from A to B in minutes. His usual time consumed in reaching
3 hours 20 minutes and return journey from B to his destination is:
to A in 4 hours 10 minutes. His average speed A. 32 min B. 40 min
during the entire journey will be less than his C. 45 min D. 42 min
average speed during the journey from A to B 25. The distance between two stations A and B is
by: 300 km. A train leaves the station A with a
A. 5 km/h B. 7.5 km/h speed of 40 km/hr. At the same time another
C. 9 km/h D. 3 km/h train departs from the station B with a speed of
20. A policeman saw a thief at a distance of 200 50 km/hr. How much time will these two trains
m. The policeman and the thief started running take to cross each other?
at the same time. If the policeman runs at a A. 3 hrs 40 min B. 3 hrs 20 min
C. 2 hrs 20 min D. 3 hrs 45 min
1
speed of 4 m per second and the thief at a 26. Gulshan starts from a place P at 2 p.m. and
6
walks to Q at 5 km per hour. Tarun starts from
1 P at 3 p.m. and follows Gulshan on bicycle at
speed of 3 m per second, after what time the
3 10 km per hour. By when Tarun will catch
policeman will catch the thief? Gulshan?
A. 12 min B. 10 min A. At 5.30 p.m. B. At 4.00 p.m.
C. 9 min D. 4 min C. At 4.30 p.m. D. At 6.00 p.m.
 18 (2125) Math—3-II

27. Nilesh goes to school from his village at the A. 6 km B. 9 km

speed of 4 km/hr and returns from school to C. 12 km D. 15 km
village at the speed of 2 km/hr. If he takes 6 29. By increasing the speed of the bus by 10 km/
hours in all, then what is the distance between hr the time of journey for 72 km is reduced by
the village and the school? 36 minutes. What was the original speed of the
A. 8 km B. 6 km bus?
C. 5 km D. 4 km A. 30 km/hr B. 35 km/hr
28. A school bus covers a distance from a village C. 40 km/hr D. 45 km/hr
to school at the speed of 12 km/hr and reaches 30. A car completes a fixed journey in 8 hours. It
the school 8 minute late. The next day the bus covers half distance at the speed of 40 km/hr
covers the same distance at the speed of 20 and rest at the 60 km/hr, the distance of the
km/hr and reaches the school 10 minutes early. journey is:
What is the distance between village and the A. 400 km B. 420 km
school? C. 384 km D. 350 km

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A C D A B A B A B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C A C B B A D A D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C A C B B A B A C

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1.  12 boys can do a piece of work in 16 days. 8 2
So, B will do the whole work in  2 days.
 1 boy will do the same piece of work in 16 3 3
× 12 days. 1
 6 boys will do the same piece of work in 4. (A + B)'s 1 day's work =
35
16  12
days = 32 days. 1
6 and also, A's 1 day's work =
60
1 1 3
2. (A + B)’s 1 day's work =   Hence, B's 1 day’s work
8 16 16
Hence, (A + B) will do the whole work in 1 1 5 1
=   
16 35 60 420 84
days So, B will do the whole work in 84 days.
3
So, they will do the half portion of the work in 5. Let number of children be x;
16 8 2 Now x children can do the work in 18 days.
days =  2 days.
32 3 3 1
Hence, 2x children will do of the work in
1 2
3. A’s 1 day's work = ;
4
150 1 3 18  x 9 1
   days = 4 days.
Hence, B's 1 day's work = 2x  2 2 2
100 4 8
 19

6. 10 men  18 boys Now, (15 men + 15 men having double

18 efficiency)'s 1 day's work
25 men   25 = 45 boys
10 1 2 3 1
=   
Hence, 25 men + 15 boys = 45 + 15 = 60 boys 210 210 210 70
Now, 18 boys can do a piece of work in 15 Hence, number of days
days. 20 / 21 20 200 2
=   70   66 days
Hence, 60 boys will do a piece of work in 1 / 70 21 3 3
15  18 9 1 So, required number of total days
 days = 4 days.
60 2 2 2 2
1 1 = 10 + 66  76 days.
7. A’s 5 days’ work = 5   3 3
40 8
10. Here, A worked for 5 days, B for 7 days and
1 7 C for 13 days  (A + B) worked for 5 days, (B
Remaining work = 1   , which is done
8 8 + C) for 2 days and C for 11 days.
by B in 21 days.
Let C will complete the work in x days,
7 1 Now, (A + B)’s 5 days' work + (B + C)’s 2
Hence, B’s 1 day’s work = 
8  21 24 days’ work + C’s 11 days' work
Now, (A + B)’s 1 day’s work
5 2 11 13 11
1 1 8 1 =    
=    12 16 x 24 x
40 24 120 15 13 11
Hence, (A + B) will complete the work in 15 Again,  1
24 x
days.
1 1 3 11 11
     x = 24
8. In 2 hours the part of work = will x 24
8 16 16
be completed. Hence, C would alone complete the work in
Hence, in 5 pairs of hours the part of work 24 days.
3 15 2
=5 ×  will be completed 11. In 1 hour cistern is filled by the tap.
16 16 7
15 1 1 2 1
Remaining work = 1 –  which will be Hence, in hour = cistern is filled by
16 16 2 14 7
done by A. the tap.
1
Time taken by A to complete the work 1
16 So, cistern is emptied by the leakage in 4
1 1 7
16
= 1  hour. hours.
8 2
Hence, required number of hours So, 1 cistern will be emptied by the leakage in
28 hours.
1 1
= 10 +  10 hours. 12. Here, ratio of efficiency of A, B and C
2 2
1 1 1 1
9. 15 men's 10 days' work = 10   =1 : :
210 21 2 3
1 20 So, ratio of their time taken to complete the
Remaining work = 1   work = 1 : 2 : 3
21 21
 20

Now C completes the work in 24 days, so A 16. Let he has to increase his speed by x km/hr for
and B will complete the work in 8 and 16 days given condition; then,
respectively. (48 + x) × 8 = 48 × 10
Hence, (A + B + C)'s 1 day's work  48 + x = 60
1 1 1 11  x = 12 km/hr
=   
8 16 24 48 17. Average speed during the entire journey
Therefore, (A + B + C) will complete the work 2 xy 2  4  16 8  16
48 4 =  = = 6.4 km/hr.
in 4 days. xy 4  16 20
11 11 18. Let required speed be x km/hr; then
13. Let tank will be filled up after t hours of starting
of pipe A; 1 3
x× = 48 ×
2 4
Then, t × b g b g
1
8
1
12
1
 t 1   t  2   1
6  x = 48 ×
3
× 2 = 72 km/hr
F 1 1 1I 1  1  1
 tG   J –
4
19. During onward journey from A to B:
H 8 12 6 K 12 3 150 150  3
1 1 Average speed =  = 45 km/hr.
 t   1 10 3 10
24 4 During entire jouney :
3
 t =  24  18 hours 300 300  6
4 Average speed = 
Hence, required time 10 25 45

3 6
= 1 p.m. + 18 hours = 7 a.m.
= 40 km/hr.
14. Working 7 hours a day 24 men can do the
Hence, difference of average speed
work is 27 days.
= 45 – 40 = 5 km/hr
Hence, working 9 hours a day 14 men will do
20. Suppose the policeman will catch the thief after
27  24  7
the work in = 36 days. t seconds
9  14
FG 25  10 IJ t  200  5
15. The part of work is done by B
19 8 4
then, H 6 3K 6
t  200
=  1  200  6
23 23 23  t= = 240 sec = 4 min.
19 4 15 5
The part of work is done by A =   21. Suppose the distance between her house to the
23 23 23
school = x km
8 4 4
The part of work is done by C =   Difference of time
23 23 23
15 5 15 1
Hence,share of A = × ` 529 = ` 345 = – (–5) = min = hr.
23 2 2 8
4 x x 1 x 1 20
    x= = 2.5 km
share of B = × ` 529 = ` 92 4 5 8 20 8 8
23
22. The monkey climbs 12 metres in 1 minute and
4
share of C = × ` 529 = ` 92 then he slips back 3 metres in the next minute
23  The monkey climbs in the first 2 minutes
So, Their shares are ` 345, ` 92 and ` 92. = 12 – 3 = 9 metres
 21

 In the first 12 minutes the monkey climbs 26. Let Tarun will catch Gulshan after t hours the
= 9 × 6 = 54 metres starting of Tarun; then, 10t = 5(t + 1)
Remaining height of the pole to be covered by  5t = 5
the monkey  t = 1 hr
= 63 – 54 = 9 metre Hence, required time = 3 p.m. + 1 hr. = 4 p.m.
 The monkey will climb the height of 9 27. Let x km be the distance between village and
metres in the 13th minute the school; then
 The monkey climbs 12 metres in 1 minute x x
1  6
 The monkey will climb 9 metres in 9 4 2
12
3 3x
 6
= minute 4
4
 Time spent in climbing at the top of the 64
pole  x= = 8 km
3
FG 3 IJ 3 28. Let x km be the distance from village to school,
H
= 12 
4 K minutes = 12
4
minutes then
23. The two persons walk in the same direction x x 1
 = [8 – (–10)] ×
 Their relative speed = 5 – 4 = 1 km/hr 12 20 60
Distance covered in 1 round on the circular
x 18 18
path = 35 km   x=  30 = 9 km
30 60 60
35 29. Let original speed of the bus be x km/hr; then
 They will meet after = 35 hours.
1
72 72 36
24. Suppose usual speed of Kamalkant is v km/hr  
and his destination is at a distance of x kms; x x  10 60

then usual time taken =

x
hours. 
b
72 x  10  x g =
3
v 2 5
x  10 x
x x 1 2x 1
     1200 = x2 + 10x
3v / 5 v 2 3v 2
 x2 + 10x – 1200 = 0
x 3  (x + 40) (x – 30) = 0
  hour = 45 min.
v 4  x = 30 or x = – 40
25. The two trains are moving in the opposite Taking positive value only, so speed of the bus
directions = 30 km/hr.
Relative speed = 40 + 50 = 90 km/hr. 30. Let the distance of the journey be x km, then,

300 1 x x 5x
 Time taken to cross each other = 3  =8 8
90 3 2  40 2  60 240
hours or, 3 hours 20 minutes.  x = 8 × 48 = 384 km
  
 22

4 Ratio and Proportion

RATIO The numbers 5, 15, 7 and 21 are called the

terms. 5 is the first term, 15 the second, 7 the third,
In ratio we compare two quantities of the same kind and 21 the fourth.
and consider what multiple, part or parts one is of The first and fourth terms, i.e., 5 and 21 are
the other. In comparing 8 with 4, observe that it is called extremes (end terms), and the second and the
2 times 4. This comparison can be represented as third terms, i.e., 15 and 7 are called the means
8 (middle terms), 21 is called the fourth proportional.
8 ÷ 4 or .
4
Hence, ratio is that relation between two Some Important Facts
numbers which is expressed by the fraction, the 1. If a and b are two quantities, then
numerator is which is the measure of the first
(a) Duplicate ratio of a : b = a2 : b2
quantity and denominator is the measure of the
second quantity. (b) Sub-duplicate ratio of a : b = a: b
If the terms of a ratio be multiplied or divided
(c) Triplicate ratio of a : b = a3: b3
by the same quantity the value of the ratio remains
unaltered. (d) Sub-triplicate ratio a : b = 3
a :3 b
Thus, 3 : 4 is the same as 9 : 12 and 9 : 12 is
the same as 3 : 4. 1 1
(e) Inverse or reciprocal ratio of a : b = :
a b
PROPORTION
The equality of two ratio is called proportion. b2
(f) Third proportional to ‘a’ and ‘b’ =
Consider the two ratios: a
Ist ratio 2nd ratio 2. If A : B = x : y and B : C = p : q, then
5 : 15 7 : 21 x p
Since, 5 is one-third of 15 and 7 is one-third of (a) A : C =
yq
21, the two ratios are equal. The equality of two
(b) A : B : C = px : py : qy
ratios is called proportion and the numbers 5, 15,
and 7, 21 are said to be in proportion. 3. In what ratio the two kinds of tea must be
mixed together one at ` x per kg and another
The proportion may be written as 5 : 15 : : 7 :
at ` y per kg, so that the mixture may cost
21 (5 is to 15 as 7 is to 21)
` z per kg?
 5 : 15 = 7 : 21
5 7 z–y
 = Ratio =
15 21 x–z
22
 23

4. A grey hound persues a hare as takes J1 leaps 7. There are four members a, b, c and d, then
for every J2 leaps of the hare. If K 1 leaps of formula for
the hound are equal to K 2 leaps of the hare, (a) What should be added to each of these
then the Ratio of speeds of the hound and numbers so that the remaining numbers
hare is
ad – bc
J 2  K1 may be proportional =
(b  c) – (a  d )
J1  K 2
(b) What should be subtracted from each of
5. The incomes of two persons are in the ratio
these numbers so that the remaining
of a : b and their expenditure are in the ratio
numbers may be proportional
of x : y. If the saving of each person is ` s,
as ( y – x ) ad – bc
then income of each is ` and =
ay – bx (a  d ) – (b  c)
bs ( y – x ) 8. In a mixture the ratio of milk and water is
` respectively.
ay – bx a : b. If in this mixture another K litre of
6. In a mixture of z litre, the ratio of milk and water is added, then the ratio of milk and
water is x : y. If another p litres of water is water in the resulting mixture becomes a : m.
added to the mixture, the ratio of milk and Then the quantity of milk in the original
water in the resulting mixture mixture
xz ak bk
=
yz  p( x  y) = and quantity of water =
m–b m–b

ultiple Choice Questions

1. If A : B = 6 : 7 and B : C = 8 : 9, then A : B 5. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If each
: C is: number is increased by 10, the ratio becomes
A. 24 : 28 : 63 B. 48 : 28 : 63 5 : 7. The numbers are:
C. 48 : 56 : 63 D. None of these A. 3, 5 B. 7, 9
2. The sum of two numbers is 20 and their C. 13, 22 D. 15, 25
6. The mean proportional between 0.32 and 0.02
1
difference is 2 . What is the ratio of the is:
2 A. 0.34 B. 0.3
numbers? C. 0.16 D. 0.08
A. 11 : 7 B. 9 : 11
C. 9 : 7 D. None of these 7. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio
between the first and second be 2 : 3 and that
3. If 0.7 of one number is equal to 0.075 of between the second and third be 5 : 8, then
another, what is the ratio of the two numbers? what is the second number?
A. 6 : 14 B. 3 : 28 A. 20 B. 30
C. 5 : 7 D. None of these C. 10 D. 40
4. If 10% of x is the same as 20% of y, then x : 8. One man adds 3 litres of water to 12 litres of
y is equal to : milk and another 4 litres of water to 10 litres
A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 1 of milk. What is the ratio of the strenghts of
C. 5 : 1 D. 10 : 1 the milk in the two mixtures?
 24

A. 15 : 25 B. 25 : 28 15. The contents of two vessels containing water

C. 28 : 25 D. None of these and milk are in the ratio 1 : 2 and 2 : 5 are
9. ` 425 is divided among 4 men, 5 women and mixed in the ratio 1 : 4. The resulting mixture
6 boys such that the share of a man, a woman will have water and milk in the ratio:
and a boy may be in the ratio of 9 : 8 : 4. What A. 21 : 54 B. 31 : 74
is the share of a woman? C. 27 : 74 D. None of these
A. ` 34 B. ` 24 16. One year ago, the ratio between Mahesh and
C. ` 44 D. None of these Suresh’s salaries was 3 : 5. The ratio of their
10. A vessel contains liquids P and Q in the ratio individual salaries of last year and present year
5 : 3. If 6 litres of the mixture are removed and are 2 : 3 and 4 : 5 respectively. If their total
the same quantity of liquid q is added, the ratio salaries for the present year are ` 4300, what
becomes 3 : 5. What quantity does the vessel is the present salary of Mahesh?
hold? A. ` 1800 B. ` 1900
A. 40 litres B. 50 litres C. ` 1600 D. None of these
C. 30 litres D. None of these 17. The ratio of P’s and Q’s income last year was
11. A bucket contains a mixture of two liquids P 3 : 4. The ratio of their own incomes of last
and Q in the proportion 7 : 5. If 9 litres of the year and this year is 4 : 5 and 2 : 3 respectively.
mixture is replaced by 9 litres of liquid Q, then If the total sum of their present income is
the ratio of the two liquid becomes 7 : 9. How ` 4160. What is the present income of P?
much of the liquid P was there in the bucket? A. ` 1500 B. ` 1400
A. 11 litres B. 21 litres C. ` 1600 D. None of these
C. 31 litres D. None of these 18. The monthly salary of A, B, C is in the
12. Three glasses P, Q and R with their capacities proportion of 2 : 3 : 5. If C’s monthly salary
in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 are filled with a mixture is ` 1200 more than that of A, then B’s annual
of spirit and water. The ratio of spirit to water salary is:
A. ` 14400 B. ` 24000
in P, Q and R is 1 : 5, 3 : 5 and 5 : 7
C. ` 1200 D. ` 2000
respectively. If the contents of these glasses
are mixed together, what is the ratio of spirit to 19. ` 1050 is divided among P, Q and R. The
water in the mixture? 2
A. 14 : 27 B. 23 : 47 share of P is of the combined share of Q
5
C. 25 : 47 D. None of these and R. Thus P gets:
13. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper A. ` 200 B. ` 300
prepared by mixing metals in proportions 7 : 2 C. ` 400 D. ` 420
and 7 : 11 respectively. If equal quantities of 20. The ratio between Sumit’s and Prakash’s age
the alloys are melted to form a third alloy C, at present is 2 : 3. Sumit is 6 years younger
the proportion of gold and copper in C will be than Prakash. The ratio of Sumit’s age to
A. 5 : 9 B. 5 : 7 Prakash’s age after 6 years will be:
C. 7 : 5 D. 9 : 5 A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 3
14. Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper C. 3 : 4 D. 3 : 8
9 times as heavy as water. The ratio in which 21. The ratio between the ages of Kamla and Savitri
these two metals be mixed so that the mixtures is 6 : 5 and the sum of their ages is 44 years.
is 15 times as heavy as water is: The ratio of their ages after 8 years will be:
A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 3 A. 5 : 6 B. 7 : 8
C. 3 : 2 D. 19 : 135 C. 8 : 7 D. 14 : 13
 25 (2125) Math—4

22. Vinay got thrice as many marks in Maths as in A. 11 : 14 B. 14 : 11

English. The proportion of his marks in Maths C. 25 : 28 D. 28 : 25
and History is 4 : 3. If his total marks in Maths, 27. A right circular cylinder and a right circular
English and History is 250 then, what is his cone have the same radius and the same
marks in English?
volume. The ratio of the height of the cylinder
A. 120 B. 90
to that of the cone is:
C. 40 D. 80
A. 3 : 5 B. 2 : 5
23. The areas of two spheres are in the ratio 1 : 4, C. 3 : 1 D. 1 : 3
the ratio of their volumes is:
28. A circle and a square have same area.
A. 1 : 2 B. 1 : 4
Therefore, the ratio of the side of the square
C. 1 : 8 D. 1 : 6
and the radius of the circle is :
24. A certain amount was divided between Kavita
and Reena in the ratio 4 : 3. If Reena’s share A. : 1 B. 1: 
was ` 2400, the amount is: C. 1 :  D.  : 1
A. ` 5600 B. ` 3200 29. A, B and C can do a work in 20, 25 and 30
C. ` 9600 D. None of these days respectively. They undertook to finish the
25. The prices of scooter and television set are in work together for ` 2220, then the share of A
the ratio 3 : 2. If a scooter costs ` 6000 more exceeds that of B by:
than the television set, the price of the television A. ` 120 B. ` 180
set is: C. ` 300 D. ` 600
A. ` 6000 B. ` 10000
30. A bag contains 25 paise, 10 paise and 5 paise
C. ` 12000 D. ` 18000
coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value
26. In a class, the number of boys is more than the is ` 30, the number of 5 paise coin is:
number of girls by 12% of the total strength. A. 50 B. 100
The ratio of the boys to girls is: C. 150 D. 200

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C B B D D B C A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C C C B A C C B C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C C A C B D A B C

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. A :B= 6:7 225 9
B :C= 8:9 = = = 9:7
175 7
 A :B :C= 6× 8:7× 8:7 ×9
3. We have, 0.7x = 0.075 y
= 48 : 56 : 63
x 0.075 75
5 = =
20  y 0.7 700
2. Ratio = 2 = 22.5
5 17.5 3
20 – = = 3 : 28
2 28
 26

4. 10% of x = 20% of y  Share of 1 woman

10 20 170
 x = y = = ` 34.
100 100 5
10. Let the vessel contains 5x litres and 3x litres of
x y liquid P and Q respectively. The removed
 =
10 5 quantity contains
x 10 2 16
 = =  x :y = 2 : 1  5 = 10 litres of P
y 5 1 53
and 16 – 10 = 6 litres of Q.
5. Let the number be 3x and 5x.
Now, (5x – 10) : (3x – 6 + 16) = 3 : 5
3x  10 5
Then, = 5 x – 10 3
5 x  10 7  =
3x  10 5
 7(3x + 10) = 5(5x + 10)
 21x + 70 = 25x + 50  25x – 50 = 9x + 30
 4x = 20  x = 5  16x = 80  x = 5
So, the numbers are 15, 25.  Vessel contains 8x = 8 × 5 = 40 litres.
6. Mean proportional 11. Let the two liquids P and Q are 7x litres and 5x
litres repectively.
= 0.32  0.02 =0.0064 = 0.08 Now, when 9 litres of mixture are taken out,
7. The ratio among the three numbers is FG 7 IJ
2: 3
5 : 8
P remains 7 x – 9
H 7  5K
and 10 : 15 : 24 97 FG 7x – 21IJ litres
 The second number = 7x –
12
= H 4K
=
98
 15 = 30 F 5 IJ
and Q remains 5 x – 9 G
10  15  24
8. Strength of milk in the first mixture H 7  5K
12 12
= 5x –
95 F 15 I
= GH 5 x – JK litres
= = 4
12  3 15 12
Strength of milk in the second mixture Now, when 9 litres of liquid Q are added,
10 10 FG 21 IJ FG 15 IJ
=
10  4
=
14 H
7x –
4 KH
: 5x –
4
9 = 7
K :9
 The ratio of their strengths 21
7x –
=
12 10
:  4 = 7
15 14 15 9
5x – 9
= 12 × 14 : 15 × 10 = 28 : 25 4
9. The ratio of shares of group of men, women 189 147
 63x – = 35 x 
and boys 4 4
=9 ×4:8 ×5:4 ×6 189 147 336
 28x =   = 84
= 9 : 10 : 6 4 4 4
 Share of 5 women 84
 x= = 3
425 28
=  10 = ` 170
9  10  6  7x = 7 × 3 = 21 litres.
 27

12. P : Q : R milk in the new vessel

2:3 :4
FG 1  1  2  4 IJ : FG 2  1  5  4 IJ
Spirit : Water = 1 : 5, 3 : 5 and 5 : 7
When they are mixed, the ratio of spirit to water
=
H 3 5 7 5K H 3 5 7 5K
F I F F 1 8 I F 2 20 I 31 : 74
= G  7 JI : G  J =
H 1  5  3  3  5  4  5  7 JK : GH 2  1  5  3  3  5= 31H415: 745 357KJK H 15 35 K 105 105
= G2  1 3 5 5 5

FG 2  1  3  3  4  5 IJ : FG 2  5  3  5  4  7 IJ 16. The ratio of Mahesh’s salary for the two years

H 1  5 3  5 5  7K H 1  5 3  5 5  7K =2 :3
The ratio of Suresh’s salary for the two years
F 1 9 5 I F 5 15 7 I
= G   J :G 
H 3 8 3K H 3 8  3JK
=4 :5
We have also given that the ratio of their salary
25 47 during the last year = 3 : 5
= : = 25 : 47 Now, we change the antecedents (2 and 4) of
8 8
the first two ratios so that the antecedents in
FG 7  7 IJ = 21 = 7 the first becomes 3 (antecedent of the third
13. Gold in C = H 9 18 K 18 6 ratio) and the antecedent in the second becomes
F 2 11I 15 = 5
Copper in C = GH  JK =
5 (consequent of the third ratio).
9
9 18 18 6 Thus, 2 : 3 = 3:
2
 Gold : Copper =
7 5
: = 7:5 FG 5 IJ : 5 FG 5 IJ 25
6 6
14. Let 1 gm of gold be mixed with x gm of copper
and 4:5= 4
H 4K H 4K = 5:
4
to give (1 + x) gm of mixture. Now, it is clear that the ratio of their salaries
Now, 1G = 19w
9 25
and 1C = 9w for the present year is : = 18 : 25
and mixture = 15w 2 4
Now, 1 gm gold + x gm copper  The present salary of Mahesh
= (1 + x) gm mixture 4300
19w + 9w × x = (1 + x) × 15w =  18  = ` 1800
18  25
Thus, 4w = 6wx 17. The ratio of present incomes
4w 4 2 5 3 15 12
 x= = = = 3 :4  = : = 30 : 48 = 5 : 8
6w 6 3 4 2 4 2
2 4160
So, the required ratio is 1 : , i.e., 3 : 2.  P’s present income =  5  = ` 1600
3 58
15. Water Milk 18. Let the monthly salary of A, B, C be 2x, 3x
1 2 and 5x
Vessel I
3 3 Then, 5x – 2x = 1200
2 5 or, 3x = 1200  x = 400
Vessel II B’s monthly salary = 3x = 3 × 400 = ` 1200
7 7
1 19. P : (Q + R) = 2 : 5
From vessel I, is taken and from vessel II,
5
FG 2 IJ
4
5
is taken. Therefore, the ratio of water to H
 P’s share = Rs. 1050 
7 K = ` 300
 28

20. Let their ages be 2x and 3x years. 26. Let the number of boys and girls be x and y
 3x – 2x = 6  x = 6 respectively.
Sumit’s age = 12 years Then, (x – y) = 12% of (x + y).
Prakash’s age = 18 years 3
 x– y= ( x  y)
After 6 years, Sumit's age = 18 years and 25
Prakash’s age = 24 years  25x – 25y = 3x + 3y
 Ratio of their ages = 18 : 24 = 3 : 4  22x = 28y
21. Let their ages be 6x and 5x years. x 28 14
 = =
 6x + 5x = 44 y 22 11
 11x = 44  x = 4  Ratio = 14 : 11
So, their present ages are 24 years and 20 years 27. Let the heights of the cylinder and cone be h
 Ratio of their ages after 8 years and H respectively.
= 32 : 28 = 8 : 7
1 2 h 1
M 4 Then, r2h = r H   =
22. M = 3E and = 3 H 3
H 3 So, their heights in the ratio = 1 : 3
3 3 9
 H= M =  3E = E 28. Let the side of the square be x and the radius
4 4 4
Now, M + E + H = 250 of the circle be y. Then,
x2 = y2
9
 3E  E  E = 250 x2 x
4
 25E = 1000 or, E = 40  2 =  = 
y y
2
4 r 1
23. =  x:y =  :1
4 R 2 4
29. Ratio of shares of A, B, and C
r2 1 r 1
 = and so = 1 1 1
R2 4 R 2 = : : = 15 : 12 : 10
20 25 30
r3 1
 3 =
8 FG 15 IJ
4 3
R  A’s share = Rs. 2220 
H 37 K = ` 900
r
Hence, 3 =
1
FG 2220  12 IJ = ` 720
4
3
R 2
8 B’s share =
H 37 K
Thus, their volumes are in the ratio 1 : 8. Thus, the share of A exceeds that of B by
24. Let their shares be ` 4x and ` 3x ` (900 – 720) = ` 180.
Then, 3x = 2400  x = ` 800 1 2 3
 Total amount = 7x = 7 × 800 = ` 5600 30. Ratio of their values = : : =5:4:3
4 10 20
25. Let the price of a scooter be ` 3x and that of FG 3 IJ
a television set be ` 2x
Then, 3x – 2x = 6000
 Value of 5 paise coins = Rs. 30 
H 12 K
= ` 7.50
 x = 6000
 Cost of a television set 750
= 2x = 2 × 6000 = ` 12000.  Number of 5 paise coins = = 150.
5
  
 29

5 Problem of Age

Important Facts
1. The present age of the father is x times the age of his son. T years hence, the father’s age become
y times the age of his son. Then the present ages of the father and his son are:

Present age of the son =

b g
y 1 T
years and age of the father =
 y  1 T  y
years
xy xy
2. T years ago, the father's age was x times that of his son and at present the father's age is y times
the age of his son. Then their present ages are:

Son's age =
b g
T x -1
years; Father's age =
b g
T x -1
 y years.
xy xy

ultiple Choice Questions

1. The present ages of Sunil and Anil are 40 and 5. In 10 years A will be twice as old as B was
60 years respectively. How many years ago 10 years ago. If A is now 9 years older than B,
was the ratio of their ages 3 : 5? what is the present age of B?
A. 5 years B. 10 years A. 38 years B. 39 years
C. 12 years D. 15 years C. 40 years D. 41 years
2. The ratio of present ages of two brothers is 6. Radha get married 6 years ago. Today her age
1 : 2 and 5 years ago the ratio was 1 : 3. What 1
will be the ratio of their ages after 5 years? is 1 times her age at the time of marriage.
4
A. 1 : 4 B. 2 : 3 1
C. 3 : 5 D. 5 : 6 Her son’s age is times her age. Her son’s
10
3. The ratio of ages of Mohan and Sohan is 3 : 4. age is:
Four years ago the ratio was 5 : 7. Find the A. 1 year B. 2 years
present ages of Mohan and Sohan. C. 3 years D. 4 years
A. 24 years, 32 years B. 20 years, 30 years 7. Two years ago, the ratio of Ram’s and Mohan’s
C. 25 years, 30 years D. None of these age was 3 : 2 and at present 7 : 5. What are
4. The ratio of ages of A and B is 3 : 11. After their present ages?
3 years the ratio becomes 1 : 3. What are the A. 14 years, 10 years
ages of A and B? B. 15 years, 10 years
A. 9 years, 33 years B. 10 years, 40 years C. 13 years, 9 years
C. 9 years, 27 years D. None of these D. None of these
29
 30

8. Keshava is as much younger to Gopal as he is 16. The ratio of the ages of two persons is 4 : 7
older to Madhava. If the sum of the ages of and age of one of them is more than other by
Gopal and Madhava is 48 years, what is the 30 years. The sum of their ages in years is:
age of Keshava? A. 100 B. 110
A. 21 years B. 22 years C. 120 D. 130
C. 23 years D. 24 years
17. A father is older than his first son by 30 years,
9. One year ago, the ratio of Yamini and Gamini’s the first son is older than the second son by
was 6 : 7 respectively. Four year hence, the 10 years. If the sum of their ages be 95 years,
ratio would become 7 : 8. Find the age of find the age of father.
Gamini? A. 45 years B. 50 years
A. 30 years B. 32 years C. 55 years D. 65 years
C. 36 years D. 40 years
18. The present age of Deepak is 3 times the present
10. The ages of Samir and Saurabh are in the ratio age of his son. Five years hence, the ratio of
of 8 : 15 respectively. After 9 years the ratio of their ages will be 34 : 13 respectively. The
their ages will be 11 : 18. What is the difference present age of Deepak is:
between their ages in years? A. 58 years B. 60 years
A. 20 years B. 21 years C. 63 years D. 68 years
C. 22 years D. 24 years
19. A mother is 25 years older than her daughter.
11. The ratio of the present ages of Suresh and his Five years ago, the age of the mother was
daughter is 2 : 1. Six years hence, the ratio of
6 times the age of the daughter. What is the
their ages would be 23 : 13. Find the present
present age of mother?
age of Suresh?
A. 25 years B. 29 years
A. 35 years B. 40 years
C. 32 years D. 35 years
C. 45 years D. 50 years
20. Five years ago, Mayank’s mother was three
12. The ages of Surabhi and Neerja are in the ratio
times as old as Mayank. After five years she
of 6 : 7 respectively. After 6 years the ratio of
will be twice as old as Mayank. The present
their ages will be 15 : 17. Find the age of Neerja.
age of Mayank is:
A. 24 years B. 26 years
C. 28 years D. 32 years A. 13 years B. 15 years
C. 20 years D. 30 years
13. The average age of a woman and her daughter
is 42 years. The ratio of their ages is 2 : 1 21. The average age of A, B and C is 25 years.
respectively. Find the daughter’s age. The ratio of their age is 3 : 5 : 7. What is the
A. 24 years B. 28 years age of A?
C. 30 years D. 32 years A. 12 years B. 15 years
C. 18 years D. 21 years
14. The ages of A and B are in the ratio of 11 : 13
respectively. After 7 years the ratio of their 22. The difference between the present ages of P
ages will be 20 : 23. What is the difference in and Q is 4 years. The ratio of their ages after
years between their ages? 5 years will be 9 : 8. The present age of P is:
A. 4 years B. 5 years A. 24 years B. 30 years
C. 6 years D. 7 years C. 32 years D. 31 years
15. The present age of father is 34 years more than 23. The present age of a father is three times the
that of his son. 12 years ago, father’s age was age of his son. Five years ago, father’s age was
18 times the age of his son. The present age of four times the age of the son. What is the
son in years is: present age of son?
A. 12 B. 14 A. 20 years B. 18 years
C. 16 D. 18 C. 15 years D. 12 years
 31

24. The sum of the ages of a father and his son is A. 4 : 5 : 6 B. 5 : 6 : 7

45 years. Five years ago, the product of their C. 5 : 7 : 8 D. 6 : 7 : 8
ages was four times the father’s age at that 28. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan
time. What are their present ages? is 4 : 5 and that between Mohan and Anil is
A. 35 years, 10 years B. 36 years, 9 years 5 : 6. If sum of the ages of three be 90 years,
C. 37 years, 8 years D. 39 years, 6 years what is the age of Mohan?
25. The mother is five times older than her son. A. 20 years B. 24 years
After 4 years, the sum of their ages will be 44 C. 25 years D. 30 years
years. What is the present age of the son? 29. Three years ago, the average age of a family of
A. 5 years B. 6 years five members was 17 years. A baby having
C. 7 years D. 8 years been born, the average age of the family is the
26. The difference between the present ages of same as what was three years ago. The present
Arun and Barun is 14 years. Seven years ago age of the baby is:
the ratio of their ages was 5 : 7 respetively. A. 6 months B. 9 months
The present age of Barun is : C. 1 year D. 2 years
A. 35 years B. 42 years 30. 5 years ago, the average age of Ram and Shyam
C. 49 years D. 56 years was 20 years. Now, the average age of Ram,
27. The respective ratio of the ages of Shami, Shyam and Mohan is 30 years. What will be
Nammi and Pammi is 3 : 4 : 5. The sum of Mohan's age 10 years hence?
their ages is 48 years. What will be the A. 50 years B. 45 years
respective ratio of their ages 8 years hence? C. 40 years D. 35 years

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C A A B C A D C B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C B C B B C C D C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B D C B B D B D D A

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. Let x years ago, the ratio of their ages was Hence, their present ages 10 years and 20 years
3 : 5, then 10  5 3
Required ratio =  = 3:5
40  x 3 20  5 5
= 3. Let the ages of Mohan and Sohan be 3x years
60  x 5
 200 – 5x = 180 – 3x and 4x years;
 2x = 20 3x  4 5
then, 
 x = 10 years 4x  4 7
 21x – 28 = 20x – 20  x = 8
2. Let their present ages be x and 2x years; then Hence, their present ages,
x5 1 3x = 3 × 8 = 24 years;
  3x – 15 = 2x – 5
2x  5 3 4x = 4 × 8 = 32 years.
 x = 10 So, their ages 24 and 32 years.
 32

4. Let the ages of A and B be 3x and 11x years; 10. Let the present ages of Samir and Saurabh are
then 8x and 15x years respectively; then
3x  3 1 8 x  9 11
 
11x  3 3 15 x  9 18
 9x + 9 = 11x + 3  2x = 6  144x + 162 = 165x + 99
 x=3  21x = 63  x =3
Hence, their present age, Hence, difference of their ages
3x = 3 × 3 = 9 years; = 15x – 8x = 7x = 7 × 3 = 21 years
11x = 11 × 3 = 33 years 11. Let the present ages of Suresh and his daughter
5. Let the present age of B and A be x and be 2x and x years respectively; then
(x + 9) years; then, 2x  6 23
2(x – 10) = x + 19 =
x6 13
 2x – x = 19 + 20  26x + 78 = 23x + 138
 x = 39 years  3x = 60  x = 20
6. Let the present age of Radha be x years; then Hence, present age of Suresh
5 = 2 × 10 = 40 years
(x – 6) = x  5x – 30 = 4x 12. Let the present ages of Surabhi and Neerja are
4
 x = 30 years 6x and 7x years respectively; then,
1 6 x  6 15
Hence, her son's age = × 30 = 3 years 
10 7 x  6 17
7. Let the present ages of Ram and Mohan are 7x  102x + 102 = 105x + 90
and 5x years; then  3x = 12  x = 4
7x  2 3 Hence, present ages of Neerja
 = 7 × 4 = 28 years
5x  2 2
 14x – 4 = 15x – 6 13. Let the present ages of woman and her daugher
 x=2 be 2x and x years respectively; then
Hence, their present ages : 7 × 2 = 14 years 2x + x = 2 × 42
and 5 × 2 = 10 years  3x = 84  x = 28
8. Let the present ages of Madhava, Keshava and Hence, present age of her daughter = 28 years
Gopal are a, b and c years respectively, then 14. Let the present ages of A and B are 11x and
b– a=c– b 13x years respectively; then
ac 11x  7 20
 2b = a + c  b  
2 13 x  7 23
48  253x + 161 = 260x + 140
Hence, the age of Keshava =  24 years
2  7x = 21  x = 3
9. Let one year ago the ages of Yamini and Hence, difference of their ages
Gamini were 6x and 7x years respectively; then = 13x – 11x = 2x = 2 × 3 = 6 years
6x  5 7 15. Let the present ages of father and his son be

7x  5 8 x + 34 and x years respectively; then
 48x + 40 = 49x + 35 18(x – 12) = x + 34 – 12
 x=5  18x – 216 = x + 22
Hence, present ago of Gamini  17x = 238  x = 14
= 7x +1 = 7 × 5 + 1 = 36 years Hence, present age of his son = 14 years
 33 (2125) Math—5

16. Let the present ages of two persons be 4x and 23. Let the present age of father and his son are 3x
7x years respectively; then and x years respectively; then
7x – 4x = 30 4 (x – 5) = 3x – 5  4x – 20 = 3x – 5
 3x = 30  x = 10  x = 15 years
Hence, sum of their ages 24. Let the present ages of father and his son be x
= 4x + 7x = 11x and (45 – x) years respectively; then
= 11 × 10 = 110 years. (x – 5) (45 – x – 5) = 4 (45 – x – 5)
17. Let ages of father and his two sons are x,  x – 5 = 4 x = 9
(x – 30) and (x – 40) years respectively; then Now, son's age = 45 – x = 45 – 9 = 36 years
(x + x – 30) + x – 40 = 95 25. Let the present ages of mother and her son be
 3x = 165  x = 55 5x and x years respectively; then
Hence, age of the father = 55 years. 5x + 4 + x + 4 = 44  6x = 36  x = 6 years
18. The present age of Deepak and his son be 3x 26. Let the present ages of Arun and Barun are x
and x years respectively; then and x + 14 years respectively; then
3 x  5 34 x7 5
 
x  5 13 x  14  7 7
 39x + 65 = 34x + 170  7x – 49 = 5x + 35
 5x = 105 x = 21  2x = 84
Hence, present age of Deepak  x = 42
= 3x = 3 × 21 = 63. Hence, age of Barun = 42 + 14 = 56 years
19. Let the present ages of mother and her daughter 27. Let the present ages of Shami, Nammi and
are (x + 25) and x years respectively; then Pammi are 3x, 4x and 5x years respectively;
6(x – 5) = x + 25 – 5 then, 3x + 4x + 5x = 48
 6x – 30 = x + 20  12x = 48  x = 4
 5x = 50  x = 10 Hence, their present ages are 12, 16 and 20
Hence, the age of the mother years respectively.
= 10 + 25 = 35 years. So, required ratio
20. Let the present ages of Mayank and his mother = (12 + 8) : (16 + 8) : (20 + 8)
are x and 3(x – 5) years respectively; then = 20 : 24 : 28 = 5 : 6 : 7
 2(x + 5) = 3(x – 5) + 5 28. Here, ratio of ages of Ram, Mohan and Anil
 2x + 10 = 3x – 15 + 5  x = 20 =4:5:6
Hence, present age of Mayank = 20 years. Let their present ags be 4x, 5x and 6x years
21. Let the present ages of A, B and C are 3x, 5x respectively;
and 7x years respectively; then then 4x + 5x + 6x = 90
3x + 5x + 7x = 3 × 25  15x = 90 x= 6
 15x = 75  x = 5 Hence, age of Mohan = 5 × 6 = 30 years
Hence, age of A = 3x = 3 × 5 = 15 years 29. The present age of baby
22. Let the present ages of P and Q be (x + 4) and = 17 × 6 – 20 × 5 = 2 years
x45 9 30. The present age of Mohan
x years; then,  = 3 × 30 – 2 × 25 = 90 – 50 = 40 years
x5 8
 8x + 72 = 9x + 45  x = 27 10 years hence, the age of Mohan
Hence, present age of P = 27 + 4 = 31 years = 40 + 10 = 50 years
  
 34

6 Probability

 Random Experiment: If the result of an events A 1 and A 2. If we consider the events

experiment is not certain and is any one of the E1 = {1, 2, 3} and E2 = {2, 4, 5, 6}, then the
several possible outcomes, the experiment is set E1, E2, is exhaustive.
called a trial or a random experiment.  Mutually Exclusive Events: A set of events is
 Sample Space: The set of all possible outcome said to be mutually exclusive if they have no
of an experiment is called the sample space point in common, i.e., happening of one of them
provided no two or more of these outcomes can eliminates the happening of any of the remaining
occur simultaneously and exactly one of these events. Thus E1, E2, E3, ... are mutually exclusive
outcomes must occur whenever the experiment iff Ei  Ej =  for i  E1 and E2 are mutually
is conducted. exclusive.
 Events: The outcomes of an experiment, i.e.,  Complement of An Events: The complement
sample points of the sample space are usually of an event A, denoted by A , A' or A c, is the
known as simple events and any subset of the set of all sample points of the space other than
sample space 'S' is called an event. the sample points in A.
Thus throwing of a dice is an experiment, S = e.g., In the experiment of throwing a fair dice,
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} is the sample space, {1}, ... S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. If A = {1, 3, 5, 6}, then A
{6} are simple events and {1, 2}, etc., are events. = {2, 4}
The empty set  is also an event as  S and
it is called an impossible event. The sample Note that A  A = S.
space S is also a subset of S and so it is also an  Classical Definition of Probability: If there
event. S represents the sure event, i.e., certainty. are n exhaustive mutually exclusive and equally
 Equally Likely Events: A set of events is said likely outcomes of an experiment and m of them
to be equally likely if taking into consideration are favourable to an event A, the probability of
all the relevant factors there is no reason to the happening of A is defined as the ratio m/n.
expect one of them in preference to others. Thus, denoting the probability of the happening
For example, when a fair coin is tossed, the of an event A by p, we have p = m/n.
occurrence of a tail or a head are equally likely. Clearly p is a positive number not greater than
 Exhaustive Events: A set of events is said to unity, so that 0  p  1.
be exhaustive if the performance of the Since the number of cases in which the event
experiment always results in the occurrence of A will not happen is n – m, the probability
atleast one of them. q that the event will not happen is given by
For example, if we throw a dice, then the events (n  m) m
q= =1– = 1 – p.  p + q = 1
A1 = {1, 2}, A 2 = {2, 3, 3} are not exhaustive n n
as we can get 5 as outcome of the experi- If probability of happening of an event A is 1,
ment which is not the member of any of the then A is certain event and if probability of
34 (2125) Math—5-II
 35

happening of an event A is 0, then A is  Conditional Probability: The probability of B

impossible event. under the assumption that A has occurred is
 Odds in Favour and Odds against an Event: called the conditional probability of B under
As a result of an experiment if a of the outcomes the condition that the event A has taken place
are favourable to an event E and b of the and is denoted by P(B/A). P(B/A) is read as
outcomes are against it, then we say that odds “probability at the event B given A B.”
are a to b in favour of E or odds are b to a  Conditional Probability Theorem: If A and B
against E. are any two events in the sample space S, the
Thus, odds in favour of an event E conditional probability of B relative to A is given
number of favourable cases . P(B  A) n(B  A)
=
number of unfavourable cases
by P(B/A) =
PAbg =
n(A)
, A  .

Similarly, odds against an event E  Some Important Remarks about Coins, Dice
number of unfavourable cases and Playing Cards:
= .
number of favourable cases (a) Coins: A coin has a head side and a tail
If odds in favour of an event are a : b then the side. If an experiment consist of more than
probability of the occurrence of that event is a coin, coins are considered to be distinct if
a not otherwise stated.
and the probability of the non-occurrence (b) Dice: A die (cubical) has six faces marked
ab
b 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6. We may have tetrahedral
of that event is . (having four faces 1, 2, 3, 4) or pentagonal
(a  b)
(having five faces 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) die. As in
 Addition Theorem:
the case of dice, if we have more than one
(a) If 'A' and 'B' are any two events in a sample die, all dice are considered to be distinct if
space S, then P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A not otherwise stated.
 B).
(c) Playing Cards: A pack of playing cards
(b) If 'A' and 'B' are mutually exclusive then usually contain 52 cards.
P(A  B) = 0 so that P(A  B) = P(A) +
There are 4 suits (spade, heart, diamond
P(B).
and club) each having 13 cards. There are
(c) If A is any event in S, then P(A') = 1 – two colours — red (heart and diamond) and
P(A). black (spade and club) each having 26 cards.
 Total Probability Theorem: The probability In thirteen cards of each suit, there are
that one of several mutually exclusive events 3 face cards namely king, queen and jack,
A1, A2, ..., An will happen, is the sum of the so there are in all 12 face cards (4 kings,
probabilities of the separate events. In symbol, 4 queens and 4 jacks).
P(A 1 + A2 + ... + An) = P(A 1) + P(A 2) + ... + Also there are 16 honours cards, 4 of each
P(A n). suit namely ace, king, queen and jack.

ultiple Choice Questions

1. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The 2. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The
probability of obtaining a total score of 5 is probability of obtaining total score of seven is
A. 1/18 B. 1/12 A. 5/6 B. 1/6
C. 1/9 D. None of these C. 1/7 D. 7/6
 36

3. A card is drawn at random from a pack of 100 A. 2/7 B. 3/7

cards numbered 1 to 100. The probability of C. 4/7 D. None of these
drawing a number, which is a square, is
11. Three identical dice are rolled. The probability
A. 1/5 B. 2/5
that the same number will appear on each of
C. 1/10 D. None of these
them is
4. The probability of an event happening in one A. 1/6 B. 1/18
trial of an experiment is 0.6. Three independent C. 1/36 D. None of these
trials are made. The probability that the event
happens at least once is 12. Three cards are drawn successively with
A. 0.432 B. 0.064 replacement. The probability of selecting 2 aces
C. 0.936 D. 0.568 and one king is
A. 1/{(13)2 × 17} B. 1/(13)3
5. One of the two exclusive events must occur 3
the chance of one is 2/3 of the other, then odds C. 3/(13) D. None of these
in favour of the other are 13. If an integer p is chosen at random in the
A. 1 : 3 B. 3 : 1 interval 0  p  5, the probability that the roots
C. 2 : 3 D. 3 : 2 of the equation x2 + px + p/4 + 1/2 = 0 are real
6. Twelve coupons are numbered from 1 to 12. is
Six coupons are selected at random one at a A. 4/5 B. 2/3
time with replacement. The probability that the C. 3/5 D. None of these
largest number appearing on a selected coupon 14. There are 4 white and 4 black balls in a bag
is less than or equal to 8, is and 3 balls are drawn at random. If balls of
A. (2/3)6 B. (7/12)6 same colour are identical, the probability that
C. 1/33 D. None of these none of them is black, is
7. Seven chits are numbered 1 to 7. Four are drawn A. 1/4 B. 1/14
one by one with replacements. The probability C. 1/2 D. None of these
that the least number on any selected chits is 5
15. Two events A and B have probabilities 0.25
is
A. 1 – (2/7)4 B. 4.(2/7)4 and 0.50 respectively. The probability that both
C. (3/7) 4 D. None of these A and B occur simultaneously is 0.12. Then
the probability that neither A nor B occurs is
8. A bag contains 3 red, 4 white and 5 blue balls. A. 0.13 B. 0.38
All balls are different. Two balls are drawn at C. 0.63 D. 0.37
random. The probability that they are of
different colours is 16. The odds in favour of A solving a problem are
A. 47/66 B. 10/33 3 to 4 and the odds against B solving the same
C. 5/22 D. None of these problem are 5 to 7. If they both try the problem,
the probability that the problem is solved is
9. The probabilities of three mutually exclusive
events A, B and C are given by 2/3, 1/4 and A. 41/84 B. 16/21
1/6 respectively. The statement C. 5/21 D. 1/4
A. is true 17. Cards are drawn from a pack of 52 cards one
B. is false by one. The probability that exactly 10 cards
C. Nothing can be said will be drawn before the first ace is
D. Could be either A. 241/1456
10. A five digit number is formed by the digits B. 164/4165
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8. The probability that the C. 451/884
number has even digit at both ends is D. None of these
 37

18. From eighty cards numbered 1 to 80, two cards probability that only one of them will be alive
are selected randomly. The probability that both at the end of the year is
the cards have the numbers divisible by 4 is A. p + q B. p + q – 2pq
given by C. p + q – pq D. p + q + pq
A. 21/316 B. 19/316 25. A man is known to speak truth 3 out of 4
C. 1/4 D. None of these
times. He throws a die and reports that it is a
19. A cubical dice is thrown 6 times. The six, the probability that it is actually a six is
probability that 2 and 4 will turn up exactly 3 A. 3/8 B. 1/5
times each is given by C. 3/5 D. None of these
A. 5/11664 B. 1/46656
26. An urn contains 8 blue and 4 green balls. Two
C. 1/5184 D. None of these
balls are drawn at random. The probability that
20. The probability that an event A happens in one both balls are of the same colour (all balls are
trial of an experiment is 0.7. Three independent considered to be different) is
trials of the experiment are performed. The A. 17/33 B. 1/33
probability that the event A happens atleast C. 14/33 D. 1/11
once is
A. 0.657 B. 0.973 27. In order to get at least once a head with
C. 0.189 D. None of these probability > 0.9, the number of times a coin
needs to be tossed is
21. The probability of a problem being solved by
A. 3 B. 4
two students are 1/2, 1/3. The probability of
C. 5 D. None of these
the problem being solved is
A. 2/3 B. 4/3 28. From a pack of cards, 2 are drawn at random
C. 1/3 D. 1 one by one with replacement. The probability
that first is heart and 2nd is king is
22. Let A and B be two events such that P(A) =
A. 1/26 B. 1/52
0.4, P(B) = 0.3 and P(A  B) = 0.7. Then
A. A and B are independent C. 1/13 D. None of these
B. A and B are exhaustive 29. A dice is thrown. Consider two events
C. A and B are mutually exclusive A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {4, 5, 6}. Then the events
D. None of these A and B are
23. Probability of happening of at least one of the A. independent B. dependent
events is 0.6 and their simultaneous happening C. mutually exclusive D. exhaustive
is 0.2. Then the value of P(A) + P(B) is 30. Host, his wife and 8 guests are to be seated on
A. 0.8 B. 0.6 a round dining table at random. The probability
C. 0.2 D. 0.4 that the host and his wife sit together is
24. If the probabilities that A and B will die within A. 1/9 B. 2/9
a year are p and q respectively, then the C. 1/5 D. 1/10

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B C C D A C A B A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C C B A D B B B A B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A C A B A A B B D B
 38

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. Total ways = 6 × 6 = 36 10. Total number of 5 digit numbers obtained by
Total 5 can be obtained in the following 4 ways the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8.
: 1 + 4, 2 + 3, 3 + 2, 4 + 1 = 7P5 = 7.6.5.4.3 = 2520
 Required probability = 4/36 = 1/9. There are 4 even digits (2, 4, 6 and 8).
2. Total ways = 6 × 6 = 36  2 even digits can be selected in 4C2 = 6 ways
Total 7 can be obtained in the following 6 ways  The two ends can be filled in 2 × 6
: 1 + 6, 2 + 5, 3 + 4, 4 + 3, 5 + 2, 6 + 1 = 12 ways
 Required probability = 6/36 = 1/6. Remaining 3 places from remaining 5 digits
can be filled in 5P3 = 60 ways.
3. Total number of ways = 100C1 = 100
Hence, the required probability
Favourable numbers are 12, 22 , ..., 102.
12  60 2
Therefore favourable ways = 10 =  .
2520 7
 Probability = 10/100 = 1/10.
11. Favourable cases = 6
4. P = 1 – (0.4)3 = 0.936. Total cases = 63= 216
5. Let P(B) = x, P(A) = 2x/3 6 1
P(same number on three dice) =  .
P(A) + P(B) = x + 2x/3 = 1 216 36
 5x/3 = 1  x = 3/5 4 1
12. P(ace) = 
P(A) = 2/5, P(B) = 3/5 52 13
35 3 4 1
Odds in favours of B =  . P(king) = 
1 3 5 2 52 13
6. Probability of a coupon selected with any P (2 aces and one king)
number from 1 to 8 = 8/12.
F IF I
= 3C2. 1
2
1 3 .
In six trails: P (number from 1 to 8) = (8/12)6
P = (2/3)6.
H KH K a f
13 13

13 3
13. Roots of the equation
7. P (5 or 6 or 7) in one draw = 3/7 x2 + px + p/4 + 1/2 = 0 are real if
 Probabilty that in each of 4 draws, the chits  = p2 – 4 (p/4 + 1/2)  0
bear 5 or 6 or 7 = (3/7)4. i.e., (p – 2) (p + 1)  0
8. We have the following pattern: i.e., p  –1 or p  2
I red, white PI = 3 × 4/12C2 In 0  p  5, possible values of p are 2, 3, 4, 5
II red, blue PII = 3 × 5/12C2 Thus, probability = 4/6 = 2/3.
III blue, white PIII = 4 × 5/12C2 14. There are 4 identical white and 4 identical black
Since all these cases are exclusive, so the balls and we have to select 3, which can be
required probability = (12 + 15 + 20)/12C2 selected in the following pattern:
= (47 × 2)/(12 × 11) = 47/66. white 32 1 –
9. Since the events A, B and C are mutually black –1 2 3
exclusive, we have i.e., in all 4 ways.
2 1 1 13 It should be noted that the ways of selecting 3
P(A  B  C) =    > 1, white balls from 4 white balls is not equal to
3 4 6 12
4C since the white balls are identical, it is equal
which is not possible. 3
Hence, the statement is false. to 1. Similar is the cases for 2, 1, etc.
 39

Now the number of ways of selecting 3 white 23. P(A  B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A  B)
balls = 1.  0.6 = P(A) + P(B) – 0.2
Hence, required probability = 1/4.  P(A) + P(B) = 0.8.
15. P(A  B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A  B) 24. P (only one of A and B will die in a year)
P(A  B) = 0.25 + 0.50 – 0.12 = 0.63
d i d i
= P AB  P AB
d i
P A  B = 1 – P(A  B) = 1 – 0.63 = 0.37. = Pd Ai P(B) + P(A) Pd Bi
3 7 [Since A and B are independent]
16. P(A) = , P(B) =
7 12 = (1 – p)q + p (1 – q)

di 4
P A = ,P B =
7 di 5
12
= p + q – 2pq.
8
C2  4 C2 17
4 5 16 26. Required probability = 12
 .
 P(A  B) = 1 –   . C2 33
7 12 21
17. P{(first 10 draws non-ace cards) (11th ace)} 27. Probability of getting at least one head in n
48 tosses = 1 – (½)n  0.9
C10 4 164
= 52
  .  (½)n  0.1  2n  10
C10 42 4165
 n3
18. Total ways = 80C2
20C Hence, least value of n = 4.
favourable ways = 2
20
C2 19 1
 28. Probability of getting heart = (13/52) =
P= 80 . 4
C2 316
1 1 1
19. P(2) = , P(4) = Probability of getting king = 4/52 =
6 6 13
Required probability,  Probability that first is heart and 2nd is king

F 1 I . F 1 I = 1 . 6!  5 .
3  is 1/4 × 1/13 = 1/52.

H 6 K H 6 K 6 3!3! 11664
P = 6C3. 6 29. P(A) = 4/6 = 2/3,

20. P(A) = 0.7  P d Ai = 0.3

P(B) = 3/6 = 1/2
P(AB) = 1/6
P(at least once) = 1 – P (no occurrence) P(A).P(B) = 1/3
= 1 – (0.3)3 = 0.973. As P(AB)  P(A).P(B)
21. The probability that the problem is not being  A and B are not independent. Occurrence of
solved by any of the two students one do not effect the occurrence of other, P(A 
= (1 – 1/2) (1 – 1/3) = 1/3 B)  null set
 Probability that the problem is solved  Events are not mutually exclusive.
= 1 – 1/3 = 2/3. All the possible outcomes are existing, i.e., A
22. P(A  B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A  B)  B is equal to sample space {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6},
therefore events A and B are exhaustive.
= 0.4 + 0.3 – 0.7 = 0
 P(A  B)  P(A) P(B) so A and B are not 30. Favourable ways = 2!.8!.
independent. {Since P(A  B)  1, A and B Total ways of arrangement of 10 persons = (10
are not exhaustive.} – 1)! = 9!
P(A  B) = 0 gives A and B are mutually 2 !8! 2
exclusive.  P=  .
9! 9
  
 40

7 LCM and HCF

L.C.M. Sol: 40 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 = 23 × 5
50 = 2 × 5 × 5 = 2 × 52
Multiple : A number is said to be multiple of other
60 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 = 22 × 3 × 5
when it is exactly divisible by the other.
80 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 = 24 × 5
Common multiple : A common multiple of
two or more numbers is a number which is exactly Here, the prime factors that occur in the
divisible by each of them. For example, for 2 and 3, given numbers are 2, 3 and 5 and their
common multiples are 6, 12, 18, 24 and so on. highest powers are respectively 24, 52 and 3.
Explanation: Hence, the required L.C.M. = 24 × 3 × 52
Consider the two numbers 2 and 3 = 1200.
Multiple of 2 are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, ... 2. By division method : This is the quicker
Multiple of 3 are 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, ... method to find the prime factors and hence
 Common multiples are 6, 12, 18, ... L.C.M.
Least Common Multiple (L.C.M.) : L.C.M. For determining L.C.M. of the numbers 40,
of two or more given numbers is the least number 50, 60 and 80, following process of division
which is exactly divisible by each of them. For is adopted:
example, 2 40, 50, 60, 80
6 is a common multiple of 2 and 3 2 20, 25, 30, 40
12 is also common multiple of 2 and 3 2 10, 25, 15, 20
18 is also common multiple of 2 and 3 5 5, 25, 15, 10
But 6 is the least common multiple (L.C.M.) of 1, 5, 3, 2
2 and 3. Now required L.C.M.
Methods to find out L.C.M. = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 × 5 × 3 × 2 = 1200

L.C.M. of two or more given numbers is determined L.C.M. of decimal

by following two methods:
First of all, we find out the L.C.M. of numbers
1. By prime factorization method : Resolve without decimal and then, we see the number in
the given numbers into their prime factors
which decimal is given in the minimum digit from
and then find the product of the highest
right to left. We put the decimal in our result which
power of all the factors that occur in the
is equal to that number of digits.
given numbers. This product will be the
L.C.M. Example : Find the L.C.M. of 0.6, 9.6 and 0.36.
Example 1 : Find the L.C.M. of 40, 50, 60 Sol : The given numbers are equivalent to 0.60,
and 80. 9.60 and 0.36.
40
 41 (2125) Math—6

Now, we find out the L.C.M. of 60, 960 and We can find H.C.F. by two methods:
36, which is equal to 2880. 1. By prime factorization method :
Hence, the required L.C.M. = 28.80. An example : Find the H.C.F. of 144, 336
and 2016.
L.C.M. of fraction
Sol : 144 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3
The L.C.M. of two or more fractions is the least = 24 × 32
fraction or integer which is exactly divisible by each
336 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 7
of them.
a c e = 24 × 3 × 7
If , , be the proper fractions, then their 2016 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 7 × 3 × 3
b d f
L.C.M. is given by = 25 × 7 × 32
L.C.M. of numerators a, c, e  H.C.F. of given numbers = 24 × 3 = 48.
H.C.F. of denominators b, d, f 2. By division method : Divide the greater
An example : number by the smaller number, divide the
divisor by the rem ainder, divide the
1 3 4 5 remainder by the next remainder, and so on
Find the L.C.M. of , , and
2 5 7 12 until no remainder is left. The last divisor is
L.C.M. of 1, 3, 4, 5 the required H.C.F.
Sol : L.C.M. =
H.C.F. of 2, 5, 7, 12 An example : Find the H.C.F. of 48, 168
60 and 324.
= = 60 Sol : 48 ) 168 ( 3
1
144
H.C.F.
24 ) 48 ( 2
Factor : One number is said to be a factor of other 48
when it divides the other exactly. Hence, 5 and 7
××
are factors of 35.
Common factor : A common factor of two or Thus, the H.C.F. of 48 and 168 is 24.
more numbers is a number that divides each of them Now, we find out the H.C.F. of 24 and 324
exactly. Hence, 5 is a common factor of 15, 25, 35 24 ) 324 (13
and 55. 24
Highest Common Factor (H.C.F.) : H.C.F. of 84
two or more numbers is the largest number by which
72
each given number is divisible without leaving any
remainder. 12 ) 24 ( 2
An example : It is required to find the H.C.F. 24
of 6 and 8. ××
Factors of 6 are 1, 2, 3, 6 and  Required H.C.F. = 12.
Factors of 8 are 1, 2, 4, 8.
H.C.F. of Decimals
The common factors are 1, 2, but highest of
these is 2. Hence, 2 is the H.C.F. First of all find the H.C.F. of the given numbers
Note : The terms Highest Common Divisor ignoring decimals and then put decimal at maximum
(H.C.D.) and Greatest Common Measure (G.C.M.) digits from right to left.
are often used in the sense of Highest Common An example : Find the H.C.F. of 0.0012, 1.6
Factor (H.C.F.) and 2.8.
 42

Sol : First we find the H.C.F. of 12, 16 and 28, 54 6 9 60 36 12

which comes to 4. = ; 3 = and =
9 1 17 17 51 17
So, H.C.F. of 0.0012, 1.6 and 2.8 will be 0.0004. 6 60 12
Hence, the fractions are , and
H.C.F. of Fractions 1 17 17
H.C.F. of 6, 60, 12 6
a c e  H.C.F. = = .
If , , , ... be the proper fraction, their H.C.F. L.C.M. of 1, 17, 17 17
b d f
H.C.F. of numerators Relationship Between Two Numbers and
is equal to
L.C.M. of denominators Their L.C.M. and H.C.F.
An example:
Product of the H.C.F. and the L.C.M. of two numbers
54 9 36 is equal to the product of the given numbers.
Find the H.C.F. of ,3 and
9 17 51 i.e., 1st number × 2nd number = H.C.F. ×
Sol : Here, L.C.M.

ultiple Choice Questions

1. The H.C.F. of 72 and 18 is 7. L.C.M. of 24, 28, 36 and 44 is a multiple of 24
A. 9 B. 72 and which of the following numbers?
C. 18 D. 36 A. 441 B. 231
C. 337 D. 197
2. The L.C.M. of 6, 8, 10 and 12 is
A. 120 B. 60 8. H.C.F. of 420, 315 and 462 is
A. 24 B. 28
C. 240 D. 130
C. 27 D. 21
5 6 7 8 9 9. The smallest number exactly divisible by 3, 4,
3. The H.C.F. of , , , and is
6 7 8 9 10 6 and 8 is
A. 26 B. 24
1 1
A. B. C. 25 D. 28
2420 2520
10. The smallest three-digit number completely
1 1 divisible by 12, 18 and 24 will be
C. D.
2660 2540 A. 72 B. 144
4. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 85 and their C. 180 D. 224
product is 1020. Their H.C.F. will be 11. The largest three-digit number, when divided
A. 16 B. 27 by 6, 9 and 12 leaves 1 as remainder in each
C. 12 D. 22 case, will be
A. 887 B. 987
5. The L.C.M. and H.C.F. of two numbers are C. 973 D. 730
4284 and 32 respectively. If one of the numbers
12. Two numbers are in the ratio of 8 : 15. If their
is 204, the other is
H.C.F. is 4, the numbers are
A. 672 B. 576 A. 32 and 60 B. 16 and 30
C. 676 D. 572 C. 80 and 150 D. 64 and 120
6. The largest four-digit number divisible by 48, 13. The largest number that will divide 226 and 272
60 and 64 will be leaving 1 and 2 as remainders respectively, is
A. 7200 B. 9600 A. 36 B. 45
C. 8400 D. 10,000 C. 55 D. 59
 43

14. Which of the following is the greatest common 23. The greatest number that will divide 33, 64
divisor of 1170 and 102? and 80 leaving 3, 4 and 5 as remainders
A. 8 B. 4 respectively, is
C. 6 D. 3 A. 10 B. 20
C. 15 D. 22
15. A number, when 3 is added to it, becomes
divisible by 36, 45 and 50. The smallest such 24. The H.C.F. of three numbers is 12. If the three
number is numbers are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3, then the
A. 987 B. 798 numbers are
C. 986 D. 897 A. 14, 28, 42 B. 12, 24, 36
C. 15, 30, 45 D. 24, 48, 72
16. The least perfect square number which is
completely divisible by 10, 20, 30 and 40 is 25. The greatest four-digit number completely
A. 4800 B. 3600 divisible by 2, 3, 4 and 5 is
A. 9960 B. 9690
C. 4400 D. 2500
C. 8990 D. 9980
17. The product of two numbers is 2160 and their
26. Three bells ring respectively at an interval of
H.C.F. is 12. How many such pairs of numbers
15 seconds, 20 seconds and 24 seconds. If they
can be possibly formed?
ring continuously for 12 minutes then how
A. 3 B. 1
many times, during this period, will they ring
C. 2 D. None of these together?
18. The greatest number that will divide 366, 513 A. 2 times B. 6 times
and 324 leaving the same remainder in each C. 5 times D. 3 times
case is 27. The smallest number, on being successively
A. 21 B. 18 divided by 5, 6, 8, 9 and 12 leaves 1 as
C. 27 D. 42 remainder in each case and is completely
19. The sum of two numbers is 216 and their H.C.F. divisible by 13, will be
is 27. These numbers are A. 4603 B. 6305
A. 60 and 90 B. 81 and 135 C. 4503 D. 3601
C. 64 and 128 D. 30 and 84 28. If in the process of finding H.C.F. of two
20. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 45 times their numbers by continued division method, 49 is
H.C.F. If the sum of the L.C.M. and the H.C.F. the last divisor and quotients obtained (from
of these two numbers is 1150 and one of the the beginning) are 17, 3 and 2 respectively,
numbers is 125, then the other number is then the numbers are
A. 256 B. 225 A. 432 and 4929 B. 343 and 5929
C. 388 and 5880 D. 472 and 5930
C. 250 D. 255
29. A, B and C start running together in a particular
21. The H.C.F. and the L.C.M. of two numbers are
direction from a particular point on a 12 kms
50 and 250 respectively. On dividing one of
long circular path. If the speeds of A, B and C
these numbers by 2, 50 is obtained as quotient. are 3 kms/h, 7 kms/h and 13 kms/h respectively,
The numbers are then after how many hours will they meet
A. 100, 125 B. 80, 100 together again?
C. 125, 100 D. 200, 250 A. 8 B. 6
22. The largest three-digit number, which when C. 12 D. 10
successively divided by 6, 9 and 12, leaves 3 30. Which of the following has most numbers of
as remainder in each case, is divisors?
A. 575 B. 795 A. 182 B. 176
C. 975 D. 525 C. 101 D. 99
 44

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A B C A B B D B B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A B C D B C A B B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A C C B A B D B C B

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. 72 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 6. In this question LCM of the given numbers 48,
18 = 2 × 3 × 3 60, 64 has to be found out.
 Common factors = 2 × 3 × 3 = 18 48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3;
 H.C.F. = 18 60 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
2. 6 = 2 × 3; 8 = 2 × 2 × 2 64 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2
10 = 2 × 5; 12 = 2 × 2 × 3  LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
It is clear that 2 occurs as prime factor = 960
maximum three times, 3 one time and 5 one  Largest 4-digit number = 9999
time.  960 ) 9999 ( 10
Hence, required L.C.M. 9600
= 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 = 120.
399
5 6 7 8 9  Required number = 9999 – 399
3. H.C.F. of , , , and
6 7 8 9 10 = 9600
H.C. F. of 5, 6, 7,8 and 9 7. 24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3
=
LCM of 6, 7,8, 9 and 10 28 = 2 × 2 × 7
Now H.C.F. of 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 = 1 36 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3
and L.C.M. of 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10 = 2520 44 = 2 × 2 × 11
1  Required LCM
 Required H.C.F. = = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 7 × 11
2520
4. L.C.M. of two numbers × H.C.F. of the = 24 × 231
numbers = Product of the numbers Therefore, it is obvious that LCM of the given
 85 × H.C.F. = 1020 number is a multiple of 24 and 231.
1020 8. 315 ) 420 ( 1
 H.C.F. = = 12
85 315
5. 1st number × 2nd number = LCM × HCF 105 ) 315 ( 3
204 × 2nd number = 4284 × 32 315
4284  32 ×
 2nd number = = 672
204  H.C.F. of 315 and 420 is 105
 2nd number = 672. Now, H.C.F. of 105 and 462 :
 45

105 ) 462 ( 4 12. Let the numbers be 8x and 15x

420 8x = 2 × 2 × 2 × x
42 ) 105 ( 2 15x = 3 × 5 × x
84  LCM of 8x and 15x
21 ) 42 ( 2 =2 ×2×2 ×x× 3× 5
42 = 120x
× Now, 1st number × 2nd number = HCF × LCM
 Required H.C.F. = 21.  8x × 15x = 4 × 120x
9. L.C.M. of 3, 4,6 and 8  120x 2 = 4 × 120x
2 3, 4, 6, 8  x= 4
2 3, 2, 3, 4  Numbers are 8 × 4
3 3, 1, 3, 2 = 32 and 15 × 4 = 60
1, 1, 1, 2 13. 226 – 1 = 225 and 272 – 2 = 270
 The required number = LCM of the given Now, HCF of 225 and 270
numbers = 2 × 2 × 3 × 2 = 24. 225 ) 270 ( 1
225
10. L.C.M. of the given numbers 12, 18 and 24
45 ) 225 ( 5
2 12, 18, 24
225
2 6, 9, 12
×
3 3, 9, 6
 The required number is 45.
1, 3, 2
14. 1170 = 2 × 5 × 3 × 3 × 13
 L.C.M. = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 2 = 72
102 = 2 × 3 × 17
 The required 3-digit number which is
 Greatest common divisor = 2 × 3 = 6
smallest as well as divisible by 12, 18, and 24
will be 72 × 2 = 144. 15. It is clear from the given conditions of the
problem that the smallest number will be 3
11. L.C.M. of 6, 9 and 12 less than the LCM of 36, 45 and 50.
3 6, 9, 12  LCM of 36, 45 and 50
2 2, 3, 4 3 36, 45, 50
1, 3, 2 2 12, 15, 50
 LCM = 3 × 2 × 3 × 2 = 36. 3 6, 15, 25
 Largest 3-digit number = 999 5 2, 5, 25
36 ) 999 ( 27 2, 1, 5
72  LCM = 3 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 2 × 5 = 900
279  Required number = 900 – 3 = 897.
252 16. LCM of 10, 20, 30 and 40
× 27 2 10, 20, 30, 40
 Largest 3-digit number which is exactly 5 5, 10, 15, 20
divisible by 6, 9 and 12 2 1, 2, 3, 4
= 999 – 27 = 972 1, 1, 3, 2
 The required number = 972 + 1 = 973  LCM = 2 × 2 × 5 × 3 × 2
 46

But the number is a perfect square number 1150

 Required number  HCF = = 25
46
= 2 × 2 × 5 × 5 × 3 × 3 × 2 × 2 = 3600.  LCM = 45 × 25 = 1125
17. Product of two numbers  1st number × 2nd number
= their HCF × their LCM = LCM × HCF
2160 = 12 × LCM  125 × 2nd number = 1125 × 25
2160 1125  25
 LCM = = 180  2nd number = = 225.
12 125
Therefore such pairs of numbers in which 21. According to the condition of the problem, 50
product of numbers is 2160 and HCF is 12 will is obtained on dividing one of the numbers
be only 2. by 2
i.e., 12 × 180 and 36 × 60.  One of the numbers = 50 × 2 = 100
18. Difference between 366 and 513
Now, 1st number × 2nd number
= 513 – 366 = 147
= LCM × HCF
and difference between 513 and 324
 100 × 2nd number = 250 × 50
= 513 – 324 = 189
250  50
 HCF of 147 and 189  2nd number = = 125
100
147 ) 189 ( 1
Hence, numbers are 100 and 125.
147
× 42 ) 147 ( 3 22. LCM of 6, 9 and 12
126 = 36 and largest 3-digit number = 999
× 21 ) 42 ( 2  HCF of 36 and 999
42 36 ) 999 ( 27
× 72
 The required largest number is 21. 279
252
19. Let the numbers be x and y.
27
 x + y = 216 = 27 × 8
 Largest three-digit number completely
Since HCF of these two numbers is 27, hence,
divisible by 6, 9 and 12
common factor of these two numbers is 27.
Therefore these numbers will be of the form of = 999 – 27 = 972
27 × 1, 27 × 2, 27 × 3, ... etc. Since 3 is left as remainder in each case,
According to the condition of the problem sum  Required largest number of 3-digit
of these numbers is 216. = 972 + 3 = 975.
The numbers will be 23. 33 – 3 = 30, 64 – 4 = 60 and 80 – 5 = 75
27 × 3 = 81 Now, HCF of 30, 60 and 75:
and 27 × 5 = 135 30 = 2 × 3 × 5
20. LCM of the two numbers = 45 × HCF 60 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
and LCM + HCF = 1150 75 = 3 × 5 × 5
 45 × HCF + HCF = 1150  Common factor = 3 × 5 = 15
 HCF(45 + 1) = 1150  Required largest number = 15.
 47

24. Let the numbers be x, 2x and 3x respectively. 28. This question is based on finding HCF by
Here, HCF of the three numbers is 12, therefore continued division method. Now according to
12 is the largest common factor of these three the condition of the problem,
numbers. Thus, it is clear that x = 12 Last divisor = 49
 These num bers are 12, 24 and 36 and Last quotient = 2
respectively.  dividend = 49 × 2 = 98
25. LCM of 2, 3, 4 and 5= 60 Now, divisor = 98 and quotient = 3
Largest 4-digit number = 9999 and remainder = 49
Now, 60 ) 9999 ( 166  dividend = 98 × 3 + 49 = 343
60 Now, divisor = 343
399 quotient = 17
360 and remainder = 98
× 399  Dividend = 343 × 17 + 98 = 5929
360 Therefore, these numbers are 343 and 5929.
39 12
 Largest 4-digit number completely divisible 29. A, B and C will take 4 hours, hours and
7
by 2, 3, 4 and 5
12
= 9999 – 39 = 9960 hours respectively in completing one round
13
 Required number = 9960
on the circular path.
26. LCM of 15, 20 and 24
4 12 12
5 15, 20, 24  LCM of , and
1 7 13
4 3, 4, 24
3 3, 1, 6 LCM of 4,12 and 12
=
1, 1, 2 HCF of 1, 7 and 13
LCM = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 = 120  LCM of 4, 12 and 12
 12 minutes = 12 × 60 = 720 seconds = 12 and HCF of 1, 7 and 13 = 1
 Number of times the bells will ring together 12
720  Required LCM = = 12
during 12 minutes = = 6 times. 1
120 Hence, they will meet together again after 12
27. LCM of 5, 6, 8, 9 and 12 = 360. Hence, the hrs.
smallest number which when divided by 5, 6, 30. Numbers Their divisors
8, 9 and 12 leaves 1 as remainder in each case 182  1, 2, 7, 13, 14, 26, 91 and 182
will be 360 + 1 = 361. 176  1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 22, 44, 88 and 176
But 361 is not completely divisible by 13. 101  1 and 101
Hence, on considering 360 × 2 + 1, 360 × 3 +
1,... , 360 × n + 1, we conclude that 360 × 10 99  1, 3, 9, 11, 33 and 99
+ 1 = 3601 is the required number. Therefore, 176 has the most number of divisors.

  
 48

8 Mensuration

AREA & PERIMETER Isosceles Triangle

In this part of mensuration we often have to deal Two sides are equal in lengths.
with the problem of finding the areas and perimeters b
1. Area = 4a 2  b 2
of plane figures. 4
where, a = lengths of equal sides
Triangle
b = length of unequal side
1. Perimeter = 3 × side (Equilateral triangle) 2. In an isosceles right triangle,
1 (a) Hypotenuse =
2. Area =  base  height , or 2  congruent side (a)
2
a fa fa f
Area = s s  a s  b s  c
1
(b) Area =  a
2
2

where a, b, c, are the lengths of the sides of

abc
(c) Perimeter = 2 a d i
2 1
triangle and s =
2 Rectangle
Right Angled Triangle 1. Area = length(l) × breadth(b)
It is one whose one of the angles is right angle, 2. Perimeter = 2(l + b)
i.e., 90°. 3. Diagonal = l2  b2
1. (Hypotenuse)2 = (Perpendicular)2 + (Base)2
1
Square
2. Area =  Base  Perpendicular 1. Area = (Side)2
2
2. Perimeter = 4 × side
Equilateral Triangle
3. Diagonal = side  2
All three sides are equal in length and all three angles
are equal to 60°. Parallelogram
1. Area = a f
4
3
 Side 2 In parallelogram opposite sides are parallel and equal.
The two diagonals are not always equal but they

2. Area =
b g Height
2 bisect each other at the point of intersection.
Area = Base × Height.
3
3 Trapezium
3. Height =  side
2 It is a quadrilateral whose one pair of opposite sides
4. Perimeter = 3 × side is parallel. Other two opposite sides are oblique.
48
 49 (2125) Math—7

Area =
1
2
b
 Height  Sum of parallel sides . g 3. Sum of Exterior angles = 360°
4. Perimeter = Number of sides × Length of
Here, height is the distance between the two side.
parallel sides. 5. For an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’ (a)
Rhombus a
radius of inscribed circle =
2 3
It is parallelogram whose all sides are equal and
and side of the triangle = 2 3r , (b) radius
diagonals are bisect each other at right angle.
a
1 of circumcircle =
1. Area =  Product of diagonals 3
2
Fd I Fd I
2 2
6. Area of regular polygon =
1
b
No. of sides g
H 2K H 2K
1 2
2. Side = , where d1 and d2 2
(Radius of the inscribed circle)
are diagonals
7. Area of regular hexagon
3. Perimeter = 4 × side

Quadrilateral
=
3 3
2
a f
side 2 = 2.598 (side)2
8. Area of a regular octagon
1
Area =
2
 One diagonal  (Sum of perpendicular
= 2 d ia f
2  1 side 2
= 4.828 (side)2
to it from the opposite vertices) 9. Area of quadrilateral,
1
= d ab
2
a f A = a fa fa fa f
s sa sb sc sd
abcd
Circle where, s =
2
1. Diameter = 2 × Radius
VOLUME AND SURFACE AREA
 2
2. Area = r2 = d ; In mensuration we often have to deal with the
4
problem of finding the volume of solid figure.
4A
where d = diameter =
 Cuboid
3. Circumference = 2r = d
A cuboid has six faces, each one a ractangle. It has
Circumference Area 12 edges. For example, a rectangular brick.
4. Radius = =
2 

5. Length of an Arc =  2 r
360
 1
6. Area of sector =  r 2 =  Arc  r
360 2
Polygon Let Length = l, Breadth = b and Height = h, then,
1. Volume = (Length × Breadth × Height)
1. Interior angle + Exterior angle = 180°
F 2n  4 I  90
2. Each interior angle = H
2. Whole Surface Area = 2(lb + bh + lh)

n K 3. Diagonal = l 2  b2  h 2
where n = number of sides 4. Area of 4 walls of a room = 2 × h (l + b)
 50 (2125) Math—7-II

Cube Semi-sphere
In a cube, Length = Breadth = Height 2 3
1. Volume = r
1. Volume = (l)3 3
2. Curved surface area = 2r2
2. Length = 3
Volume 3. Total surface area = 3r2
3. Whole Surface Area = 6 l2
Cone
4. Diagonal = l  3
5. Lateral Surface Area = 4 l2

Cylinder
1. Volume = r2h
2. Curved Surface Area = 2rh
3. Total Surface Area = 2r(r + h) 1. Slant height (l) = r 2  h2
where r = radius, h = height 1 2
2. Volume = r h
3
Spherical Cell
3. Curved surface area = rl

1. Volume =
4
3
d
 R3  r3 i 4. Total surface area = r (l + r)
5. If the depth of the frustum of a cone be k
2. Total Surface Area = 4(R2 – r2) and the radii of its ends are r1 and r2, then
where, R = Outer radius, (i) Slant height of the frustum of a cone
r = Inner radius
= b
k 2  r1  r2 g 2

Sphere (ii) Curved surface of the frustum

4 3 = (r1 + r2) l.
1. Volume = r
3
2. Surface Area = 4r2 (iii) Volume =
k 2
3
e
r1  r1r2  r22 j
ultiple Choice Questions
1. A rectangle measures 50 cm × 25 cm. Its area is 4. Area of a circle is 154 sq. cm. Its circumference
A. 1150 sq. cm. B. 1250 sq. cm. will be
C. 1275 sq. cm. D. 1280 sq. cm. A. 44 cm B. 48 cm
2. A field is in the form of a square whose C. 54 cm D. 68 cm
perimeter is 580 m. Area of this field is 5. The base and the height of a triangle is 8 cm
A. 21025 sq. m. B. 20225 sq. m. and 10 cm respectively. Its area will be
C. 30025 sq. m. D. 19975 sq. m. A. 40 sq. cm. B. 20 sq. cm.
3. Find the area of the square whose each side C. 49 sq. cm. D. 64 sq. cm.
measures 20 cm. 6. If it is given that the parallel sides of a
A. 300 sq. cm. B. 380 sq. cm. trapezium are 15 m and 25 m while the distance
C. 360 sq. cm. D. 400 sq. m. between them is 10 m. Its area will be:
 51

A. 150 sq. m. B. 225 sq. m. 15. The radii of two circles are 5 cm and 12 cm
C. 200 sq. m. D. 270 sq. m. respectively. Find the radius of a circle which
7. Perimeter of a rectangular field is 760 m and is equal in area to these two circles.
its length and breadth are in the ratio 11 : 8. A. 15 cm B. 13 cm
C. 10 cm D. 8 cm
Area of this rectangular field is
A. 35200 sq. m. 16. If the circumference of a circle is equal to the
B. 34700 sq. m. perimeter of a square, then their areas are in
C. 35600 sq. m. the ratio of
D. 45200 sq. m. A. 14 : 11 B. 7 : 8
C. 14 : 13 D. 13 : 11
8. If side of a square is reduced by 50%, its area
will be reduced by 17. Three sides of a triangle are in the ratio of
A. 50% B. 75% 17 : 15 : 8. If the perimeter of this triangle is
C. 80% D. 60% 40 m, find its area
A. 50 sq. m. B. 49 sq. m.
9. If area of a square is equal to the area of a
C. 60 sq. m. D. 69 sq. m.
rectangle 6.4 m long and 2.5 m wide, then
each side of this square measures 18. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20%
A. 8 m B. 5.4 m and width is decreased by 15%, then its area
C. 3.8 m D. 4 m A. decreases by 4% B. increases by 2%
C. decreases by 2% D. increases by 3%
10. If perimeter of a right angled triangle is six
times its smallest side, then the three sides of 19. Find the perimeter of a rhombus whose
this triangle are in the ratio of diagonals measure 16 cm and 12 cm.
A. 13 : 5 : 12 B. 13 : 12 : 5 A. 38 cm B. 40 cm
C. 12 : 5 : 13 D. 13 : 5 : 10 C. 41 cm D. 46 cm
11. The perimeter of a square is 24 m and that of 20. If the difference between the circumference and
another is 32 m. Find the perimeter of a third the radius of a circle is 37 cm, find its diameter.
square, area of which is equal to sum of the A. 11 cm B. 12 cm
areas of these two squares C. 16 cm D. 14 cm
A. 40 m B. 51 m 21. A solid in the form of a cuboid is 4 cm × 3 cm
C. 37 m D. 42 m × 2 cm. Its volume will be
12. If each side of a square is doubled, its area will A. 20 cu cm B. 22 cu cm
become C. 28 cu cm D. 24 cu cm
A. double B. four times 22. A reservoir is 3 m long, 2 m wide and 1 m
C. three times D. eight times deep. Its capacity in litres is
13. The difference between the areas of two squares A. 8000 litres B. 10000 litres
is 225 sq. metres and each side of the bigger C. 6500 litres D. 6000 litres
square is 25 metres. The side of the smaller 23. Surface area of a cube is 1014 sq. cm. Its
square is volume will be
A. 18 m B. 21 m A. 2197 cu cm B. 2297 cu cm
C. 20 m D. 22 m C. 2179 cu cm D. 2117 cu cm
14. If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 72 24. If the volumes of two cubical blocks are in the
cm, its area will be ratio of 8 : 1, what will be the ratio of their
A. 144 3 sq. cm B. 142 3 sq. cm edges?
A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 1
C. 154 2 sq. cm. D. 144 2 sq. cm. C. 4 : 1 D. 2 : 3
 52

25. Two spheres have their surface areas in the 33. Diameter of a roller is 2.4 m and it is 1.68 m
ratio 9 : 16. Their volumes are in the ratio of long. If it takes 1000 complete revolutions once
A. 64 : 27 B. 27 : 64 over to level a field, the area of the field is
C. 16 : 27 D. 11 : 27 A. 12672 sq. m B. 12671 sq. m
C. 12762 sq. m D. 11768 sq. m
26. The length of the longest rod that can be placed
in a room 12 m long, 9 m broad and 8 m high 34. If each edge of a cube is increased by 10%,
is then by how much per cent will the surface
A. 17 m (b) 18 m area of this cube be increased?
C. 25 m D. 16 m A. 21% B. 18%
C. 15% D. 20%
27. The radius and the height of a right circular
cone are in the ratio of 3 : 5. If its volume is 35. Height and base radius of a solid cylinder are
120p cu m, its slant height is 14 m and 4 m respectively. It is melted and
recast into a solid cone of the same base radius
A. 3 34mm B. 2 28mm as that of the cylinder, what will be the height
of the cone?
C. 2 44mm D. 2 34mm
A. 21 m B. 42 m
28. Circumference of the base of a cylinder is 88 C. 48 m D. 54 m
cm and height of the cylinder is 42 cm. Its 36. A room is in the form of a cube of side 10 m.
volume is How many bales of cotton can be kept in it if
A. 25872 cu cm each bale covers 5 cu m space?
B. 28572 cu cm A. 100 B. 175
C. 25870 cu cm C. 200 D. 225
D. 22584 cu cm
37. Three cubes having side 2 cm, 3 cm and 4 cm
29. If two cubes each of 10 cm side are kept close respectively are melted together to form a new
to each other, then the cuboid so formed will cube. The side of the new cube will be
have surface area equal to A. 3.526 cm B. 4.628 cm
A. 1200 sq. cm B. 5000 sq. cm C. 4.626 cm D. 4.528 cm
C. 1000 sq. cm D. 1250 sq. cm
38. If base diameter of a cylinder is increased by
30. A rectangular piece of paper is 30 cm long and 50%, then by how much per cent its height
20 cm wide. How many ways can be adopted must be decreased so as to keep its volume
if one wants to give this rectangular piece of unaltered?
paper a cylindrical form? A. 45.56% B. 55.56%
A. Three B. Two C. 50.16% D. 62.33%
C. One D. Four 39. The surface area of a cube is 600 sq. m. Its
31. In the above question, the cylinders formed diagonal is
will have their volumes in the ratio of A. 10 3 cm B. 5 3 cm
A. 2 : 3 B. 3 : 1
C. 3 : 2 D. 1 : 3 C. 4 2 cm D. 10 2 cm
32. If a solid sphere of 3 cm radius is melted and 40. The base diameter of a conical tomb is 28 m
recast into a right circular cone whose base and its slant height is 50 m. Find the cost of
radius is same as that of the sphere, the height white washing its curved surface at the rate of
of the cone will be 80 paise per sq. m?
A. 8 cm B. 12 cm A. ` 1860 B. ` 1760
C. 6 cm D. 5 cm C. ` 1950 D. ` 1875
 53

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A D A A C A B D B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B C A B A C B B D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D D A B B A D A C B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C B A A B C C B A B

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. Area of the rectangle  Length of the field = 11 × 20 = 220 m
= l × b = 50 × 25 = 1250 sq. cm Breadth of the field = 8 × 20 = 160 m
2. Here, 4 × side = 580  Area of the field = 220 × 160
580 = 35200 sq. m.
 side = = 145 m 2
8. Area of the square = x sq. m.
4
 Area = (side)2 = (145)2 Side of the new square
= 21025 sq. m. x
= x – 50% of x = m
3. Area of the square = (side)2 2
= (20)2 = 400 sq. cm.  Area of the new square
4. Area of the circle = r2
F xI 2
x2
 r2 = 154 = H 2K 4
=
sq. m.
154  7
 r2 =  r = 7 cm  Reduction in area of the square
22
 Circumference of the circle x2 3x 2
= x2  = sq. m.
22 4 4
= 2r = 2   7 = 44 cm.
7  Percentage reduction
1
5. Area of the triangle =  8  10 = 40 sq. cm. 3x 2 4
2 =  100 = 75%
6. Area of the trapezium x2
1
a f
=  15  25  10 = 200 sq. m.
2
9. Area of the rectangle = 6.4 × 2.5 = 16.00 sq.m.
Side of the square = 16 = 4  4 = 4 m.
7. Suppose length and breadth of the rectangular
10. Suppose, the three sides of the triangle are a,
field are 11x m and 8x m.
b and c and a is the largest while c is the
 Perimeter of the field smallest side of the triangle.
= 2(11x + 8x) Now, (a + b + c) = c × 6
= 2 × 19x = 38x m.  a + b = 5c
Now, 38x = 760 Again, a 2 – b 2 = c2
760  (a + b) (a – b) = c2
x = = 20
38  5c (a – b) = c2
 54

c 16. Here, 2R = 4x

 a– b = [ a + b = 5c]
5 2x
c  R=
Now,a + b = 5c, a – b = 
5
FG
1 5c  c  13cIJ  Ratio between the areas of the circle and the
square = R2 : x2
Since, a= H K
2
FG
5 5
IJ F 2x I
=  × G J :x
2
2 4x2 2 22
and b=
1 5c  c  12c
2 H 5 K
5
H pK 

:x = 4 :
7
= 14 : 11

17. Suppose sides of the triangle are 17x m, 15x m

13c 12c and 8x metres
Hence, a : b : c = : :c
5 5  Perimeter = 17x + 15x + 8x = 40x
= 13 : 12 : 5. Now, 40x = 40
24  x= 1m
11. Side of the 1st square = = 6m
4 Therefore, the sides are 17 × 1 = 17 m,
32 15 × 1 = 15 m and 8 × 1 = 8 m
And side of the 2nd square = =8 m
4  (17)2 = (15)2 + (8)2,
Now, area of the third square i.e., it is a right angled triangle
= 62 + 82 = 36 + 64 = 100 sq. m.  Area of the right angled triangle
 Side of the third square = 100 = 10 m 1
Hence, Perimeter of the third square =  8  15  60 sq.m.
2
= 4 × side = 4 × 10 = 40 m. 18. Area of the rectangle = xy sq. metre
12. Area of the square = x2 sq. m 120 85
Area of the new rectangle = x y
Now, area of the new square 100 100
= (2x)2 = 4x2 sq. m = 1.020 xy sq. metre
Hence, it is clear that if side of a square is  Increase in the area
doubled, its area becomes four times. = 1.02 xy – xy = .02 xy sq. m.
13. Area of smaller square,  Percentage increase
x2 = 252 – 225 = 625 – 225 = 400 .02 xy
=  100 = 2%.
 x = 400 = 20 m xy
 Side of the smaller square = 20 m. 19. Side of rhombus
14. Here, 3x = 72 F 16 I  F 12 I
2 2

 x=
72
= 24 cm.
= H 2K H 2K = 82  6 2 = 100
3 = 10 cm.
 Area of the equilateral triangle
 Perimeter of the rhombus
=
4
3
 x2 =
4
3
a f
 24 2 = 4 × side = 4 × 10 = 40 cm.
20. Here, 2R – R = 37
= 144 3 sq. cm. F 22 I
15. Area of the new circle  H
R 2
7
 1 = 37
K
= .52 + .122  R(44 – 7) = 37 × 7
= 25 + 144 = 169 sq. cm.  R × 37 = 37 × 7
= (13)2 sq. cm  R = 7 cm
Hence, it is clear that the radius of the new Hence, diameter of the circle
circle will be 13 cm. = 2R = 2 × 7 = 14 cm.
 55

21. Volume of the cuboid 1 2

= l × b × h = 4 × 3 × 2 = 24 cu. cm. Now,   9 x  5 x = 120
3
22. Volume of the reservoir 120  3
= l × b × h = 3 × 2 × 1 = 6 cu. m  x3 =
95
( 1 cu m = 1000 litre)  x3 = 8
 Capacity of the reservoir  x3 = (2)3
= 6 × 1000 = 6000 litre.  x=2 m
23. Here, 6 × (side)2 = 1014  The radius and the height of the cone will
1014 be 3 × 2 = 6 m and 5 × 2 = 10 m respectively.
 (side)2 == 169
6  Slant height of the cone
 side = 169 = 13 cm
Hence, Volume of the cube
= r 2  h2  b6g  b10g
2 2

= (side)3 = (13)3 = 36  100  136  2 34m.

= 2197 cu cm. 28. Here, 2r = 88
24. Here, a13 : a23 = 8 : 1
88 88  7
FG a IJ 3
FG 2 IJ 3  r= 
2 2  22
= 14 cm

H 1K
1

Ha K
2
=  a1: a2 = 2 : 1 Since, volume of the cylinder
Therefore, ratio of their edges = 2 : 1. = r2h =
22
7
b g 2
 14  42
25. Here, 4 r12 :4 r22 = 22 × 2 × 14 × 42
= 9 : 16  r12 : r22 = 9 : 16 = 25872 cu cm.
29. Here, length of the cuboid = Edge of the first
FG r IJ  FG 3 IJ
2 2
cube + Edge of the second cube
H r K H 4K
1
   r1 : r2 = 3 : 4
2 = 10 + 10 = 20 cm
 Surface area of the cuboid
r13 27
 =  r13 : r23 = 27 : 64. = 2(20 × 10 + 10 × 10 + 10 × 20)
r23 64 = 2(200 + 100 + 200)
Therefore, ratio of their volumes = 2 × 500 = 1000 sq. cm.
4 3 4 3 3 3 30. Obviously, two ways can be adopted if one
= r1 : r2  r1 : r2 = 27 : 64
3 3 wants to give the rectangular piece of paper a
26. The longest rod that can be placed in the cylindrical form, i.e.,
cuboidal room = Length of the diagonal 1. When the paper is bent towards its length.
In this case, the circumference of the base
= l 2  b2  h 2  b12g  b9g  b8g
2 2 2
of the cylinder will be equal to the length of
the rectangular piece of paper and the height
= 144  81  64  289 = 17 m of the cylinder will be equal to the breadth
27. Suppose the base radius and the height of the of the rectangular piece of paper.
right circular cone are 3x m and 5x m 2. When the paper is bent towards its breadth.
respectively. In this case, the circumference of the base
 Volume of the cone of the cylinder will be equal to the breadth
of the rectangular piece of paper and the
=
1 2
3
1
 r h   3x
3
b g 2
 5 x cu m
height of the cylinder will be equal to the
length of the rectangular piece of paper.
 56

31. In the first case:  Height = 14 × 3 = 42 m

2r = 30 Thus, height of the cone = 42 m.
15 36. Volume of the cubical room
r= cm and h = 20 cm
 = (10)3 = 1000 cu m
2
 Volume (V1) = r h Number of cotton bales which can be placed in
15  15  20 4500 the room
=  cu cm
  Volume of the room 1000
In the second case : =  = 200.
Volume of each cotton bale 5
2r = 20
37. Volume of the new cube
10 = 23 + 33 + 43 = 8 + 27 + 64 = 99cu cm
 r= cm and h = 30 cm

 Side of the new cube = 3
 Volume (V2) = r h 2 99 = 4.626 cm.
10  10  30 3000 38. Change in the volume of the cylinder

=
 
cu cm
F x  y  bzg  xy  y bzg  bzxg  xy bzgI %
Hence, ratio of the two volumes = GH 100 100 K
J 2
4500 3000 Since volume of the cylinder remains
= V1 : V2 = : = 3:2
  unchanged.
32. Volume of the cone = Volume of the sphere  Change = 0%
Now,

1
3
bg2
 3 h =
4
3
  3 3  h = 12 cm F 50  50  bzg  50  50  50z  50z  50  50  bzgI  0
GH JK
100 2
100
Hence, height of the cone = 12 cm.
 100 – z + 25 – z – .25z = 0
33. Surface area of the roller = 2rh
125
22  2.25z = 125  z = = 55.56
= 2  12
.  168
. = 12.672 sq. m 2.25
7
 Height of the cylinder should be decreased
In one complete revolution, the roller covers
by 55.56%.
= 12.672 sq. m.
39. Here,6 × (side)2 = 600
 It will cover in 1000 revolutions
 side2 = 100
= 12.672 × 1000 = 12672 sq. m
Hence, area of the field = 12672 sq. m.  side =
100 = 10 cm
34. Percentage increase in the surface area of the  Diagonal of the cube
cube
F
= GH x  y 
xy I
J F
% = G 10  10 
10  10 I
J%
= 3  side  3  10  10 3 cm.

100 K H 100 K
40. Area of the curved surface of the cone

= 21%. 22 28
=   50 = 2200 sq. m.
35. Here, volume of the cone = Volume of the 7 2
cylinder  Cost of white washing at 80 paise per sq. m
1 2 80
  r  height = r2 × 14 = 2200  = ` 1760.
3 100
  
2007
1 (2125) Reasoning—1
2
 3

1 Analogies

Word Analogy Number Analogy

In Analogy Tests the relationship between two given In number analogy also, the relationship between
words is established and then applied to the other the given numbers is detected and then applied to
words. the second part to find the missing numbers. This
relationship between the numbers can be based on
The type of relationship may vary, so while
any of the following patterns:
attempting such questions the first step is to identify
(i) numbers can be odd/even/prime numbers;
the type of relationship, which is generally any one
(ii) numbers can be multiple of one number;
of the following.
(iii) numbers can be squares/cubes of different
Letter Analogy numbers;
(iv) some numbers can be added to/subtracted
In this type of analogy the relationship between two
from/multiplied to/divided into the first
given set of letters is established and then applied to
number to get the second number;
the other set to obtain the required set of letters as
(v) the second number can be the sum/product/
the answer.
difference of the digits of first number; and
These letters can be moved some steps backward (vi) combinations of any mathem atical
or forward; reversed in whole or in sections or have calculations given above can apply to the
some common identity between each other. relationship between the two given numbers.

ultiple Choice Questions

Directions(1-15): In each of the following questions 4. Carbon : Diamond :: Corundum : ?
find out the alternative which will replace the A. Garnet B. Ruby
question mark. C. Graphite D. Pearl
1. Peacock : India :: Bear : ? 5. Eye : Myopia :: Teeth : ?
A. Australia B. America A. pyrrhoea B. Cataract
C. Russia D. China C. Trachoma D. Eczema
2. Flow : River :: Stagnant : ? 6. Conference : Chairman :: Newspaper : ?
A. Rain B. Stream A. Reporter B. Distributor
C. Pool D. Sea C. Reader D. Editor
3. Architect : Building :: Sculptor : ? 7. Safe : Secure :: Protect : ?
A. Museum B. Stone A. Lock B. Sure
C. Wall D. Statue C. Guard D. Conserve
3
 4

8. College : Student :: Hospital : ? 19. Leash is to Pet as Handcuffs is to …..

A. Nurse B. Doctor A. Cunning B. Dacoits
C. Medicines D. Patient C. Criminals D. Robbers
9. South : North-West :: West : ? 20. Ride is to Horse as Smoke is to …..
A. North B. South-West A. Chimney B. Sparkling
C. North-East D. East-South C. Pipe D. Ashes
10. Poles : Magnet :: ? : Battery 21. Guilt is to Past as Hope is to …..
A. Cells B. Power A. Present B. Future
C. Terminals D. Energy C. Today D. Despair
Directions (11-15): Each of the following questions 22. Stars are to Night as Sun is to…..
has a group. Find out which one of the given A. Noon B. Dawn
alternatives will be another member of the group or C. Day D. Light
of that class. 23. ….. is to Nose as Skin is to Touch
11. Lucknow, Patna, Bhopal, Jaipur A. Smell B. Face
A. Shimla B. Mysore C. Breath D. Perfume
C. Nagpur D. Indore
24. War is to ….. as Smoke is to pollution.
12. Volleyball, Hockey, Football A. Alliance B. Peace
A. Aquatics B. Baseball C. Victory D. Destruction
C. Athletics D. Chess
25. Treatment is to ….. as Education is to Teacher
13. Mars, Earth, Jupiter A. Doctor B. Matron
A. Planets B. Cosmos C. Hospital D. Clinic
C. Orbits D. Sun
26. Train is to Track as Bullet is to ……
14. ‘Reading’ is related to ‘knowledge’ in the same A. Barrel B. Kill
way as ‘Work’ is related to: C. Firing D. Ammunition
A. Money B. Employment
C. Experience D. Goal 27. Psychology is to Emotions as Philosophy is to
…..
15. ‘Dress’ is related to ‘Body’ in the same way A. Knowledge B. Scholar
as ‘Bangles’ is related to: C. Research D. Wisdom
A. Bride B. Lady
C. Wrist D. Beauty 28. Mermaid is to Fish as Centaur is to …..
A. Pegasus B. Unicorn
Directions ( 16 to 30): In the questions given below C. Deer D. Horse
establish the relationship between the two words.
Then from the given options select one which has 29. Punishment is to Imprisonment as Reward is
the same relationship as of the given two words. to …..
A. Prize B. Remand
16. Mania is to Craze as Phobia is to…..
C. Money D. Rebuke
A. Desires B. Hobbies
C. Want D. Fear 30. Star is to ….. as Drop is to Ocean.
A. Sky B. Shine
17. Stammering is to Speech as Deafness is to …..
C. Earth D. Twinkle
A. Ear B. Hearing
C. Noise D. Silence Directions (31 to 40) : In the questions given below
18. Secretive is to Open as Snide is to ….. one term is missing. Based on the relationship of
A. Forthright B. Hidden the two given words find the missing term from the
C. Outcome D. Forward given options.
 5

31. GFC : CFG : : RPJ : ? follows the same relationship as shared between the
A. JRP B. JPR first two numbers.
C. PJR D. RJP 41. 1 : 11 : : 2 : ?
32. BCF : DEG : : MNQ : ? A. 20 B. 22
A. OPR B. PQS C. 24 D. 44
C. OPP D. QRT 42. 18 : 27 : : 22 : ?
33. NATION : ANITNO : : HUNGRY : ? A. 42 B. 39
A. HNUGRY B. UNHGYR C. 33 D. 54
C. YRNGUH D. UHGNYR 43. 14 : 20 : : 16 : ?
34. SSTU : MMNO : : AABC : ? A. 23 B. 10
A. GGHH B. IJKK C. 48 D. 32
C. XXYZ D. NOOP 44. 8 : 27 : : 64 : ?
35. BaBy : TaTa : : LiLy : ? A. 277 B. 125
A. PooL B. ROse C. 250 D. 99
C. HaNd D. DoWN 45. 0.16 : 0.0016 : : 1.02 : ?
36. AEI : LPT : : CGK : ? A. 10.20 B. 0.102
A. OSV B. RUY C. 0.0102 D. 1.020
C. TXC D. FJN 46. 23 : 53 : : 7 : ?
37. BCDE : WVUT : : QRST : ? A. 66 B. 57
A. EFHG B. JIHG C. 27 D. 19
C. POML D. GEDC 47. 11 : 35 : : 17 : ?
38. DIMO : DMIO : : JUVR : ? A. 3 B. 22
A. JVRU B. JRVU C. 58 D. 10
C. JVUR D. JUVR 48. 65 : 30 : : 44 : ?
39. SUW : RST : : DFH : ? A. 79 B. 62
A. DEF B. FGH C. 28 D. 16
C. CDE D. GHI 49. 731 : 902 : : 655 : ?
40. CHJR : RHJC : : TARD : ? A. 646 B. 800
A. DART B. ATRD C. 793 D. 556
C. DRAT D. ARDT 50. 411 : 441 : : 755 : ?
Directions (41 to 50): In the following questions, A. 705 B. 775
select the number from the given options which C. 635 D. 665

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C D B A D C D C C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B A C C D B A C C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C A D A A D D C A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B A D C C D B C C A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B C A B C D A D A B
 6

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. As Peacock is the national bird of India, 17. Defect in speech causes stammering and in
similarly Bear is the national animal of hearing causes deafness.
Russia. 18. The related words are antonyms.
2. As Water of a River flows similarly water of 19. Leash is used to tie a pet, handcuffs to tie
Pool is Stagnant. criminals.
3. As ‘Architect’ makes ‘Building’ similarly 20. Horse is the object of action ‘to ride’ and pipe
‘Sculptor’ makes ‘Statue’. is the object of action ‘to smoke’.
4. As Diamond is made of Carbon similarly Ruby 21. Feeling of guilt comes with mistakes in past
is made of Corundum. and that of hope for a good future.
5. As Myopia is disease of eye similarly 22. Stars are visible during the night and sun during
pyorrhoea is a disease of teeth. day.
6. As Chairman is the highest authority in a 23. Sense organ skin senses the touch and nose
conference similarly Editor is in Newspaper. senses smell.
7. Related words are synonyms. 24. Smoke causes pollution and war causes
8. As Students read in College similarly Patients destruction.
are treated in Hospital.
25. Education is sought by the teacher and
9. As North-West is 135o clockwise from South treatment by doctor.
in the same were North-East is 135o clockwise
26. Track is the path of train, barrel is of
from the West.
bullet.
27. Psychology is the study of emotions as
philosophy is of wisdom.
28. Mermaid is a mythological fish and centaur a
mythological horse.
29. Imprisonment is the form of punishment,
money a kind of reward.
10. As magnet has poles similarly battery has
terminals. 30. A single drop is a very tiny part in an ocean
so is a star in the sky.
11. All the cities given in the question are state
capitals similarly Shimla is also a capital. 31. The letters of the first group are reversed
12. Baseball is like volleyball, Hockey and
Football.
13. All these are planets.
14. As ‘Knowledge’ is achieved by ‘Reading’ in 32. The three letters are moved 2, 2 and 1 steps
the same way ‘Experience’ is achieved by forward respectively.
‘Work’.
15. As ‘Dress’ is worn on ‘Body’ similarly
‘Bangles’ are worn on ‘Wrist’.
16. The related words are synonyms.
 7

33. The word is divided in sections of two letters

and the letters are reversed.

43. The relationship between the numbers is :

34. The first letter in each group is repeated and

followed by two consecutive letters.
35. In each group the alternate letters are capitals.
44. The numbers are cubes of different numbers
36. In each group the letters jump three letters
between them, i.e., they are moving to the
fourth letter.

45. The decimals are divided by 100.

37. The consecutive letters in the first set are in
natural order and in the second set, they are in
reverse order.
46. All the numbers are prime numbers.
38. Only the middle letters are reversed to obtain
the second set of letters. 47. All the numbers are odd numbers.
48. The second number is the product of digits of
first number
39. The first letter in the first set of letters has its 65 : 30 :: 44 : 16
consecutive letters on either side in the second 6× 5 4× 4
set.
49. The sum of the digits of both the numbers is
same.
40. Only the places of first and last letters are 731 : 902  7 + 3 + 1 = 9 + 0 + 2
interchanged. i.e. 11 = 11
655 : 646  6 + 5 + 5 = 6 + 4 + 6
i.e. 16 = 16
41. The first number is repeated to obtain the 50. In the first number the second digit is repeated
second number. and in the second number the first digit is
repeated.
42. In the given set, the numbers are multiples of
9 and in the second set, multiples of 11. 411 : 441 :: 755 : 775

  
 8

2 Relationship Concepts

While attempting questions on blood relations, one should be clear of all the relation patterns that can exist
between any two individuals. These type of questions are given mainly to test one’s relationship ability.
Very well known relations are :
Mother Grandmother
Father Grandfather
Son Grandson
Daughter Granddaughter
Brother Brother-in-law
Sister Sister-in-law
Niece Father-in-law
Nephew Mother-in-law
Uncle Son-in-law
Aunt Daughter-in-law
Husband Cousin
Wife
The patterns of some relationships which help in solving questions in these tests are :
Father’s or Mother’s Father — Grandfather (Paternal or Maternal)
Father’s or Mother’s Mother — Grandmother (Paternal or Maternal
Father’s or Mother’s Son — Brother
Father’s or Mother’s Daughter — Sister
Father’s Brother — Paternal Uncle
Father’s Sister — Paternal Aunt
Mother’s Brother — Maternal Uncle
Mother’s Sister — Maternal Aunt
Uncle or Aunt’s Son or Daughter — Cousin
Son’s Wife — Daughter-in-law
Daughter’s Husband — Son-in-law
Husband’s or Wife’s Brother — Brother-in-law
Husband’s or Wife’s Sister — Sister-in-law
Brother’s Wife — Sister-in-law
Sister’s Husband — Brother-in-law
Brother’s Son — Nephew
Brother’s Daughter — Niece
8
 9 (2125) Reasoning—2

ultiple Choice Questions

1. Amit said, ‘‘This girl is the wife of the 9. Pushpa told Rinku, ‘‘The girl I met yesterday
grandson of my mother’’. Who is Amit to the at the beach was the youngest daughter of the
girl? brother-in-law of my friend’s mother’’. How
A. Father B. Grandfather is the girl related to Pushpa’s friend?
C. Husband D. Father-in-law A. Cousin B. Daughter
C. Niece D. Friend
2. Showing the man receiving the prize, Seema
said, ‘‘He is the brother of my uncle’s 10. Prakash told Prabhat, Yesterday I defeated the
daughter’’. Who is the man to Seema? only brother of the daughter of m y
A. Son B. Brother-in-law grandmother. Whom did Prakash defeat?
C. Nephew D. Cousin A. Son B. Father
C. Brother D. Grandfather
3. Introducing a girl, Vipin said, ‘‘Her mother is Directions (11–16) : Read the following information
the only daughter of my mother-in-law’’. How carefully and answer the questions given below.
is Vipin related to the girl? A family consists of six members A, B, C, D, E, F.
A. Uncle B. Husband B is the son of C but C is not the member of B. A
C. Brother D. Father and C are a married couple. E is the brother of C.
4. Pointing to an old man, Kailash said, ‘‘His D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of A.
son is my son’s uncle’’. How is the old man 11. Who is the brother-in-law of C?
related to Kailash? A. A B. F
A. Brother B. Uncle C. E D. D
C. Father D. Grandfather 12. Who is the father of B?
5. Pointing to the lady on the platform, Ranju A. A
said, ‘‘She is the sister of the father of my B. F
mother’s son. Who is the lady of Ranju? C. C
A. Mother B. Sister D. Can’t be determined
C. Aunt D. Niece 13. How many children does A have?
A. Four B. Three
6. While walking with his friend, Suresh meets
C. Two D. One
another man whose mother is the wife of
Suresh’s father’s only son. How is the man 14. How many female members are there in the
related to Suresh? family?
A. Son B. Nephew A. One B. Two
C. Cousin D. Uncle C. Three D. Four
7. If A is the brother of the son of B’s son, how 15. How is B related to D?
is A related to B? A. Uncle B. Brother
A. Son B. Brother C. Father D. Husband
C. Cousin D. Grandson 16. Which is a pair of brothers?
A. C and E B. B and D
8. Pointing to a photograph, a person tells his
C. A and F D. A and D
friend, ‘‘She is the granddaughter of the elder
brother of my father’’. How is the girl in the 17. A and B both are children of C. If C is the
photograph related to this man? mother of A, A is the son of C but B is not
A. Niece B. Sister the daughter of C. How are A and B mutually
C. Aunt D. Sister-in-law related?
 10

A. A is the brother of B. 24. Which of the following are two married

B. A is the sister of B. couples?
C. A is the cousin of B. A. OM, KN B. OM, KJ
D. A is the nephew of B. C. NM, LO D. OM, LJ
18. J is the brother of K and L. M is L’s mother. 25. Which of the following is definitely a group
N is J’s Father. Which of the following of male members?
statements cannot be definitely true? A. KO B. KON
A. N is K’s fathers. C. KOJ D. ON
B. M is J’ mothers.
26. In A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A ÷
C. J is M’s son.
B means ‘A is the father of B’ and A × B
D. K is N’s son.
means ‘A is the sister of B’. Which of the
19. A woman walking with a boy meets another following means ‘M’ is the uncle of ‘P’?
woman and on being asked about her A. M ÷ N × P B. N × P ÷ M
relationship with the boy. She says, ‘‘My C. M + S ÷ R + P D. M + K ÷ T × P
maternal uncle and his maternal uncle’s
meternal uncle are brothers.’’ How is the boy 27. If A + B means A is the son of B; A – B
related to the woman? means A is the husband of B; A × B means
A. Nephew B. Son A is the sister of B, then which of the
C. Grandson D. Husband following shows the relation Q is the maternal
uncle of P?
20. A party consists of grandmother, father, A. P + B – R × Q B. P – B + R × Q
mother, four sons and their wives and one
C. P + B × R – Q D. P × B – R + Q
son and two daughters to each of the sons.
How many females are there in all? 28. If P + Q means P is the brother of Q; P × Q
A. 14 B. 16 means P is the mother of Q; and P ÷ Q means
C. 18 D. 24 P is the sister of Q, which of the following
Directions (21–25) : Read the following information would means R is the uncle of S?
carefully and answer the questions below. A. R × P + S B. R × S + P
A family consists of six members J, K, L, M, N and C. R + P × S D. R  P + S
O. There are two married couples. K is a doctor Directions (29–35) : Read the following information
and the father of N. O is the grandfather of L and carefully and answer the questions that follow.
is a contractor. M is grandfather of N and is A + B means A is the father of B, A – B means A
housewife. There is one doctor, one contractor, one is the wife of B, A × B means A is the brother of
nurse, one housewife and two students in the family. B, A ÷ B means A is the daughter of B.
21. Who is the husband of J? 29. If P – R × Q, which of the following is true?
A. L B. O A. P is the sister of Q.
C. K D. M B. Q is the husband of P.
22. Who is the sister of N? C. P is the sister-in-law of Q.
A. L D. Q is the son of P.
B. O 30. If P × R + Q, which of the following is true?
C. N A. P is the uncle of Q.
D. Information insufficient
B. P is the father of Q.
23. What is the profession of J? C. P is brother-in-law of Q.
A. Doctor B. Nurse D. P is grandfather of Q.
C. Doctor or Nurse D. Housewife
 11

31. If P ÷ R + Q, which of the following is true? 38. P + Q means P is the brother of Q. P – Q

A. P is the father of Q. means P is the mother of Q and P × Q means
B. P is the brother of Q. P is the sister of Q. Which of the following
C. P is the mother of Q. means that M is the maternal-uncle of R?
D. P is the sister of Q. A. M – R + K
32. If P + R ÷ Q, which of the following is true? B. M + K – R
A. P is the brother of Q. C. M + K × Q
B. P is the son of Q. D. There is no such symbol
C. P is the husband of Q. 39. If S × T means S is brother of T, S + T means
D. P is the father of Q. S is the father of T. Which of the following
33. If P × R – Q, which of the following is true? shows ‘O’ is the cousin of R?
A. P is brother-in-law of Q. A. R × T + O B. R + T × O
B. P is the brother of Q. C. R × O × T D. None of these
C. P is the the uncle of Q. 40. Q’s mother is the sister of R and daughter of
D. P is the father of Q S, N is the daughter of R and sister of M.
34. If P × R ÷ Q, which of the following How M is related to S?
statements is true? A. Son B. Son’s son
A. P is the uncle of Q. C. Brother D. Data inadequate
B. P is the father of Q.
41. Pointing to a gentleman Deepak said. ‘‘ His
C. P is the brother of Q.
only brother is the father of my daughter’s
D. P is the son of Q.
father.’’ How is the gentleman related to
35. If P ÷ R + S + Q, which of the following Deepak?
statement is true? A. Father B. Grandfather
A. P is the daughter of Q. C. Brother-in-law D. Uncle
B. Q is the aunt of P.
C. P is the aunt of Q. 42. Pushpa said to her friend, ‘‘Yesterday I
D. P is the mother of Q. attended the birthday party of the son of the
only son-in-law of my brother’s fathers.’’ How
36. A × B means A is the sister of B, A ÷ B is Puspha related to the man, whose birthday
means A is the daughter of B, A – B means party she attended?
A is the son of B. On the basis of this
A. Niece B. Daughter
information you have to tell, how is P related
C. Sister D. Mother
to S in the relationship P – Q × R ÷ S.
A. Brother 43. Pointing towards a man in the photograph.
B. Son Ranjana said, ‘‘He is the son of the only son
C. Grandson of my grandfather.’’ How is the man related
D. Daughter’s son to Ranjana?
A. Cousin B. Nephew
37. If ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’,
C. Brother D. Son
‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’, ‘P × Q’
means P is the brother of Q. P ÷ Q means P 44. Pointing to Rajan in the photograph. Aditi
is the father of Q. Which of the following said, ‘‘The only son of his mother is my
means M is the maternal-uncle of R? father.’’ How is Aditi related to Rajan?
A. M × T – R A. Mother’s sister
B. M ÷ T × R B. Bua (Father’s sister)
C. M + T ÷ K – R C. Daughter
D. M ÷ N + J D. Niece
 12

45. Pointing towards a woman in the photograph, C. Data inadequate

Suresh said, ‘‘The only daughter of her grand- D. Grandmother’s mother
father is my wife.’’ How is Suresh related to 48. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a main
that woman? said to a woman, ‘‘His mother is the only
A. Uncle (Fufa) B. Maternal uncle daughter of your father.’’ How is the woman
C. Father D. Brother related to the man in the photograph?
46. A is the brother of B, C is the brother of A. A. Sister B. Mother
To establish a relationship between B and C, C. Wife D. Daughter
which of the follow ing information is 49. Prakash said to Amit, ‘‘That boy in blue shirt
required? is younger of the two brothers of the daughter
(I) Sex of C (II) Sex of B of my father’s wife.’’ How is the boy in blue
A. Only (I) is required shirt related to Prakash?
B. Only (II) is required A. Father B. Nephew
C. Both (I) and (II) are required
C. Brother D. Uncle
D. Neither (I) nor (II) is required
47. The son of M is the father of N and grand- 50. If P $ Q means P is the father of Q, P # Q
father (Mother’s father) of R. S is the daughter means P is the mother of Q, P * Q means P
of N and sister of B. On the basis of this is the sister of Q. Then how is Q related to N
information how is M related to B? in N # L $ P * Q?
A. Grandfather A. Grandson B. Granddaughter
B. Grandmother C. Nephew D. Data inadequate

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D D D C C A D A A B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C C B B A A D B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A B B A D A C C A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D C A D B D A B D D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D C C C A B C B C D

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. Mother’s grandson – Son; Son’s wife daughter- 4. Kailash’s son’s Uncle – Kailash’s brother; Old
in-law. man’s son is Kailash’s brother. So, old man is
2. Brother of uncle’s daughter – Uncle’s son – Kailash’s father.
Cousin; Man is Seema’s Cousin. 5. Mother’s son – brother; My brother’s father
3. Only daughter of mother-in-law. Wife; Girl’s my father; my father’s sister – aunt. So, the
mother is Vipin’s wife. lady is Ranju’s aunt.
 13

6. Suresh’s father’s only son – Suresh, Suresh’s two daughters of all sons are eight females.
wife is the mother of his son. So, the man is So, in all there are 1 + 1 + 4 + 8 = 14 females.
Suresh’s son.
21. The husband of J will be K.
7. Son of B’s son – B’s grandson; brother of B’s
22. Clearly, L and N are children of same parents.
grandson – B’s grandson.
So, L will be the sister of N.
8. Brother of father – Uncle; Uncle’s grand
daughter – daughter of uncle’s son – daughter 23. J is the nurse.
of cousin-niece. 24. The two married couples are K, J and O, M.
9. Daughter of brother-in-law is niece. Mother’s 25. Clearly, for definite the males are K, the father
niece – Cousin. So, the girl is the cousin of and O, the grandfather.
Pushpa’s friend.
26. Analysing and testing we find that option
10. Daughter of grandmother – aunt; Aunt’s only M + K ÷ T × P shows the required relationship
brother – father. as explained below.
11. C is the husband of A and F is the brother of (i) T × P means T is the sister of P.
A. So, F is the brother-in-law of C. (ii) K ÷ T means K is the father of T. Hence,
12. C is the father of B. from information (i) K is also the father
of P.
13. Clearly, B is the son of A and D is the daughter
(iii) M + K means M is the brother of K.
of A. So, A has two children.
Therefore using information (ii) we find
14. There are two females only – mother A and that M is the uncle of P.
daughter D.
27. Q is the maternal uncle of P means P is the
15. D is the sister of B who is a male. So, B is son of the sister of B i.e. P is the son of the
brother of D. husband (say B) of the sister (say R) of B i.e.
16. Clearly, E is brother of C who is a male. So, P + B – R × Q.
E and C are a pair of brothers.
28. Clearly, R is the uncle of S means R is the
17. B is the child of C but not daughter means B brother of the mother (say P) of S i.e.
is the son of C. Also, A is the son of C. So, R + P × S.
A is the brother of B.
29. P – R × Q means P is the wife of R who is
18. J, K, L are children of same parents. So, M the brother of Q i.e. P is the sister-in-law of
who is L’s mother and N, who is J’s father Q.
will be mother and father of all three.
However, it is not mentioned whether K is 30. P × R + Q means P is the brother of R who
male or female. So, (D) cannot be definitely is the father of Q i.e. P is the uncle of Q.
true. 31. P ÷ R + Q means P is the daughter of R who
19. Boy’s maternal uncle will be brother of boy’s is the father of Q i.e. P is the sister of Q.
mother. Maternal uncle of mother’s brother 32. P + R ÷ Q means P is the father of R who is
and maternal uncle of lady are brother means the daughter of Q i.e. P is the father of R and
lady is sister to mother’s brothers i.e. lady is Q is the mother of R i.e. P is the husband
the mother of the boy. So, the boy is woman’s of Q.
son.
33. P × R – Q means P is the brother of R who
20. Grandmother is one female, mother is another, is the wife of Q i.e. P is the brother-in-law of
wives of four sons are the four females and Q.
 14

34. P × R ÷ Q means P is the brother of R who brother of Pushpa. Therefore, Pushpa attended
is the daughter of Q i.e. P is the son of Q. the birthday party of her brother.
35. P ÷ R + S + Q means P is the daughter of R 43. The only son of Ranjana’s grandfather means
who is the father of S who is the father of Q Ranjana’s father and his son is Ranjana’s
i.e. P is the sister of S who is the father of Q brother. Hence, the man is related as brother
i.e. P is the brother-in-law of Q. of Ranjana.
36. P – Q × R ÷ S, on the basis of the information 44. The only son of Rajan’s mother is the Rajan
given in the question, R is the daughter of S, himself and Aditi says that he is her father.
Q is the sister of R. Hence Q is also daughter Therefore, Aditi is related as daughter of
of S and P is the son of Q. Hence, P is the son Raman.
of Q, who is daughter of S. Therefore, P is 45. It is clear from the information given in the
related as daughter’s son of S. question that Suresh is the husband of
37. ‘T – R’ means T is the mother of R, woman’s father’s sister. Hence, option (A) is
‘M × T’ means M is the brother of T. Hence, the correct answer.
M is the maternal uncle of R. 46. From the information, it is clear that C is the
38. ‘K – R’ means K is the mother of R. brother of B but how B is related to C depends
‘M + K’ means M is the brother of K. Hence on the sex of B. Hence, to establish the
on combining both the information, we get relationship between B and C, sex of B should
that M is the maternal uncle of R. be known.

39. Testing every options for the relationship given 47. From the information given in the question,
in the question, we find that none of the the sex of M is not determined, hence, none
options shows relationship that O is cousin of of the options is a definite answer.
R. 48. From the information given in the question it
40. From the information given in the question, it is clear that the only daughter of the woman’s
is clear that S is the mother of R (who’s sex father is the woman herself, and hence the
is not known). N is the daughter of R and man in the photograph is her son. Therefore,
sister of M (whose sex is not known). Hence the woman is the mother of the man in the
on the basis of information we conclude that photograph.
M may be male or female hence may be son 49. The daughter of Prakash’s father’s wife is the
or daughter of (R) son or daughter of S. Hence sister of Prakash and brother of the daughter
data are not adequate. is the brother of Prakash. Hence, the boy in
41. Father of Deepak’s daughter’s is daughter’s blue shirt is the brother of the Prakash.
father is the father of Deepak and brother of 50. In the above question, the sex of Q is not
father is the uncle. Hence, gentleman is related given, hence exact relationship between N and
as brother of Deepak. Q cannot be established. In other words, we
42. Only son-in-law of mother of Pushpa’s mother can say that data are not adequate to answer
is the father of Puspha and his son is the the question.

  
 15

3 Figure Odd One Out

Classification means arranging the given content in

groups or classes having qualities of same kind. In
2.
classification type questions, the figures or items
are sorted out in groups on the basis of their A B C D E
similarities in qualities in shapes, size, pattern, Answer E : Figure A is a man, B is an animal,
structure, genus, order, species, grade, style, C is an insect, D is a tree and E is a triangle. There
constituents and other specifications, and thus the is a common characteristic in four of the five figures.
answer is found out. Figures A, B, C and D (man, animal, insect and
Classification of this type does not have two tree) are of the living beings. Figure E is a triangle
sets of figures known as Problem Figures and is not a living being. Therefore, figure E does not
Answer Figures; instead they have only one set of belong to that class.
four or five figures known as Problem Figures.
One of these Problem Figures is not like the 3.
other four figures.
In other words, three or four of the Answer
A B C D E
Figures belong to a class while one which is the odd Answer D : Figures A, B, C and E are made of
figures, does not belong to it. 5 straight lines, while D has only four straight lines.
Solved Examples Thus A, B, C and E have a common characteristic
(they have 5 straight lines each), but D does not
have this characteristic. Therefore, D is different from
the other four figures.
1.

A B C D E 4.
Answer A : A is a circle, whereas B, C, D and
E are straight lines pointing to different directions. A B C D E
Note that the common characteristic in each of the Answer D : Figures A, B, C and E are made up
four figures B, C, D and E is that they are straight of three straight lines as against D which is made up
lines. of only one straight line and a curve.
Thus, they belong to a class. As against these Thus figures A, B, C and E have some common
figures, A is a circle and does not belong to that characteristics. Figure D is different and does not
class. possess the common characteristics.
Therefore, the figure that does not belong to Now solve the following questions on the basis
the class is A. of what has been explained above.

15
 16

ultiple Choice Questions

Directions : In each of the following questions one
of the figures is different from the rest. Spot the
10.
figure.
A B C D
1.
11.
A B C D
A B C D
2.
12.
A B C D
A B C D
3.
13.
A B C D
A B C D
4.
14.
A B C D
A B C D

5.
15.
A B C D
A B C D

6.
16.
A B C D
A B C D

7. 17.
A B C D A B C D

8. 18.

A B C D A B C D

9.
19.
A B C D
A B C D
 17 (2125) Reasoning—3

20. 30.

A B C D A B C D

21. 31.

A B C D A B C D

22. 32.

A B C D A B C D

23. 33.

A B C D A B C D

24. 34.

A B C D A B C D

25. 35.

A B C D A B C D

26. 36.

A B C D A B C D

27. 37.

A B C D A B C D

28. 38.

A B C D A B C D

29. 39.

A B C D
A B C D
 18 (2125) Reasoning—3-II

40. 45.

A B C D
A B C D

46.
41.
A B C D
A B C D
47.
42.
A B C D
A B C D
48.
43.
A B C D
49.
A B C D
A B C D

44. 50.
A B C D A B C D

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C C D C B C A D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D D A D D D D C B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A D B C A A D C A D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D D D D B C A A C B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D C A C D B C B A C

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. In all other figures the line with a circle and 3. All other figures are divided into four parts.
the two line segments are on opposite sides of 4. Only in this figure the middle and the centre
the square. shapes are opposite to each other.
2. In all other figures the two line segments are drawn 5. All other figures can be rotated into each other.
on same side from the corners of same line. In In this figure the line segment is on the wrong
this figure they are drawn on opposite sides. side.
 19

6. Only this figure has identical design on the 29. In all other figures the cuts are identical along
corners of the bent line. the two sides of the square.
7. In all other figures the middle and the centre 30. In all other figures the direction of the arrow is
designs are identical. anticlockwise.
8. Only this figure has odd number of line 31. In all other figures the lines inside the shapes
segments. are straight. Only in this figure they are oblique.
9. Only this figure has two different shapes 32. Only in this figure both ends of the design are
divided into equal parts. drawn further.
10. Only this figure has two identical shapes 33. In all other figures the two identical shapes are
(circles). overlapping each other.
11. Only this figure is made of odd number of 34. Only this figure has two different shapes.
lines. 35. In all other figures the dot is in the corner.
12. All other figures are divided into four parts. Only in this figure it is in the middle.
13. Only in this figure the circles are on the same 36. In all other figures the dot and the cross are in
side of the line. diagonally opposite sections of the shape.
14. Only in this figure the arrow is not crossing 37. Only in this figure all the sections are equal.
the side of the square. 38. In all other figures the quadrant inside the circle
15. Only in this figure the lines outside the design is complete.
as well as inside are evenly placed. 39. All other figures are divided into three parts.
16. In all other figures the bisecting lines are at 40. In all other figures the shade and the curved
right angle to each other. lines are in diagonally opposite corner of the
17. Only this whole figure is made of all curved shape.
lines. 41. All other figures have three common elements.
18. All other figures are made of six straight lines. 42. In all other figures a dot and a plus sign are in
19. All other figures can be rotated into each other. opposite sections.
20. In all other figures the two shapes are identical. 43. In all other figures the area inside the triangle
21. Except lines in fig A, fig B, C and D contain is shaded.
atleast a pair do parallel lines. 44. In all other figures the two shapes are made of
22. Only this figure has two parts and is made of equal number of lines.
five straight lines. 45. Only this figure has four identical and one
23. In all other figures only one-fourth section is different element. In all other figures there are
shaded. three identical and one different element.
24. In all other figures the two arrows are at right 46. In all other figures the shape in the centre is
angle to each other. not touching the middle shape.
25. In all other figures the lower side is shaded. 47. In all other figures the design is made of even
26. All other figures are symmetrical from the joint. number of lines.
27. In all other figures the larger and the smaller 48. All other figures can be rotated into each other.
shapes are same designs. 49. All other figures are divided into six parts.
28. In all other figures all the four sections of the 50. Only in this figure one of the designs is
square bear the same pattern. incomplete.
  
 20

4 Direction Sense

In these type of tests, the directions in questions needs to be perceived. Such questions are based on the
direction chart.

The sense of the different directions are guided by the left and right turns or angular turns.

ultiple Choice Questions

1. Lakshman went 15 kms to the west from my 4. Ramakant walks northwards. After a while, he
house, then turned left and walked 20 kms. He turns to his right and a little further to his left.
then turned east and walked 25 kms and finally Finally, after walking a distance of one km, he
turning left covered 20 kms. How far was he turns to his left again. In which direction is he
from his house? moving now?
A. 5 kms B. 10 kms A. North B. South
C. 40 kms D. 80 kms C. East D. West
5. Varun travelled 7 kms eastward, then turned
2. Going 50 m to the south of her house, Radhika
left and travelled 5 kms. Next, he turned left
turns left and goes another 20 m. Then, turning
and travelled 7 kms. How far was he from the
to the North, she goes 30 m and then starts starting point?
walking to her house. In which direction is she A. 19 kms B. 12 kms
walking now? C. 7 kms D. 5 kms
A. North-West B. North
6. Deepak starts walking straight towards east.
C. South-East D. East
After walking 75 metres, he turns to the left
3. Keshav goes 30 metres North, then turns right and walks 25 metres straight. Again he turns to
and walks 40 metres, then again turns right the left and walks a distance of 25 metres. How
and walks 20 metres, then again turns right far is he from the starting point?
and walks 40 metres. How many metres is he A. 140 metres B. 50 metres
from his original position? C. 115 metres D. None of these
A. 0 B. 10 7. Gaurav walks 20 metres towards North. He then
C. 20 D. 40 turns left and walks 40 metres. He again turns
20
 21

left and walks 20 metres. Further, he moves 20 14. Preeti wants to go the market. She starts from
metres after turning to the right. How far is he her home which is in the North and comes to
from his original position? the crossing. The road to her left ends in a
A. 20 metres B. 30 metres park and straight ahead is the office complex.
C. 50 metres D. 60 metres In which direction is the market?
8. A girl leaves from her home. She first walks A. East B. West
30 metres in North-West direction and then 30 C. North D. South
metres in South-West direction. Next, she walks 15. If A is to the south of B and C is to the east
30 metres in the South-East direction. Finally, of B, in what direction is A with respect to C?
she turns towards her house. In which direction A. North-East B. North-West
is she moving? C. South-East D. South-West
A. North-East B. North-West
16. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing
C. South-East D. South-west
in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between
9. Rekha who is facing South turns to her left E and D; F is to the left of D. Who is between
and walks 15 metres, then she turns to her left A and F?
and walks 7 metres, then facing West she walks A. B B. C
15 metres. How far is she from her original C. D D. E
position? 17. There are four towns P, Q, R and T. Q is to the
A. 22 metres B. 37 metres South-West of P, R is to the East of Q and
C. 44 metres D. 7 metres South-East of P, and T is to the north of R in
10. The door of Aditya’s house faces the East. From line with QP. In which direction of P is T
the backside of the house, he walks straight 50 located?
metres, then turns to the right and walks 50 A. South-East B. North
metres again. Finally, he turns towards left and C. North-East D. East
stops after walking 25 metres. Now, Aditya is 18. The post office is to the East of the school
in which direction from the starting point? while my house is to the South of the school.
A. South-East B. North-East The market is to the North of the post office.
C. South-West D. North-West If the distance of the market from the post office
11. Madhuri wants to go the university. She starts is equal to the distance of my house from the
from her home which is in the east and comes school, in which direction is the market with
to a crossing. The road to her left ends in a respect to my school?
theatre, straight ahead is the hospital. In which A. North B. East
direction is the university? C. North-East D. South-West
A. East B. West 19. One morning after sunrise, Vikram and Shailesh
C. North D. South were standing in a lawn with their backs
12. A, B, C and D are playing cards. A and B are towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell
partners. D faces towards North. If A faces exactly towards left hand side. Which direction
towards West, then who faces towards South? was Shailesh facing?
A. C B. B A. East B. West
C. D D. Data inadequate C. North D. South
13. A watch reads 4.30. If the minute hand points 20. The town of Paranda is located on Green Lake.
East, in what direction will the hour hand point? The town of Akram is West of Paranda.
A. North B. North-West Tokhada is East of Akram but West of Paranda.
C. South-East D. North-East Kakran is East of Bopri but West of Tokhada
 22

and Akram. If they are all in the same district, 27. A is to the South-East of C, B is to the East of
which town is the farthest West? C and North-East of A. If D is to the North of
A. Paranda B. Kakran A and North-West of B, in which direction of
C. Akram D. Bopri C is D located?
A. North-West B. South-West
21. A rat runs 20' towards East and turns to right,
C. North-East D. South-East
runs 10' and turns to right run 9' and again
turns to left, runs 5' and then turns to left, runs 28. Facing towards South, Ram started walking and
12' and finally turns to left and runs 6'. Now, turned left after walking 30 metres, he walked
which direction is the rat facing? 25 metres and turned left and walked 30 metres.
A. East B. North How far is he from his starting position and in
C. West D. South which direction?
A. At the starting point only
22. Vijayan started walking towards South. After B. 25 metres West
walking 15 metres, he turned to the left and C. 25 metres East
walked 15 metres. He again turned to his left D. 30 metres East
and walked 15 metres. How far is he from his
29. Shehnaz wants to go to the market. She starts
original position and in which direction?
from her home which is in North and comes to
A. 15 metres, North B. 15 metres, South the crossing. The road to her left ends in a
C. 30 metres, East D. None of these park and straight ahead is the office complex.
23. Rahim started from point X and walked straight In which direction is the market?
5 km. West, then turned left and walked straight A. East B. West
2 km. and again turned left and walked straight C. North D. South
7 km. In which direction is he from the point 30. Anoop starts walking towards South. After
X? walking 15 metres he turns towards North. After
A. North-East B. South-West walking 20 metres, he turns towards East and
C. South-East D. North-West walks 10 metres. He then turns towards South
24. Ravi travelled 4 kms. straight towards South. and walks 5 metres. How far is he from his
He turned left and travelled 6 kms. straight, original position and in which direction?
then turned right and travelled 4 kms. straight. A. 10 metres, North B. 10 metres, South
How far is he from the starting point? C. 10 metres, West D. 10 metres, East
A. 8 kms B. 10 kms 31. Rama Travels a distance of 5 km. from a place.
C. 12 kms D. None of these A towards North, turns left and walks 3 km.,
again turns right and walks 3 km. Finally turns
25. B is the South-West of A, C is to the East of
right & walks 3 km. to reach the place B. What
B and South-East of A and D is to the North
is the distance between A and B?
of C in line with B and A. In which direction
A. 7 km. B. 13 km.
of A is D located?
C. 2 km. D. 10 km.
A. North B. East
C. South-East D. North-East 32. M. A goes for her morning walk at 6 O’clock
towards sun for 2 km., then she turns to her
26. A man walks 30 metres towards South. Then right and walks 3 km. She again turns to her
turning to his right he walks 30 metres. Then left and walks 2 km., finally she turns to her
turning to his left he walks 20 metres. Again left to walk another 6 km. In which direction
turning to his left he walks 30 metres. How far is she moving and at what distance from the
is he from his starting position? last turn, she is standing?
A. 30 metres B. 20 metres A. 6 km. East B. 9 km. East
C. 80 metres D. None of these C. 6 km. North D. 9 km. North
 23

33. A walks 10 metres towards East and then 10 A. South B. North

metres to his right. Then every time turning to C. East D. West
his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 metres 37. Dilip walks 20 metres North. Then he turns
respectively. How far is he now from his right and walks 30 metres. Now he turns right
starting point? and walks 35 metres. Now turning left, he walks
A. South-East B. North-East 15 metres. Again, he turns left and moves 15
C. North D. North-West metres. Finally turning left he again walks 15
34. Starting from a point, a person walked 12 metres. In which direction and how far is he
metres North, he turned right and walked 10 from his original position?
metres, he again turned right and walked 12 A. 15 metres East B. 45 metres East
metres, then he turned left and walked 5 metres. C. 15 metres West D. 45 metres West
How far is he now and in which direction from 38. Reshma was going to her house from school.
the starting point? She first moves 8 km Southwards and then
A. 10 metres towards West turning to her left moved 7 km. Then, turning
B. 15 metres towards East to her left walked 8 km. further. Again, she
C. 10 metres towards East turned to her left and moved 6 km. and reached
D. 5 metres towards West her house. In which direction was her house
35. A man starts from his house and walks 10 km from her school?
in South direction, then he turns right and goes A. North-West B. East
6 km, again he turns right and goes 10 km and C. South D. North
finally turns right and goes 6 km. At what 39. Vijaya started walking towards South and after
distance is he from the starting point and in walking 15 metres he turned to the left and
which direction? walked 15 metres. He again turned to his left
A. 2 km. North and walked 15 metres. How far is he from his
B. 3 km. South original position and in which direction?
C. At the starting point A. 15 metres, North B. 15 metres, South
D. 4 km. East C. 30 metres, West D. None of these
36. Ramesh started walking towards east and after 40. Raman starts walking towards West. After
walking 20 metres, turned to my left and walked walking 10 metres, he turns towards North.
15 metres. Then, Ramesh turned to my left and After walking 20 metres, he turns towards East
walked 20 metres. Again Ramesh turned to his and walks 10 metres. How far is he from his
left and walked 15 metres. Now, Ramesh original position and in which direction?
walking in which direction with respect to A. 20 metres, North B. 10 metres, North
starting point? C. 10 metres, South D. 20 metres, South

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A B D D D D A D D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A D B D C C C D D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B D C D D D C C B D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A C A B C A B B D A
 24

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. The movement of Lakshman are as shown in 4. The movement of Ramakant are as shown in
fig. 1 fig. 4.
15 km E D
B A E
25 km

20 km
1 km

B
C 25 km D
Fig. 1 C

Lakshman’s distance from his house at

A = AE = (BE – AB)
A
= (CD – AB) Fig. 4
= (25 – 15) km = 10 km.
2. The movement of Radhika are as shown in Clearly, he is now walking in the direction DE
fig. 2. i.e. West.
Thus, she is now moving in the direction DA 5. The movement of Varun are as shown in
i.e. North-West. fig. 5.
A 7 km
D C

5
D

k
m
m
0
5

3
0
m

A 7 km B

B C Fig. 5
20 m
Fig. 2 Varun’s distance from the starting point A =
3. The movement of Keshav are as shown in fig.3. AD = BC = 5 km.
(A to B, B to C, C to D, D to E) Keshav’s 6. The movement of Deepak are as shown in
distance from his original position A. fig. 6.
= AE = (AB – BE) = (AB – CD) D C
= (30 – 20) m = 10 m. 40 m
B C
m

40 m
5

5
2

2
m

A
0

0
3

E B
75 m
Fig. 6
E D
40 m
Clearly, EB = DC = 40 m.
A
Deepak’s distance from the starting point
Fig. 3 A = (AB – EB) = (75 – 40) m = 35 m.
 25 (2125) Reasoning—4

7. The movement of Gourav are as shown in 10. The movements of Aditya are as shown in
fig. 7. fig. 10.
C B 25 m
D C
40 m
20 m

20 m
50 m
E
D A
20 m 40 m
Fig. 7

Clearly, Gaurav’s distance from his initial

B 50 m A
position A = AE = (AD + DE)
Fig. 10
= (BC + DE) = 60 m.
8. The movement of the girl are as shown in Since his house faces towards East and he
fig. 8. walks from the backside of his house, he will
N start walking towards West. Now, Aditya’s
B
final position is D which is to the North-West
W E
of his starting point A.
m

30

11. Starting from her house in the East Madhuri

30

S moves West. Then, the theatre, which is to the

left, will be in the South. The hospital, which
C A is straight ahead, will be to the west. So, the
University will be to the North.
N University
30
m

W
D
Fig. 8 E

Hospital
Clearly, She is now moving in the direction House

DA i.e. North-East.
9. The movements of Rekha are as shown in S
fig. 9. Theatre
D 15 m C
Fig. 11

12. As per the data, D faces North. A faces towards

7m
West. So, its partner B will face towards A and
hence towards East. So, C who will face D
will face South.
13. Clearly, to show 4.30, the position of the minute
A 15 m B and hour hands of the clock will be as shown.
Fig. 9 So, again as shown, if the minute hand points
Rekha’s distance from the starting point A East, the hour hand will point in the North-
= AD = BC = 7 m. East.
 26

14. Preeti’s house is North means she is walking 18. Clearly, the positions of various places are
towards South. So the park, which is to her office = distance of house from school = x as
left, will be in the East. The office, which is shown. Distance of market from post. So,
straight ahead will be in the South. So, the direciton of the market from the school is
market will be in the west. North-East.
House N Market
NE N

W E
Market Park
School Post Office
x

Office
S
S
15. Clearly comparing the direction of A w.r.t. C House

in the second diagram with that in the first 19. Since Vikram’s shadow fell towards left,
diagram, A will be South-West of C. therefore, Vikram is facing North. So, Shailesh
N B C standing with his back towards Vikram, will
be facing South.
W E 20. The directions East and West are as shown.
So, the town of Akram (A) is West of Paranda
SW (P) means A, P. Tokhada (T) is East of Akram
S A but West of Paranda means A, T, P. Kakran
16. B is between F and C means FBC. F is to the (K) is East of Bopri (B) but West of Tokhada
left of D (in circle) means DF. A is between E and Akram means B, K, A, T. Combining all
and D means EAD. Combining these, the the arrangements, we have B, K, A, T, P. So,
circular arrangement is as shown. So, D is farthest West is Bopri.
between A and F. 21. A and B are the starting and finishing positions
F B
respectively of the rat. It is clear that B is facing
North directon.
20'
D A

x
10' B
E 9'
A C
5' 6'
17. Clearly, the arrangement according to the given
directions is as shown. So, comparing with 12'

direction diagram, T is North-East of P. 22. Vijayan finally reaches a point which is 15 m

T
N from the starting point and is in East direction.
A B

P
15 m 15 m
SE

SW

Q E R
15 m
 27

23. Y represents the finishing point of Rahim and 27. D is located to the North-East of C.
D
it is to the South-East of point X.
5 km
X

2 km
C B
Y
7 km

24. B is the finishing point is 10 km. from the

point A. The Aerial distance of A from B is 20 A

km. Calculated as below 28. Finishing point B is at a distance of 25 m. East

(AB)2 = (AD)2 + (DB)2 to the starting point A.
A B
= (8)2 + (6)2
= 64 + 36 = 100
 AB = 10 km. 30 m 30 m
A

4 km
25 m

29. Market is in the West direction to the crossing.

6 km Home

4 km

Crossing
B Market Park

25. D, which is to the North of C, is located to the

North-East of A.
D
Office

30. Anoop starts his journey from point A and

finishes his journey at point B. It can be seen
A
that point B is at a distance of 10 m. from
point A and East direction.
10 m

B C 5m 5m

26. Point B is the finishing point and is located at A B

a distance of 50 metres from point A.
A 15 m

31. B is the finishing point and is at a distance of

30 m
7 km. from the starting point A.
B
3 km
2 km

30 m
3 km
20 m
5 km
B
30 m
A
 28

32. Final position B is at a distance of 6 km. 37. Dilip’s distance from his original positions
towards North from the last turn. AF = BC + DE
B
= 30 + 15 = 45
A Also ‘F’ lies to East of ‘A’.
2 km 30 m
6 km B C
3 km
20 m 35 m
Final Point
F
A
Starting Point 15 m
2 km
D E
15 m
33. Q is the finishing point and is 5 metres away
from the starting point P. 38. The movement of Reshma are shown in the
15 m
figure. Clearly, Reshma’s house is to the East
Q
of her school.
School
P
10 m 15 m 6 km
House
10 m
8 km 8 km

5m

34. Person is at a distance of 15 metres and towards 7 km

East from the starting point.
39. Hence, Vijaya is 15 metres East from the
10 m starting points.
12 m 12 m A D
Starting Point Terminal Point

B
A 15 m 15 m
5m

35. Clearly the man reached at the starting point.

S
B C
6 km 15 m

40. Raman’s distance from the starting point A

10 km 10 km
= AD = BC = 20 metres, North.
C 10 m D
Final
Point

6 km
20 m
20 m
36.
15 m Starting
Point
B A
10 m
15 m 15 m
North

S
West East
20 m

South South

  
 29

5 Figure Series Completion

In this form of non-verbal series, which are the most One has to try different set of moves, changes,
common, four or five consecutive problem figures replacements, rotations, repetitions and a lot more
form a definite sequence and one is required to select variations to arrive at the logical pattern making the
the one figure from the given set of Answer Figures series. Practising alone will sharpen one’s skill of
that will continue the same sequence. solving such sequences.

ultiple Choice Questions

Direction : Each of the following questions consist Answer Figures
of problem figures followed by answer figures. Select
a figure from amongst the answer figures which will
continue the same series or pattern as established by
the problem figures. A B C D
1. Problem Figures 4. Problem Figures

Answer Figures
Answer Figures

A B C D
5. Problem Figures
A B C D
2. Problem Figures
Answer Figures

Answer Figures
A B C D
6. Problem Figures

A B C D
3. Problem Figures Answer Figures

A B C D
29
 30

7. Problem Figures 12. Problem Figures

Answer Figures Answer Figures

A B C D A B C D
8. Problem Figures 13. Problem Figures

Answer Figures
Answer Figures

A B C D
A B C D E 14. Problem Figures
9. Problem Figures

Answer Figures
Answer Figures

A B C D
A B C D 15. Problem Figures
10. Problem Figures

Answer Figures
Answer Figures

A B C D E
A B C D
11. Problem Figures 16. Problem Figures

Answer Figures Answer Figures

A B C D A B C D E
 31

17. Problem Figures Answer Figures

Answer Figures A B C D
22. Problem Figures

A B C D
18. Problem Figures Answer Figures

Answer Figures A B C D
23. Problem Figures

A B C D
Answer Figures
19. Problem Figures

Answer Figures A B C D
24. Problem Figures

A B C D
20. Problem Figures Answer Figures

A B C D E
Answer Figures 25. Problem Figures

A B C D Answer Figures
21. Problem Figures

A B C D E
 32

26. Problem Figures Answer Figures

Answer Figures A B C D E
31. Problem Figures

A B C D E
27. Problem Figures Answer Figures

Answer Figures A B C D E
32. Problem Figures

A B C D E
28. Problem Figures Answer Figures

Answer Figures A B C D E
33. Problem Figures

A B C D E
29. Problem Figures Answer Figures

Answer Figures A B C D E
34. Problem Figures

A B C D E
30. Problem Figures Answer Figures

A B C D E
 33 (2125) Reasoning—5

35. Problem Figures 40. Problem Figures

Answer Figures
Answer Figures

A B C D E
36. Problem Figures A B C D E
41. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

Answer Figures
A B C D E
37. Problem Figures

A B C D E
42. Problem Figures
Answer Figures

Answer Figures
A B C D E
38. Problem Figures

A B C D E
43. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

Answer Figures
A B C D E
39. Problem Figures
A B C D E
44. Problem Figures
Answer Figures

A B C D E
 34 (2125) Reasoning—5-II

Answer Figures Answer Figures

A B C D E
A B C D E 48. Problem Figures
45. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

Answer Figures

A B C D E
49. Problem Figures
A B C D E
46. Problem Figures
Answer Figures

Answer Figures
A B C D E
50. Problem Figures

A B C D E
47. Problem Figures
Answer Figures

A B C D E

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D D D A A D B C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A D C D E A D D C A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B D D C A E D C A C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
E B E E A D A D E B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
E B A B C D D A D D
 35

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. Clockwise, the circle is turned by 30° and also 15. The places of the triangle and pentagon are
one radial line segment is removed. exchanged at each step and also they are
2. The diagonal line segments are removed one inverted. The number of sides of the outer
by one in a set order. figure is reduced by one at each step.

3. The ‘V’ shape on the top left is rotated 90° 16. In alternate figures the places of opposite
anticlockwise. The three figures at the bottom elements are interchanged.
are shaded one at a time beginning from the 17. The triangle is rotated 90° clockwise at each
right figure and moving to the left. step. The parallel ‘V’ lines are turned upside
4. The circle and the dot are moved two and three down at each step and increased by one in
sections clockwise respectively. alternate figures.
18. The triangle is moved diagonally to and fro
5. The cross is turned 90° clockwise at each
and the circle one step anticlockwise to get the
step.
next figure.
6. The middle line segment on the diagonal is
19. The small triangle is moved clockwise and one
extended to touch the corners of the square. In
line segment at the base is added clockwise
the next figure a new line with three line
inside the large triangle.
segments is added. To continue the series the
middle line segment should be extended to 20. The places of star, circle and square are moved
touch the sides of the square. one step clockwise at each step.
7. The complete figure is turned 90° clockwise at 21. The two corner steps are enlarged equally.
each step. 22. The arrows are turned to the opposite side at
8. In alternate figures the arrows are turned 90° each step. OR Alternate figures are identical.
clockwise and the positioning of arrow heads 23. Left arm and left leg of the figure are raised
is shifted from front to back and vice versa. and then bent. To continue the series, the right
9. A new figure is added to the previous set of arm and right leg of the figure must be raised.
figures at each step. 24. The arc is turned 90° anticlockwise and moved
10. The outermost shape is made the innermost one step clockwise while the circle is moved
shape in the next figure. one step anticlockwise, when both are together
the circle remains inside the arc.
11. In alternate figures, the horizontal line is moved
to the other side of the slanting line and one 25. All the three elements are laterally inverted and
more horizontal lines are then added. the element at the bottom moved to the top at
each step.
12. The star shape is rotated 90° anticlockwise at
each step. 26. The elements in the four quadrants are moved
one step clockwise and the elements at the ends
13. Clockwise, one side of the rhombus is removed
of the cross are moved one step anticlockwise
at each step. in this series.
14. A new figure is introduced inside the existing 27. Inverted ‘S’ shape is m oved half step
figure and in the next step the later is removed. anticlockwise, the inverted ‘P’ shapes one step
To continue the series a new figure must be clockwise, the ‘X’ half step clockwise, and the
introduced inside the triangle. dot one step anticlockwise.
 36

28. In this series alternate figures are identical. 38. In alternate figures only the direction of arcs
29. In alternate figures the line with the dot is on the left line are changed.
turned 90° clockwise and the arrow 135° 39. The two consecutive shades are moved one step
clockwise. anticlockwise.
30. In alternate figures the angle and the arc are 40. The numbers rotate clockwise by the numbers
turned by 180° and moved to the opposite side. (value) given.
31. In alternate figures, the shade inside the square 41. All the elements are moved one section at a
is moved to the opposite side, the places of time and rotated 90° clockwise except the
other three elements are inter changed triangle which is rotated 90° anticlockwise.
anticlockwise. The triangle and arrow are turned 42. The square which is alternately shaded, the pin
by 180°, while the hook is turned 90° which is turned 90° clockwise and the rectangle
anticlockwise and horizontally inverted. which is turned 45° anticlockwise are moved
32. In alternate figures the design is rotated by one step clockwise, only the circle is moved
180°. half step clockwise.
33. In alternate figures the elements are turned by 43. In alternate figures only the outer most arc and
180° and the number of lines making the the middle arc by rotated by 90° and 180°
geometrical figure is increased by one. clockwise respectively.
34. In alternate figures the element in the top left 44. All the letters in this series are made of three
position is horizontally inverted and moved one lines.
and half steps anticlockwise, the top middle 45. All the lines are rotated gradually, the three
element is turned 90° clockwise and moved initial parallel lines are removed one by one
one step anticlockwise, the top right element is and added to the other set of parallel lines.
turned 135° clockwise and moved one step
anticlockwise, the element at the bottom is 46. One diagonal changes position from one set of
replaced by a new element and moved to the corners to the other, while the line with the
top middle position, and the two identical ball is turned 45° clockwise.
elements are replaced by two new identical 47. The small circles move left to right and bottom
elements. to top.
35. In alternate figures the outer shape is turned 48. The cross and the circle move one and two
90° anticlockwise and the other shape is steps clockwise respectively (at each step), the
horizontally inverted. plus moves 3, 4 and 5 steps clockwise, and the
36. In alternate figures, the elements attatched to dot 6, 5 and 4 steps clockwise.
the line segments are turned upside down and 49. Alternate circles are shaded and shifted to the
the triangle is replaced by a semicircle. corners anticlockwise.
37. In alternate figures the geometrical shapes are 50. In alternate figures the whole set of elements
turned 135° clockwise and the number of lines is turned by 180°, so that when turned again
making the shape are increased by one. the first figure will be obtained.

  
 37

6 Venn Diagram

In these type of questions diagrammatic representation presents a logical illustration of particular class or
statements based on which the questions are asked. A clear view of the diagram makes the concepts clear
for attempting such questions.

ultiple Choice Questions

Directions (1–5) : Each of the questions given below 4. Person, Philosopher, Writer
contains three elements. These elements may or may 5. Clerks, Educated Persons, G overnment
not have some intense linkage. Each group of Servants.
elements may fit into one of the diagrams named
(A), (B), (C), (D) or (E). You have to indicate the Directions (6–10) : In each of the following
diagram in which the group of elements fits questions three items are given. Out of the five
correctly? figures, select that figure which will best represent
the relationship amongst the three items.

A. B. A. B.

C. D. C. D.

E.
E.

6. Judges, Thieves, Criminals

7. Hebrew, Hindi, Language
1. Teachers, Saints, Human beings 8. Tall Persons, Black-haired, Indians
2. Sweets, Oranges, Fruits 9. Women, Married Persons, Wives
3. Father, Mother, God 10. Teachers, Hardworking, Students
37
 38

Directions (11–15) : In each of the following 16. Deer, Rabbit, Mammals

questions three items are given. Out of the five 17. Human beings, Teachers, Graduates
figures, select that figure which will best represent
the relationship amongst the three items. 18. Whales, Fishes, Crocodiles
19. Plums, Tomatoes, Fruits
20. Mountains, Forests, Earth
A. B. Directions (21–28) : Choose the Venn diagram
which best illustrates the three given classes in each
question.

C. D. A. B.

E. C. D.

11. Men, Women, Teachers 21. Protons, Electrons, Atoms

12. Ministers, Females, Cars 22. Sun, Planets, Earths
13. Vehicles, Cars, Jeeps
23. Dog, Animal, Pet
14. Insects, Butterflies, Cats
24. Science, Physics, Chemistry
15. Relatives, Aunt, Uncle
25. Atmosphere, Hydrogen, Oxygen
Directions (16–20) : Each one of the following
questions contains three items using the relationship 26. Wheat, Grains, Maize
between these items, match each question with the 27. Machine, Lathe, Mathematics
most suitable diagram. 28. Biology, Botany, Zoology
29. Which one of the following diagrams correctly
represents the relationship among tennis fans,
cricket players and students?
A. B.

A. B.
C. D.

C. D.
E.
 39

30. Which of the following figure correctly 35. Which letter represents teachers who are
represents the relations between Doctors, violinists but not painters?
Lawyers, Professionals: A. B B. C
C. D D. E
Directions (36–43) : The following questions are
based on the diagram given below:
A. B. Urban

7
10 Servants

8 12 6 13
Males 4

9 11 14

C. D. 5

Educated

36. Who among the following is an educated male

Directions (31–35) : In the following diagram, there
who is not an urban resident?
are three figures interlocking each other – a
A. 4 B. 5
rectangle, a square and a triangle. Each figure
C. 9 D. 11
represents the class mentioned against it.
37. Who among the following is neither a civil
servant nor educated but is urban and not a
Teachers
male?
A. 2 B. 3
A
B C. 6 D. 10
D C F Painter
38. Who among the following is a male civil
E
servant, who is neither educated nor belongs
G
to urban area?
Violinists A. 7 B. 13
Study the figure and answer the questions that C. 4 D. 1
follows.
39. Who among the following is a female, urban
31. Teachers who are painters but not violinists resident and also a civil servant?
are represented by A. 6 B. 7
A. B B. C C. 10 D. 13
C. D D. F
40. Who among the following is a male, urban
32. The region which represents painters and oriented and also a civil servant but not educated?
violinists but not teachers, is denoted by A. 13 B. 12
A. B B. D C. 6 D. 10
C. E D. F
41. Who among the following is a educated male
33. Which letter represents teachers who are who hails from urban area?
painters as well as violinists? A. 4 B. 2
A. B B. C C. 11 D. 5
C. D D. E
42. Who among the following is only a civil
34. Painters who are neither teachers nor violinists servant but not a male nor urban oriented and
are represented by uneducated?
A. A B. B A. 7 B. 8
C. C D. F C. 9 D. 14
 40

43. Who among the following is uneducated and A. 10 B. 9

also an urban male? C. 6 D. 4
A. 2 B. 3 48. U nem ployed rural hard-w orking and
C. 11 D. 12 intelligent people are indicated by region.
Directions (44–46) : In the figure given below, there A. 1 B. 2
are three interesting circles each representing certain C. 3 D. 4
section of people. Different regions are marked a-g. 49. Rural people who are hard-working and
Read the statements in each of the following employed but not intelligent are indicated by
questions and choose the letter of the region which region.
correctly represents the statements? A. 1 B. 2
A B C. 3 D. 4
50. Rural employed people who are neither
Chinese a b f Painter
c intelligent nor hard-working are indicated by
d e region.
g
A. 2 B. 4
Musicians C. 6 D. 9
C 51. Rural hard-working people who are neither
employed nor intelligent are indicated by
44. Chinese who are painters but not musicians?
region.
A. b B. c
A. 6 B. 5
C. d D. g
C. 4 D. 3
45. Chinese who are musicians but not painters.
52. Employed, hard-working and intelligent rural
A. d B. c
people are indicated by region.
C. b D. a
A. 1 B. 2
46. Painters w ho are neither Chinese nor C. 3 D. 4
musicians.
53. Hard-working non-rural people who are
A. b B. c
neither employed nor intelligent are shown
C. f D. g
by region.
Directions (47–56) : In the following figure, the A. 8 B. 7
circle stands for employed, the square stands for C. 6 D. 12
hard-working, the triangle stands for rural and the
54. Intelligent employed and hard-working non-
rectangle stands for intelligent. Study the figure
rural people are indicated by region.
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
A. 11 B. 6
5
C. 9 D. 4
55. Non-rural, employed people who are neither
3 2 7 intelligent non hard-working are represented
4 6
1 by region.
11 9 A. 12 B. 11
8
12 C. 10 D. 7
10
56. Non-rural, employed, hard-working and
47. Rural employed people who are neither intelligent people are indicated by region.
intelligent nor hard-working are indicated by A. 8 B. 9
region. C. 10 D. 11
 41 (2125) Reasoning—6

Directions (57–60) : Study the following figure A. 22 B. 24

carefully and answer the questions given below it. C. 25 D. None of these
The rectangle represents artists, the circle represents 58. How many doctors are neither players nor
players and the triangle represents doctors. doctors?
A. 30 B. 27
Players 4
C. 22 D. 8
25 27
3 59. How many doctors are both players and
22
8 Doctors artists?
30 A. 3 B. 4
C. 8 D. 11
Artists
60. How many artists are players?
57. How many artists are neither players nor A. 30 B. 29
doctors? C. 25 D. 22

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D C E B A C B A E D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D C E B E B C A E C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A C B B B A B A C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A C B D C D B B C C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A A D A A C C D B C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D A D C D B D B A C

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
Human beings

God Father
3.
1.
Teacher Saints Mother

Writer
4.
2. Philosopher
Sweets
Fruits Oranges Person
 42

11. Some men and women may be teachers.

Educated
Women
Persons
5. Clerks
Government
Servants Men
Teachers

12. Some females may be ministers. Car is a

Judges separate class.

6. Ministers

Criminals Thieves Females

Language Cars

7. Hebrew Hindi 13. Both cars and jeeps come under the class
vehicles

Cars

8. Some tall persons are black haired and some

black haired tall persons are Indians.
Vehicles

Black-haired

Jeeps
Indians
Tall Persons 14. Butterflies come under the class insects. Cat is
an animal forming a separate class.
9. Some women are married i.e. some married
persons are women. All wives are women or Butterflies
some women are wives.
Insects
Cats
Women
15. Both aunt and uncle come under the class
Married relatives.
Persons
Wives Aunt
10. Some teachers are hard working. Some students
are hard working.
Relative

Students

Teachers
Uncle
Hard working
 43

16. Deer and Rabbit are unrelated items. But, both 21. Protons and Electrons are entirely different
are mammals. from each other. But, both are parts of atoms.
Atoms
Rabbit

Deer Protons Electrons

Mammals
22. Earth belongs to the class of Planets. But, Sun
17. All teachers and graduates are human beings.
is entirely different from the two.
But, some teachers can be graduates and some
Earth
graduates can be teachers.
Human beings

Sun
Planets

23. Some dogs are pets and some pets are dogs.
Graduates Both, dog and pet are animals.
Animal
Teachers

18. Whales, Fishes and Crocodiles are all separate

items, entirely different from each other.

Dog Pet
Whales Fishes
24. Physics and Chemistry are entirely different
from each other. But, both belong to the class
Crocodiles
of Science.
19. All plums are fruits. But, tomatoes are entirely Science
different.
Fruits

Physics Chemistry
Tomatoes
Plums 25. Hydrogen and Oxygen are entirely different
20. Mountains and Forests are parts of earth. But, from each other. But, both are parts of
some mountains are forested and some forests atmosphere.
are mountainous.
Atmosphere
Earth

Forests
Mountains Hydrogen Oxygen
 44

26. Wheat and Maize are two different items. But 31. The persons satisfying the given conditions are
both belong to the class of Grains. represented by the region which is common to
the rectangle and the triangle but not the square
Grains i.e. B.
32. The persons satisfying the given conditions are
represented by the region which is common to
the triangle and the square but is not a part of
Wheat
the rectangle i.e. E.
Maize

27. Lathe is a type of machine. But, Mathematics 33. The required set of persons is represented by
is entirely different from the two. the letter denoting the region common to the
rectangle, triangle and the square i.e. C.
Lathe 34. The persons satisfying the given conditions are
represented by the region which lies inside the
triangle but outside the rectangle and the square
i.e. F.
Machine
Mathematics 35. The required set of persons is represented by
the region which is common to the rectangle
28. Botany and Zoology are entirely different from
and the square but is not a part of the triangle
each other. But, both are branches of Biology.
i.e. D.
Biology
36. The person satisfying the given conditions is
represented by the region which is common to
the triangle and the rectangle but lies outside
the circle i.e. 11.
Botany Zoology 37. The person satisfying the given conditions is
represented by the region which lies inside the
29. Some students can be cricket players. Some
circle but outside the square, the rectangle and
cricket players can be tennis fans. Some
the triangle i.e. 3.
students can be tennis fans. So, the given items
are partly related to each other. 38. The person satisfying the given conditions is
represented by the region common to the
Students Cricket rectangle and the square but lying outside the
Players
triangle and the circle i.e. 13.
39. The person satisfying the given conditions is
represented by the region which lies outside
the rectangle and is common to the circle and
Tennis Fans
the square i.e. 10.
30. Both Doctors and Lawyers are Professionals.
But, both are entirely different from each other. 40. The person satisfying the given conditions is
denoted by the region which is common to the
Professional rectangle, circle and the square but lies outside
the triangle i.e. 6.
41. The person satisfying the given conditions is
represented by the region which is common to
the triangle and the rectangle and also lies
Doctors Lawyers inside the circle i.e. 4.
 45

42. The person satisfying the given conditions is 52. The required set of people is denoted by the
denoted by the region which lies inside the region which is common to the circle, square,
square but outside the circle, rectangle and rectangle and triangle i.e. 1.
triangle i.e. 7. 53. The required set of people is denoted by the
43. The person satisfying the given conditions is region which lies inside the square but outside
represented by the region which lies outside the triangle, circle and rectangle i.e. 12.
the triangle and is common to the circle and 54. The required set of people is represented by
the rectangle i.e. 12. the region which is common to the rectangle,
44. The required region is the one which is circle and square but lies outside the triangle
common to the circles A and B and lies outside i.e. 9.
circle C i.e. b.
55. The required set of people is represented by
45. The required region is the one which is the region which lies outside the triangle, inside
common to the circles A and C but is not a the circle but outside the rectangle and the
part of circle B i.e. d. square i.e. 7.
46. The required region is the one which lies inside 56. The required set of people is represented by
the circle B but is not a part of either circle A the region which lies outside the triangle and
or circle C i.e. f. is common to the circle, square and rectangle
47. The required set of people is represented by i.e. 9.
the region which is common to the triangle 57. The region which lies inside the rectangle but
and circle but is not a part of either the outside the triangle and the circle represents
rectangle or the square i.e. 6. the required set of persons. Thus, number of
48. The required set of people is represented by artists who are neither players nor doctors
the region which lies outside the circle and is = 30.
common to the triangle, square and rectangle 58. The region which lies inside the triangle but
i.e. 4. outside the circle and the rectangle represents
49. The required set of people is represented by the persons satisfying the given conditions.
the region which is common to the triangle, Thus, number of doctors who are neither
square and circle but is not a part of the players nor artists = 27.
rectangle i.e. 2. 59. The region common to the circle, triangle and
50. The required set of people is denoted by the the square represents the required set of
region which is common to the triangle and persons. Thus, number of doctors who are both
the circle but is not a part of the rectangle i.e. 2. players and artists = 3.
51. The required set of people is represented by 60. The region common to the circle, triangle and
the region which is common to the triangle the rectangle represents the required set of
and the square but lies outside the circle and persons. Thus, number of artists who are
rectangle i.e. 3. players = (22 + 3) = 25.

  
 46

7 Number Series

In this type of series, the set of given numbers in a without variation of addition or subtraction
series are related to one another in a particular pattern of some number;
or manner. (iv) sum/product/difference of preceding numbers;
The relationship between the numbers may be: (v) addition/subtraction/multiplication/division
(i) consecutive odd/even numbers; by some number; and
(ii) consecutive prime numbers; (vi) many more combinations of the relationships
(iii) squares/cubes of some numbers with/ given above.

ultiple Choice Questions

Directions (1–21) : In each of the following 7. 8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386
questions, one term in the number series is wrong. A. 194 B. 98
Find out the wrong term. C. 14 D. 386
1. 3, 4, 10, 32, 136, 685, 4116 8. 8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83
A. 136 B. 10 A. 21 B. 13
C. 4116 D. 32 C. 32 D. 47
2. 125, 126, 124, 127, 123, 129 9. 380, 188, 92, 48, 20, 8, 2
A. 123 B. 124 A. 188 B. 48
C. 126 D. 129 C. 92 D. 20
3. 112, 114, 120, 124, 132, 142, 154 10. 1, 3, 10, 21, 64, 129, 356, 777
A. 114 B. 120 A. 10 B. 21
C. 124 D. 132 C. 356 D. 129
4. 325, 259, 202, 160, 127, 105, 94 11. 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
A. 94 B. 127 A. 51 B. 48
C. 105 D. 202 C. 34 D. 43
5. 105, 85, 60, 30, 0, – 45, –90 12. 46080, 3840, 384, 48, 24, 2, 1
A. 0 B. 85 A. 1 B. 2
C. 60 D. 105 C. 24 D. 48
6. 196, 169, 144, 121, 100, 80, 64 13. 2, 5, 10, 50, 500, 5000
A. 169 B. 144 A. 5 B. 10
C. 121 D. 80 C. 50 D. 5000
46
 47

14. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64 26. 9, 12, 11, 14, 13, (......), 15.
A. 50 B. 17 A. 12 B. 16
C. 26 D. 64 C. 10 D. 17
15. 1, 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, 91 27. 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, (......).
A. 31 B. 15 A. 76 B. 75
C. 56 D. 91 C. 74 D. 72
16. 8, 27, 125, 343, 1331 28. 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, (......).
A. 1331 B. 343 A. 92 B. 127
C. 125 D. None of these C. 115 D. 131
17. 445, 221, 109, 46, 25, 11, 4 29. 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, (......).
A. 221 B. 109 A. 137 B. 223
C. 46 D. 25 C. 217 D. 199
18. 3, 7, 15, 39, 63, 127, 255, 511 30. 5, 11, 17, 25, 33, 43, (......).
A. 39 B. 15 A. 49 B. 51
C. 7 D. 63 C. 52 D. 53
19. 10, 26, 74, 218, 654, 1946, 5834 31. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, (......), 17
A. 26 B. 74 A. 12 B. 13
C. 218 D. 654 C. 14 D. 15
20. 6, 12, 48, 100, 384, 768, 3072 32. 5, 10, 13, 26, 29, 58, 61, (......).
A. 768 B. 384 A. 12 B. 125
C. 100 D. 48 C. 128 D. 64
21. 3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63 1 1 1 1
33. , , , , (......).
A. 15 B. 24 81 54 36 24
C. 34 D. 48 1 1
A. B.
Directions (22–50) : In each of the following 32 9
questions, a number is given with one term missing. 1 1
C. D.
Choose the correct alternative that will continue the 16 18
same pattern and fill in the blank spaces. 34. 1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27, (......).
22. 1, 5, 11, 19, 29, (......). A. 37 B. 44
A. 45 B. 39 C. 50 D. 55
C. 41 D. 47 35. 212, 179, 146, 113, (......).
23. 50, 49, 46, 41, 34, (......). A. 91 B. 79
A. 32 B. 25 C. 112 D. 80
C. 21 D. 19 36. 0, 2, 3, 5, 8, 10, 15, 17, 24, 26, (......).
24. 4, 9, 5, 12, 7, 15, 8, (......), 10. A. 28 B. 30
A. 25 B. 18 C. 32 D. 35
C. 21 D. 24 37. 3, 10, 20, 33, 49, 68, (......).
25. 3, 5, 6, 10, 9, 15, 12, A, B. A. 75 B. 85
A. A = 18, B = 18 C. 90 D. 91
B. A = 15, B = 20 38. 1, 9, 17, 33, 49, 73, (......).
C. A = 15, B = 18 A. 97 B. 98
D. A = 20, B = 15 C. 99 D. 100
 48

39. 13, 31, 63, 127, 255, (......). 45. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, (......), 256.
A. 513 B. 511 A. 148 B. 128
C. 517 D. 523 C. 154 D. 164
40. 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, (......). 46. 71, 76, 69, 74, 67, 72, (......).
A. 60 B. 64 A. 65 B. 76
C. 70 D. 72 C. 77 D. 80
41. 8, 24, 12, 36, 18, 54, (......). 47. 2, 6, 3, 4, 20, 5, 6, (......), 7.
A. 27 B. 68 A. 25 B. 30
C. 72 D. 108 C. 42 D. 28
42. 165, 195, 255, 285, 345, (......). 48. 2, 5, 11, 23, 47, (......).
A. 375 B. 420 A. 49 B. 52
C. 435 D. 390 C. 95 D. 106
43. 2, 4, 12, 48, 240, (......). 49. 3, 15, 35, (......), 99, 143.
A. 960 B. 1080 A. 48 B. 63
C. 1440 D. 1920 C. 80 D. 95
44. 10, 5, 13, 10, 16, 20, 19, (......). 50. 64, 32, 16, 8, (......).
A. 22 B. 23 A. 0 B. 1
C. 38 D. 40 C. 2 D. 4

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D D B D A D D D B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C C D D D D C A D C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C B B D B B B C D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B A C C D D C A B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A C C D B A C C B D

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. The sequence is as follows : 3. The squence is +2, +4, +6, +8, +10, +12.
2nd term = (1st term +1) × 1 So, 120 is wrong.
3rd term = (2nd term +1) × 2 4. The sequence is –66, –55, –44, –33, –22, –11.
4th term = (3rd term +1) × 3 and so on. So, 202 is wrong.
So, 32 is wrong, the correct term being 33. The correct term is 204.
2. The sequence is +1, –2, +3, –4, +5. 5. The sequence is –20, –25, –30, –35, –40,
So, 129 is wrong. The correct term should be – 45,
128. So, 0 is wrong.
 49 (2125) Reasoning—7

6. The sequence is (14) 2, (13)2, (12)2, (11)2, (10)2, 19. Each term is four less than the preceding
(9)2, (8)2. number multiplied by 3.
So, 80 is wrong. Since 92 = 81. Thus, 26  (10  3  4 ); 74  ( 26  3  4 ) and
7. Each term, except 48 in the series is less than so on.
twice the preceding term by 2. The correct term  654 is wrong, the correct term being 650.
is 50. 20. Each term at even place in the series, except
8. The sequence is +5, +5, +11, +14, +17, +20. 100 is obtained by multiplying the preceding
However, 47 breaks this sequence. The correct term by 2.
term is 46.  100 is wrong, the correct term being 96.
9. Each term, except 48 in the series is four more 21. The difference between consecutive terms of
than two times the next term. The correct term the given series are respectively 5, 7, 9, 11 and
is 44. 13. Clearly, 34 is a wrong number.
10. Suppose the terms of the series are A, B, C, D, 22. The sequence is +4, +6, +8, +10, ........
........  Missing number = 29 + 12 = 41.
Then, the sequence is A × 2 + 1, B × 3 + 1, 23. The sequence is –1, –3, –5, –7, ........
C × 2 + 1, D × 3 + 1 and so on.
 Missing number = 34 – 9 = 25.
 356 is wrong.
24. The given sequence is a combination of two
11. The sequence is –1, –3, –5, –7, –9, –11. So, 34 series : 4, 5, 7, 8, 10 and 9, 12, 15, (......).
is wrong. Clearly, the missing term is 18.
12. The terms are successively divided by 12, 10, 25. The given sequence is a combination of two
8, 6 ...... etc. So, 24 is wrong. series – 3, 6, 9, 12, B and 5, 10, 15, A Clearly,
13. The pattern is : 1st × 2nd = 3rd; 2nd × 3rd = A = 20 & B = 15.
4th; 3rd × 4th = 5th. But, 4th × 5th = 50 × 500 26. Alternately we add 3 and subtract 1.
= 25000  5000 = 6th. Thus, 9 + 3 = 12,
14. The numbers are 12+1, 22+1, 32+1 and so on 12 – 1 = 11,
 64 is wrong. 11 + 3 = 14 and so on.
The correct term is (82+1) i.e. 65.  Missing number = 13 + 3 = 16.
15. The sequence is +12, +22, +32, +42, +52, +62. 27. The second number is one more than twice the
16. The numbers are cubes of prime numbers i.e. first; third number is one less than twice the
23, 33, 53, 73, 113. Clearly, none is wrong. second, fourth number is one more than twice
the third; fifth number is one less than twice
17. 3 is subtracted from each number and the result the fourth.
is divided by 2 to obtain the next number of
the series. Thus, the sixth number is one more than twice
the fifth.
( 445  3) 221  3
Thus, 221  , 102  and so So, the missing number is 75.
2 2
on. 28. Each number in the series is the preceding
number multiplied by 2 and then increased by 1.
 46 is wrong, the correct term being 53.
Thus, (3 × 2) + 1 = 7, (7 × 2) + 1 = 15, (15
18. Each number in the series is multiplied by 2
× 2) + 1 = 31 and so on.
and the result increased by 1 to obtain the next
number.  Missing number = (63 × 2) + 1
 39 is wrong the correct term being 31. = 126 + 1 = 127.
 50 (2125) Reasoning—7-II

29. The sequence is 13 + 1, 23 + 1, 33 + 1, 43 + 1, 41. The terms are alternately multiplied by 3 and
53 + 1, ...... divided by 2.
 Missing number = (63 + 1) = 216 + 1 = 217. Thus,
30. The sequence is +6, +6, +8, +8, +10, ...... 8 × 3 = 24,
So, missing number = 43 + 10 = 53. 24 ÷ 2 = 12,
31. Clearly, the given series consists of prime 12 × 3 = 36,
numbers starting from 2. The prime number 36 ÷ 2 = 18 and so on.
after 11 is 13. So, 13 is the missing number.
 Missing number = 54 ÷ 2 = 27.
32. The numbers are alternately multiplied by 2
42. Each number is 15 multiplied by a prime
and increased by 3. Thus, 5 × 2 = 10, 10 + 3
number i.e.
= 13, 13 × 2 = 26, 26 + 3 = 29 and so on.
15 × 11, 15 × 13, 15 × 17, 15 × 19, 15 × 23.
 Missing number = (61 × 2) = 122.
 Missing term = 15 × 29 = 435.
3
33. Each term of the series is multiplied by to 43. The terms are respectively multiplied by 2, 3,
2 4, and 5 to obtain the successive terms.
obtain the next term.
Clearly, missing term = 240 × 6 = 1440.
1 3 1
 Missing term =   . 44. There are two series : 10, 13, 16, 19 and 5, 10,
24 2 16
20, (......).
34. The sum of any three consecutive terms of the
series gives the next term.  Missing number = 40.
Thus, 1 + 3 + 4 = 8; 45. Each term is multiplied by 2 to obtain the next
3 + 4 + 8 = 15, term.
4 + 8 + 15 = 27 and so on. 46. Alternately 5 is added and 7 is subtracted.
 Missing number = 8 + 15 + 27 = 50. Thus, 71 + 5 = 76,
35. 33 is subtracted from each term of the series to 76 – 7 = 69,
obtain the next term. 69 + 5 = 74,
 Missing number = 113 – 33 = 80. 74 – 7 = 67 and so on.
36. The sequence is +2, +1, +2, +3, +2, +5, +2,  Missing number = 72 – 7 = 65.
+7, +2, ......
47. The arrangement in the series is as under:
 Missing number = 26 + 9 = 35.
2 × 3 = 6; 4 × 5 = 20 and so on.
37. The sequence is +7, +10, +13, +16, +19, ......
 Missing number = 6 × 7 = 42.
 Missing number = 68 + 22 = 90.
48. The sequence is +3, +6, +12, +24, ......
38. The sequence is +8, +8, +16, +16, +24, ......
 Missing number = 47 + 48 = 95.
 Missing number = 73 + 24 = 97.
49. The terms of the series are 22 – 1, 42 – 1,
39. Each number is double the preceding one 62 – 1, ......, 102 – 1, 122 – 1.
plus 1.
 Missing number = 82 – 1 = 64 – 1 = 63.
So, the next number is = (255 × 2) + 1 = 511.
50. Each number is half of the preceding number.
40. The sequence is 1 × 2, 2 × 3, 3 × 4, 4 × 5,
5 × 6, 6 × 7, 7 × 8. 1
 Missing number =  8 4.
 Next number = 8 × 9 = 72. 2
  
 51

8 Coding/Decoding

Type-I (ii) substituting numbers for letters and vice–

versa;
Coding is a secretive language which is used to (iii) writing the letters of the given word in
change the representation of the actual term/word/ reverse order in part or in whole; and
value. This coded language can be framed by (iv) replacing the letters in their natural series
(i) moving the letters one or more steps by the same positioned letters in their
forward or backward; reverse series.
Alphabet in natural series are :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
     
1st 5th 10th 15th 20th 25th
Alphabet in reverse series are :
Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N M L K J I H G F E D C B A
     
1st 5th 10th 15th 20th 25th
Note : On reaching Z, the series restarts from A and on reaching A, it restarts from Z.

Type-II if one has to tally the given codes. In this type of

coding, the Digits and its coded Letters or vice versa
There is variety in ways of coding. Coding language are already given. One has to find out the answers to
is not only for words and numbers but also for hiding the given questions just by tallying the given codes.
a group of words, statements or even sentences. This
form of coding pattern may appear to be confusing Type-V
but after solving only a few questions it is very easy In this type of coding, the capital letters A to Z are
to understand. Questions based on this coding pattern coded by using the small letters a to z. With the
require no moving of steps or straining efforts of help of the coding pattern, one has to find the right
calculations, but only quick tallying or comparing code from the columns which has equivalent to the
ability. The codes can be letters or numbers. group of capital letters.
Type-III Type-VI
In yet another manner of coding particular words Column coding is a very complex form of coding.
are assigned code names which are further coded. It needs a lot of attention and swift eye movement
The questions on this pattern may appear to decode the code for each letter of the given words.
meaningless but the codes must not be confused Proper words in capital letters are given in one
with the basic properties of reality. column and the codes in small letters are given in
another column. Based on the information given in
Type-IV both columns the candidate has to arrive at the
Coding-Decoding can be really easy and simplified correct answer option.
51
 52

ultiple Choice Questions

Directions (1–12) : In each of the following 9. If FOUGHT is coded as EQRKCZ, how is
questions below, find out the correct answer from MALE coded?
the given alternatives. A. LCII B. NZMD
1. If in a certain code YELLOW is written as C. KCMI D. NBIF
XFKMNX, how is COUNTRY coded? 10. If ADVENTURE is coded as ERUTNEVDA,
A. DPVOSQX B. BNTMSQX how is GREEN coded in that code?
C. BPTMSSX D. AMSLRPW A. NEERG B. ENEGR
2. If in a certain language KNIFE is coded as C. GEREN D. NEEGR
IFEKN, how is DOCTOR coded in that 11. If TABLE is coded as GZYOV, how is JUICE
language? coded?
A. ROTCOD B. TORDOC A. OZLFJ B. QFRXV
C. CTORDO D. ROTDOC C. HOFAD D. QZHMT
3. If in a certain language HUNTER is coded as 12. If RAMAYANA is coded as AMARANAY
UHNTRE, how is MANAGE coded in that how is TULSIDAS written?
code? A. SLUTSADI B. UTSLIDSA
A. MAANGE B. MNAAEG C. SADISLUT D. SADITULS
C. AMNAEG D. EGNAAM Directions (13–20) : In the following questions some
4. If in a certain language MECHANICS is capital alphabets are written in a row, below them
coded as HCEMASCIN, how is POSTER their coding have been given. Now in questions a
coded in that code? particular word has been coded in a particular
A. OPTSRE B. SOPRET manner using codes as given below the capital
C. RETSOP D. TERPOS letters. You have to understand the pattern of coding
and have to answer the question asked subsequently.
5. If in a certain language CASUAL is coded as
GEWYEP, how is PEOPLE coded in that A B C D E F G H I JK L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
code? u a 2 v b w 3 t 4x s y 5 z 6 c d 8 7 e r h g i p q
A. SHRSOH B. TISTPI
C. SIRTOI D. THSTOI 13. If DAS is to 2a84, then SMASH is to:
A. 75U7t B. eya84
6. If in a certain language CURTAIN is coded
C. 8zqe3 D. 8zqe4
as CAITURN, how is HILLOCK coded in
that code? 14. If FASHION is to z64t7uw, then POSITION
A. HOCLILK B. HCOLLIK is to:
C. HKLIOC D. HOLLICK A. z64e476c B. z64e47c6
7. If in a certain language CHAMPION is coded C. c674e46z D. c674e4z6
as HCMAIPNO, how is NEGATIVE coded 15. If LONDON is to 5c62z5, then EUROPE is
in that code? to:
A. ENAGITEV B. NEAGVEIT A. wh7cdw B. wh7z6V
C. MGAETVIE D. EGAITEVN C. br76cb D. wh76cb
8. If in a certain language PEARL is coded as 16. If DEER is to vw8 and TOSS is to be e6e,
SHDUO, how is COVET coded in that code? then DOTT is to:
A. FRXHV B. EQXHV A. v6r B. bce
C. FRYHW D. FNYDW C. bcr D. vr6
 53

17. If BAFFLE is to aat4cx, then DANGER is to: A. 32408 B. 69824

A. vacx49 B. vacxh9 C. 41632 D. 35612
C. vacxhi D. vacxhr 30. In a certain code language 24685 is written
18. If MAY is to yzqaiq, then TIE is to: as 33776. How is 35791 written in that code?
A. 7rtxwv B. 7rtxvw A. 44882 B. 44880
C. 7rtxbw D. 7rtxwb C. 46682 D. 44682
19. If MAIDEN is to yux2b6, then FIBRES is to: Directions (31–36) : In a certain language, the
A. b428w8 B. b4288w numbers are coded as follows:
C. b42dbe D. b42bde 4 3 9 2 1 6 7 8 5 2 0
20. If MAIDEN is to u5v4zb, then DANGER is to: A W P Q R B E S G J M
A. vuz3b8 B. 8b3zuv How are the following figures coded in that
C. uv3z8b D. uv3zb8 code?
Directions (21–28) : Question are based on 31. 439216
following informations. A. PQRWAB B. AQRWPB
If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as C. APWQRB D. AWPQRB
45164913 and MORALE is coded as 296137, how 32. 3215
are the following words coded in that language? A. WJRG B. WJGR
21. MECHRALE C. JWRG D. JWGR
A. 95378165 B. 25378195 33. 720435
C. 27456137 D. 27386195
A. EJMAGW B. MAGJRW
22. ROCHEL C. EJMAWG D. MGARJW
A. 694573 B. 693578
34. 55218
C. 673958 D. 693857
A. GJGRS B. GGJSR
23. COACH C. GGRJS D. GGJRS
A. 38137 B. 49148
35. 421665
C. 48246 D. 49145
A. AQRBBG B. PQBRSE
24. ARCHER C. ASGRBE D. QRPSSE
A. 193859 B. 163546
36. 67852
C. 164576 D. 193476
A. BSEJG B. BESJG
25. COLLER C. BSEGJ D. BESGJ
A. 397758 B. 497758
37. If room is called bed, bed is called window,
C. 483359 D. 493376
window is called flower and flower is called
26. ALLOCHRE cooler on what would a man sleep?
A. 19943785 B. 19394567 A. Window B. Bed
C. 16693895 D. 13396875 C. Flower D. Cooler
27. HEARL 38. If sand is called air, air is called plateau,
A. 57163 B. 75163 plateau is called well, well is called island
C. 75198 D. 57193 and island is called sky, then from where will
28. REAL a woman draw water?
A. 8519 B. 6713 A. Well B. Island
C. 6513 D. 6719 C. Orange D. Air
29. In a certain code, RIPSLE is written as 613082 39. If book is called watch, watch is called bag,
and WIFE is written as 4192, how is PEWSLE bag is called dictionary and dictionary is
written in that code? called window, which is used to carry the books?
 54

A. Dictionary B. Bag A. Rat B. Dog

C. Book D. Watch C. Mongoose D. Lion
40. If water is called food, food is called tree, 46. If eraser is called box, box is called pencil,
tree is called sky, sky is called wall, on which pencil is called sharpener and sharpener is
of the following grows a fruit? called bag, what will a child write with?
A. Water B. Food A. Eraser B. Box
C. Sky D. Tree C. Pencil D. Sharpener
41. If pen is table, table is fan, fan is chair and 47. In a certain code nee tim see means how are
chair is roof, on which of the following will you; ble nee see means where are you. What
a person sit? is the code for where?
A. Fan B. Chair A. nee B. tim
C. Roof D. Table C. see D. None of these
42. If banana is apple, apple is grapes, grapes 48. In a certain code language, pit nae tom means
is mango, mango is nuts, nuts is guava, apple is green; nae ho tap means green and
which of the following is a yellow fruit? white and ho tom ka means shirt is white.
A. Mango B. Guava Which of the following represents apple in
C. Apple D. Nuts that language?
43. If man is called girl, girl is called woman, A. nae B. tom
woman is called boy, boy is called butler C. pit D. ho
and butler is called rogue, who will serve in 49. If in a certain language, mxy das zci means
a restaurant? good little frock; jmx cos zci means girl
A. Butler B. Girl behaves good; nvg drs cos means girl makes
C. Man D. Rogue mischief and das ajp cos means little girl fell;
44. If lead is called stick, stick is called nib, nib which word in that language stands for frock?
is called needle, needle is called rope and A. zci B. das
rope is called thread, what will be fitted in C. nvg D. None of these
a pen to write with it? 50. In a certain code language, Mink Yang Pe
A. Stick B. Lead means Fruits are ripe; Pe Lao May Mink
C. Needle D. Nib means Oranges are not ripe and May Pe Nue
45. If rat is called dog, dog is called mongoose, Mink means Mangoes are not ripe. Which
mongoose is called lion, lion is called snake word in that languages means Mangoes?
and snake is called elephant, which is reared A. May B. Pe
as pet? C. Nue D. Mink

NSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C C B B A A C A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B A C A B A A B C C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A D C D B A B A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A C D A D A B A C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C D D C C D D C D C
 55

XPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. In the code, the letters in the odd places are one 14. Codes for the respective letters as per table
before and those in the even places are one have been reversed in the coding.
ahead than the corresponding letter in the word. 15. First three letters have been coded one position
2. The last three letters of the word are placed as in forward direction, and last three letters have
it is in the first three places in the code. The been coded one position in backward direction.
remaining letters are shifted forward keeping 16. In both the words DEER and TOSS, codes for
their mutual arrangement unchanged. each letters have been used from just below
3. In the code, the middle two letters are kept the letters in the table except for the letter that
unchanged, while on either side every two has been written twice i.e. E and S. For these
letters are mutually reversed in order. letters, codes have been used just one position
4. In the code the first four and the last four ahead in the table that too only once. Therefore,
letters are reversed in order. codes for D, O and T will be V, 6 and r
5. In the code, each letter is the fourth alphabet respectively.
after the corresponding letter in the word. 17. Codes for the letters have been moved in
6. In the code, the first, the middle and the last forward direction with a gap of 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
letters of the word are kept the same. The two and 5 positions, regarding position of their
letters between first and middle letters are codes in the given table.
replaced by the two letters between the middle 18. For each of the letters of the word MAY,
and last letters and vice-versa. Also, the mutual adjacent codes have been used.
arrangement of each of the two letters is 19. For the second and fifth letter, codes have been
reversed. used from just below the letters, for the first
7. In the code, each of the two letters are reversed and fourth letter, codes have been used from
in arrangement. one position back, and for third and sixth letter
8. Each letter in the code is two ahead than the codes have been used one position ahead as
corresponding letter in the word. their position in the table.
9. In the code, first letter is one place before, 20. In the word MAIDEN code for MA, ID and
second letter is two places ahead, third letter EN have been exchanged.
is two places before, fourth letter is three places (21–28) : The alphabets in the given words are
ahead and so on. coded as follows :
10. In the code, the first and last letters, the second C H A R O L M E
and second last letters, the third and third last 4 5 1 6 9 3 2 7
letters and so on are mutually replaced. 21. M is coded as 2, E as 7, C as 4, H as 5, A as
11. If in the word, a letter is nth alphabet from the 1 and L as 3. So, MECHRALE is coded as
beginning, then in the code the corresponding 27456137.
letter is the nth alphabet from the end. 22. R is coded as 6, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7, R as
12. In the code, the first four letters are reversed 6. So, ROCHEL is coded as 694573.
in arrangement and the last four letters are 23. C is coded as 4, O as 9, A as 1 and H as 5. So,
reversed in arrangement. COACH is coded as 49145.
13. Letters at the odd places have been moved 24. A is coded as 1, R as 6, C as 4, H as 5 and E
one place back, and letters at the even places as 7. So, ARCHER is coded as 164576.
have been moved one place ahead regarding 25. C is coded as 4, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7 and R
the position of codes given in the table. as 6. So, COLLER is coded as 493376.
 56

26. A is coded as 1, L as 3, O as 9, C as 4, H as 40. The fruits grow on a tree and tree is called
5, R as 6 and E as 7. So, ALLOCHRE is coded ‘sky’. So, the fruits grow on the ‘sky’.
as 13394567. 41. A person will sit on the ‘Chair’ but a ‘chair ’is
27. H is coded as 5, E as 7, A as 1, R as 6, L as called ‘roof’. So, the person will sit on the
3. So, HEARL is coded as 57163. ‘roof’.
28. R is coded as 6, E as 7, A as 1 and L as 3. So, 42. Clearly, ‘mango’ is the yellow fruit but
REAL is coded as 6713. ‘mango’ is called ‘nuts’. So, ‘nuts’ is the
29. The alphabets are coded as shown i.e. P as 3, yellow fruit.
E as 2, W as 4, S as 0 and L as 8. So, PEWSLE 43. A ‘butler’ serves in a restaurant but ‘butler’ is
is coded as 32408. called ‘rogue’. So, a ‘rogue’ will serve in the
R I P S L E W F restaurant.
6 1 3 0 8 2 4 9 44. Clearly, a ‘nib’ is fitted in the pen to write
30. Clearly, in the code the letters at odd places with it. But a ‘nib’ is called ‘needle’. So, a
are one place ahead and those as even places ‘needle’ will be fitted in the pen.
are one place before the corresponding letter 45. Clearly, ‘dog’ is reared as pet. But ‘dog’ is
in the word. So, in 35791, 3 is written as 4, 5 called ‘mongoose’. So, a ‘mongoose’ is reared
as 4, 7 as 8, 9 as 8 and 1 as 0. i.e. the code as pet.
becomes 44880. 46. The child will write with a ‘pencil’ and ‘pencil’
31. As given, 4 is coded as A, 3 as W, 9 as P, 2 is called ‘sharpener’. So, the child will write
as Q, 1 as R and 6 as B. So, 439216 is coded with a ‘sharpener’.
as AWPQRB. 47. In the first and second statements, the common
32. As given, 3 is coded as W, 2 as J, 1 as R, and code words nee and see mean are and you.
5 as G. So, 3215 is coded as WJRG. So, in the second statement, the remaining code
33. As given, 7 is coded as E, 2 as J, 0 as M, 4 as ble means where.
A, 3 as W and 5 as G. So 720435 is coded as 48. In the first and second statements the common
EJMAWG. code word is nae and the common word is
34. As given, 5 is coded as G, 2 as J, 1 as R, and green. So, nae means green.
8 as S. So, 55218 is coded as GGJRS. In the first and third statements, the common
35. As given, 4 is coded as B, 2 as Q, 1 as R, 6 code word is tom and the common word is is.
as B and 5 as G. So, 421665 is coded as So, tom means is. Therefore in the first
AQRBBG. statement pit means apple.
36. As given, 6 is coded as B, 7 as E, 8 as S, 5 as 49. In the first and second statements, the common
G and 2 as J. So, 67852 is coded as BESGJ. code word is zci and the common word is
37. A man sleeps on a ‘bed’ and as given, ‘bed’ good. So, zci means good.
is called window. So, the man will sleep on In the first and fourth statements, the common
the ‘window’. code word is das and the common word is
38. A woman shall draw water from a ‘well’ but little. So, das means little. Thus, in the first
a ‘well’ is called island. So, the woman will statement mxy means frock.
draw water from an ‘island’. 50. In the second and third statements, the common
39. Clearly, a ‘bag’ is used to carry the books but code words are Pe, Mink and May and the
a ‘bag’ is called ‘dictionary’. So, a dictionary common words are are, not and ripe. So, in
will be used to carry the ‘books’. the third statement, Nue stands for mangoes.
  
Basic English

1 2125 (Eng.)–1
 1 Articles
Definite and Indefinite Articles 3. Names of the famous and holy books:
The Guru Granth Sahib, The Gita, The
(i) ‘A’ and ‘an’ are Indefinite Articles.
Ramayana, etc.
(ii) ‘The’ is Definite Article.
(iii) ‘A’ and ‘an’ modify a noun in a general way. 4. Names of creations of nature:
the sun, the earth, the moon, the sky, etc.
(iv) ‘The’ particularises it. e.g.,
Mohan has a pen. 5. While using Adjectives as Nouns:
The poor should be helped by the rich.
The pen which you gave me was expensive.
6. Sometimes with the Comparative Degree:
Vowel and Consonant Sounds The more you think, the more you worry.
(i) ‘A’ is used before words starting with the sound 7. With the Superlative Degree:
of a consonant. She is the most intelligent girl in our school.
(ii) ‘An’ is used before a vowel sound (vowels a, e, 8. Before the imaginary lines and directions:
i, o, u) e.g., The Latitude, The Equator, the east, the west, etc.
a book, a cat, a useful thing, a European girl, a 9. Before the names of musical instruments:
university, the violin, the piano, the flute, etc.
but an FDR, an MA, an honest boy, an hour, an 10. While using a Proper Noun as a Common
owl, an egg, an umbrella, etc.
Noun:
Use of Articles ‘A’ and ‘An’ Mohan is the Sachin of our team.
A cat mews. (i.e., every cat) Omission of Article ‘The’
The cat of my neighbour mews day and night.
1. Before some Nouns used to convey general
(i.e., a particular cat)
sense, articles are not used but are used to
He gave me an egg. (Here ‘an’ means ‘one’) particularise them:
Man is mortal.
Use of Article ‘The’
2. Before Proper Nouns:
1. ‘The’ is used before names of rivers, mountains, Rakesh is an intelligent boy.
seas, oceans:
3. With Abstract Noun:
The Himalayas, the Ganga, the Yamuna, the Childhood is the prime time of one’s life.
Bay of Bengal, the Indian Ocean, the Nile, the The childhood of Sohan was full of sorrow.
English Channel, etc.
4. With Material Nouns:
2. Names of newspapers and magazines: Milk is an essential food.
The Times of India, the Tribune, The Sun, etc. The milk of the cow is sweet.

3
 4

5. Usually no article is used before names of Double Use of Article ‘The’

diseases: Read the following sentences carefully to
Cancer is a fatal disease. understand this :
However, when we talk about a disease 1. The poet and novelist has been honoured.
figuratively, we use an article before its name, e.g.
(The same person is the poet as well as
Corruption is a cancer. novelist)
6. Names of games and language: 2. The poet and the novelist have been honoured.
I like football. (The poet and the novelist are two different
I can speak Punjabi, Hindi and English. persons).
7. Gold is a precious metal. 3. I have a black and white dog.
NOTE: As you must have noted above, the (that is, one dog)
definite article ‘the’ has been used where a 4. I have a black and a white dog.
noun is particularised. (that is, two dogs)

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions : Fill in the blanks with suitable articles. C. The D. No article
Mark ‘D’ if no article required. 9. She is ........ untidy girl.
1. Do you know ........ boy in white? A. a B. an
A. a B. an C. the D. No article
C. the D. No article 10. I am ........ M.A. is English.
2. She is ........ girl I am looking for. A. a B. an
A. a B. an C. the D. No article
C. the D. No article 11. I have already spent ........ few rupees I had.
3. Have you read ........ Mahabharat? A. a B. an
A. a B. an C. the D. No article
C. the D. No article 12. ........ English are very hard-working.
4. ........rich are not always happy. A. A B. An
A. A B. An C. The D. No article
C. The D. No article 13. April is the fourth month of ........ year.
5. Oranges are sold by ........ dozen. A. a B. an
A. a B. an C. the D. No article
C. the D. No article 14. Rice is sold by ........ kilogram
6. Milk is sold by ........ litre. A. a B. an
A. a B. an C. the D. No article
C. the D. No article 15. She is ........ best of the three girls.
7. ........ Amazon is the longest river in the world. A. a B. an
A. A B. An C. the D. No article
C. The D. No article 16. ........ man in the car is a friend of mine.
8. ........ higher you climb, the colder it gets. A. A B. An
A. A B. An C. The D. No article
 5

17. Brevity is ........ soul of wit. 31. ........ water of this well is dirty.
A. a B. an A. A B. An
C. the D. No article C. The D. No article
18. ........ thing of beauty is a joy for ever. 32. Only ........ wearer knows where the shoe
A. A B. An pinches.
C. The D. No article A. a B. an
19. ........ little learning is a dangerous thing. C. the D. No article
A. A B. An 33. ........ action will be taken against you.
C. The D. No article A. A B. An
C. The D. No article
20. ........ best sauce for food is hunger.
A. A B. An 34. ........ sun rises in the east.
C. The D. No article A. A B. An
C. The D. No article
21. Birds of ........ feather flock together.
A. a B. an 35. She was promoted to ........ highest post.
C. the D. No article A. a B. an
C. the D. No article
22. He makes ........ living by begging.
A. a B. an 36. Did you see ........ Taj Mahal?
A. a B. an
C. the D. No article
C. the D. No article
23. It is ........ pity that he died so young.
37. He is ........ one-eyed man.
A. a B. an
A. a B. an
C. the D. No article
C. the D. No article
24. What ........ nuisance it is?
38. This is ........ useful book.
A. a B. an
A. a B. an
C. the D. No article
C. the D. No article
25. Delhi is ........ London of India. 39. Cloth is sold by ........ metre.
A. a B. an A. a B. an
C. the D. No article C. the D. No article
26. Where is ........ will, there is a way. 40. The sun sets in ........ west.
A. a B. an A. a B. an
C. the D. No article C. the D. No article
27. Her father is ........ physician and surgeon. 41. Amar bought......umbrella yesterday.
A. a B. an A. a B. an
C. the D. No article C. the D. No article
28. This will benefit ........ poor. 42. Surinder is ...... honest boy.
A. a B. an A. a B. an
C. the D. No article C. the D. No article
29. ........bird in hand is better than two in a bush. 43. She wrote ...... book in French.
A. A B. An A. a B. an
C. The D. No article C. the D. No article
30. As he is hard-working, he will win ........ prize. 44. ...... lion roars.
A. a B. an A. A B. An
C. the D. No article C. The D. No article
 6

45. ..... apple a day keeps the doctor away. 53. I found ........ one-rupee note in the market.
A. A B. An A. a B. an
C. The D. No article C. the D. No article
46. John bought ...... car yesterday. 54. It is a pleasure to meet such ........ efficient
A. a B. an man.
C. the D. No article A. a B. an
C. the D. No article
47. His father is ..... engineer in the U.S.A.
A. a B. an 55. The Sanyasi lived in a cave in ........ Himalayas.
C. the D. No article A. a B. an
C. the D. No article
48. It is hard for ..... owl to fly during the day times.
A. a B. an 56. There is ........ union in our factory.
C. the D. No article A. a B. an
C. the D. No article
49. She had ..... rimmed hat.
57. He hit his wife on the head with ....... umbrella.
A. a B. an
A. a B. an
C. the D. No article
C. the D. No article
50. My uncle is ..... heart specialist.
58. I caught him by ........ collar.
A. a B. an
A. a B. an
C. the D. No article C. the D. No article
51. He looks as foolish as ........ ass. 59. Child is ........ father of man.
A. a B. an A. a B. an
C. the D. No article C. the D. No article
52. Did you go to ........ prison to visit him? 60. He gazed at ........ moon for two hours.
A. a B. an A. a B. an
C. the D. No article C. the D. No article

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C C C C C C C B B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C C C C C C C A A C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A A A A C A A C A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C C B C C C A A C C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B B A A B A B B A A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B C A B C A B C C C

ooo
 2 Synonyms & Antonyms

There are thousands of words in English language. No one can remember

their meanings easily but with regular practice one can memorise most of
them. A number of words with their Synonyms and Antonyms are compiled
here. Try to learn as many as you can and answer the questions thereafter.

Words Synonyms Antonyms

Abandon Cease, Forsake Continue
Abhor Hate, Loathe, Detest Like, Love
Abiding Enduring, Durable Fleeting
Able Proficient, Competent Incompetent, Unfit
Ability Skill, Power Disability, Inability
Abortive Fruitless, Futile Fruitful, Successful
Abolish Destroy, Undo Restore, Revive
Abridge Shorten, Curtail Lengthen, Expand
Absolve Forgive, Pardon, Excuse Condemn
Accelerate Hasten Retard
Accord Agreement, Harmony Discord, Disagreement
Accumulate Collect, Store, Amass Distribute, Scatter
Adamant Hard, Inflexible Flexible
Adversity Misfortune, Distress Prosperity
Adept Expert, Skilful Inexpert, Unskillful
Aggravate Heighten, Intensify Quell, Suppress
Agile Nimble Clumsy, Undeft
Alert Vigilant Heedless
Allay Calm, Soothe, Assuage Arouse
Ameliorate Improve, Advance, Amend Worsen, Deteriorate
Ambiguous Vague, Unclear Clear
Amiable Lovable, Agreeable Disagreeable
Annihilate Destroy Create
Arduous Hard, Strenuous Easy
7
 8

Words Synonyms Antonyms

Attacks Assault Defend
Audacity Boldness Cowardice
Auspicious Favourable, Propitious, Lucky Ominous, Inauspicious, Unlucky
Austere Harsh, Severe, Rigorous Easy-going
Authentic True, Genuine Spurious, False
Avarice Greed Generosity
Averse Unwilling, Loath, Disinclined Willing, Inclined
Aversion Hostility, Hatred Affinity, Liking
Base Low, Mean, Ignoble Noble, Exalted
Boisterous Noisy, Stormy Calm, Quiet
Brave Courageous, Daring, Cowardly, Dastardly,
Bold, Plucky Timid
Brief Short, Concise, Laconic Lengthy, Diffuse
Bright Vivid, Radiant Dull, Dark
Brutal Savage, Cruel Humane, Kindly
Callous Hard, Cruel, Indifferent Soft, Tender, Concerned
Cautious Careful, Wary Rash, Reckless, Foolhardy
Censure (n) Blame, Condemnation Praise
Censure (vb) Blame, Condemn Praise, Commend
Circumscribed Restricted, Confined, Limited Unconfined, Unrestricted
Civil Polite, Courteous, Rude, Uncivil, Impolite,
Gracious, Urbane Ungracious
Coerce Compel, Force Volunteer
Compassionate Pitiful, Sympathetic, Merciful Unsympathetic, Merciless, Cruel
Compress Condense, Abbreviate Expand, Lengthen
Conspicuous Noticeable, Manifest Inconspicuous
Constant Steady, Steadfast, Uniform Inconstant, Variable
Cordial Friendly, Warm, Hearty Cold, Unfriendly
Covert Hidden, Secret Overt, Open
Cruel Savage, Ruthless, Vicious Kind, Gentle, Benevolent
Cursory Rapid, Superficial Thorough, Exhaustive, Intensive
Credible Believable, Probable, Plausible Incredible, Unbelievable, Fantastic
Crafty Cunning, Sly Artless, Simple, Ingenuous
Costly Expensive, Dear Cheap, Inexpensive
Confidence Trust, Reliance Distrust, Doubt
Death Decease, Demise Existence, Life
Dearth Scarcity, Lack, Want, Plenty, Abundance
Paucity, Shortage
Decay Dissolution, Decline, Regeneration
Decomposition, Disin-
tegration
 9 2125 (Eng.)–2

Words Synonyms Antonyms

Deference Respect, Reverence Disrespect, Irreverence
Deficient Lacking, Inadequate Complete, Sufficient
Desolate Lonely, Deserted Crowded, Occupied
Destitute Wanting, Needy Rich, Affluent
Diligence Industry, Perseverance Idleness
Disgrace Dishonour, Discredit Honour, Credit
Dwindle Decrease, Shrink Grow, Increase
Earthly Terrestrial, Mundane Celestial, Heavenly, Unearthly
Eligible Qualified, Suitable Ineligible, Unsuitable
Emancipate Liberate, Free Enslave
Excited Impassioned, Stimulated Composed, Cool, Impassive
Extraordinary Uncommon, Remarkable, Commonplace, Ordinary
Marvellous
Extravagant Lavish, Prodigal, Thrifty, Economical, Frugal
Wastrel, Spendthrift
Fabricate Construct, Make Destroy
Fabulous Fictitious, Mythical Actual, Real
False Untrue, Mendacious True, Genuine
Famous Well-known, Renowned Obscure, Unknown
Fantastic Fanciful, Imaginative, Practical, Down to earth
Visionary
Fearful Nervous, Anxious, Fearless, Dauntless
Afraid, Scared
Felicity Happiness Sorrow
Gaiety Joyousness, Hilarity Mourning, Dullness
Garrulous Talkative, Loquacious Taciturn, Silent, Reserved
Generous Liberal, Magnanimous Stingy, Miserly
Gigantic Huge, Colossal Minute, Small
Graphic Vivid, Pictorial, Meaningful Vague
Guest Visitor Host
Guile Fraud, Trickery Artlessness, Ingenuousness
Gratitude Gratefulness Ingratitude, Ungratefulness
Gratuitous Voluntary, Spontaneous, Involuntary, Forced
Unwarranted
Hamper Hinder, Obstruct Facilitate, Ease
Haughty Arrogant, Proud Humble, Modest
Hazardous Dangerous, Perilous Safe, Secure Protected
Headstrong Obstinate, Stubborn Weak-willed, Flexible
 10

Words Synonyms Antonyms

Hope Belief, Conviction, Expectation Despair, Hopelessness
Improvident Prodigal, Carelessness Provident, Economical
Incessant Unceasing, Continuous Discontinuous
Indolent Slothful, Lethargic Active, Energetic
Joy Delight, Pleasure Sadness, Gloom
Jolly Jovial, Merry Gloomy, Sad
Judicious Discreet, Prudent Indiscreet, Injudicious
Knowledge Enlightenment, Learning Ignorance, Stupidity
Laborious Industrious, Assiduous Slothful, Lazy
Laxity Slackness, Looseness Firmness
Lenient Mild, Forbearing Strict, Stern
Lethal Deadly, Fatal, Mortal Life-giving, Vital, Vivifying
Liberal Generous, Tolerant Intolerant, Illiberal
Liberty Freedom, Independence Slavery, Bondage
Lively Animated, Active Dull, Listless
Loyal Faithful, Devoted Treacherous, Disloyal, Unfaithful
Lucky Fortunate Unlucky, Unfortunate
Lucrative Profitable Unprofitable
Magnanimous Generous, Largehearted Ungenerous, Stingy
Malady Illness, Ailment Health
Manifest Noticeable, Obvious Obscure, Puzzling
Meagre Small Plentiful, Large
Mean Low, Abject Noble, Exalted
Mendacious False, Untruthful Truthful
Misery Sorrow, Distress Happiness, Joy
Morbid Sick, Diseased Healthy
Mournful Sorrowful, Sad Joyful, Happy
Negligent Careless, Heedless Careful
Notorious Infamous, Disreputable Reputable
Obedient Submissive, Compliant, Docile Disobedient, Recalcitrant, Wayward
Obsolete Antiquated, Out-of-Date Current, Modern
Opportune Timely, Seasonable Inopportune
Opulence Wealth, Riches Penury, Poverty
Onerous Heavy, Burdensome Light, Easy
Palatable Tasty, Delicious Unpalatable
Pathetic Touching Joyous, Cheery
Persuade Urge, Induce Dissuade
Praise (vb) Applaud, Eulogise Condemn
 11

Words Synonyms Antonyms

Praise (n) Applause, Eulogy Condemnation
Precarious Risky, Uncertain Safe, Certain
Pretence Pretext, Excuse Candour, Frankness
Propagate Breed, Circulate Terminate, Restrict
Quaint Odd, Singular Usual, Ordinary
Quell Suppress, Subdue Agitate, Arouse
Rare Uncommon, Scarce Common, Ordinary
Refined Polished, Elegant Crude, Coarse
Remote Distant Near, Close
Renown Fame, Reputation Infamy, Notoriety
Rigid Stiff, Unyielding Flexible, Yielding
Remorseful Regretful, Repentant Unrepentant
Rebellion Revolt, Mutiny, Insurgency Loyalty
Scared Holy, Consecrated Profane, Unholy
Sane Sensible, Sound Insane
Scold Chide, Rebuke Praise
Serious Grave, Earnest Frivolous
Shy Bashful Bold, Impudent
Simple Plain, Artless Complex, Cunning, Shrewd
Solitary Single, Lonely, Secluded Numerous, Multitude
Shallow Superficial Deep
Solace Comfort, Relief Discomfort, Grief
Spurious Sham, False Genuine, Authentic
Stagnant Still, Motionless Moving
Surplus Excess Deficit, Shortage
Tame Gentle, Mild, Domesticated Savage, Wild
Teacher Instructor, Educator Student, Pupil
Tedious Wearisome, Monotonous Agreeable, Lively
Temporal Worldly, Secular Spiritual
Temperate Moderate Immoderate, Intemperate
Tortuous Winding, Circuitous Straight, Direct
Tough Hard, Strong Tender, Soft, Flexible
Transient Temporary, Fleeting Lasting, Durable, Permanent
Trusworthy Reliable Unreliable, Untrustworthy
Tranquil Calm Agitated
Ugly Unsightly, Repulsive Beautiful, Attractive
Useful Advantageous, Serviceable Useless
Vehemence Passion, Force Apathy, Indifference
 12

Words Synonyms Antonyms

Vindictive Revengeful Forgiving
Wholesome Healthy Unwholesome, Morbid,
Unhealthy, Diseased
Wicked Evil, Impious Pious, Good
Wise Sagacious, Erudite Foolish, Stupid
Wrath Anger, Fury, Rage Love, Peace, Calm
Wreck Ruin, Destroy Create, Construct
Yield Surrender, Submit Resist, Revolt
Yielding Submissive, Supple Inflexible, Intractable
Yoke Oppression, Bondage Freedom
Zeal Passion, Fervour Apathy, Indifference
Zest Relish, Enthusiasm Distaste, Disrelish

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions (Qs. 1 to 50): In the following questions 8. HARBINGER
choose the word which best expresses the MEANING A. Massenger B. Steward
of the given word. C. Forerunner D. Pilot
1. TEPID 9. INTIMIDATE
A. Hot B. Warm A. To hint B. Frighten
C. Cold D. Boiling
C. Bluff D. Harass
2. MAYHEM
10. IRONIC
A. Jubilation B. Havoc
A. Inflexible
C. Excitement D. Defeat
B. Bitter
3. TIMID
C. Good-natured
A. Fast B. Slow
D. Disguisedly sarcastic
C. Medium D. Shy
11. STRINGENT
4. CANTANKEROUS
A. Quarrelsome B. Rash A. Tense B. Stringy
C. Disrespectful D. Noisy C. Strict D. Causing to shrink
5. PRECARIOUS 12. ECSTATIC
A. Cautious B. Critical A. Animated B. Bewildered
C. Perilous D. Brittle C. Enraptured D. Willful
6. TACITURNITY 13. COMMENSURATE
A. Dumbness B. Changeableness A. Measurable B. Proportionate
C. Hesitation D. Reserve C. Beginning D. Appropriate
7. INEBRIATE 14. DESTITUTION
A. Dreamy B. Stupefied A. Humility B. Moderation
C. Unsteady D. Drunken C. Poverty D. Beggary
 13

15. ASCEND 29. DILIGENT

A. Leap B. Grow A. Progressive B. Brilliant
C. Deviate D. Mount C. Inventive D. Hard-working
16. UNCOUTH 30. DISTANT
A. Ungraceful B. Rough A. Far B. Removed
C. Slovenly D. Dirty C. Reserved D. Separate
17. LYNCH 31. FORAY
A. Hang B. Madden A. Excursion B. Contest
C. Killed D. Shoot C. Ranger D. Intuition
18. LAUD 32. FRUGALITY
A. Lord B. Eulogy A. Foolishness B. Extremity
C. Praise D. Extolled C. Enthusiasm D. Economy
19. CORRESPONDENCE 33. GARNISH
A. Agreements B. Contracts A. Paint B. Garner
C. Documents D. Letters C. Adorn D. Abuse
20. VENUE 34. VIGOUR
A. Place B. Agenda A. Strength B. Boldness
C. Time D. Duration C. Warmth D. Enthusiasm
21. STERILE 35. CANDID
A. Barren B. Arid A. Apparent B. Explicit
C. Childless D. Dry C. Frank D. Bright
22. SYNOPSIS 36. BRIEF
A. Index B. Mixture A. Limited B. Small
C. Summary D. Puzzle C. Little D. Short
23. GERMANE 37. GARRULITY
A. Responsible B. Logical A. Credulity B. Senility
C. Possible D. Relevant C. Loquaciousness D. Speciousness
24. PONDER 38. FURORE
A. Think B. Evaluate A. Excitement B. Worry
C. Anticipate D. Increase C. Flux D. Anteroom
25. CANNY 39. NEUTRAL
A. Obstinate B. Handsome A. Unbiased B. Non-aligned
C. Clever D. Stout C. Undecided D. Indifferent
26. ABUNDANT 40. LAMENT
A. Ripe B. Cheap A. Complain B. Comment
C. Plenty D. Absent C. Condone D. Console
27. CONSEQUENCES 41. ADVERSITY
A. Results B. Conclusions A. Failure B. Helplessness
C. Difficulties D. Applications C. Misfortune D. Crisis
28. SHIVER 42. TURN UP
A. Shake B. Rock A. Land up B. Show up
C. Tremble D. Move C. Crop up D. Come up
 14

43. DEIFY 56. BALANCE

A. Flatter B. Challenge A. Disbalance B. Misbalance
C. Worship D. Face C. Debalance D. Imbalance
44. ERROR 57. RELINQUISH
A. Misadventure B. Misgiving A. Abdicate B. Renounce
C. Ambiguity D. Blunder C. Possess D. Deny
45. SHALLOW 58. MOUNTAIN
A. Artificial B. Superficial A. Plain B. Plateau
C. Foolish D. Worthless C. Precipice D. Valley
46. MASSACRE 59. FICKLE
A. Murder B. Stab A. Courageous B. Sincere
C. Assassinate D. Slaughter C. Steadfast D. Humble
47. COMBAT 60. PERENNIAL
A. Conflict B. Quarrel A. Frequent B. Regular
C. Feud D. Fight C. Lasting D. Rare
48. VORACIOUS 61. RARELY
A. Wild B. Hungry A. Hardly B. Definitely
C. Angry D. Quick C. Frequently D. Periodically
49. IMPROMPTU 62. STARTLED
A. Offhand B. Unimportant A. Amused B. Relaxed
C. Unreal D. Effective C. Endless D. Astonished
50. RABBLE 63. ADHERENT
A. Mob B. Noise A. Detractor B. Enemy
C. Roar D. Rubbish C. Alien D. Rival
Directions (Qs. 51 to 100): In the following questions 64. QUIESCENT
choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the A. Indifferent B. Troublesome
given words. C. Weak D. Unconcerned
51. STRINGENT 65. CONDENSE
A. General B. Vehement A. Expand B. Distribute
C. Lenient D. Magnanimous C. Interpret D. Lengthen
52. FLIMSY 66. BENIGN
A. Frail B. Filthy A. Malevolent B. Soft
C. Firm D. Flippant C. Friendly D. Unwise
53. BUSY 67. OBSCURE
A. Occupied B. Engrossed A. Implicit B. Obnoxious
C. Relaxed D. Engaged C. Explicit D. Pedantic
54. ADAPTABLE 68. HYPOCRITICAL
A. Adoptable B. Flexible A. Gentle B. Sincere
C. Yielding D. Rigid C. Amiable D. Dependable
55. LOVE 69. EVASIVE
A. Villainy B. Hatred A. Free B. Honest
C. Compulsion D. Force C. Liberal D. Frank
 15

70. INDUSTRIOUS 84. NIGGARDLY

A. Indifferent B. Indolent A. Frugal B. Thrifty
C. Casual D. Passive C. Stingy D. Generous
71. EXTRICATE 85. PERTINENT
A. Manifest B. Palpable A. Irrational B. Irregular
C. Release D. Entangle C. Insistent D. Irrelevant
72. LUCID 86. FAINT-HEARTED
A. Glory B. Noisy A. Warm-hearted B. Full-blooded
C. Obscure D. Distinct C. Hot-blooded D. Stout-hearted
73. INSIPID 87. VIOLENT
A. Tasty B. Stupid A. Humble B. Harmless
C. Discreet D. Feast C. Gentle D. Tame
74. OBEYING 88. STATIONARY
A. Ordering B. Following A. Active B. Mobile
C. Refusing D. Contradicting C. Rapid D. Busy
75. VICTORIOUS 89. HONORARY
A. Defeated B. Annexed A. Dishonourable B. Reputed
C. Destroyed D. Vanquished C. Paid D. Official
76. COMMISSIONED 90. COMMON
A. Started B. Closed A. Rare B. Small
C. Finished D. Terminated C. Petty D. Poor
77. VANITY 91. REPEL
A. Pride B. Humility A. Attend B. Concentrate
C. Conceit D. Ostentious C. Continue D. Attract
78. ZENITH 92. ARTIFICIAL
A. Acme B. Top A. Red B. Natural
C. Nadir D. Pinnacle C. Truthful D. Solid
79. TANGIBLE 93. CAPACIOUS
A. Ethereal B. Concrete A. Limited B. Caring
C. Actual D. Solid C. Foolish D. Changeable
80. REPRESS 94. PROVOCATION
A. Inhibit B. Liberate A. Vocation B. Pacification
C. Curb D. Quell C. Peace D. Destruction
81. EPILOGUE 95. METICULOUS
A. Dialogue B. Prelude A. Mutual B. Shaggy
C. Post script D. Epigram C. Meretricious D. Slovenly
82. FRAUDULENT 96. ABLE
A. Candid B. Direct A. Disable B. Inable
C. Forthright D. Genuine C. Unable D. Enable
83. LOQUACIOUS 97. COMFORT
A. Reticent B. Talkative A. Uncomfort B. Miscomfort
C. Garrulous D. Verbose C. Discomfort D. None of these
 16

98. GAIN C. Plastic D. Cosmetic

A. Loose B. Fall 100. ACQUITTED
C. Lost D. Lose A. Freed B. Burdened
99. SYNTHETIC C. Convicted D. Entrusted
A. Affable B. Natural

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B B D A B D D C B D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C C B C D A C C D A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A C D A C C A C D A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A D C A C D C A A A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C B C D B D D B A A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C C C D B D C D C D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
D B B A C A C B B B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D C A A A D B C A B
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B D B D D D C B C A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
D B A B D C C D B C

ooo
 3 Prepositions
A Preposition is a word that comes before a Pronoun (i) He walked many kilometres.
or a Noun and expresses the relationship between (ii) He came to see me last year.
Noun or Pronoun and some part of the remaining (iii) As I could not find my puppy anywhere, I
sentence. looked here and there.
(a) He is busy with his work. Prepositions are small words that show the
(b) The boy jumped into the river. relationship between one word and another.
(c) The birds are chirping in the trees.
Prepositions in the following sentences show the
In these sentences the words with, into and in position of the paper in relation to the desk, the
show the relationship between the verbs busy, book, hand and the door.
jumped and chirping with the nouns work, river
The paper is on the desk.
and trees respectively.
The paper is under the book.
Position of the Preposition The paper is in his hand.
A. A Preposition usually precedes its object. The paper is by the door.
(i) He laughs at the poor.
(ii) He is angry with you. Common Prepositions
(iii) She agrees with me. about at by
B. In the case of Relative Pronouns it comes after in onto toward
the subject. above before concerning
(i) This is the boy whom I was looking for. inside out under
(ii) That is the pen whose mention I was across behind despite
making of. into over until
C. In the following cases, the Preposition comes after below down
after its object. like since up
(i) Where is the boy you were complaining against beneath during
against? near through upon
(ii) What things are there you are looking for? along beside except
(iii) Who is there, you are waiting for?
of throughout with
amid between for
Omission of the Prepositon
off till within
In many cases when the sentences contain Nouns of
among beyond from
Time or Place, the Prepositions from, in and for are
often omitted. on to without

17 2125 (Eng.)–3
 18 2125 (Eng.)–3-II

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: Select the most appropriate preposition 15. I baked a cake ..... the guests.
from the given alternatives to fill in the blanks and A. to B. for
make the sentence meaningfully complete. C. on D. of
1. Don’t try to be an advocate ..... these criminals. 16. She is confident ..... (her) success.
A. for B. with A. with B. on
C. across D. in C. of D. for
2. The audience admired him ..... his sweet voice. 17. The doctor will cure you ..... malaria.
A. to B. on A. of B. with
C. for D. at C. for D. from
3. I want to check your bag ..... fake currency notes. 18. This law is common ..... all.
A. to B. for A. to B. upon
C. upon D. on C. over D. at
4. The dew drops clung .... the blades of grass. 19. She was condemned ..... her bad hand writing.
A. for B. on A. on B. for
C. to D. in C. into D. of
5. The thief was chased ..... by the police. 20. In summer there will be a great demand .....
A. on B. after desert cooler.
C. into D. at A. on B. with
6. Please carry this bag ..... my room. C. for D. of
A. on B. for 21. We shall wait ..... you.
C. to D. in A. on B. for
7. A lorry bumped ..... a car. C. towards D. after
A. on B. over 22. Tom displayed his injury ..... all his friends.
C. into D. to A. for B. upon
8. They were begging ..... food. C. to D. at
A. for B. on
23. She distributed the sweets ..... the two brothers.
C. to D. after
A. among B. between
9. She always boasts ..... her wealth.
C. for D. in
A. of B. for
24. Please distribute these apples ..... all.
C. on D. after
10. She banged ..... the door violently. A. among B. to
A. for B. to C. for D. at
C. on D. down 25. It rarely happened that he defended ..... an
11. I applied ..... the post of a clerk. innocent person.
A. for B. on A. against B. for
C. in D. to C. upon D. at
12. I applied ..... the Principal for the post of a 26. The parents were disappointed ..... the
teacher. performance of their son.
A. to B. on A. on B. with
C. with D. for C. at D. of
13. I begged ..... him not to divulge the secret. 27. Common salt dissolves ..... water.
A. for B. of A. for B. in
C. with D. to C. with D. by
14. You had better borrow a pen ..... Rakesh. 28. This medicare is free ..... sugar.
A. over B. into A. on B. to
C. from D. by C. from D. of
 19

29. The manager granted leave ..... the clerk. C. into D. at

A. to B. on 40. The retired soldiers were exempted ..... all taxes.
C. into D. for A. from B. to
30. The air was heavy ..... aroma of perfumes. C. on D. of
A. on B. with 41. She was adept ..... journalism.
C. into D. from A. at B. on
31. She had a quick glance ..... the magazine. C. with D. in
A. at B. from 42. She is afraid ..... snakes.
C. into D. to A. on B. to
32. The climate of Kashmir is favourable ..... me. C. of D. with
A. with B. in 43. I agree ..... your proposal.
C. to D. for A. for B. on
33. They hate you ..... your poverty. C. to D. with
A. for B. on 44. The children were amazed ..... so big a python.
C. in D. of A. at B. on
34. He is eligible ..... this post. C. in D. with
A. for B. to 45. She was anxious ..... the final match.
C. with D. at A. about B. on
35. The smoke was emerging ..... down the foot of C. with D. for
the hill. 46. He apologized ..... his being late.
A. on B. to A. towards B. for
C. from D. at C. on D. as
36. The criminal managed to escape ..... the prison. 47. The children were amused ..... his jokes.
A. upon B. from A. for B. to
C. with D. of C. at D. on
37. You should educate your friends ..... the benefits 48. She is angry ..... you.
of living in villages. A. to B. with
A. on B. towards C. on D. for
C. upon D. in 49. She is angry ..... your teasing remark.
38. She made a lot of efforts ..... win the match. A. at B. in
A. for B. to C. for D. with
C. upon D. at 50. A big patch of land was allocated ..... the
39. The new inspector will enquire ..... the murder refugees.
case. A. to B. for
A. on B. for C. in D. upon

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C B C B C C A A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A B C B C A A B C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C B A A C B C A B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A C A A C B A B C A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A C C A A B C B A A
ooo
 20

4 Verbs
A Verb is a word that tells something about the 2. If two singular nouns joined by ‘and’ points
action or state of or happenning to a person or thing. out to the same thing or person, the verb used
A Verb tells the following: must be singular.
1. What a person or thing does. e.g., Example:
(i) Sachin goes to school daily. (i) Rice and curry is the favourite food of
(ii) The bell rang loudly. the Punjabis.
(iii) Many birds fly in the sky. (ii) The Collector and District Magistrate is
(iv) She sang a song. away.
2. What a person or thing is. e.g.,
3. In case two subjects are joined by ‘as well as’
(i) India is the biggest democracy in the world.
the verb agrees with the first subject.
(ii) Ram Mehar is very rich.
(iii) They are happy. Example :
3. What is done to a person or thing. e.g., (i) Kanta as well as her children is playing.
(i) You are liked by all. (ii) Children as well as their mother are
(ii) Two thieves were arrested. playing.
(iii) Four students were punished by the teacher. In the case of first sentence the verb ‘is’ agrees
4. What happens to a person or thing. e.g., with Kanta and in the case of second sentence
(i) His maternal uncle died last week. the verb ‘are’ agrees with the children.
(ii) Two ships sank yesterday. 4. ‘Neither’, ‘Either’, ‘Every’, ‘Each’, ‘Everyone’,
(iii) Leaves turn yellow in autumn. and ‘Many a’ are followed by a singular verb.
5. What a person or thing has, had, and so on. e.g.,
Example :
(i) I have a new car.
(i) Either of the plans is to be adopted.
(ii) He had a scooter last year.
(iii) He has several cows and goats. (ii) Neither of the two brothers is sure to pass.
(iii) Every student is expected to be obedient.
It goes without saying that a verb is the most
(iv) Everyone of them desires this.
important part of a sentence. No sentence is complete
(v) Many a person is drowned in the sea.
without a Verb.
5. If two subjects are joined by ‘Either ....... or’ /
Important Information ‘Neither .......... nor’, the verb agrees with the
1. If two or more singular nouns are joined by subject near to ‘or’ or ‘nor’.
‘and’ the verb used will be plural. Example :
Example: (i) Either my brother or I am to do this work.
(i) He and I were going to the market. (ii) Neither he nor they are prepared to do
(ii) Ram and Mohan are friends. this work.

20
 21

6. ‘A great many’ is always followed by a ‘plural Example :

noun’ and a ‘plural verb’. e.g., (i) The boy with his parents has arrived.
A great many students have been declared (ii) He, no less than I, is to blame.
successful. 8. Nouns, plural in form, but singular in meaning,
7. Similarly if two subjects are joined by ‘with’, take a singular verb.
‘together with’, ‘no less than’, in addition to Example :
‘and not’, etc. the verb agrees with the first This news was broadcast from television
subject. yesterday.

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions (Qs. 1-20): Fill in the blanks with correct 10. The bell ......... (ring) just now.
present tense forms of the verbs given in brackets. A. rings B. ringing
1. They ......... (live) in Shri Nagar for five years. C. rung D. has rung
A. are living B. were living 11. She ......... (attend) college since 4th July.
C. has been living D. have been living A. has been attending B. attends
2. At the moment the child ......... (play) in the C. is attending D. attended
garden. 12. Why ......... (you come) late every day?
A. playing B. plays A. do you come B. did you come
C. is playing D. has been playing C. have you come D. did you come
3. I ......... (tell) you already about it. 13. When he ......... (meet) you, he will love you.
A. told B. have told A. will meet B. is meeting
C. tells D. am telling C. meets D. has met
4. If you .... (study) hard, you will secure a first 14. It ......... (not rain) now.
division. A. does not rain B. did not rain
A. studied B. study C. has not rained D. is not raining
C. have studies D. are study 15. I ......... (not yet give) up hope.
5. She .........(pass) the post office on her way to A. have not yet given B. do not yet given
school every day. C. did not yet give D. am not giving
A. is passing B. has been passing 16. If you ......... (be) hungry, you can eat.
C. passes D. passed A. being B. are
6. He ......... (read) since morning. C. have been D. will be
A. have been reading B. has been reading 17. The earth ......... (move) round the sun.
C. is reading D. had been reading A. is moving B. has been moving
7. This pen ......... (cost) me ten rupees. C. moves D. moving
A. costs B. costing 18. The sun ......... (rise) in the east and ......... (set) in
C. has cost D. costed the west.
8. He ......... (wait) for me since morning. A. rising, is setting
A. has been waiting B. have been waiting B. rises, sets
C. had been waiting D. is waiting C. rising, setting
9. The sun ......... (shine) by day. D. has been rising, has been setting
A. shining B. has been shining 19. He ......... (suffer) from malaria since day before
C. shines D. is shining yesterday.
 22

A. has been suffering 27. She ......... (leave) for Jammu yesterday.
B. have been suffering A. leaves B. is leaving
C. suffers C. has been leaving D. left
D. is suffering 28. He ......... (teach) in this college for five years.
20. It ......... (rain) all the year round here. A. teaches B. is teaching
A. has rained B. is raining C. taught D. has been teaching
C. rains D. has been raining 29. I ......... (write) to her last week.
Directions (Qs. 21-25): Fill in the blanks with A. wrote
correct future tense forms of the verbs given in B. have been writing
brackets. C. had been writing
D. written
21. I don’t think we ......... (meet) again.
A. are meeting B. will be meeting 30. He ......... (be) weak in English in the beginning.
C. will meet D. can meet A. being B. been
C. was D. had been
22. He ......... (be) here early next month.
A. was B. has been 31. People ......... (vote) them out in the recent
C. had been D. will be elections.
A. were voting B. have been voting
23. If I go to school late, the teacher ......... (punish) C. voted D. have voted
me.
32. I ........... (have) my breakfast at 8.30 a.m.
A. is punishing B. punishing
yesterday.
C. will punish D. shall punish
A. am having B. was having
24. If you study hard, you ......... (get) a first class. C. will be having D. have been doing
A. are getting B. will get
33. I ......... (write) a letter when she knocked at
C. will be getting D. shall get the door.
25. He ......... (leave) for Shri Nagar next week. A. wrote B. had writing
A. will leave B. shall leave C. have written D. was writing
C. going to leave D. will be leaving 34. We ......... (bathe) in the river when it was
Directions (Qs. 26-35): Fill in the blanks with raining.
correct past tense forms of the verbs given in A. were bathing B. have been bathing
brackets. C. are bathing D. did bath
26. He ......... (buy) a car one month ago. 35. He ......... (watch) television when I came in.
A. bought B. has bought A. watched B. was watching
C. has been buying D. had been buying C. had watched D. has been watching

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D C B B C B C A C D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A C D A B C B A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C D C B A A D C A C
31 32 33 34 35
C B D A B
ooo
 23

5 Comprehension Passages

In the English language paper, questions on comprehension test are very

important for the students appearing in the competitive examinations.
Comprehension means the act of comprehending or the capacity of the
mind to understand. In the examination papers, questions on comprehension
test are included to judge the ability of the examinees to understand the
given passage.
Therefore, you should understand how to solve these questions. Practice of
solving these questions will greatly help you in the examination.

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: Read the following passages carefully courage. On the other hand, I have seen men who
and answer the questions given after each passage. undoubtedly possessed moral courage but were
Out of the four alternatives, choose the correct very cautious about taking physical risks. But I
answer according to the context of the passage. have never met a man with moral courage who
couldn’t, when it was really necessary, face a
PASSAGE-1 situation boldly.
1. All virtues become meaningful because of:
Courage is not only the basis of all virtue; it is its
A. faith B. charity
expression. Faith, hope, charity and all the rest
C. courage D. hope
don’t become virtues until it takes courage to
exercise them. There are roughly two types of 2. Physical courage is an expression of:
courage. The first, an emotional state which urges a A. emotions B. deliberation
man to risk injury or death, is physical courage. The C. uncertainty D. defiance
second, a more reasoning attitude which enables 3. People with physical courage often lack:
him to take coolly his career, happiness, his whole A. mental balance
future, or his judgement of what he thinks either B. capacity for reasoning
right or worthwhile, is moral courage. C. emotional stability
I have known many men, who had marked D. will to fight
physical courage, but lacked moral courage. Some 4. A man with moral courage can:
of them were in high places, but they failed to be A. defy his enemies
great in themselves because they lacked moral B. overcome all difficulties
23
 24

C. face a situation boldly C. threaten the existence of mental activities

D. be very pragmatic D. are useless
5. A man of courage is: 3. The writer prefers:
A. cunning B. intelligent A. modern pleasures to office work
C. curious D. careful B. modern pleasures to journalism
C. neither journalism nor office work
PASSAGE-2 D. journalism and office work to modern
With human beings the world ever ensnared by the pleasures
performance of mechanical tasks and the pursuit of 4. Modern pleasures, according to the writer:
equally mechanical distractions, the time is not A. are indispensable
distant when nothing but the most abominable B. are useless because they don’t amuse men
entertainments will succeed in steering them. If it C. cripple the sense of participation
happens so, the present civilisation will emerge as D. do not make men take the initiative
a mere imitation of the Roman in which the Romans 5. Which of the following is correct?
desired more gladiators, tightrope walking elephants
A. The author says that reading newspapers
and fantastically rare animals to be slaughtered.
is bad
This is one danger which is likely to cut at the roots
of the modern civilisation because it threatens the B. Mental effort is not required in reading
existence of mental activities. newspapers
C. We should imitate Romans
I would prefer to be bored by an eight hour job
D. We should slaughter animals
in an office or writing streams of words of journalism
rather than be amused by the monotony of modern
pleasures. It is the lack of participation which is the PASSAGE-3
most damaging aspect of modern pleasures. This
Life is a struggle. “We live in deeds and not in
organised distraction combines within itself the
years.” If we rest, we rust. If we work, we shine like
performance of movies, gramophones, radios and
jewels. Adventures are the essence of life but action
the press which go a long way in killing the residue
also entails contemplation. Proper action needs the
of initiative or sense of participation. Even in the
proper initiative. Napoleon took the wrong initiative
case of newspapers, no mental effort is required on
and brought the downfall of France. Proper action
the part of the readers as the contents are presented
is always taken by the wise persons. The wise
in such a cut and dried manner that one need
persons always foreshadow the hardships for
not undergo the fatigue of a single thought.
Consequently for years together men continue executing a policy. They become passive when they
scanning newspapers and magazines by merely forecast that their efforts are at stake. All great leaders
moving their eyes. and diplomats take the steps keeping in view their
reputation.
If idealists failed to stem the rot, in future,
pleasures will take on incredibly monstrous shape. We should strike when the iron is hot. Some
persons take the steps haphazardly with the result
1. The writer feels that human activities and that they lose the opportunity and thus they are
distractions are: treated as fools. Angels are wise people and very
A. logical B. interesting particular about their action. It has been the aim of
C. intellectual D. mechanical all philosophers to understand the world. After
2. According to the passage, entertainments: understanding, they move very gradually and not
A. relieve a man like fools who plunge into the situation without
B. are badly needed contemplation. Mr. Ayub Khan under Bhutto’s
 25 2125 (Eng.)–4

influence plunged into war with India inflicting anything he may set his mind upon, however
destruction to humanity. Our ex-Prime Minister Lal impossible it may seem apparently.
Bahadur Shastri gauged the situation. He responded A man with determination and iron will can
to the challenge of Pakistan and won the battle. defeat all hurdles in the way of his mission. Even
Fools always meddle with the situation without the most intelligent people suffer in life if they
bringing about any change but wise persons cannot cope with their circumstances and labour
penetrate into the matter and take the appropriate hard to achieve the goal of their life. A genius who
action. is fired with real zeal and determination to achieve
1. According to the writer: his ideal comes to possess the necessary capacity to
A. Napoleon acted wisely bear the hardships, cross the hurdles and achieve
B. we may rust like iron the final victory. Genius and hard work go together
C. we may shine like metals to bring the desired results. The stage of greatness
D. leaders and diplomats act keeping in view comes after many stages of frustration and
their reputation disappointment. The weaker man gives way to those
2. Some people are treated as fools because: frustrations but the genius perseveres and holds on
A. they act haphazardly to their mission until they achieve the object of
B. they strike when the iron is hot their life.
C. they act like philosophers 1. The writer feels that victory over failure:
D. all of the above A. is not possible
3. Mr. Ayub Khan was: B. is not good
A. wise to decalre war against India C. is absolute
B. foolish to disobey Bhutto D. is not easy
C. not wise in declaring war against India 2. According to the passage genius implies:
D. none of the above A. failing again and again
4. What is the aim of the philosopher? B. capacity of taking trouble and hardship
A. To act like angels C. stages of frustration and disappointment
B. To act like Ayub Khan D. escape from hardship
C. To act like Bhutto
3. Which of the following is correct?
D. To understand the world
A. Only dull people should work hard
5. The passage implies that: B. Intelligent people need not labour hard
A. one should act quickly C. Even intelligent people have to cope with
B. understanding should precede action circumstances
C. fools penetrate into the matter D. None of the above
D. none of the above
4. It can be inferred that:
A. genius and hard work go together
PASSAGE-4 B. genius and hard work are opposed to each
Every genius that comes to the world, achieves other
greatness through the capacity of taking trouble. C. genius and hard work end in frustration
All great men of the world who have achieved D. all of the above
impossible things in their lifetime have undergone 5. A man can defeat all hurdles by:
hardships, sacrifices, trials and tribulations. There is A. coping with all situations
no easy victory over failure. No hard achievement B. strong determination and iron will
is smooth and easy. History of great men reminds us C. becoming strong
that with strong determination man can achieve D. becoming tall
 26

PASSAGE-5 B. developed countries can be idle

C. underdeveloped countries can be idle
It is said that wars are fought for the sake of peace. D. all of the above
Many a politician justifies wars as being the means 4. Computers and automations:
of bringing about stability in the international A. have made man idle
relations. So far as the aim of those who are always B. could not relieve man from busy life
busy in society is concerned, their motive is not C. both of the above
always to achieve freedom from work. Their ultimate D. none of the above
purpose is not to be idle. To be busy is a mode of 5. With the passage of time man is becoming
life or habit. Those who are busy in society, say, busier because:
businessmen, or people in authority, politicians or A. he likes to be busy
statesmen, officials or employees, are all part of the B. he is born to be busy
continuous machine which keeps the society going. C. to be busy is mode of life or habit
People are busy so that different activities of a D. all of the above
society are carried out and the wherewithals which
mankind badly needs are provided. No society, PASSAGE-6
however, prosperous and endowed with bounties of
nature, can afford to have the objective of being The history of civilization shows how man always
idle in the long run. No doubt, advanced countries has to choose between making the right and wrong
ensured minimum facilities of living and amenities use of the discoveries of science. This has never
of work for their workmen; they even fix their been more true than in our own age. In a brief
working hours so that after their busy day’s life period amazing discoveries have been made and
they can have some leisure at their disposal for self applied to practical purpose.
development or peace of mind. Yet, with the passage It would be ungrateful not to recognize how
of time a busy society has the tendency to become immense are the boons, which science has given to
busier. Even with the best computers and mankind. It has brought within the reach of
automations at the disposal of the modern multitudes benefits and advantages which only a
technocrats manpower continues to remain busy, as short time ago were the privilege of the few. It has
one phase of achievement leads automatically to shown how malnutrition, hunger and disease can be
the second phase of work. War may have the overcome. It has not only lengthened life but has
intention of peace but business is unending so long deepened its quality also. Fields of knowledge,
as a society has the objective of progress and does experience and recreation open in the past only for
not become stationary or stagnant or decadent. a few, have been thrown open to millions. Through
1. According to the passage, busy people: the work of science the ordinary man today has
A. want freedom from work been given the opportunity of a longer and fuller
B. want to be idle life than was ever possible to his grandparents.
C. do not like rest 1. Amazing discoveries of science have been
D. are part of a machine which runs society made:
2. Why are people busy? A. in a brief period
A. to carry out different activities of society B. in a long period
B. to provide needs of mankind C. in our forefather’s age
C. both A and B D. in centuries
D. none of the above 2. The boons of science are:
3. Author says that: A. few B. found nowhere
A. no society can be idle C. immense D. very few
 27

3. Which of the following can be overcome with 2. A person doing more and getting little:
the help of science? A. is rare everywhere
A. Malnutrition B. Disease B. is found in our country
C. Hunger D. All of these C. is common in all countries
4. Science provides a chance of: D. is found nowhere
A. shorter and fuller life 3. The man who talks about his ‘rights’:
B. longer and fuller life A. avoids meeting other people
C. longer and dull life B. avoids hard work
D. none of these C. knows his duties well
5. What on the whole, has science done to D. believes in hard work
mankind? 4. The man who talks of ‘duties’:
A. It has reduced the quality of our life A. is always hard working
B. It has shortened our life B. avoids hard work
C. It has deepened the quality of life C. does not know his duties well
D. It has done a great harm to mankind D. always thinks of his ‘right’ first
5. Which one of the following thinks that the
PASSAGE-7 individual is in debt to the society?
Each nation has its own peculiar character which A. a person who talks of his ‘rights only’
distinguishes it from others. But the peoples of the B. a person who is always doing more than
world have more points in which they are all like his sheer talks of ‘duties’
each other than points in which they are different. C. every citizen of the country
One type of person that is common in every country D. a person who talks of his ‘duties’ only
is the one who always tries to do as little as he
possibly can and to get as much in return as he can. PASSAGE-8
His opposite, the man who is in the habit of doing
English education, which was introduced in India
more than is strictly necessary and is ready to accept
what is offered in return, is rare everywhere. in the earlier part of the nineteenth century,
established her cultural contact with the West. Prior
Both these types are usually unconscious of to this, India had for centuries remained in a state
their character. The man who avoids effort is always of isolation, although in very early times she had
talking about his ‘rights’; he appears to think that sent out cultural missions to the other Asiatic
society owes him a pleasant easy life. The man who countries. India really began to borrow from the
is always doing more than his sheer talks of ‘duties’ West and assimilate new ideas on an extensive scale
feels that the individual is in debt to society, and
only after the British had taken up the direction of
not society to the individual. As a result of their
her educational policy.
view, neither of these men thinks that he behaves
at all strangely. It is true that Western education at first exerted
an unsettling influence on young men and led to
1. What type of person is common in every
nation? errors in life and conduct. They hated everything
A. A person who wants to do little and get Indian, aped Western manners and modes of life,
more and forgot their glorious past. There were scholars
B. A person who wants to do more and get who ignored modern Indian languages, avoided
little classical Indian literature, and made a fetish of
C. Each person is different speaking and writing English.
D. There is no such type of person that is 1. When was English education introduced in
common in every country India?
 28

A. in the twentieth century 1. The purpose of education is to make the

B. in the later part of the nineteenth century student:
C. in the earlier part of the nineteenth century A. an expert in all fields
D. in the eighteenth century B. an expert in his subject
2. When did India begin to borrow from the C. only capable of earning
West? D. confident only
A. after the British had taken up the direction 2. What, according to the writer, is the end?
of her educational policy A. excellence in the field choosen
B. before the British had taken up the B. passing the examination
direction of her educational policy C. earning more and more money
C. in the twentieth century D. cramming lectures and books
D. none of the above is correct 3. According to the passage, can a man become
3. What did India send out to other Asiatic an expert in all fields?
countries? A. Yes B. Partially yes
A. economic mission B. military forces C. Sometimes D. No
C. cultural missions D. none of these 4. According to the writer, which of the following
4. Western education exerted an unsettling is the most important work?
influence on: A. someone else’s work
A. old men B. young men B. one’s own work
C. old women D. children C. nobody’s work
D. everyone’s work
5. Young men forgot their:
A. glorious past B. present 5. The modern civilization has provided:
C. future D. originality A. vocational education
B. art of conversation
C. adult education
PASSAGE-9
D. higher education
The purpose of education is to make the student an
expert in his subject. This must be clearly PASSAGE-10
understood, and mere muddling through lessons
and lectures and books and passing examination What are the good parts of our civilization? First
and foremost there are order and safety. If today I
are relegated to secondary importance as means to
have a quarrel with another man, I do not get beaten
the end—which is excellence in the field choosen.
merely because I am physically weaker and he can
But there are so many fields, and no man can knock me down. I go to law and the law will decide
become an expert in all the fields. It is necessary to as fairly as it can between the two of us. Thus in
decide which fields are the important ones that a disputes between man and man. Right has taken the
man should know well. place of might. Moreover, the law protects me from
It is clear that one’s own work is the most robbery and violence. Nobody may come and break
important. This has been realised and modern into my house, steal my books or run off with my
civilization has accordingly provided vocational children. Of course, there are burglars, but they are
education. It is now possible to acquire high very rare and the law punishes them whenever, it
professional skill in the various fields, medicine, catches them.
engineering, production, commerce and so on—but It is difficult for us to realize how much this
with good and bad mixed together, and no standard safety means. Without safety those higher activities
for guidance. of mankind which make up civilization could not
 29

go on. The inventor could not invent, the scientist world. In the busiest countries, each individual has
find out or the artist make beautiful things. Hence, fixed hundreds human slaves in his machines.
order and safety, although they are not themselves What are the consequences of this abnormal
civilization, are things without which civilization power? Before the War, it looked as though it might
could be impossible. They are as necessary to our be possible, for the first time in history to provide
civilization as the air we breathe is to us; and we food and clothing and shelter for the teeming
have grown so used to them that we do not notice population of the world—every man, woman and
them any more than we notice the air. child. This would have been the greatest triumphs
1. The first and foremost good parts of of science. And yet, if you remember, we saw the
civilization are: world crammed, full of food and people hungry.
A. order and insecurity Today, the larders are bare and millions, starving.
B. only insecurity That’s the war, you would say. When the machines
C. order and safety of peace once more begin to hum, will we see more
D. insecurity and lawlessness and more food and less people hungry? For what’s
2. In disputes between man and man: the way of science and machine age — it produces
A. right has taken the place of might the goods, it makes the goods but ignores the
B. might has taken the place of right consequences.
C. might is right
1. According to the passage, which of the
D. none of the above
following is not necessary to fly?
3. According to the passage, the burglars are:
A. Wings B. Arms
A. many B. rare
C. Feet D. Machines
C. found nowhere D. not punished
2. Petrol machinery is used to provide:
4. An artist can create beautiful things only if:
A. ten times more power than human beings
A. there is disorder
B. there is no safety in the world
C. there is safety B. less power than human beings in the world
D. there is neither safety nor order C. as much power as human beings in the
world
5. According to the writer, man does not notice
D. none of the above is correct
order and safety as:
A. he does not notice the air he breathes 3. What could be one of the greatest triumphs of
B. he does not notice the food he eats science?
C. he does not notice the shelter he needs A. to provide food, clothing and shelter to
D. none of the above is correct everyone
B. none would get food, clothing and shelter
C. only rich people would get food, clothing
PASSAGE-11 and shelter
This is the age of the machine. Machines are D. people would get only clothing
everywhere, in the fields, in the factory, at home, in 4. This is the age of the:
the street, in the city, in the country, everywhere. A. machine B. animal husbandry
To fly, it is not necessary to have wings; there are C. agriculture D. wars
machines. To swim under the sea, it is not necessary 5. The machine age produces:
to have gills; there are machines. To kill our A. goods
fellowmen in overwhelming numbers, there are B. food
machines. Petrol driven machines alone provide ten C. goods but avoids the consequences
times more power than all human beings in the D. none of the above
 30

ANSWERS
PASSAGE-1 PASSAGE-7
1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5
C A B C D
A A B A C
PASSAGE-2
1 2 3 4 5 PASSAGE-8
D C D C B 1 2 3 4 5
C A C B A
PASSAGE-3
1 2 3 4 5
D A C D B PASSAGE-9
1 2 3 4 5
PASSAGE-4 B A D B A
1 2 3 4 5
D B C A B
PASSAGE-10
PASSAGE-5 1 2 3 4 5
1 2 3 4 5 C A B C A
D C A B C
PASSAGE-11
PASSAGE-6
1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5
A C D B C A A A A C

ooo
 6 Cloze Test

A cloze test is a procedure in which a person is asked to supply words that

have been removed from a passage as a test of his ability to comprehend text.
Practise it regularly to score well.

PASSAGES
Directions: In each of the following passages some 3. A. unexplored B. unseen
numbered blank spaces are given. For each numbered C. untouched D. unapproached
blank space four answer choices are given. Pick out 4. A. lack B. dearth
the one which is the most appropriate for that blank C. shortage D. insufficiency
space, keeping the trend of the passage in mind. 5. A. extricate B. intricate
C. intrinsic D. internecine
Passage-1 6. A. company B. assistance
Mankind’s most ....(1).... treasure of thoughts is C. friendship D. companionship
carefully preserved in the golden casket of books. 7. A. defiant B. defendant
The ....(2).... of books is as vast as the universe, for C. defensible D. delusive
there is no corner of it which they have left ....(3).... . 8. A. adapt B. adopt
There is no ....(4).... of books on any topic, be C. exist D. co-exist
it as simple as the composition of sodium nitrate or
as ....(5).... as the mechanism of a spacecraft Passage-2
rocketing towards Mars. The ....(6).... of books is not Though the government has tried to ....(1)....
only most easily available but is enlightened, Naxalism with all its might, much more needs to be
dependable and lifelong. In times of distress they done to totally root out the ....(2).... of Naxalism.
make us stoically ....(7).... of the object that causes The roots of Naxalism ....(3).... economic backward-
uneasiness and we learn to ....(8).... with the sting of ness and social exploitation of the peasants and the
adversity. weaker classes. Thus, the best way to ....(4).... Naxalism
is to bring the naxals ....(5).... the mainstream. ....(6)....
Questions policies and schemes should be implemented
effectively ....(7).... the Naxals economically stable.
1. A. costly B. important They should be ....(8).... to participate in democratic
C. valuable D. vast processes. The government has to ....(9).... the social
2. A. area B. scope upliftment of the Naxals. Use of force in ....(10)....
C. storage D. kingdom Naxalism will yield little success.
31
 32

Questions 3. A. guess B. forecast

C. comprehend D. approximate
1. A. crush B. handle
C. tackle D. suppress 4. A. whole B. entirety
C. fruition D. fullness
2. A. menace B. whole
C. gamut D. stems 5. A. strong B. changing
C. powerful D. sonorous
3. A. lies in B. are in
C. abound in D. exist in 6. A. convey B. communicate
C. entertain D. enjoy
4. A. crash B. crush
C. break D. defy 7. A. onto B. to
C. on D. at
5. A. in B. on
C. into D. within 8. A. back B. earlier
C. behind D. before
6. A. Current B. Latest
C. Occurring D. Existing 9. A. addendum B. adherence
C. afoot D. advent
7. A. so that B. so as to make
C. such that D. to make 10. A. allowed B. privileged
C. brought D. offered
8. A. insisted B. brought
C. encouraged D. forced
Passage-4
9. A. assure B. insure
C. guarantee D. ensure What is required today in our country is ....(1).... of
a new political culture based on full respect for
10. A. countering B. defying
human liberty, on pluralism and on a better social
C. banishing D. desecrating
deal for all. The major ....(2).... facing us today is to
carry out democratic transformation in all the
Passage-3 ....(3)...., social, cultural, economic and political. The
We are living in very exciting ....(1).... . The ....(2).... events of the 20th century ....(4).... one thing
change is dizzying and the impact this progress is absolutely clear that human ....(5)...., everywhere,
having on our present and — more importantly — specially in countries whose political structures were
on our future is difficult to ....(3).... in its ...(4).... . ....(6).... to reflect the revolutionary aspirations of
This is the age of ....(5).... micro-processors, the people ....(7).... not only under stress and strain
sophisticated software, new hardware technology but are ....(8).... vast upheavals because of the ....(9)....
and high bandwidth, high-speed networks. The PC of democracy. At the same time it has also to be
gave us a new way to work, play and ....(6).... . In understood that democracy cannot be ....(10).... into
fact, it brought ....(7).... our desktops computing a static mould.
power, which until a few years ....(8).... had only
been available to corporates. With the ....(9).... of Questions
the internet, the PC ....(10).... us the most convenient 1. A. growing B. developing
and flexible way to head on to the Net. C. creating D. creation
2. A. development B. crisis
Questions C. challenge D. drawback
1. A. periods B. days 3. A. corners B. context
C. phase D. times C. realm D. spheres
2. A. phase B. pace 4. A. have made B. has made
C. sphere D. drastic C. had made D. made
 33 2125 (Eng.)–5

5. A. travails B. traverse 7. A. among B. across

C. traps D. transverse C. between D. of
6. A. supposed B. meant 8. A. developed B. evolved
C. caused D. forced C. promoted D. entertained
7. A. were B. was 9. A. for B. to
C. are D. have been C. among D. by
8. A. developing B. evolving 10. A. subsidiary B. subsequent
C. experiencing D. faced with C. subservience D. subordination
9. A. denial B. rebuff 11. A. various B. varying
C. rebuttal D. absence C changing D. differing
10. A. shaped B. flex
C. frozen D. caused Passage-6
Visualisation is a strong ....(1).... to memory. Those
Passage-5 persons who ......(2)..... a powerful memory cannot
For centuries, women not only in India but all over do so without taking the help of visualisation. Such
the world ....(1).... treated as ....(2).... secondary persons have developed the skills to ....(3)....
position to men. ....(3).... human history men ....(4).... visualisation even in such ....(4).... tasks as
far greater power then women to name, classify, and remembering names and numbers. These persons
order the worlds in which they both live. ....(5).... have the names and numbers ....(5).... in their brain
studies in various parts of the world point out to a even after hearing those names and figures only
wide ....(6).... in male and female roles ....(7).... cultures once. On the other hand those who take the help of
and demonstrate the possibility of change in these revising to memorise ....(6).... to forget it once they
sex-determined roles. The 20th century in particular have ....(7).... the practice of revising ....(8).... the
....(8).... the cause of gender justice by ones who have applied visualisation to memorise.
internationalizing struggles for equality ....(9).... Psychologists ....(9).... in visualisation a powerful
women and other oppressed people. Women’s tool for personality development. The more you
struggles against their ....(10).... were intertwined in visualise, the more you are ....(10).... your attitude
....(11).... degrees with ideologies and movements and behaviour to the blue prints of your vision and
based on the values of freedom, self-determination, ....(11).... more you are inching towards success.
equality, democracy and justice.
Questions
Questions
1. A. way B. path
1. A. has been B. have been C. aid D. symptom
C. had been D. were
2. A. command B. master
2. A. occupying B. taking C. rule D. enjoy
C. possessing D. serving
3. A. use B. apply
3. A. All through B. Throughout
C. put D. place
C. Since D. From
4. A. trivial B. difficult
4. A. have B. had
C. have had D. enjoy C. mundane D. unscrupulous
5. A. Sociological B. Anthropological 5. A. impress B. imprinted
C. General D. Practical C. impinge D. store
6. A. concord B. repulsion 6. A. bent B. incline
C. disagreement D. variation C. prone d. tend
 34 2125 (Eng.)–5-II

7. A. dropped B. left 9. A. instances B. events

C. gave up D. given up C. circumstances D. happenings
8. A. unlike B. opposite 10. A. have not yet been
C. contrary D. not like B. haven’t been
9. A. found B. have found C. are not yet
C. sees D. finds D. yet have not been
10. A. shaping B. moulding 11. A. common B. general
C. making D. attuning C. infrastructural D. structural
11. A. actually B. factually
C. subsequently D. consequently
Passage-8
The Naxal problem in India is basically socio-
Passage-7 economic in ....(1).... . The main reasons ....(2).... the
The development of an area depends on the resources Naxal movement in India are the ....(3).... of peasants
....(1).... in the area, the needs and ....(2).... of the and their weak social and economic position. ....(4)....
people living there and the technological skill of the peasants are landless labourers whose lands
....(3).... by them. Humans play an important and have been ....(5).... occupied by the landlords.
decisive role in the ....(4).... of development of an Moreover, the landlords give ....(6).... wages to the
area. We choose the ....(5).... of resources which peasants. Their ....(7).... suffering at the hands of the
could be developed to our ....(6).... . The natural landlords thus encourage many peasants to take law
....(7).... available in an area ....(8).... value as a resource ....(8).... their own hands. Due to their poor economic
only when people find a use for them. There are condition the peasants easily ....(9).... the trap of the
....(9).... where large potential resources are available, naxal leaders who have their ....(10).... interests.
but they ....(10).... developed for economic reasons. Illiteracy, unemployment, police excesses,
Lack of capital for investments, roads and railway corruption and ....(11).... administration further
lines, and other ....(11).... facilities may stand in the ....(12).... this complex problem.
way of resource development.
Questions
Questions 1. A. form B. shape
1. A. present B. prevalent C. behaviour D. nature
C. available D. exist 2. A. for B. of
2. A. inspirations B. aspirations C. in D. behind
C. ambitions D. curiosity
3. A. complaisance B. exploitation
3. A. handled B. practised C. domination D. exculpation
C. availed D. possessed
4. A. Many B. Much
4. A. system B. design C. Most D. All
C. pattern D. style
5. A. imperiously B. imperatively
5. A. class B. group
C. forcefully D. forcibly
C. variety D. types
6. A. good B. advantage 6. A. improper B. small
C. approach D. favour C. inadequate D. insufficient
7. A. secrets B. phenomenon 7. A. long B. brutal
C. products D. endowments C. pathetic D. great
8. A. get B. acquire 8. A. in B. into
C. possess D. takes C. on D. by
 35

9. A. fall into B. fall in 9. A. wipe out B. wipe off

C. fell in D. fell into C. wipe up D. wiped
10. A. selfish B. vested 10. A. keep B. put
C. vicious D. vindictive C. put up D. set
11. A. failed B. improper 11. A. ongoing B. continuing
C. inefficient D. bureaucratic C. unending D. frequent
12. A. heighten B. deepen 12. A. insurmountable B. intangible
C. add D. worsen C. inscrutable D. incorrigible
13. A. killing B. hurting
Passage-9 C. destroying D. nipping
No doubt various ....(1).... and Acts are there to 14. A. Here B. There
eliminate the ....(2).... practice of child labour. But C. Therein D. Herein
the ....(3).... is that, these are not being implemented
in both letter and spirit, for which the ....(4).... of the Passage-10
problem remains as it was. Therefore a judicious, Every action we perform ....(1).... a result. And,
pragmatic, integrated and time-bound ....(5).... naturally, we lay claim ....(2).... the results or fruits
supplemented by ....(6).... follow-up action is essential ....(3).... from that action in the ....(4).... that it is we
to ....(7).... the problem that ....(8).... deep root in our who perform the action. This is .....(5).... ignorance
Society. It is true that child labour can’t be ....(9)... because ....(6).... is it the Lord who ....(7).... the
with a magic wand. If we ....(10).... time-bound goals result of any action, it is by His will ....(8).... that
and follow, of course, with the ....(11).... assistance even the action is accomplished. The will of the
of ILO and UNICEF, it is possible to eliminate the Lord ....(9).... whether we cooperate with His will or
problem of child labour. With strong political will strive ....(10).... . If God wills that an action takes
power and people’s backing nothing is ....(12).... . place, he arranges for the ....(11).... for it to happen.
Rather ....(13).... the bud we should let it blossom It is ....(12).... experience that sometimes despite
and spread its fragrance all around. ....(14).... lies the our best efforts we ....(13).... achieve the results we
progress and prosperity of the society. desire, and at other times the seemingly most
Questions ....(14).... situations mysteriously get ....(15).... .
....(16).... way man chooses to act, both the act and
1. A. means B. methods the outcome of the cost are dependent ....(17).... on
C. source D. provisions the will of the Lord.
2. A. unjust B. inhuman
C. mal D. illegal Questions
3. A. anxiety B. abrasion 1. A. produce B. produces
C. tragedy D. conclusion C. causes D. undergoes
4. A. magnitude B. depth 2. A. on B. at
C. gravity D. soaring C. to D. for
5. A. approach B. analysis 3. A. occurring B. obtaining
C. survey D. scheme C. deriving D. falling
6. A. continuous B. thorough 4. A. belief B. hope
C. throughout D. regular C. fantasy D. folly
7. A. outroot B. uproot 5. A. sheen B. keen
C. downroot D. grassroot C. sheer D. sheathe
8. A. have B. has 6. A. alone B. only that
C. had D. has taken C. not only D. for only
 36

7. A. declares B. decides 12. A. usual B. general

C. ordains D. ornate C. universal D. common
8. A. completely B. entirely 13. A. does not B. may not
C. only D. alone C. do not D. might not
9. A. prevails always 14. A. intractable B. intangible
B. prevails everywhere C. internecine D. intricate
C. is prevalent 15. A. subsided B. resolved
D. always prevails C. solved D. converted
10. A. alone B. always 16. A. Whatever B. All the
C. constantly D. independently C. All those D. Whichever
11. A. wherewithal B. whereabouts 17. A. mainly B. actually
C. whatsoever D. wherefore C. entirely D. generally

ANSWERS
PASSAGE-1 7 8 9 10 11
1 2 3 4 5 6 A A B D D
C D A B B D PASSAGE-7
7 8
A D 1 2 3 4 5 6
PASSAGE-2 C B D C D B
7 8 9 10 11
1 2 3 4 5 6
D B A A C
C A A B C D
7 8 9 10 PASSAGE-8
B C D A 1 2 3 4 5 6
PASSAGE-3 D A B C D C
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
D B C B C B A B A B C D
7 8 9 10
PASSAGE-9
A D D D
PASSAGE-4 1 2 3 4 5 6
D B C A A D
1 2 3 4 5 6
D C D A A B 7 8 9 10 11 12
7 8 9 10 B D B D B A
C C A C 13 14
D C
PASSAGE-5
1 2 3 4 5 6 PASSAGE-10
B A B C B D 1 2 3 4 5 6
7 8 9 10 11 B C B A C C
B C D D B 7 8 9 10 11 12
PASSAGE-6 C D D D A D
1 2 3 4 5 6 13 14 15 16 17
C A B C B D C A B D C

ooo
 37

7 Determiners
Determiners are actually Adjectives. They are always 4. Numerical Determiners
followed by nouns. e.g., a few, some, few, the few, any, several,
Determiners are of the following kinds: many, no, etc.
One, two, three ... (Cardinals)
1. Demonstrative Determiners
First, second, third ... (Ordinals)
e.g., this, that, these, those
5. Distributive Determiners
2. Possessive Determiners
e.g., my, our, your, his, her, its, their e.g., either, neither

3. Quantitative Determiners 6. Articles

e.g., some, any, much, enough, sufficient, whole, Indefinite: a, an
a little, the little, little, all, both Definite: the

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: In the following questions choose the 6. My brother is ......... MBA.
correct options to fill the blanks. A. a B. an
1. Give me ......... rice. C. the D. any
A. some B. few 7. Have you got ......... cheese?
C. a few D. any A. some B. many
2. ......... sheep grazing on the slope of the hill C. a few D. few
had gone away. 8. No, I haven’t got ......... cheese.
A. Any B. The few A. many B. few
C. This D. Much C. any D. some
3. Have you got ......... magazines to read?
9. There is only ......... milk left in the bottle.
A. all B. much
A. enough B. few
C. some D. little
C. much D. a little
4. I have ....... money that I want to spend on
shares. 10. There is ......... hope of his recovery.
A. any B. much A. any B. little
C. less D. some C. many D. few
5. There is ......... owl on the branch of the tree. 11. ......... dogs were barking at the strangers.
A. a B. the A. some B. any
C. an D. some C. much D. less
37
 38

12. The girl bought her father ......... juice. 21. Do you want ......... tea?
A. few B. some A. any B. more
C. any D. many C. much D. few

13. You should take ......... honey everyday. 22. He can fly ......... aeroplane.
A. a B. an
A. any B. many
C. some D. many
C. a little D. a few
23. ......... students were asked to bring their birth
14. ......... boy was punished by the teacher. certificates.
A. Either B. All A. Many B. Any
C. Any D. Many C. Much D. Less
15. ......... girl was asked to join the army. 24. ......... gun needs oiling.
A. None B. Neither A. It B. This
C. All D. Any C. These D. Those
25. ......... shirts are mine.
16. ......... water in the jug has been drunk by
A. These B. This
Mohan. C. It D. That
A. The little B. The few
26. ......... child was allowed to enter the kitchen.
C. A few D. Few
A. The B. All
17. I shall play ......... piano at the party. C. Many D. A few
A. some B. any 27. I have been waiting for you for ......... hour.
C. the D. few A. a B. an
18. ......... labourers were found dead in the mine. C. the D. a few
A. Any B. Fewer 28. You must pay ......... visit to your brothers.
C. Many D. Less A. the B. an
C. a few D. a
19. Could I borrow ......... umbrella?
A. our B. your 29. Why are you making ......... noise?
A. your B. enough
C. yours D. my
C. a D. whole
20. My brother is standing in the ......... row. 30. He is ......... honourable man.
A. any B. many A. a B. the
C. some D. first C. an D. much

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B C D C B A C D B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B C A B A C C B D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B B A B A A B D C C

ooo
 8 Spelling Errors

The most common errors in English are of spellings of words. Even the most
learned men are sometimes confused about the correct spellings of some
words. One must keep and use a dictionary religiously. Never ignore and
let pass a new word casually.
A number of question to test your knowledge of spellings are compiled here.
Try to solve as many as you can.

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: Find the correctly spelt word out of 10. A. Extravagant B. Extreragent
the four options in each question. C. Extreregant D. Extravegent
1. A. Accompalish B. Ackmplesh 11. A. Efflorascence B. Eflorescene
C. Acomplush D. Accomplish C. Effllorescence D. Efflorescence
2. A. Acommodation B. Acomodation 12. A. Equinimity B. Equanimmity
C. Accomodation D. Accommodation C. Equannimity D. Equanimity
3. A. Astonished B. Astronished 13. A. Farmament B. Farmement
C. Astoneshed D. Asstonished C. Fermament D. Fremament
4. A. Benefeted B. Benefitted 14. A. Grieff B. Grief
C. Benifited D. Benefited C. Grieef D. Grrief
5. A. Belligerent B. Beligirent 15. A. Guarantee B. Garuntee
C. Belligarant D. Belligerrent C. Guaruntee D. Gaurantee
6. A. Chancelery B. Chancellery 16. A. Hypocritical B. Hypocretical
C. Chancellary D. Chancelary C. Hypocriticel D. Hypocirticel
7. A. Discriminate B. Discremineta 17. A. Humurous B. Humorous
C. Discrimenate D. Discriminat C. Humoreus D. Humorrous
8. A. Damage B. Dammage 18. A. Itenerary B. Itinarery
C. Damaige D. Dammege C. Itinarary D. Itinerary
9. A. Efficiant B. Effecient 19. A. Indipenseble B. Indispansible
C. Efficient D. Eficient C. Indispensable D. Indipensable

39
 40

20. A. Imprecticability B. Impracticebility 35. A. Pasiveness B. Passiveness

C. Impracticibility D. Impracticability C. Passeveniss D. Passivines
21. A. Incradulous B. Incredulous 36. A. Polyendry B. Poliendry
C. Incridulous D. Incredalous C. Pollyendry D. Polyandry
22. A. Juddicious B. Judiceous 37. A. Puerille B. Puerrile
C. Judicious D. Judiceus C. Puerile D. Purrile
23. A. Kleptomonia B. Kleptemonia 38. A. Pesanger B. Passenger
C. Pessenger D. Pasanger
C. Kleptomania D. Klaptomania
39. A. Querrelsome B. Quarrelsame
24. A. Lackdaisical B. Lackadaisical C. Quarrelsome D. Querralsome
C. Lckadaisicle D. Lackadisical
40. A. Rigourous B. Rigerous
25. A. Licentious B. Licontious C. Rigorous D. Regerous
C. Licenttious D. Licientious 41. A. Survellance B. Surveilance
26. A. Meddicine B. Medicine C. Surveillance D. Survaillance
C. Medicene D. Medicinne 42. A. Schedule B. Schdule
27. A. Meritricious B. Merefrecious C. Schedale D. Schedeule
C. Meretricious D. Merritricious 43. A. Sepalchrle B. Sepalchral
28. A. Missunderstood B. Miesunderstood C. Sepulchrle D. Sepulchral
C. Misunderstood D. Misunderstod 44. A. Sympathetic B. Smypathetic
C. Sympothetic D. Sympethetic
29. A. Occurad B. Occurred
C. Ocurred D. Occured 45. A. Sincerely B. Sencerely
C. Sincerelly D. Sincerrely
30. A. Osttentatious B. Ostentetious
C. Ostentatious D. Ostenttatious 46. A. Satellite B. Sattellite
C. Satelite D. Sattelite
31. A. Obnosious B. Obnoxeous
47. A. Teracherous B. Treacherous
C. Obnoxious D. Obnoseous C. Treacheraus D. Treachereans
32. A. Omenous B. Ominous 48. A. Uncivilized B. Uncevilized
C. Ommineous D. Omineous C. Uncivillized D. Uncevelized
33. A. Pecification B. Pacification 49. A. Vainglorious B. Vaniglorious
C. Pecifacation D. Pecefication C. Vaniglerious D. Vaingloreus
34. A. Prograssive B. Progressive 50. A. Vulnarable B. Valnerable
C. Progresive D. Prograsive C. Velnerable D. Vulnerable

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D D A B A C A A C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D D C B A A B D C D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C C B A B C C B C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C B B B B D C B C C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C A D A A A B A A D
ooo
 41

9 Sentence Completion

Sentence completion or Filling the blanks is such an exercise that begins

with the primary schools and continues at the highest level of competitive
examinations. One must practise it regularly to score well.

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: In the following questions choose the 6. Some regions of our country still remain .....
correct options to fill in the blanks to complete the to the average man.
sentences. A. inaccessible B. impossible
1. ‘Please’ and ‘Thank you’ are the little C. impermeable D. impenetrable
courtesies by which we keep the ..... of life 7. The old ‘Nature versus .....’ debate regarding
oiled and running smoothly. crime continues even today.
A. path B. machine A. Man B. Universe
C. garden D. river C. Culture D. Nurture
2. Catching the earlier train will give us the ..... 8. Known as devout and serious person, she also
to do some shopping. has ............. sense of humour.
A. chance B. luck A. better B. plentiful
C. possibility D. occasion C. quick D. good
3. Leave a two-inch ..... on each page for the 9. The matter would have become serious if
teacher’s remarks. ............. action had not been taken.
A. border B. margin A. hasty B. fast
C. blank D. gap C. timely D. unusual
4. What is the ..... for an airletter? 10. The ............. with which he is able to yield the
A. fare B. value paint brush is really remarkable.
C. postage D. stamp A. ease B. practice
5. The manner in which bombs exploded in five C. majesty D. sweep
trains within a short span of time suggests 11. The speaker did not properly use the time as
that it is a part of a ..... . he went on ............. on one point alone.
A. game B. conspiracy A. devoting B. deliberating
C. villainy D. sabotage C. diluting D. dilating
41 2125 (Eng.)–6
 42

12. They decided to ............. down their original 23. The window of our room ............. the rear.
plans for the bigger house and make it smaller. A. overlooks B. opens
A. climb B. turn C. opposes D. adjoins
C. scale D. play 24. I could ............. see the sight since it was dark.
13. Many of the advances of civilisation have A. clearly B. barely
been conceived by young people just on the C. obviously D. aptly
..... of adulthood.
25. The top-ranking manager ............. his success
A. boundary B. threshold
in the profession to his Managing Director’s
C. peak D. horizon
guidance.
14. Sonika is quite intelligent but rather ..... . A. account B. agrees
A. idealistic B. generous C. attributes D. claims
C. lazy D. optimistic
26. Does your pride keep you ............. making the
15. About twenty clerks were made ..... when the decision you know you should?
bank introduced computers.
A. away B. alert
A. dispensable B. redundant
C. from D. quiet
C. expendable D. obsolete
27. Their ........... to scale the mountain peak was
16. To err is ..... to forgive divine.
an absolute failure.
A. beastly B. human
A. attempt B. desire
C. inhuman D. natural
C. anxiety D. proposal
17. God is ..... .
A. graceful B. gracious 28. The writer, like a spider ............. a web; the
C. grateful D. greatful creatures caught in the web have no substance,
no reality.
18. The victim tried to tell us what had happened
A. spins B. catches
but his ............. were not audible.
C. writes D. compiles
A. assailants B. sounds
C. letters D. words 29. In a ............. move the Chief Minister today
dropped two ministers from the cabinet.
19. The ............. between the twins is so slight that
A. secret B. delicate
it is very difficult to identify one from the
C. continuous D. surprise
other.
A. similarity B. distance 30. In his address to the teachers, the Vice-
C. resemblance D. difference Chancellor ............. certain measures being
taken for improving the quality of college
20. The members were ............. of the date of the
meeting well in advance. education.
A. communicated B. conveyed A. declined B. directed
C. ignorant D. informed C. advised D. highlighted
21. A ............. of ships was kept ready to scour the 31. Changes in the legal system are inevitable for
sea in case of an emergency. we are not working for a ............. society.
A. group B. pack A. backward B. dynamic
C. unit D. fleet C. stagnant D. modern
22. I had not expected to meet him; it was quite 32. Modern science began ........... the influence of
an ............. meeting. Copernicus, Kepler, Galileo and Newton.
A. organised B. intentional A. by B. under
C. undesirable D. accidental C. from D. upon
 43

33. A meeting of senior police officers was held 44. Can you pay ....... all these articles?
to ...... the law and order situation of the town. A. for B. of
A. review B. curb C. off D. out
C. cover D. support 45. He ............. the role of the organisation in
34. The problems that India’s economic creating environmental awareness among the
development faces are ............... . people.
A. myopic B. dubious A. commanded B. commended
C. enormous D. strong C. commented D. commemorated
35. In our zeal for progress we should not ............. 46. I ............. you to be at the party this evening.
the executive with more powers. A. expect B. hope
A. avoid B. arm C. look forward to D. desire
C. give D. enhance 47. The consequence of economic growth has now
36. At present, all over the world, moral standards, ............. to the lowest level.
............. to have fallen. A. flowed B. percolated
A. look B. wish C. gone D. crept
C. started D. appear 48. The employees were unhappy because their
37. He was one of the ............. spirits behind the salary was not increased ............. .
successful agitation of the citizens for keeping A. marginally B. abruptly
the city clean. C. substantially D. superfluously
A. revolving B. moving 49. ............. the being a handicapped person, he is
C. evolving D. amazing very co-operative and self-reliant.
38. You’ve never ............. me about your A. Because B. Although
experiences in Scotland. C. Since D. Despite
A. described B. explained 50. The child broke ............ from his mother and
C. told D. said ran towards the painting.
39. The student ............. that book from the library A. away B. after
to study at home. C. down D. with
A. issued B. borrowed 51. With his ............. income, he finds it difficult
C. hired D. lent to live a comfortable life.
40. I wish I ............. a king. A. brief B. sufficient
A. was B. am C. meagre D. huge
C. should be D. were 52. He could ............. a lot of money in such a
41. He ............. to listen to my arguments and short time by using his intelligence and
walked away. working hard.
A. denied B. disliked A. spend B. spoil
C. objected D. refused C. exchange D. accumulate
42. The flow of blood was so ............. that the 53. Though the brothers are twins, they look
patient died. ............. .
A. intense B. adequate A. alike B. handsome
C. profuse D. extensive C. indifferent D. different
43. When I met her yesterday, it was the first time 54. Unfavourable weather conditions can .............
I ............. her since Christmas. illness.
A. saw B. have seen A. cure B. detect
C. had seen D. have been seeing C. treat D. enhance
 44

55. No sooner did the bell ring, ............. the actor A. endemic B. peripheral
started singing. C. absorbing D. prolific
A. when B. than 61. Manpower is the ............. means of converting
C. after D. before
other resources to mankind’s use and benefit.
56. If I ............. realised it, I would not have acted A. inimitable B. indivisible
on his advice. C. indispensable D. inequitable
A. was B. had
C. were D. have 62. This article tries to ............. us with problems
of poor nations so that we help them more
57. Why don’t you ............. your work in advance
effectively.
before commencing it.
A. enable B. convince
A. start B. complete
C. allow D. acquaint
C. finish D. plan
58. Contemporary economic development differs 63. Among human beings, language is the
............. from the Industrial Revolution of the principal ............. of communication.
19th century. A. methodology B. instrument
A. usually B. specially C. accomplishment D. theory
C. literally D. markedly 64. These essays are intellectually ............. and
59. Mounting unemployment is the most serious represent various levels of complexity.
and ............. problem faced by India today. A. persistent B. superior
A. profound B. intractable C. modern D. demanding
C. unpopular D. dubious 65. ............. the doctor’s advice he started taking
60. Unemployment is not only ............. throughout some daily exercise.
the emerging world, but is growing worse, A. In B. To
especially in urban areas. C. On D. Towards

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A B C B A D D C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D C B C B B B D D D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D D A B C C A A D D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C B A C B D B C B D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D C C A B A B C D A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C D D D B B D D B A
61 62 63 64 65
C D B D C

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 45

10 Active and Passive Voice

A sentence in active voice focuses on the person or thing doing the action.
A sentence in passive voice focuses on the person or thing affected by the
action. e.g.,
The idol was built. (Active voice)
Someone built the idol. (Passive voice)
Transformation of voice
l Voice and Tense are closely associated with each other.

l Tense remains the same while transforming the voice.

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions (Qs. 1 to 40): In each of the following C. A book has been read by me.
questions, a sentence is given in Active Voice. Below D. A book is been read by me.
it are given four alternatives suggesting the Passive
4. Why did your brother write such a letter?
Voice form of the above sentence. Choose the correct
A. Why your brother wrote such a letter?
alternative.
B. Why was by brother written such a letter?
1. They will have helped you. C. Why was such a letter written by your brother?
A. You will have helped by them.
D. Why was written such a letter by your brother?
B. You will have been helped by them.
C. You will be helped by them. 5. Did you run a great risk?
D. You will be helped by them. A. Was a great risk run by you?
2. Open the door. B. Was run a great risk by you?
A. Door may be opened. C. Was by you run a great risk?
B. Let the door be open. D. Had you run a great risk?
C. Let the door be opened. 6. Was he knocking at the door?
D. Door be opened. A. Was the door being knocked at by him?
3. I am reading a book. B. Was the door being knocked by him?
A. A book is read by me. C. Was the door knocked by him?
B. A book is being read by me. D. Was the door knocking at him?
45
 46

7. What was Rani doing? 16. Can we send it by air?

A. What was done by Rani? A. Can this be sent by air?
B. What was Rani being done? B. Can it be sent by air?
C. What was being done by Rani? C. Can it go by air?
D. What was being doing Rani? D. Can it be send by air?
8. Why were you wasting your Time? 17. Who wrote this book?
A. Why was your time being wasted? A. By whom was this book written?
B. Why was your time being wasted by you? B. By whom is this book written?
C. Why was your time wasted by you? C. By whom was this book being written?
D. Why was your time wasted? D. By whom is this book being written?
9. She has laid out a small garden. 18. What did you buy?
A. A small garden has been laid by her. A. What is bought by you?
B. A small garden has laid out her. B. What is being bought by you?
C. A small garden being laid by her. C. What was bought by you?
D. A small garden has been laid out by her. D. What was being bought by you?
10. She had already solved all the sums. 19. Whom do you want?
A. All the sums had already been solved by her. A. Who is wanted by you?
B. All the sums have already been solved by her. B. Who is being wanted by you?
C. All the sums have been solved by her. C. You are wanted by whom?
D. All the sums are solved by her. D. You are being wanted by whom?
11. He will have posted the letter. 20. When will you raise this question?
A. The letter has been posted by him. A. When this question will be raised by you?
B. The letter will be posted by him. B. When will this question be raised by you?
C. The letter will have been posted by him. C. When this question is being raised by you?
D. The letter is posted by him. D. When is this question being raised by you?
12. They will have sold all the books by 4 P.M. 21. Who did this?
A. All the books will be sold by 4 P.M. A. This was done by whom?
B. All the books will have been sold by 4 P.M. B. By whom was this done?
C. All the books were being sold by 4 P.M. C. Who has done this?
D. All the books must be sold by 4 P.M. D. By whom this was done?
13. Do you speak English? 22. One should keep one’s promises.
A. Is English spoken by you? A. Promises should be kept.
B. Does English spoken by you? B. One’s promises should be kept by one.
C. Is English being spoken by you? C. Promises must be kept.
D. Does English being spoken by you? D. One’s promises one should keep.
14. Had they seen me before? 23. Give the order.
A. Had myself been seen by them before? A. Order given.
B. Had me being seen by them before? B. Order be given.
C. Had I been seen by them before? C. Let the order be given.
D. Had I being seen by them before? D. Order may be given by you.
15. May I take this pen? 24. You will have to do it.
A. May this pen will be taken by me? A. It will be done by you.
B. May this pen shall be taken by me? B. It will have to be done by you.
C. May this pen should be taken by me? C. It has to be done by you.
D. May this pen be taken by me? D. It would have to be done by you.
 47

25. Keep to the left. C. The beggar is given an old shirt by Mohan.
A. You are ordered to keep to the left. D. An old shirt is given to the beggar by Mohan.
B. You ought to keep to the left. 34. They have made him a king.
C. You are advised to keep to the left. A. A king has been made by him.
D. You must keep to the left. B. He was made a king by them.
26. They will arrange a party. C. They have been made king by him.
A. A party will have to be arranged by them. D. He has been made a king by them.
B. A party they will have to arrange. 35. Who taught you English?
C. A party will be arranged by them. A. By whom English was taught to you?
D. A party by them will be arranged. B. By whom you were taught English?
27. Someone has picked my pocket. C. By whom was English taught to you?
A. My pocket is picked. D. By whom are you taught English?
B. My pocket has picked. 36. Help the poor.
C. My pocket has been picked. A. The poor should be helped.
D. My pocket was picked. B. The poor would be helped.
28. He kept me waiting. C. The poor must be helped.
A. I kept waiting for him. D. The poor will be helped.
B. I kept waiting by him. 37. Bring a glass of water.
C. I was waiting for him. A. A glass of water will be brought.
D. I was kept waiting by him. B. A glass of water should be brought.
29. Why do you tell a lie? C. Let a glass of water be brought.
A. Why is a lie told by you? D. Let a glass of water will be brought.
B. Why is told a lie by you? 38. He gave me a beautiful flower pot.
C. Why is told by you a lie? A. A beautiful flower pot was given to me by
D. Why has a lie been told by you? him.
30. I have written a letter. B. A beautiful flower pot had given to me by
A. A letter is written by me. him.
B. A letter has been written by me. C. A beautiful flower pot had been giving by
C. A letter was written by me. him.
D. A letter had been written by me. D. I was giving him a beautiful flower pot.
31. Circumstances will oblige me to go. 39. Is he answering the question?
A. I will oblige the circumstances and go. A. The question is answered by him.
B. I shall be obliged to go by the circumstances. B. The question is being answered by him.
C. Under the circumstances, I should go. C. Is the question being answered by him?
D. I shall be obliged by the circumstances to go. D. Is the question being answering by him?
32. We waste much time on trifles. 40. Who gave you this letter?
A. Much time was wasted on trifles. A. This letter was given to you by whom?
B. Much time will be wasted on trifles. B. This letter had given to you by whom?
C. Much time is wasted by us on trifles. C. Was this letter given to you?
D. Much time is wasted on trifles. D. By whom was this letter given to you?
33. Mohan gave the beggar an old shirt. Directions (Qs. 41 to 50): In each of the following
A. An old shirt was given to Mohan by the questions, a sentence is given in Passive Voice.
beggar. Below it are given four alternatives suggesting the
B. An old shirt was given to the beggar by Active Voice form of the above sentence. Choose
Mohan. the correct alternative.
 48

41. He was made a king. 46. She may be told the story by you.
A. He became a king. A. The story may be told by you to her.
B. They made him a king. B. You may tell the story to her.
C. They had made him a king. C. You may tell her the story.
D. He has been made a king. D. You may tell to her the story.
42. Good news is expected by us. 47. Duty ought to be done.
A. We are expecting good news. A. Let duty be done.
B. We have been expecting good news. B. One ought to do one’s duty.
C. We had expected good news. C. One should do his duty.
D. We expect good news. D. Do your duty.
43. The child must be looked after. 48. Is English spoken by you?
A. The child you must look after. A. Did you speak English?
B. You must look after the child. B. Do you speak English?
C. You must look the child after. C. Have you spoken English?
D. You may look after the child. D. Do you know how to speak English?
44. What is wanted by you? 49. Gold coins are contained in this box.
A. What you want? A. This box contains gold coins.
B. What did you want? B. This box has contained gold coins.
C. What do you want? C. This box is containing gold coins.
D. What you do want? D. This box has gold coins.
45. Your father is known to me. 50. Character is revealed by manners.
A. I am known to your father. A. Manners revealed character.
B. I know your father. B. Manners reveal character.
C. I have known your father. C. Manners have revealed character.
D. I knew your father. D. Manners do reveal character.

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C B C A A C B D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B A C D B A C A B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A C B C C C D A B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D C B D C A C A C D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B D B C B C B B A B

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 49

11 Direct and Indirect Narration

The words spoken by a speaker are known to be in Direct Speech.

The words spoken by somebody and expressed by someone else with some
modification are known as Indirect Speech. e.g.,
(a) Rohit says to me, “You do not understand me.” (Direct Speech)
(b) Rohit tells me that I do not understand him. (Indirect Speech)

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions (Qs. 1 to 13): Select the correct indirect C. I told my friend that my father has to go
speech for the following sentences: for a walk.
1. I said to him, “I shall help you.” D. I told my friend that my father had gone
A. I told him that I can help him. for a walk.
B. I told him that I would help him. 4. He said to me, “May God bless you!”
C. I told him that I will help him. A. He requested that God can bless me.
D. I told him that I shall be helping him. B. He prayed that God can bless me.
2. My Teacher said to me, “The earth revolves C. He prayed that God might bless me.
round the sun.” D. He prayed that God will bless me.
A. My teacher told me that the earth revolves 5. The patient said, “Thank you, doctor.”
round the sun. A. The patient thanked the doctor.
B. My teacher told me that the earth revolve B. The patient requested the doctor with
round the sun.
thanks.
C. My teacher told me that the earth had
C. The patient told the doctor thanks.
been revolving round the sun.
D. The patient suggested the doctor thanks.
D. My teacher told me that the earth has
been revolving round the sun. 6. Satish said, “No, I shall not talk to him.”
3. I said to my friend, “My father daily goes for A. Satish told that he should not talk to him.
a walk.” B. Satish suggested that he would not have
A. I told my friend that my father daily goes talked to him.
for a walk. C. Satish exclaimed with sorrow that he
B. I told my friend that my father daily went would not talk with him.
for a walk. D. Satish refused to talk to him.
49 2125 (Eng.)–7
 50 2125 (Eng.)–7-II

7. The child said, “What a lovely place!” C. Ria ordered if she should thread the
A. The child exclaimed with sorrow that it needle.
was a lovely place. D. Ria says that if she would thread the
B. The child thought that the place was needle.
lovely. Directions (Qs. 14 to 33): Pick out the correct
C. The child exclaimed with joy that the alternative that completes the incomplete sentence
place was very lovely. which is changed into indirect narration.
D. The child suggested that the place was
lovely. 14. She said to me, “I shall see you as soon as I
get time.”
8. He said, “What a fool I have been!” She told me:
A. He told himself with sorrow that he was a A. that she will see me as soon as she will get
fool. time.
B. He confessed with regret that he had been B. that she would see me as soon as she
a great fool.
would get time.
C. He said himself a fool.
C. she would see me whenever she got time.
D. He suggested that he could be a fool.
D. that she would see me whenever she gets
9. He said, “Alas! I am ruined.” time.
A. He told me that he had been ruined.
15. My secretary said to me, “Your plane will
B. He exclaimed with joy that he had been
leave if you do not go at once.”
ruined.
My secretary told me that:
C. He exclaimed with sorrow that he was
A. her plane would leave if she did not go at
ruined.
that time.
D. He told me that he should not be ruined.
B. her plane would leave if I do not go at
10. The accused said, “I am not guilty.” once.
A. The accused exclaimed with sorrow that I C. my plane would leave if I did not go at
am not guilty. that very time.
B. The accused exclaimed with joy that he D. my plane will leave if I did not go at that
was not guilty. time.
C. The accused stated that he was not guilty.
16. My mother said to me, “Don’t quarrel among
D. The accused told me that he has not been
yourselves”.
guilty.
My mother:
11. My teacher said, “The earth is round”. A. forbade me to quarrel among ourselves.
A. My teacher said that the earth was round. B. asked me not to quarrel among ourselves.
B. My teacher says that the earth is round. C. asked me that not to quarrel among
C. My teacher said that the earth is round. ourselves.
D. My teacher ordered that the earth is round. D. asked me to quarrel not among ourselves.
12. He said, “What a place it is!” 17. Her father said to her mother, “Excuse the
A. He said that it was a very fine place. daughter.”
B. He said that is a very fine place. Her father:
C. He said that the place is fine. A. requested her mother to excuse the
D. He exclaimed with joy/surprise that it was daughter.
a very fine place. B. asked her mother to excuse the daughter.
13. Ria said, “Shall I thread the needle?” C. asked her mother to have excused the
A. Ria asked if she should thread the needle. daughter.
B. Ria asked if she shall thread the needle. D. asked her mother to have been excused.
 51

18. He said to his friend, “Wait here till father 25. Umesh said to me, “Have you read that novel?”
comes.” Umesh asked me:
He requested his friend: A. if he was reading that novel.
A. to wait here till father had come. B. if he had read that novel.
B. that to wait there till his friend came. C. if I had read that novel.
C. to wait there till father came. D. if I was reading that novel.
D. to wait here until his friend came. 26. She said to me, “I shall forgive you.”
19. She said to her maid, “Run and catch the She told me:
thief.” A. that she will forgive me.
She ordered her maid: B. that she was going to forgive me.
A. ran and catch the thief. C. that she will not forgive me.
B. that to run and to catch the thief. D. that she would forgive me.
C. ran and caught the thief. 27. I said to her, “It was very hot last night.”
D. to run and catch the thief. I told her:
20. Anita said to Sunita, “What are you doing?” A. that it had been very hot the previous
Anita asked Sunita: night.
A. what she will be doing. B. that it was very hot the previous night.
B. that what she is doing. C. that it has been very hot the last night.
C. that what she was doing. D. that it had been very hot this night.
D. what she was doing. 28. She said to me, “I thank you for the help you
21. She said to me, “Are you meeting me today?” have given.”
She enquired of me: She:
A. whether I am meeting her that day. A. told me that she thanked me for the help
B. whether I was meeting her today. I had given.
C. whether I was meeting her that day. B. thanked me for the help I have given.
D. I was meeting her that day. C. thanked to me for the help I have given.
22. Nitish said to me, “When did you buy this D. thanked me for the help I had given.
pen?” 29. Mohini said to me, “Trust in God.”
Nitish asked me: Mohini advised me:
A. when I was to buy that pen. A. that I should trust in God.
B. when I would buy that pen. B. should trust in God.
C. when I had bought that pen. C. trusted in God.
D. when I was buying that pen. D. to trust in God.
23. She said to me, “Are you going to market?” 30. I said to him, “Let us go to school.”
She enquired of me: I told him:
A. I am going to market. A. we would go to school.
B. I was going to market. B. we shall go to school.
C. if I was going to market. C. that we would go to school.
D. if I had been going to the market. D. that we should go to school.
24. Damini said, “Why did not you change your 31. Rajni said, “May God bless you?”
clothes?” Rajni:
Damini asked me: A. exclaimed with wish that God might bless
A. why I had not changed my clothes. me.
B. why I did not change my clothes. B. expressed a wish that God might bless me.
C. why I would not change my clothes. C. asked God to bless me.
D. why I have not been changing my clothes. D. shouted with joy to bless me.
 52

32. My mother said to me, “Do not have so many A. She said, “I will finish the work the next
friends.” day.”
My mother forbade me: B. She said, “I will finish the work tomorrow.”
A. to have so many friends. C. She said, “You will finish the work
B. not to have so many friends. tomorrow.”
C. to have been so many friends. D. She said, “I finished the work.”
D. to possess so many friends. 39. She said to him, “Why don’t you go today?”
33. Ram said, “Pay attention to me.” A. She asked him why he did not go that day.
Ram asked: B. She said to him that why he don’t go
A. pay attention to him. today.
B. paid attention to him. C. She asked him not to go today.
C. having paid attention to him. D. She asked him why he did not go today.
D. to pay attention to him. 40. “Are you alone, my son?” asked a soft voice
Directions (Qs. 34 to 50): In questions below, the close behind me.
sentences have been given in Direct/Indirect A. A soft voice asked that what I was doing
Speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested there alone.
select the one which best expresses the given B. A soft voice said to me are you alone son.
sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. C. A soft voice from my back asked if I was
alone.
34. She said that her brother was getting married.
D. A soft voice close behind me asked if
A. She said, “Her brother is getting married.”
I was alone.
B. She told, “My brother is getting married.”
C. She said, “My brother is getting married.” 41. My cousin said, “My room-mate had snored
D. She said, “My brother was married.” throughout the night.”
A. My cousin said that her room-mate snored
35. “Please don’t go away”, she said.
throughout the night.
A. She said to please her and not go away.
B. My cousin told me that her room-mate
B. She told me to go away.
snored throughout the night.
C. She begged me not to go away.
C. My cousin complained to me that her
D. She begged that I not go away.
room-mate is snoring throughout the
36. “If you don’t keep quiet I shall shoot you”, he night.
said to her in a calm voice. D. My cousin felt that her room-mate may be
A. He warned her to shoot if she didn’t keep snoring throughout the night.
quiet calmly. 42. He asked Rama if he needed his help then.
B. He said calmly that I shall shoot you if you A. He said to Rama, “Do you need my help?”
don’t be quiet. B. He told Rama, “Tell me if you need help.”
C. He warned her calmly that he would shoot C. He asked Rama, “Do I need your help?”
her if she didn’t keep quiet. D. He said to Rama, “Do you need my help
D. Calmly he warned her that be quiet or else now?”
he will have to shoot her.
43. Nita ordered her servant to bring her a cup of
37. I told him that he was not working hard. tea.
A. I said to him, “You are not working hard.” A. Nita told her servant, “Bring a cup of tea.”
B. I told him, “You are not working hard.” B. Nita said, “Bring me a cup of tea.”
C. I said, “You are not working hard.” C. Nita said to her servant, “Bring me a cup
D. I said to him, “He is not working hard.” of tea.”
38. She said that she would finish the work the D. Nita said to her servant, “Bring her that
next day. cup of tea.”
 53

44. He exclaimed with joy that India had won the D. Dhruv said, “I will be tired of working for
Sahara Cup. that Company.”
A. He said, “India has won the Sahara Cup.” 48. He said to his father, “Please increase my
B. He said, “India won the Sahara Cup.” pocket-money.”
C. He said, “How! India will win the Sahara A. He told his father, please increase the
Cup.” pocket-money.
D. He said, “Hurrah! India has won the Sahara
B. He pleaded his father to please increase my
Cup.”
pocket-money.
45. The boy said, “Who dare call you a thief?” C. He requested his father to increase his
A. The boy enquired who dared call him a pocket-money.
thief. D. He asked his father increase his pocket-
B. The boy asked who called him a thief. money.
C. The boy told that who dared call him a
thief. 49. She said to her friend, “I know where is
D. The boy wondered who dared call a thief. everyone.”
A. She told that she knew where was
46. The little girl said to her mother, “Did the sun
everyone.
rise in the East?
B. She told her friend that she knew where
A. The little girl said to her mother that the
sun rose in the East. was everyone.
B. The little girl asked her mother if the sun C. She told her friend she knew where is
rose in the East. everyone.
C. The little girl said to her mother if the sun D. She told her friend that she knows where
rises in the East. was everyone.
D. The little girl asked her mother if the sun 50. His father ordered him to go to his room and
is in the East. study.
47. Dhruv said that he was sick and tired of A. His father said, “Go to your room and
working for that Company. study.”
A. Dhruv said, “I am sick and tired of working B. His father said to him, “Go and study in
for this Company.” your room.”
B. Dhruv said, “He was tired of that C. His father shouted, “Go right now to your
Company.” study room.”
C. Dhruv said to me, “I am sick and tired of D. His father said firmly, “Go and study in
working for this Company.” your room.”

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A A C A D C B C C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C D A B C A B C D D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C C A C D A A A D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B A D C C C A B A D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A D C B A B A C B A
ooo
 54

12 Spotting Errors

The most common errors in English are of grammar and usage of words.
By regular practice, the errors can be easily spotted and minimised.

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: In the following questions, some of the 8. A. Each B. of these
sentences have errors and some are correct. Find C. boys play. D. No error
out which part of a sentence has an error, the
9. A. Whoever B. does best
option of that part is your answer. If a sentence is
C. he will get a prize. D. No error
free from errors, then your answer is D i.e., No
error. 10. A. One B. should not
C. waste his time. D. No error
1. A. I have B. bought
C. new furnitures. D. No error 11. A. These all B. oranges
C. are good. D. No error
2. A. The wages B. of sin
C. are death. D. No error 12. A. He held B. the book in
C. the both hands. D. No error
3. A. She told B. these news
13. A. I had not
C. to her mother. D. No error
B. had some breakfast
4. A. He took B. troubles to do C. and I was getting hungry.
C. his work. D. No error D. No error
5. A. The cattles B. were 14. A. That man
C. grazing. D. No error B. should do
C. some or other work.
6. A. Rohan is not
D. No error
B. one of those
C. who betray his friends. 15. A. He is B. elder
D. No error C. than I. D. No error
7. A. You and he 16. A. He asked B. had we taken
B. tried his best C. our luggage. D. No error
C. to pass the examination but failed. 17. A. She asked B. what
D. No error C. are you doing. D. No error
54
 55

18. A. Rama asked B. Anil why 29. A. She will B. obey

C. he is angry. D. No error C. me. D. No error
19. A. He does not B. care for 30. A. You would B. work
C. his money. D. No error C. hard. D. No error
20. A. The father 31. A. He is B. very much
B. no less than C. angry. D. No error
C. the children are to blame.
32. A. She was
D. No error
B. very good enough
21. A. The owners B. of this factory C. to help me.
C. is very rich. D. No error D. No error
22. A. The pleasures of nature
33. A. She B. runs
B. that one can experience at Shimla
C. much fast. D. No error
C. is beyond description.
D. No error 34. A. She runs B. very faster
23. A. There is B. no street lights C. than Seema. D. No error
C. in our colony. D. No error 35. A. It is B. bitter cold
24. A. He and I am B. entrusted with C. today. D. No error
C. the job. D. No error 36. A. As he is fat B. so he runs
25. A. Rice and curry B. are his C. slowly. D. No error
C. favourite dish. D. No error 37. A. If he is fat B. then he will
26. A. When B. I shall see him C. run slowly. D. No error
C. I shall tell him this. D. No error 38. A. Though B. he is fat
27. A. If I should do wrong, C. still he runs fast. D. No error
B. he would 39. A. As I pulled
C. punish me. B. the trigger at the same time
D. No error
C. he shook my arm.
28. A. Until he D. No error
B. will confess his fault,
C. he will be kept in prison. 40. A. No sooner B. I had spoken
D. No error C. than he left. D. No error

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C B B A D B C C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C B C B B C C B C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C A A B B A B A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B B C B B B B C B B
ooo
 56

13 Sentences with Jumbled Words

Different words form a sentence and convey their true meaning only when
they are arranged in a proper order. One must study and practise it regularly.

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: In the following questions, some parts The correct sequence should be
of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are A. Q P R S B. P Q R S
required to rearrange these parts which are C. P R Q S D. S Q P R
labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct 4. The man said that
sentence. Choose the option with proper sequence. P : those workers
1. We are doing Q : would be given a raise
P : to the people R : who did not go on
Q : to give relief S : strike last month
R : all we can The correct sequence should be
S : but more funds are needed A. P Q R S B. P R S Q
The correct sequence should be C. Q P R S D. R S P Q
A. P Q R S B. R Q P S 5. I think
C. Q P R S D. S P Q R P : the members
2. The man Q : are basically in agreement
P : when he was R : of the group
Q : in the office last evening S : on the following points.
R : could not finish The correct sequence should be
A. R Q P S B. S Q R P
S : all his work
C. P R Q S D. P Q S R
The correct sequence should be
A. P Q R S B. Q R S P 6. While it was true that
C. R Q P S D. R S P Q P : I had
Q : to invest in industry
3. The people decided R : some lands and houses
P : they were going S : I did not have ready cash
Q : how much The correct sequence should be
R : to spend A. P Q R S B. P R S Q
S : on the construction of the school building C. S Q P R D. Q P R S
56
 57 2125 (Eng.)–8

7. P : But your help 13. P : far out into the sea

Q : to finish this work Q : for the next two weeks there were further
R : it would not have been possible explosions
S : in time R : which hurled
The correct sequence should be S : ashes and debris
A. P R Q S B. S P Q R The correct sequence should be
C. R P Q S D. P Q R S A. Q R P S B. R S P Q
C. Q R S P D. S R P Q
8. The boy
P : in the competition 14. William Shakespeare,
Q : who was wearing spectacles P : in his lifetime
R : won many prizes Q : the great English dramatist
S : held in our college R : wrote thirty-five plays
The correct sequence should be S : and several poems
A. P Q R S B. R P S Q The correct sequence should be
C. Q R P S D. Q P S R A. P Q R S B. R S P Q
C. Q S R P D. Q R S P
9. About 200 years ago,
P : in the south of India 15. Whenever I am,
Q : an old king P : with an old friend of mine
R : ruled over a kingdom Q : in New Delhi
S : called Rajavarman R : to have dinner
The correct sequence should be S : I always try
A. Q S R P B. P Q R S The correct sequence should be
C. Q P S R D. Q S P R A. S Q P R B. Q S R P
C. R P S Q D. P R Q S
10. P : his land
Q : a wooden plough 16. P : I don’t know
R : the Indian peasant still uses Q : must have thought
S : to cultivate R : what people sitting next to me
The correct sequence should be S : but I came away
A. R Q P S B. Q P S R The correct sequence should be
C. S R Q P D. R Q S P A. R S Q P B. R Q S P
C. P Q R S D. P R Q S
11. He was a man,
P : even if he had to starve 17. P : in estimating the size of the earth
Q : who would not beg Q : but they were hampered by the lack of
R : borrow or steal instruments of precision
S : from anyone R : ancient astronomers
The correct sequence should be S : used methods which were theoretically
A. P Q R S B. P R Q S valid
C. Q R S P D. Q P R S The correct sequence should be
A. R P Q S B. P R Q S
12. P : in the progress of
Q : universities play a crucial role C. R S Q P D. R P S Q
R : our civilization 18. P : It is a pity that
S : in the present age Q : by offering a handsome dowry
The correct sequence should be R : a number of parents think that
A. S Q P R B. Q R S P S : they will be able to ensure the happiness
C. Q R P S D. S Q R P of their daughters
 58

The correct sequence should be 24. It is a privilege

A. S Q R P B. P R S Q P : to pay tax
C. P S R Q D. P R Q S Q : of every citizen
R : as well as the duty
19. The common man S : who is well-placed
P : in nurturing The correct sequence should be
Q : a more active role A. R P S Q B. S P R Q
R : communal harmony C. R Q S P D. S Q R P
S : should play 25. It is not good
The correct sequence should be P : of the wicked persons
A. P R S Q B. S Q P R Q : to overthrow
C. S Q R P D. P R Q S R : to accept the help
S : the righteous persons
20. The doctor The correct sequence should be
P : able to find out A. R S Q P B. Q S R P
Q : what has caused C. R P Q S D. Q P R S
R : the food poisoning
26. Life is judged
S : has not been P : and not by
The correct sequence should be Q : of work done
A. S P R Q B. P R Q S R : the longevity of years
C. P R S Q D. S P Q R S : by the quality
The correct sequence should be
21. P : was suspended
A. Q S P R B. S Q R P
Q : the officer being corrupt
C. Q S R P D. S Q P R
R : before his dismissal
S : from service 27. P : When he learns that
Q : you have passed the examination
The correct sequence should be
R : in the first division
A. Q P S R B. Q P R S
S : your father will be delighted
C. R S Q P D. R S P Q The correct sequence should be
22. With an unsteady hand A. Q P S R B. S P Q R
P : on my desk C. Q R S P D. S R Q P
Q : from his pocket 28. P : The journalist
R : he took an envelope Q : saw
S : and threw it R : countless number of the dead
The correct sequence should be S : driving across the field of battle
A. Q R P S B. Q R S P The correct sequence should be
A. P Q S R B. P Q R S
C. R Q P S D. R Q S P
C. P S Q R D. S R Q P
23. P : she gave her old coat
29. P : Jane planned
Q : to a beggar Q : some stamps
R : the one with the brown fur on it R : to buy
S : shivering with cold S : this afternoon
The correct sequence should be The correct sequence should be
A. S Q R P B. S P R Q A. P R Q S B. P S Q R
C. P R Q S D. P S Q R C. Q R P S D. Q S P R
 59

30. Her mother The correct sequence should be:

P : when she was A. P Q R S B. P R Q S
Q : hardly four years old C. P R S Q D. R S P Q
R : began to teach Neha
S : English 36. Towards the end of the eighteenth century,
The correct sequence should be quite a number of economists
A. R S Q P B. S R P Q P : in the near future
C. R S P Q D. S R Q P Q : at the possibility of
R : were seriously perturbed
31. P : Bill had S : the world facing starvation
Q : a friend
The correct sequence should be:
R : an appointment
A. P R Q S B. R Q S P
S : to meet
The correct sequence should be C. Q S P R D. R P Q S
A. P S R Q B. P R S Q 37. The best way of understanding our own
C. Q S R P D. Q R S P civilization
32. The Government wants that P : is to examine
P : by the veterinary surgeons Q : an ordinary man
Q : by the butchers R : in the life of
R : all the goats slaughtered S : an ordinary day
S : must be medically examined The correct sequence should be:
The correct sequence should be: A. P Q R S B. R Q P S
A. R P S Q B. Q S R P C. P S R Q D. R S P Q
C. R Q S P D. P R S Q
38. What greater thing is there
33. The general line about television P : for two human souls to feel
P : is that it is very exciting, Q : to rest on each other in all sorrow,
Q : but also potentially very dangerous R : that they are joined for life,
R : immensely powerful S : to strengthen each other in all labour
S : that I took myself The correct sequence should be:
The correct sequence should be: A. S Q R P B. R P Q S
A. P Q R S B. S P R Q
C. Q R S P D. P R S Q
C. P R Q S D. R P Q S
39. Fame
34. The second test of good government is that
P : to every man and woman P : by showing off
Q : and act only with their consent Q : to the best advantage
R : it should give a lot of freedom R : one’s ability and virtue
S : and should treat their personalities with S : is earned
respect and sympathy The correct sequence should be:
The correct sequence should be: A. P Q R S B. S P R Q
A. Q S P R B. S R Q P C. P R S Q D. P Q S R
C. R P S Q D. P Q R S 40. When he was a child
35. The teacher warned that P : passed his happiest hours
P : he would not let Q : the boy who was to become Britain’s
Q : go home Baron Haden
R : those students R : staring out of his apartment window
S : who do not finish the classwork S : living in New York
 60

The correct sequence should be: R : involves the creation of job oppotunities
A. Q S P R B. P R Q S S : does not merely rest on
C. S Q P R D. R S Q P The correct sequence should be:
41. P : The teacher had to be specially careful A. P S Q R B. P Q R S
Q : because he enjoyed the confidence C. P R Q S D. P S R Q
R : about how he faced up to this problem 44. I am sure
S : of all the boys P : and will be happy
The correct sequence should be: Q : sooner or later
A. P R Q S B. Q P S R R : a day will come
C. S P R Q D. P S R Q S : when all will be equal
42. Movies made in The correct sequence should be:
P : all around the globe A. Q P R S B. Q S R P
Q : Hollywood in America C. R Q S P D. R S Q P
R : by people 45. P : To do his/her work properly
S : are seen at the same time Q : it should be the pride and honour
The correct sequence should be: R : without anybody forcing him/her
A. Q S R P B. Q R P S S : of every citizen in India
C. P S R Q D. Q P S R The correct sequence should be:
43. P : The foundations of the prosperity of a state A. Q S R P B. P R Q S
Q : primary health and education but also C. Q S P R D. P Q R S

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B D A B C C A C A D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A C D B D C B B D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B D C C B D B C A B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B C B C B B C D B C
41 42 43 44 45
A A A C C

ooo
 61

14 Reordering Sentences

A paragraph is formed from sentences, it will convey its true meaning and
purpose only when the sentences are arranged in a proper manner. Try and
practise it in this exercise.

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions (Qs. 1 to 20): A number of sentences are (b) The Central Board of Secondary Education
given below which when properly sequenced form is planning a revamp of its vocational
a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled as courses.
abcdef...... Choose the most logical order of (c) For this it is necessary to tie up with the
sentences from among the given choices to construct industry as well as mobilise schools for
a coherent paragraph. their support.
(d) While others will be made less academic
1. (a) Parts of northern region were pounded by
and more in tune with the needs of the
heavy rains today, industry.
(b) Vehicular traffic came to a near halt. (e) A number of courses have been identified
(c) As mid and high altitude areas of Himachal as ‘deadwood’ and will be done away with.
Pradesh were in grip of severe cold wave A. bedac B. abcde
with snow lashing the tribal areas and mid C. acebd D. baced
ranges receiving showers. 3. (a) Clearly, age is not a deterrent in one’s
(d) As the sky remained heavily overcast with choice of learning.
dark clouds reducing the visibility (b) Perhaps, it was because of her childhood
considerably. desire.
(e) A large number of tourists were forced to (c) When Rachna came to Delhi eight years
buy heavy woollens and stay indoors due back, she had not anticipated a career in
to inclement weather. the field of art.
A. ecabd B. adecb (d) She has been successful in the various
C. edabc D. acbde exhibitions that she has been part of in
2. (a) The idea is that students should be able to terms of business.
find employment for themselves after the (e) She had got into expressing her thoughts
course. with the help of a brush and colours only

61
 62

because her daughter refused to get 7. (a) Whatever the job market, common wisdom
initiated into it. says that IIT graduates will find jobs where
(f) She feels that her use of colour appeals to others have failed.
people. (b) The IIT brand name is a ticket to success.
A. aedcbf B. cdefba (c) When recruiters go headhunting, the IITs
C. cebadf D. acdebf are still top of their list.
4. (a) The rehabilitation record has been dismal. (d) Its possessor is understood to have an
(b) It has been two years years since the excellent academic record and the will to
earthquake rudely rattled the people of succeed.
Gujarat. (e) In the job market, that counts.
(c) And since then, life has been a constant A. bdeac B. abcde
C. abdce D. dbace
struggle.
(d) The quake set Gujarat’s clock back by 10 8. (a) It will pave the way .........
years. (b) signalling a new beginning in strategic
(e) Things changed forever. ties......
A. bedca B. bcade (c) for a tangible Indian economic presence
C. dbace D. edcba in Iran and Central Asia.
(d) Iran has offered India valuable road
5. (a) In fact, success in exams depended on rote
linkages to central Asia ......
learning from old notes. (e) aimed at promoting peace and economic
(b) when he was studying civil engineering cooperation in the region.
in a college in Gujarat. A. dbeac B. debca
(c) He was detained for lack of attendance. C. acebd D. abced
(d) Lectures were soporific, classes rarely worth
9. (a) A good college is essential for a successful
attending and 80 per cent attendance
career and admissions are based on marks.
compulsory.
(b) The marks-based system followed by all
(e) The college became a trap he hated.
the boards in the country recognises only
(f) His is a plight many engineers across India
a small percentage of students as successful.
would identify with. (c) The marks one scores in the crucial board
(g) He found the going tough. exams dictate the path his life takes.
A. abcdgef B. bgdacef (d) Anyone scoring below a certain percentage
C. fabcdge D. abcdefg is automatically branded a ‘failure’.
6. (a) In a country that has close to 600 (d) So if you cannot make it into the best
recognised engineering colleges, there are college, your career is over even before it
only seven IITs. has started.
(b) Barring a few exeptions, the academic A. abcde B. bcdea
atmosphere in these is moribund. C. bdcae D. abdec
(c) The very best students usually get there. 10. (a) The project has already started on an
(d) many waste themselves in frustration. experimental basis in the west district.
(e) Most of those who get into engineering (b) A website is soon going to be launched
are good students. where application forms can be downloaded
(f) but about 1.25 lakh others and up in the and submitted.
remaining colleges. (c) Standing in a queue at a government office
A. aecfbd B. abecdf to submit application form will be a thing
C. abcdef D. acfbed of the past.
 63

(d) A unique code will be alloted while (b) This worsened his injury.
submitting the form which will help in (c) Had a little precaution been exercised after
finding the status of the application. the accident, Tarun would have continued
A. abcd B. dabc with his gymnastic classes.
C. cbda D. badc (d) He was paralysed from waist downwards
11. (a) To curb bio-terrorism is a difficult task. when he fell from the vaulting horse while
(b) To check these attacks and lessen their doing gymnastics.
impact, we need an impartial team of (e) However, the doctor forgot to tell Tarun’s
sincere, strong and dedicated men. parents to take him on a stretcher as he
(c) The media can play a strong role in had suffered spinal injuries.
stopping this unnecessary spread of panic. (f) Tarun is wheelchair bound for two years.
(d) Since bio-terrorism is not visible or easily A. fdeabc B. abcdef
C. fdcaeb D. fdbcae
detectable, it can be used often.
(e) Men who honour the lives of their fellow 15. (a) As the temperature rises, staying hydrated
countrymen before their own. can become a greater challenge for people
A. abcde B. dabce exercising both indoors and out.
C. adbec D. acbed (b) Several things can influence this process,
including age, gender, physical
12. (a) He was dying.
conditioning. humidity and a lack of
(b) No one was ready to touch him as even
sufficient fluids.
shifting him from one place to another
(c) In hot weather, individuals can lose as
would lead to profuse bleeding.
much as two quarts of sweat per hour.
(c) He was a five-day old infant, premature
(d) As we age, we have a lower perceived
and bleeding profusely. level of thirst in response to fluid loss and
(d) Even if injected one small needle, blood early stages of dehydration.
would ooze out and continue to flow for (e) If not replenished, this can lead to
an hour at a stretch. dehydration, heat exhaustion and even
(e) This small being had haematoma, a thick heatstroke.
blood clot in his brain. A. abcde B. dbcae
A. edbca B. cabde C. cbdea D. acebd
C. eacdb D. cedba
16. (a) The leopard was discovered in the servant
13. (a) The day I don’t treat a patient, I feel ....... quarters of a farmhouse.
(b) I have enough to eat, I crave for blessings (b) The injuries appeared to have been caused
now. by the paws of the leopard, and were not
(c) But if a financially weak patient gives me teeth wounds.
only ` 50, I don’t mind. (c) It took the wild life officials, Delhi Police
(d) Each month I do three to four operations and Delhi zoo vets eight hours to capture
free of cost. the leopard that had wandered into a
(e) I have lost something in life. factory in south Delhi.
(f) My consultation fee is ` 300. (d) The leopard then jumped into the factory
A. fcdeab B. dfcbae where the workers managed to lock it in a
C. fcabde D. bdfcea small generator room before calling in the
14. (a) When he was rushed to the nearby Primary police.
Health Centre after his fall, the doctor (e) Before its capture, the leopard attacked two
referred him to a hospital. women and a man in the farmhouse.
 64

A. aebdc B. bdaec 19. (a) An integrated and combined approach was

C. eadbc D. adbec required to reveal the mystery of the brain
17. (a) Police suspect a carpenter working at —its structure, composition and function.
John’s house as he has not reported for (b) Since the early 80’s, scientists were clear
work since the day the boy went missing. that the brain would be the final frontier
(b) John did not return home in the afternoon. to conquer.
(c) John’s mother had herself put the boy on (c) The initiative was flagged off and came to
the vehicle in the morning. be known as the Human Brain Project.
(d) John smiled at him and was last seen (d) But that wasn’t easy because understanding
walking up to him. the brain involved completely integrating
(e) His parents called the school and were information from the level of the gene to
told John had not been to school at all the level of behaviour.
(e) To fulfill this requirement a group of
and had been marked absent.
American scientists from various disciplines
(f) He was about to enter the school when
decided to work together.
someone called out his name.
A. acbed B. bdaec
A. cfdbea B. debfca
C. abdec D. badec
C. bfdaec D. abcdef
20. (a) A product is something that is made in a
18. (a) However, the mayhem over the last few factory, a brand is something that is bought
months is deeply shocking. by a consumer.
(b) Yet I do not agree with the prophets of (b) The trick therefore, lies in the brand
doom who see nothing but disaster ahead. positioning.
(c) When I came back to my motherland India (c) For a consumer, the satisfaction of
after a stay in Switzerland, I felt I was becoming associated with a name that is
trading a hotbed of intense religious and the ‘best’ and the ‘leader’ is far more
political violence for peace and quiet. important and at times makes him ignore
(d) I think our nation is searching for an the price factor.
identity. (d) Brands come and go.
(e) And a new vision of the future will emerge (e) Still there are those who manage to stay
from this. and develop an affinity with consumers.
A. abcde B. cabde A. aebcd B. debac
C. cebad D. bedca C. decab D. aecdb

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D A C A B D A A C C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C D B C D A A B B B

ooo
General Awareness
and Science

1 2125 (GA & Sc.)—1

2
 3

1 Sports

OLYMPICS CRICKET WORLD CUP

 Olympics games were started in 776 BC on  The first Cricket World Cup was organised in
Mount Olympia in the honour of Greek God, England in 1975. A separate women’s Cricket
‘Zeus’. The modern Olympic Games were started World Cup has been held every 4 years since
in Athens, the capital of Greece on 6th April, 1973.
1896 with great efforts made by French nobleman,
Baron Pierre de Coubertin. HOCKEY WORLD CUP
 The Olympic Games are organised after every 4  The first Hockey World Cup was organised in
years. The Olympic Flag is made up of white silk Barcelona (Spain) in 1971. Women’s Hockey
and contains five interwined rings as the Olympic World Cup has been held since 1974.
Emblem.
FOOTBALL WORLD CUP
 The official Olympic Motto is Citius, Altius,
Fortius, a Latin phrase meaning Swifter, Higher,  The Football World Cup is organised by FIFA
Stronger. The Head Office of International (Federation of International Football Association).
Olympic Committee (IOC) is at Lausanne The World Cup is called ‘Jules Rimet Cup’ named
(Switzerland). after the name of FIFA President Jules Rimet.
The first Football World Cup was organised in
COMMONWEALTH GAMES Uruguay in 1930. The 21st FIFA World Cup held
 The first Commonwealth Games were held in in the Moscow (Russia) in 2018.
1930 in Hamilton, Canada.
 2018 Commonwealth Games were held in Gold National Games of Some Countries
Coast, Australia. Country Game
THE ASIAN GAMES Australia Cricket
China Table Tennis
 The Asian Games, also called the Asiad, are a
Canada Ice Hockey
multi-sport event held every 4 years among
athletes from all over Asia. Japan Jujutsu
Scotland Rugby
 The games are regulated by the Olympic Council
of Asia (OCA), under the supervision of the Spain Bull Fighting
International Olympic Committee (IOC). The first USA Baseball
Asian Games were held in 1951 in New Delhi UK Cricket
(India). 18th Asian Games of 2018 were held at Pakistan Hockey
Jakarta (Indonesia). Brazil Football

3
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Cups and trophies SPORT TERMS

Cup/Trophy Game Badminton Deuce, Double fault, Drop, Let,
Agha Khan Cup Hockey (Mumbai) Love all, Smash.
Ashes Cricket (England and Basketball Basket, Blocking, Dribbling,
Australia) Free throw, Held ball, Holding,
American Cup International Yacht Race Jump ball, Multiple throws,
Beighton Cup Hockey (Kolkata) Pivot.
Canada Cup/ Golf (World
World Cup Championship) Baseball Base, Battery, Bunting, Catcher,
Colombo Cup Football (India, Pakistan, Diamond, Hitter, Home, Infield,
Myanmar and Sri Lanka) Outfield, Pinch, Pitcher, Put out,
Davis Cup Lawn Tennis (Inter- Short stop, strike.
national) Billiards Bauik line, Bolting, Cannon,
Derby Horse Racing (U.K.) Cue Hazard, In-off, Jigger, Long
Dhyan Chand Trophy Hockey (India) jenny, Pot, Scratch, Screwback,
Ezra Cup Polo (India) Short jenny, Spot Stroke.
E.A. Cup Football (India)
I.F.A. Shield Football (India) Boxing Auxiliary point system, Babit
Jayalaxmi Cup National Table Tennis punch, Break, Cut, Defence,
Championship for Women Hook, Jab, Lying on, Knock,
(India) Slam, Upper cut, Weight in,
Mohan Singh Trophy Volleyball (New Delhi) Win by knockout.
Maulana Azad Trophy Inter-varsity Sports and Bridge Chicane, Dealer, Dummy,
Athletics (India) Finesse, Grand slam, Little
Nehru Trophy Hockey (India) slam, No trump, Revoke,
Prince of Wales Cup Golf (U.K.) Rubber, Ruff, Suit, Tricks,
Ramanujam Cup Table Tennis (India) Vulnerable.
Rangaswami Cup National Hockey
Championship (India) Chess Bishop, Castle, Checkmate,
Ranji Trophy Cricket (India) Gambit, King, Knight, Pawn,
Rohinton Baria Trophy Inter-varsity Cricket Queen, Rook, Stalemate.
Championship (India) Cricket Ashes, Boundary, Bowling,
Rovers Cup Football Caught, Chinaman, Cover
Ryder Cup Golf (U.K.) drive, Crease, Duck, Follow on,
Santosh Trophy National Football Googly, Gully, Hat-trick, Hit
Championship (India) Wicket, l.b.w., Legbreak, Leg
Stevens Cup Tennis (U.S.A.) bye, Maiden over, No ball, Off
Subroto Cup Inter School Football break, On drive, Out, Over,
(India) Pitch, Popping crease, Rubber,
Thomas Cup Badminton (W orld Run out, Sixer, Silly point,
Championship) Square leg, Stone walling,
Uber Cup Badminton (W omen's Straight drive, Stumped,
International)
Wicket.
Walker Cup Golf
Westchester Cup Polo Croquet Hoops, Mallet, Peg Out
Wellington Trophy Rowing (India) Draughts Huff
 5

Football Corner kick, Direct free kick, Famous Sports and Stadium
Dribble, Goal kick, Hat-trick, Off
Stadium Place
side, Penalty kick, Thrown in,
Tripping. Ambedkar Stadium Delhi
Golf Best-ball, Bogey, Bunker, National Stadium Delhi
Caddie, Dormy, Fairway, Arun Jaitley Stadium Delhi
Fourball, Foursome, Greed Shivaji Stadium Delhi
holes, Links, Niblic, Par, Put, Indira Gandhi Stadium Delhi
Rough, Stymied, Tee,
Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium Delhi
Threesome.
Wankhede Stadium Mumbai
Hockey Bully, Corner, Dribble, Hat-trick,
National Stadium Mumbai
Offside, Roll-in, Scoop, Short
Brabourne Stadium Mumbai
Corner, Stick, Striking circle,
Tiebreaker. Eden Gardens Kolkata
Yuva Bharti Stadium Kolkata
Horse Racing Jockey, Punter, Steeple chase.
Varabhati Stadium Cuttack
Polo Bunker, Chukker, Mallet.
Nehru (Chepak) Stadium Chennai
Rowing Bow, Bucket, Cow, Ergometer, Kennan Stadium Jamshedpur
Feather, Paddle, Regatta.
Green Park Stadium Kanpur
Rugby Football Tackle, Lines, Scrum, Touch, Lords, Oval, Leeds England (U.K.)
Try. Headingley Manchester England
Shooting Bag, Bull's eye, marksman- Brookland England
ship, Nuzzle, Plug. Twickenham England
Skiing Tobogganing. Trent Bridge England
Swimming Breast stroke, Crawl, Dive. White City England
Tennis Backhand Stroke, Deuce, Perth, Brisbane,
Double fault, Fault, Ground Melbourne, Sydney Australia
Stroke, Half volley, Let, Smash, Sendy Lodge Scotland
Volley. Yankee Stadium New York (USA)
Volleyball Blocking, Doubling, Heave, Forest Hill USA
Love point, Service, Volley. Flemington Melbourn
Wrestling Half nelson, Head lock, Heave, Black Heath London (U.K.)
Hold, Rebouts, Scissor. Wimbledon London


 6

2 Indian Culture

AKADEMIES and festivals, presents awards to the eminent

There are three akademies for promotion of creative artists and extends financial assistance to
art. traditional teachers and scholarships to
students. It also operates a scheme of
1. Lalit Kala Akademi, New Delhi: Established
exchange of troupes.
in 1954, the Lalit Kala Akademi strives for
the popularisation of Indian art within the 3. Sahitya Akademi, New Delhi: The Sahitya
country and in various countries of the world Akademi, established in 1954, has the main
through exhibitions, publications, workshops functions of development of Indian letters,
and camps. Every three year it organises the setting up high literary standards, translation
Triennale India, an international exhi-bition. of literary works of one Indian language into
It publishes research papers on Indian arts. other Indian languages, publication of books
Besides organising seminars, it honours on history of literature and criticism,
eminent artists. The Akademi has set up bibliographies and reference books. The
Akademy has regional offices at Mumbai,
regional centres called Rashtriya Lalit Kala
Kolkata, Bengaluru and Chennai.
Kendras at Lucknow, Kolkata, Chennai and
Bhubaneswar and a small office at Mumbai. SCULPTURE
2. Sangeet Natak Akademi, New Delhi: The Archaeological Survey of India, set up in 1861, is
Sangeet Natak Akademi, set-up in 1953, responsible for preservation and maintenance of
aims at the promotion and development of sculptures and historical monuments and manages a
dance, drama and music. It holds seminars numberof archaeological museums.
DANCE
India has a very rich tradition of tribal, folk and classical dances.
 Classical Dance
Dance State Famous Artists
Bharat Natyam Tamil Yamini Krishnamurthy, Rukmini Devi Arundale,
Nadu Swapna Sundari, Sonal Mansingh, Vaijanti Mala, Mrinalini Sarabhai,
Chandralekha, Indrani, Ram Gopal, Bal Saraswati
Kathakali Kerala Gopinath, K.K. Nayar, Kunju-Kurup, T.K. Chandu
Kuchipudi Andhra Sapna Sundari, Raja Reddy, Shobha Nayar,
Pradesh Radha Reddy, Vedantam Satyanarayan, Vimpanti Chinna Satyam.
Kathak North India Birju Maharaj, Gopi Krishna, Shambhu Maharaj, Sitara Devi, Vishnu Sharma,
Durga Lal, Shobhana Narayan
Odissi Odisha Kelucharan Mahapatra, Indrani Rehman, Madhavi Mudgal, Pratima Bedi,
Samyukta Panigrahi, Sonal Mansingh, Debudas
Manipuri Manipur Uday Shankar, Bipin Singh, Suryamukhi, Darohra Jhaveri

6
 7

STATE AND FOLK DANCES Amjad Ali Khan, Bahadur Khan, Sharan Rani,
 Andhra Pradesh/Telangana : Kuchipudi, Zarin S. Sharma
Ghantamar-dala, Ottam Thedal  Sarangi : Ustand Binda Khan
 Assam : Bihu, Bichhua, Natpuja, Maharas, Kali-  Sitar : Ravi Shankar, Hara Shankar Bhattacharya,
gopal, Bagurumba, Naga dance, Khel Gopal, Nikhil, Banerjee, Vilayat Khan, Mustaq Ali Khan
Tabal Chongli, Canoe, Jhumura Hobjanai  Surb Ahar : Sajjad Hussain, Annapurna
 Bihar : Jata-Jatin, Bakho-Bakhain, Pan-wariya,  Veena : Soraiswamy Iyengar, Chittibabu, Emani
Sama-Chakwa, Bidesia Sankara Shastri, Dhanammal, S. Bala Chandran,
 Gujarat : Garba, Dandiya Ras, Tippani Juriun, Bhavai K.R. Kumaraswami
 Haryana : Jhumar, Phag, Daph, Dhamal, Loor,  Violin : Gajanan Rao Joshi, M.S. Gopal Krishnan,
Gugga, Khor, Gagor T.N. Krishnan, Baluswamy, Dikshitar; Dwaran
Venkataswamy Naidu Lalyuli G. Jayaraman,
 Himachal Pradesh : Jhora, Jhali, Chharhi, Mysore T. Chowdiah, V.G. Jog
Dhaman, Chhapeli, Mahasu, Nati, Dangi  Flute : T.R. Mahalingam, N. Ramani, Hari Prasad
 Jammu and Kashmir : Rauf, Hikat, Mandjas, Chaurasia, Pannalal Ghosh
Kud Dandi Nach, Damali  Nadaswaran : Sheikh Chinna Moula,
 Karnataka : Yakshagan, Huttari, Suggi, Kunitha, Neeruswamy Pillai, Rajaratanam Pillai
Karga, Lambi  Shehnai : Bismillah Khan
 Kerala : Kathakali (Classical), Ottam Thulal,  Mridangam : Palghat Mani Iyer, Karaikudi R.
Mohiniattam, Kaikottikali Mani, Palghat Raghu
 Maharashtra : Lavani, Nakata, Koli, Lezim,  Pakhawag : Pt. Ayodhya Prasad, Gopal Das,
Gafa, Dahikala Dasavtar or Bohada Babu Ram Shanker Pagaldas
 Odisha : Odissi (Classical), Savari, Ghumara,  Tabla : Zaikr Hussain, Nikhil Ghosh, Kishan
Painka, Munari, Chhau Maharaj, Alla Rakha Khan, Pandit Samta Prasad,
 West Bengal : Kathi, Gambhira, Dhali, Jatra, Kumar Bose, Laif Khan
Baul, Marasia, Mahal, Keertan.  Kanjira : Pudukkotai Dakshinamurthi Pillai
 Punjab : Bhangra, Giddha, Daff, Dhaman.
MUSEUMS
 Rajasthan : Ghumar, Chakri, Ganagor, Jhulan
Leela, Jhuma, Suisini, Ghapal, Kalbeliya Indian Art and Archaeological Museums:
 Tamil Nadu : Bharatanatyam, Kumi, Kolattam, (1) Indian Museum, Kolkata; (2) National Museum,
Kavadi New Delhi; (3) Salar Jung Museum, Hyderabad.
 Uttar Pradesh : Nautanki, Raslila, Kajri, Jhora, Contemporary Historical and Art Museums:
Chappeli, Jatta (1) National Gallery of Modern Art, New Delhi;
 Uttarakhand : Garhwali, Kumayuni, Kajari, (2) Nehru Memorial Museum and Library, New
Jhora, Raslila, Chappeli Delhi; (3) Victoria Memorial Hall, Kolkata.
(4) Prince of Wales Museum of Western India,
MUSIC Mumbai; (5) Rail Transport Museum, New Delhi;
Main Schools of Classical Music: There are two (6) State Museum, Lucknow.
main schools of classical music, namely, the
Hindustani and the Carnatic. The Hindustani school LIBRARIES
of classical music is in vogue in north-western Important libraries in the country are: (1) National
India, eastern India and northern parts of the South Library, Kolkata; (2) Central Reference Library,
India. Kolkata; (3) Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Library, Patna;
(4) Central Library, Mumbai; (5) Rampur Raza
MUSICAL INSTRUMENTS AND INSTRUMEN-
TALISTS Library; (6) Tanjavur Maharaja Serfoji Sarasvati
Mahal (TMSSM) Library; (7) Asiatic Society;
 Been : Asad Ali Khan, Zia Moin-ud-din Khan (8) Delhi Public Library, Delhi; (9) Central
 Santoor : Shiv Kumar Sharma Secretariat Library, Delhi; (10) Connemara Public
 Sarod : Buddhadev Dasgupta, Ali Akbar Khan, Library, Chennai.
  
 8

3 Indian History

ANCIENT INDIA
PRE-HISTORIC INDIA NEOLITHIC AGE OR NEW STONE AGE
 The history of human settlements in India goes  During this period, the wheel was invented. It
back to pre-historic times. was a turning point in the life of man.
 The archaeological remains are found in different  The chief characteristic features of the Neolithic
parts of India to reconstruct the history of this culture are the practice of agriculture,
period. domestication of animals, polishing of stone tools
 In India, the pre-historic period is divided into the and the manufacture of pottery.
Palaeolithic (Old Stone Age), Mesolithic (Middle  Large urns were used as coffins for the burial of
Stone Age), Neolithic (New Stone Age) and the the dead.
Metal Age.  The people of Neolithic Age used clothes made
PALAEOLITHIC OR OLD STONE AGE of cotton and wool.
 The Old Stone Age sites are widely found in METAL AGE
various parts of the Indian subcontinent. These  The Neolithic period is followed by Chalcolithic
sites are generally located near water sources. (copper-stone) period when copper and bronze
 Man invented fire by rubbing two pieces of flint. came to be used.
Man used leaves, barks of trees and skins of  The Chalcolithic age is followed by Iron Age.
animals to cover his body.  In the Iron Age, ploughs and daggers were made of
 A few Old Stone Age paintings have also been iron. It led to the overall development of mankind.
found on rocks at Bhimbetka and other places.
INDUS VALLEY CIVILISATION
MESOLITHIC OR MIDDLE STONE AGE
(2500-1750 BC)
 The next stage of human life is called Mesolithic
or Middle Stone Age, which falls roughly from  The earliest excavations in the Indus valley were
10000 B.C. to 6000 B.C. done at Harappa in the West Punjab and
 The hunting-gathering pattern of life continued Mohanjodaro in Sindh. Both places are now in
during this period. Pakistan.
 The use of bow and arrow also began during this Important Sites
period. Also, there began a tendency to settle for  The most important sites are Kot Diji in Sindh,
longer periods in an area. Therefore, Kalibangan in Rajasthan, Ropar in the Punjab,
domestication of animals, horticulture and Banawali in Haryana, Lothal, Surkotada and
primitive cultivation started. Dhaulavira, all the three in Gujarat.

8
 9

 Mohanjodaro is the largest of all the Indus cities and it is estimated to have spread over an area of 200
hectares.

 Indus Valley Civilisation : An Objective Study

Major Sites Excavators Year River Location Important
Findings
1. Harappa D.R. Sahni 1921 Ravi West Punjab Granaries, Virgin
(Pakistan) Goddess, Cemetery, Stone symbol of Lingam and
Yoni
2. Mohenjodaro R.D. Banerjee 1922 Indus Sindh Great Bath, Great
(Pakistan) Granary, Assembly Hall, Proto-Shiva, Brick Kilns,
Meso- potamian seals
3. Chanhudaro N.G. Mazumdar 1931 Indus Sindh Bronze toy cart, Ink-
(Pakistan) pot, Lipstick, City without a citadel
4. Kalibangan B.B. Lal & 1953 Ghaggar Ganganagar Decorated bricks,
B.K. Thapar (Rajasthan) ploughed field surface, Firealtars
5. Lothal S.R. Rao 1957 Bhogwa Ahmedabad Dockyard, Rice husk,
(Gujarat) Fire altars, Double burial
6. Banawali R.S. Bist 1973 Ghaggar Hissar Toy plough, Gridiron
(Haryana) pattern of Town planning.
7. Dholavira R.S. Bist 1990 Luni Kutchh A Large well & a bath,
(Gujarat) A stadium
8. Surkotada J. Joshi 1964 — Gujarat Bones of Horse, Pot burials

Salient Features of the Harappan Culture  A large number of seals numbering more than 2000
 The Harappan Civilization was primarily Urban. have been discovered.
 Mohanjodaro and Harappa were the planned Social Life
cities.  Jewelleries such as bangles, bracelets, fillets,
 The large-scale use of burnt bricks in almost all girdles, anklets, ear-rings and finger rings were
kinds of constructions are the important worn by women. These ornaments were made of
characteristics of the Harappan culture. gold, silver, copper, bronze and semi precious
 Another remarkable feature was the underground stones.
drainage system connecting all houses to the street  Fishing was a regular occupation while hunting
drains which were covered by stone slabs or and bull fighting were other pastimes.
bricks.  Manufacture of terracotta (burnt clay) was a major
 The most important public place of Mohanjodaro industry of the people.
is the Great Bath measuring 39 feet length, 23  Figures of animals such as sacred bull and dove
feet breadth and 8 feet depth. were discovered. The figures of Mother
 Agriculture was the most important occupation. Goddesses were used for religious purposes.
In the fertile soils, farmers cultivated two crops  Most of the inscriptions were engraved on seals.
a year. They were the first who had grown paddy. It is interesting to note that the Indus script has
 Wheat and barley were the main crops grown not yet been deciphered.
besides sesame, mustard and cotton.  The Pipal tree was used as a religious symbol.
 Animals like sheep, goats and buffalo were  The origin of the ‘Swastika’ symbol can be traced
domesticated. The use of horse is not yet firmly to the Harrapan Civilization.
established.  The chief male deity was Pasupati, (proto-Siva)
 Bronze and copper vessels are the outstanding represented in seals as sitting in a yogic posture
examples of the Harappan metal craft. with three faces and two horns.
2125 (GA & Sc.)—2
 10

 There were several tribal kingdoms during the

THE VEDIC PERIOD Rig Vedic period such as Bharatas, Matsyas,
RIG VEDIC AGE (1500 - 1000 B.C.) Yadus and Purus. The head of the kingdom was
called as rajan or king.
 The Early Vedic period is known from the Rig
Veda.  There were two popular bodies called the Sabha
and Samiti. The former seems to have been a
 The Rig Veda refers to Saptasindhu or the land
council of elders and the latter, a general assembly
of seven rivers. This includes the five rivers of
of the entire people.
the Punjab, namely, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas
and Sutlej along with the Indus and Saraswathi. Social Life
 Historians view that the Aryans came from  Family was the basis of the society.
Central Asia. They entered India through the  The head of the family was known as grihapathi.
Khyber pass between 2000 B.C. and 1500 B.C.
Economic Condition
They first settled in seven places in the Punjab
region which they called Sapta Sindhu. Slowly,  The Rig Vedic Aryans were pastoral people and
they moved towards the Gangetic Valley. their main occupation was cattle rearing. Their
wealth was estimated in terms of their cattle.
 The Aryan Civilisation was a rural civilisation.
 Carpentry was another important profession.
Vedic Literature
Religion
 The word ‘Veda’ is derived from the root ‘vid’,
which means to know and signifies ‘superior  The important Rig Vedic gods were Prithvi
knowledge’. (Earth), Agni (Fire), Vayu (Wind), Varuna (Rain)
 The Vedic literature consists of the four Vedas – and Indra (Thunder).
Rig, Yajur, Sama and Atharva.  Indra was the most popular among them during
 The Rig Veda is the earliest of the four Vedas the early Vedic period.
divided into 10 mandalas and it consists of 1028  There were also female gods like Aditi and Ushas.
hymns. The hymns were sung by Hotri in praise There were no temples and no idol worship during
of various gods. the early Vedic period.
 The Yajur Veda consists of various details of rules  Rigvedic Rivers
to be observed at the time of sacrifice. Its hymns River Name in Rigveda
were recited by Adharvayus. Indus Sindhu
 The Sama Veda is set to tune for the purpose of Jhelum Vitasta
chanting during sacrifice. It is called the book of Chenab Asikni
chants and the origins of Indian music are traced Ravi Parushini
in it. Its hymns were recited by Udgatri. Beas Vipasa
 The Atharva Veda contains details of rituals. Sutlej Sutudri
Gomati Gomal
 Besides the Vedas, there are other sacred works
Saraswati Sarasvati
like the Brahmanas, the Aranyakas, the
Ghaggar Prishadavati
Upanishads, and the epics Ramayana and
Mahabharata. LATER VEDIC PERIOD (1000–600 B.C.)
Political Organisation  This age is also called as the Epic Age because
 During this period, the kingdom was tribal in the tw o great epics the Ramayana and
character. Each tribe formed a separate kingdom. Mahabharata were written during this period.
 The basic unit of political organisation was kula  The Sama, Yajur, Atharva Vedas, Brahmanas,
or family. Aranyakas, Upanishads and the two epics are the
 The highest political unit was called jana or tribe. sources of information for this period.
 11

Political Organisation  His father was Siddhartha. He was the head of a

 Larger kingdoms were formed during the later famous Kshatriya clan.
Vedic period.  His mother was Trisala. She was a princess of
 The king performed various rituals and sacrifices the Lichchhavi clan. She was the sister of the
to strengthen his position. They include Rajasuya ruler of Vaishali.
(consecration ceremony), Asvamedha (horse  Vardhamana was married to Yasoda, a princess.
sacrifice) and Vajpeya (chariot race). They had a daughter.
 Kingship became hereditary.  At the age of 30, he left his home and family. He
 Kings assumed titles like Ekrat, Samrat and became an ascetic (monk). He wandered from
Sarvabauma. place-to place in search of truth for 12 years.
Economic Condition  In the 13th year of his penance, he attained the
highest spiritual knowledge called Kevalya Jnana.
 Iron was used extensively in this period and this
Thereafter, he was called Mahavira and Jina. His
enabled the people to clear forests and to bring
followers were called Jains and his religion
more land under cultivation. Agriculture became
Jainism.
the chief occupation.
 He died at the age of 72 in 468 B.C. at a place
 Taxes like Pali, Sulk and Bhaga were collected
called Pavapuri near modern Rajgir.
from the people.
 Wealth was calculated in terms of cows. Teachings of Jainism
 The three principles of Jainism, also known as
Social Life
Triratnas (three gems), are:
 The four divisions of society (Brahmins,
1. right faith.
Kshatriyas, Vaisyas and Sudras) or the Varna
system was thoroughly established during the 2. right knowledge.
Later Vedic period. 3. right conduct.
 The Ashrama system was formed to attain 4  Mahavira preached his disciples to follow the five
purusharthas. They were Dharma, Artha, Kama principles. They are:
and Moksha. 1. Ahimsa—not to injure any living beings
Religion 2. Satya—to speak the truth
 Gods of the Early Vedic period like Indra and 3. Asteya—not to steal
Agni lost their importance. Prajapathi (the 4. Tyag—not to own property
creator), Vishnu (the protector) and Rudra (the 5. Brahmacharia—to lead a virtuous life.
destroyer) became prominent during the Later Spread of Jainism
Vedic period.  Mahavira preached his religion in Prakrit language
which was the language of the masses.
JAINISM AND BUDDHISM  Chandragupta Maurya, Kharavela of Kalinga and
the royal dynasties of south India such as the
JAINISM Gangas, the Kadambas, the Chalukyas and the
 Jainism originated in the 6th century B.C. It Rashtrakutas patronised Jainism.
rejected Vedic religion and avoided its rituals.  Jainism was divided into two sects after Vallabhi
 Founded by Rishabha Deva. Rishabha Deva was Council, namely Svetambaras (wearing white
succeeded by 23 Thirthankaras (prophets). dresses) under Sthulbhadra and Digambaras
Mahavira was the 24th Thirthankara. (naked) under Bhadrabahu.
Vardhamana Mahavira (540-468 B.C.)  The first Jain Council was convened at Pataliputra
 Vardhamana was born in a village called by Sthulabahu, the leader of the Digambaras, in
Kundagrama near Vaishali in Bihar. the beginning of the 3rd century B.C.
 12

 The second Jain Council was held at Valabhi in  He died at the age of 80 in 483 B.C. at Kushinagar
5th century A.D. The final compilation of Jain in Uttar Pradesh.
literature called Twelve Angas was completed in
Teachings of Buddha
this council.
 The Four Noble Truths of Buddha are:
BUDDHISM 1. The world is full of suffering.
Gautama Buddha (563-483 B.C.) 2. The cause of suffering is desire.
 Buddha’s original name was Siddhartha. 3. If desires are get rid off, suffering can be
 Siddhartha was born in the Lumbini Garden near removed.
Kapilavastu in Nepal. His father was Suddhodana. 4. This can be done by following the Eightfold
He was a Sakya chief of Kapilavastu. His mother, Path.
Mayadevi, died when Siddhartha was only seven  The Eightfold Path consists of:
days old. He was brought up by his step mother
1. Right Thought. 2. Right Belief.
Mahaprajapati Gauthami.
3. Right Speech. 4. Right Action.
 At the age of sixteen Siddhartha, married
Yasodhara and gave birth to a son, Rahul. 5. Right Living. 6. Right Efforts.
 The sight of an old man, a diseased man, a corpse 7. Right Knowledge. 8. Right Meditation.
and an ascetic turned him away from worldly Buddhist Literature
life. He left home at the age of twenty-nine in  In Pali language.
search of Truth.  Buddhist scriptures in Pali are commonly referred
 He wandered for seven years and at last, he sat to as Tripitakas, i.e., ‘Three Baskets’.
under a bodhi tree at Bodh Gaya and did intense  Vinaya Pitaka: Rules of discipline in Buddhist
penance, after which he got Enlightenment monasteries.
(Nirvana) at the age of thirty-five. Since then, he
 Sutta Pitaka: Largest, contains collection of
became known as the Buddha or ‘the Enlightened
Buddha’s sermons.
One’.
 Abidham ma Pitaka: Explanation of the
 Buddha delivered his first sermon at Sarnath near
philosophical principles of the Buddhist religion.
Banaras (now Varanasi).
 Main Buddhist Councils
Buddhist Council Time Place Chairman Patron
First 483 BC Rajagriha Mahakashyapa Ajatshatru
Second 383 BC Vaishali Sabakami Kalashoka
Third 250 BC Patliputra Mogaliputta Tissa Ashoka
Fourth AD 72 Kundalvana Vasumitra, Ashwaghosa Kanishka

 The Mahajanapadas
EMERGENCE OF
Mahajanapadas Capital
MAHAJANAPADAS 1. Kashi Varanasi
 In the beginning of the 6th century B.C., the 2. Kosala Shravasti
3. Anga Champanagri
northern India consisted of a large number of
4. Magadh Girivraj or Rajgriha
independent kingdoms.
5. Vajji Vaishali
 The Buddhist literature Anguttara Nikaya gives a 6. Malla Kushinagar and Pavapuri
list of sixteen great kingdoms called ‘Sixteen 7. Chedi Shuktimati
Mahajanapadas’. 8. Vatsa Kaushambi
9. Kuru Hastinapur, Indraprastha and Isukara
 13

10. Panchal Ahichhatra and Kampilya  Chandragupta defeated Seleukos Nikator, the
11. Matsya Viratnagar Greek general of Alexander, in a battle in 305
12. Surasen Mathura B.C.
13. Asmaka Paudanya
 Seleukos sent Megasthenes as Greek Ambassador
14. Avanti Ujjaini
to the Court of Chandra-gupta. Megasthenes wrote
15. Gandhara Taxila
Indica.
16. Kamboj Rajpur (Hatak)
 Chandragupta was a follower of Jainism.
 He came to Sravana Belgola, near Mysore with
DYNASTIES OF ANCIENT INDIA a Jain monk called Bhadrabahu. The hill in which
he lived until his death is called Chandragiri.
HARYANKA DYNASTY
 Chanakya served as prime minister during the
 Bimbisara was the founder of Haryanka Dynasty. reigns of Chandragupta and Bindusara.
 He was a contemporary of both Vardhamana
Mahavira and Gautama Buddha. BINDUSARA (298–273 B.C.)
 During his rule, Darius I, the Achaemenian emperor,  Chandragupta Maurya was succeeded by his son
conquered the Indus Valley area. Bindusara.
 Ajatasatru imprisoned his father Bimbisara.  Bindusara w as called by the Greeks as
 The first Buddhist Council was convened by “Amitragatha” meaning, slayer of enemies.
Ajatasatru at Rajgir. ASHOKA (273–232 B.C.)
 The immediate successor of Ajatasatru was  Ashoka was the most famous ruler of the Mauryan
Udayin. dynasty.
 Udayin laid the foundation of the new capital at  The most important event of Ashoka’s reign was
Pataliputra situated at the confluence of the two his victorious war with Kalinga in 261 B.C.
rivers, the Ganges and the Son.  Ashoka convened the Third Buddhist Council at
 Shishunaga was the founder of Shishunaga dynasty. Pataliputra around 250 B.C. in order to strengthen
 After Shishunaga, the mighty empire began to the Sangha. It was presided over by Moggaliputta
collapse. His successor was Kakavarman or Tissa.
Kalasoka. During his reign, the second Buddhist  Ashoka’s edicts and inscriptions were deciphered
Council was held at Vaishali. by James Prinsep in 1837.
 Kalasoka was killed by the founder of the Nanda  The last Mauryan king, Brahadratha was killed
dynasty. by his minister Pushyamitra Sunga. It put an end
to the Mauryan Empire.
NANDAS
 The fame of Magadha scaled new heights under SUNGAS
the Nanda dynasty.  The founder of the Sunga dynasty w as
 Mahapadmananda was the founder of Nanda rule Pushyamitra Sunga, who was the commander-
in Magadha. in-chief under the Mauryas.
 The last Nanda ruler was Dhana Nanda.  He ascended the throne of Magadha in 185 B.C.
Alexander invaded India during his rule.  Pushyam itra was a staunch follower of
Brahmanism. He performed two asvamedha
MAURYAN EMPIRE sacrifices.
 After the death of Pushyamitra, his son Agnimitra
CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA (322–298 B.C.) became the ruler.
 Chandragupta Maurya was the founder of the  Agnimitra was a great conqueror. He was also
Mauryan Empire. He overthrew Nanda dynasty the hero of the play Malavikagnimitram written
with the help of Chanakya. by Kalidasa.
 14

KANVA  The greatest of the military achievements of

 The last Sunga ruler was Devabhuti, who was Chandragupta II was his war against the Saka
murdered by his minister Vasudeva Kanva, the satraps of western India.
founder of the Kanva dynasty.  The famous Chinese pilgrim, Fahien visited India
 The Kanva dynasty ruled for 45 years. After the (A.D. 399-A.D. 414) during the reign of
fall of the Kanvas, the history of Magadha was a Chandragupta II.
blank until the establishment of the Gupta dynasty.
SUCCESSORS OF CHANDRAGUPTA II
SATAVAHANAS  Kumaragupta (415-455) was the son and
 The founder of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka. successor of Chandragupta II. His reign was
 The greatest ruler of the Satavahana dynasty was marked by general peace and prosperity.
Gautamiputra Satakarni.  Kumaragupta was the founder of the Nalanda
 The greatest port of the Satavahanas was Kalyani University.
on the west Deccan. Gandakasela and Ganjam  Kumaragupta was followed by Skandagupta who
on the east coast were the other important seaports. ruled from A.D. 456 to A.D. 468.
 The fine painting at Amaravathi and  After Skandagupta’s death, many of his successors
Nagarjunakonda caves belong to this period. like Purugupta, Narasimhagupta, Buddhagupta
and Baladitya could not save the Gupta empire
GUPTA PERIOD from the Huns. Ultimately, the Gupta power
totally disappeared due to the Hun invasions and
 The Gupta period is considered as the Golden later by the rise of Yasodharman in Malwa.
Age in the history of India because this period
witnessed all round developments in Religion,
PUSHYABHUTI DYNASTY
Literature, Science, Art and Architecture.
(600 - 647 A.D.)
CHANDRAGUPTA I (320-334 A.D.)
 In the beginning of the 4th Century A.D., Sri  The greatest king was Harshavardhana, son of
Gupta established a small Kingdom at Pataliputra. Prabhakar Vardhana of Thaneshwar. He shifted
He is considered as the founder of the Gupta the capital to Kannauj.
dynasty.  Hieun Tsang visited during his reign.
 The first notable ruler of the Gupta dynasty was  He established a large monastery at Nalanda.
Chandragupta I. He assumed the title Banabhata adorned his court, wrote Harshacharita
Maharajadhiraja. The Meherauli Iron Pillar and Kadambari. Harsha himself wrote three plays–
inscription mentions his extensive conquests. Priyadarshika, Ratnawali and Nagananda.
 Chandragupta I is considered to be the founder PALLAVAS
of the Gupta era which starts with his accession
 The Pallavas established their kingdom in
in A.D. 320.
Tondaimandalam by Simhavishnu with its capital
SAMUDRAGUPTA (335-380 A.D.) at Kanchipuram.
 Samudragupta was the greatest of the rulers of  Other great Pallava rulers were Mahendravarman
the Gupta dynasty. The Allahabad Pillar I, Narasimhavarman I, and Narasimhavarman II.
inscription provides a detailed account of his reign.  The Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram is the
 Because of his military achievements, greatest architectural masterpiece of the Pallava
Samudragupta was hailed as ‘Indian Napoleon’. art.
CHANDRAGUPTA II (380-414 A.D.) CHALUKYAS (543-755 A.D.)
 Sam udragupta was succeeded by his son  Pulakesin I was the founder of the Chalukya
Chandragupta II Vikramaditya. dynasty. He established a small kingdom with
 15

Vatapi or Badami as its capital. CHOLAS

 The structural temples of the Chalukyas exist at  Cholas became prominent in the ninth century
Aihole, Badami and Pattadakal (Virupaksha and established an empire comprising the major
temple). Cave temple architecture was also portion of South India. Their capital was Tanjore.
famous under the Chalukyas. Their cave temples  The founder of the Chola kingdom was Vijayalaya.
are found in Ajanta, Ellora and Nasik.  Rajaraja Chola built the famous Brihadeeswara
RASHTRAKUTAS (755-975 A.D.) temple at Tanjore.
 The art and architecture of the Rashtrakutas were  Dancing Figure of Shiva (Nataraja) belong to
found at Ellora and Elephanta. Chola period.

MEDIEVAL INDIA
 After the death of Ghori in 1206, Aibak declared
ARAB CONQUEST OF SIND his independence. He assumed the title Sultan
 In 712 A.D., Muhammad bin Quasim invaded and made Lahore his capital.
Sind. Quasim defeated Dahir, the ruler of Sind  Muslim writers call Aibak Lakh Baksh or giver
and killed him in a well-contested battle. of lakhs because he gave liberal donations to
them.
Mahmud of Ghazni
 He built the famous Quwat-Ul-Islam mosque at
 In 1024, Mahmud marched from Multan across Delhi. He began the construction of the famous
Rajaputana, defeated the Solanki King Bhimadeva Qutb Minar at Delhi but did not live long to
I, plundered Anhilwad and sacked the famous complete it. It was later completed by Iltutmish.
temple of Somanatha. This was his last campaign
Iltutmish (1210-1236 A.D.)
in India. Mahmud died in 1030 A.D.
 Mahmud patronized art and literature. Firdausi  Iltutmish belonged to the Ilbari tribe and hence
was the poet-laureate in the court of Mahmud. his dynasty was named as Ilbari dynasty.
 He shifted his capital from Lahore to Delhi.
Muhammad Ghori
 He organised the Iqta system and introduced
 Prithviraj Chauhan defeated Ghori in the battle of reforms in civil administration and army.
Tarain near Delhi in 1191 A.D.
 In the Second Battle of Tarain in 1192, Muhammad Raziya (1236-1240 A.D.)
Ghori thoroughly routed the army of Prithiviraj,  She appointed an Abyssinian slave Yakuth as
who was captured and killed. Master of the Royal Horses.
 After his brilliant victory over Prithviraj at Tarain,  In 1240, Altunia, the governor of Bhatinda
Muhammad Ghori returned to Ghazni leaving revolted against her. She went in personally to
behind his favourite general Qutb-ud-din Aibak to suppress the revolt but Altunia killed Yakuth and
make further conquests in India. took Raziya prisoner.
 Bahram Shah, son of Iltutmish killed her.
SULTANATE PERIOD
Balban (1266-1286 A.D.)
SLAVE DYNASTY (1206-1290)
 Balban introduced rigorous court discipline and
 The Slave dynasty was also called Mamluk new customs such as prostration and kissing the
dynasty. Mamluk was the Quranic term for slave. Sultan’s feet to prove his superiority over the
Qutb-ud-din Aibak nobles.
 Qutb-ud-din Aibak was a slave of Muhammad  He also introduced the Persian festival of Nauroz
Ghori, who made him the Governor of his Indian to impress the nobles and people with his wealth
possessions. and power.
 16

 He established a separate military department - LODHI DYNASTY

diwan-i-arz – and reorganized the army.  The Lodhis were Afghans.
KHILJI DYNASTY (1290-1320 A.D.)  Bahlol Lodhi was the first Afghan ruler while his
 The founder of the Khilji dynasty was Jalaluddin predecessors were all Turks. He died in 1489 and
Khilji. was succeeded by his son, Sikandar Lodhi.
 Ala-ud-din Khilji was the greatest ruler of the  In 1504, Sikandar Lodhi founded the city of Agra
Khilji Dynasty. and transferred his capital from Delhi to Agra.
 He was the first Muslim ruler to extend his empire  Babar marched against Delhi and defeated and
right upto Rameshwaram in the South. killed Ibrahim Lodhi in the first battle of Panipat
 The Sultan had built a new city called Siri near (1526).
Delhi.
 Amir Khusrau the great Persian poet, patronised BAHMANI AND VIJAYANAGAR
by Balban, continued to live in Ala-ud-din Khilji’s
court also.
KINGDOMS
 He introduced the system of dagh (branding of  The break up of the Delhi Sultanate provided an
horses) and prepared huliya (descriptive list of opportunity for the rise of a number of kingdoms
soldiers). in the Deccan.
 Ala-ud-din Khilji maintained a large permanent  After the decline of the Tughlaqs, there arose
standing army and paid them in cash from the two important kingdoms in the Deccan. They were
royal treasury. the Bahmani and Vijayanagar kingdoms.
TUGHLAQ DYNASTY
VIJAYANAGAR EMPIRE
 Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq was the founder of the
 The Vijayanagar Kingdom was set up in A.D.
Tughlaq dynasty.
1336. Its aim was to check the spread of Muslim
 To have the capital at the centre of the empire
power and protect Hindu Dharma in South India.
and safe from the Mongol raids, Tughlaq chose
Devagiri as his new capital in A.D. 1327. The  Four dynasties – Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva and
Sultan renamed the new capital Daulatabad. Aravidu – ruled Vijayanagar from A.D. 1336 to
 In 1329-30, Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq introduced 1672.
a token currency.  Vijayanagar was founded in 1336 by Harihara
 Firoz Shah Tughlaq became Sultan after the death and Bukka of the Sangama dynasty.
of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq in A.D. 1351.  The Moroccan traveller, Ibn Batuta, Venetian
 He was the first Sultan to impose irrigation tax. traveller Nicolo de Conti, Persian traveller Abdur
 He had built new towns of Firozabad, Jaunpur, Razzak and the Portuguese traveller Domingo
Hissar and Firozpur. Paes were among them who left valuable accounts
 Timur Mongol leader of Central Asia, ordered on the socio-economic conditions of the
general massacre in Delhi (AD 1398) at the time Vijayanagar Empire.
of Nasiruddin Mahmud (later Tughlaq king).  The Hampi ruins and other monuments of
Vijayanagar provide information on the cultural
SAYYID DYNASTY
contributions of the Vijayanagar rulers.
 Before his departure from India, Timur appointed
Khizr Khan as governor of Multan. He captured KRISHNA DEVA RAYA (1509-1530)
Delhi and founded the Sayyid dynasty in 1414.  The Tuluva dynasty was founded by Vira
 Mubarak Shah, Mohammed Shah and Alam Shah Narasimha.
were some of the other important noteworthy  The greatest of the Vijayanagar rulers, Krishna
rulers of Sayyid Dynasty. Deva Raya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty.
 17

 Krishna Deva Raya himself authored a Telugu  Gulbadan Begum, Humayun’s half-sister wrote
work, Amukthamalyadha and Sanskrit works, Humayun-nama.
Jambavati Kalyanam and Ushaparinayam.
SHER SHAH SURI
 He built the famous Vittalaswamy and Hazara
Ramaswamy temples at Vijayanagar.  The founder of the Sur dynasty was Sher Shah,
whose original name was Farid.
 Krishna Deva Raya renovated Virupaksha temple
in A.D. 1510.  Sher Shah became the ruler of Delhi in 1540.
 After his death the enemies of Vijayanagar joined  Sher Shah organized a brilliant administrative
together and defeated the Vijayanagar ruler in system. The central government consisted of
the battle of Talaikota. several departments.
 He built a new city on the banks of the river
BAHMANI KINGDOM Yamuna near Delhi. Now the old fort called
 The founder of the Bahmani kingdom was Purana Quila and its mosque is alone surviving.
Alauddin Bahman Shah also known as Hasan  He built a Mausoleum at Sasaram, which is
Gangu in 1347. Its capital was Gulbarga. considered as one of the master pieces of Indian
 Ahmad Wali Shah shifted the capital from architecture.
Gulbarga to Bidar.
 Gol Gumbaj was built by Muhammad Adil Shah; AKBAR (1556-1605 AD)
it is famous for the so called ‘Whispering Gallery’.  When Akbar ascended the throne in A.D. 1556
 Quli Qutub Shah built the famous Golcunda Fort. he was only 14 years old. His guardian Bairam
Khan served him as a faithful minister and tutor.
MUGHAL EMPIRE (1526-1707 AD)  Bairam Khan, along with Akbar met Hemu in
the second Battle of Panipat in 1556. Hemu was
BABAR (1526-1530 AD) initially successful, but lost his consciousness after
 Babar was the founder of the Mughal Empire in an arrow hit him. Akbar killed him.
India.  In the Battle of Haldighati, Rana Pratap Singh
 On 21st April, 1526 the first Battle of Panipat was severely defeated by the Mughal army led
took place between Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi, who by Man Singh in 1576.
was killed in the battle.  Akbar abolished the pilgrim tax and in 1562, he
 Babar was the first one to use guns or artillery in abolished Jaziya.
a battle on the Indian soil.  Akbar evolved a new faith called Din-i-Illahi or
 Babar defeated Rama Sanga of Mewar in the Divine Faith.
battle of Kanwah in A.D. 1527. JAHANGIR (1605-1627 AD)
 Babar was a soldier-scholar and wrote his own
 When Akbar died, Prince Salim succeeded with
autobiography called Babar Nama in Turkish
the title Jahangir (Conqueror of World) in 1605.
language.
 Jahangir’s eldest son, Khusrau, rebelled against
HUMAYUN (1530-1556 AD) him. He was arrested and put into prison. Guru Arjun
 Sher Shah defeated Humayun at Chausa in A.D. Dev, the fifth Sikh Guru was executed by Jahangir.
1539 and again at Kannauj in A.D. 1540.  In 1611, Jahangir married Mehrunnisa who was
 After losing his kingdom, Humayun became an known as Nurjahan (Light of World).
exile for the next fifteen years.  Jahangir died in A.D. 1627.
 In 1555, Humayun defeated the Afghans and
recovered the Mughal throne. After six months, SHAHJAHAN (1628-1658 AD)
he died in 1556 due to his fall from the staircase  The reign of Shahjahan is generally considered
of his library. as the Golden Age of the Mughal period.
2125 (GA & Sc.)—3
 18

 Shahjahan is called as the Prince of Builders. He Bahadur Shah II (1837-1857)

had built the Jama Masjid and Red Fort in Delhi  He was confined by the British to the Red Fort.
and Taj Mahal in Agra. During the revolt of 1857, he was proclaimed the
 Fine arts like painting, music and literature Emperor by the rebels. He was deported to
reached high level of development during Rangoon after that.
Shahjahan’s time.  Literature of Mughal Period
AURANGAZEB (1658-1707 AD) Author Work
 Aurangazeb was the last great Mughal ruler. He Babar Tuzuk-i-Babari
ascended the throne after killing his three brothers Abul Fazal Ain-i-Akbari, Akbarnamah
Dara, Shuja and Murad in a fratricidal war. Jahangir Tuzuk-i-Jahangir
Hamid Padshahnama
 Aurangazeb defeated Sikandar Shah of Bijapur
Darashikoh Majn-ul-Bahrain
and annexed his kingdom. Mirza Md Qasim Alamgirnama
 Aurangazeb was against the Sikhs and he
executed the ninth Sikh Guru Tegh Bahadur.
 He was called Darvesh or a Zinda Pir. He forbade THE MARATHAS
Sati. Conquered Bijapur (AD 1686) and Golconda
SHIVAJI (1627-1680 AD)
(AD 1687) and reimposed Jaziya and Pilgrim tax
in AD 1679.  Shivaji was born at Shivner in 1627. His father
was Shahji Bhonsle and mother Jija Bai.
 He built Biwi ka Makbara on the tomb of his
queen Rabaud-Durani at Aurangabad; Moti  His religious teacher was Samarth Ramdas and
Masjid within Red Fort, Delhi; and the Jami or guardian was Dadaji Kondadev.
Badshahi Mosque at Lahore.  In 1674, Shivaji crowned himself at Raigarh and
 Aurangazeb died in A.D. 1707. assumed the title Chatrapathi.
 Ashtapradhan (eight ministers) helped in admi-
LATER MUGHALS / FALL OF THE MUGHALS nistration. These were Peshwas, Sar-i-Naubat
Bahadur Shah (1707-1712) (Military), Mazumdar or Amatya (Accounts);
 Assumed the title of Shah Alam I. Waqenavis (Intelligence); Surnavis (Correspondence);
Dabir or Sumanta (Ceremonies); Nyayadhish
Jahandar Shah (1712-1713)
(Justice); and Panditrao (Charity).
 First puppet Mughal emperor. He abolished  Successors of Shivaji were Shambhaji, Rajaram
jaziya. and Shahu (fought at Battle of Khed in AD 1708).
Farrukhsiyar (1713-1719)
THE PESHWAS
Mohammad Shah (1719-1748)  Balaji Vishwanath was the first Peshwa. He began
 Nadir Shah (of Iran) defeated him in the Battle his career as a small revenue official and became
of Karnal (1739) and took away Peacock throne Peshwa in 1713.
and Kohinoor diamond.  Baji Rao I was the eldest son of Balaji
Ahmad Shah (1748-1754) Vishwanath. He was considered as the “greatest
exponent of guerilla tactics after Shivaji”.
Alamgir II (1754-1759),
 It was during reign of Balaji Baji Rao (Nanasaheb)
Shah Alam II (1759-1806)
when the Marathas lost the Third Battle of Panipat.
Akbar II (1806-1837)  Baji Rao II ( last Peshwa) was the first Maratha
 He gave Ram Mohan Roy the title ‘Raja’. He to have fled from the British attacks instead of
sent Raja Ram Mohan Roy to London to seek a fighting with them. Baji Rao II surrendered to
raise in his allowance. Sir John Malcom.
2125 (GA & Sc.)—3-II
 19

THE SIKH Amritsar, the holy city of Sikhism.

 Guru Nanak Dev was the founder of Sikhism, 5. Guru Arjun Dev (1563-1606AD): He built
the religion that draws its elements from both the Swarn Mandir (Golden Temple).
Hinduism and Islam. 6. Guru Hargobind (1595-1644 AD):
 Name of the ten Sikh Gurus and their works are Established Akal Takht.
given below: 7. Guru Har Rai (1630-1661 AD)
1. Guru Nanak Dev (1469-1539AD): The 8. Guru Har Krishan (1656-1664 AD)
founder of Sikhism. 9. Guru Tegh Bahadur (1621-1675 AD)
2. Guru Angad Dev (1504-1552AD): 10. Guru Gobind Singh (1666-1708 AD):
Developed Gurmukhi. Founded the Khalsa and Sikh baptism,
3. Guru Amar Das (1479-1574AD): Struggled composed many poems, and nominated the
against Sati system and Purdah system. Sikh sacred text as the final and enduring
4. Guru Ram Das (1534-1581AD): Founded Guru.

MODERN INDIA
 They made Agra, Surat, Masulipatnam and
THE ADVENT OF THE EUROPEANS Chinsura in Bengal as their trading centres.
THE PORTUGUESE THE DANES
 Vasco-da-Gama, a Portuguese explorer, sailed  The Danish East India Company was established
through the route of cape of Good Hope and in 1616 in Denmark.
reached near Calicut on 20th May 1498 A.D.  They came to South India and founded a factory
during the reign of King Zamorin (Hindu King at Tranquebar (Tharangambadi) in 1620. They
of Calicut). also made settlements at Serampore near Calcutta
 Vasco-da-Gama founded a factory at Cannanore (Kolkata).
on his second visit to India in 1501. In due course,
Calicut, Cochin and Cannanore became the THE ENGLISH
Portuguese trading centres.  The English East India Company was formed in
 Francisco Almeida came to India in 1505. He 1599 under a charter granted by Queen Elizabeth
was the first Governor of Portuguese possessions in 1600.
in India.  The East India Company sent Sir William
 The real founder of Portuguese power in India Hawkins to the court of the Mughal Emperor
was Alfonso de Albuquerque. He captured Goa Jahangir in 1609 to obtain permission to erect a
from the rulers of Bijapur in 1510. It was made factory at Surat.
their headquarters.  In 1615, Sir Thomas Roe, another British
merchant, came to Jahangir’s court. He stayed
THE DUTCH for three years and succeeded in getting
 The United East India Company of the permission to set up their trading centres at Agra,
Netherlands founded a factory at Masulipatnam Surat, Ahmedabad and Broach.
in 1605. They built their first fort on the main  In 1690, the British got permission from
land of India at Pulicut in 1609, near Madras Aurangazeb to build a factory on the site of
(Chennai). They captured Nagapattinam from the Calcutta. In 1696 a fort was built at that place. It
Portuguese. was called Fort William.
 20

THE FRENCH  To show the enormous power of the British

 The French East India Company was established Government in doing whatever it liked.
in 1664 under the inspiring and energetic Swadeshi Movement (1905)
leadership of Colbert, the economic adviser of  The Swadeshi Movement involved programmes
the French King Louis XIV.
like the boycott of government service, courts,
 In 1667, the first French factory was established schools and colleges and of foreign goods. It was
at Surat by Francis Caron who was nominated as both a political and economic movement.
Director-General.
 Lal, Bal, Pal and Aurobindo Ghosh played an
 French were defeated by English in Battle of important role.
Wandiwash (1760).
Muslim League (1906)
 In December 1906, Muslim delegates from all
NATIONAL MOVEMENT (1885-1947) over India met at Dacca for the Muslim
Indian National Congress (1885) Educational Conference.
 Allan Octavian Hume, a retired civil servant in  Taking advantage of this occasion, Nawab
the British Government took the initiative to form Salimullah of Dacca proposed the setting up of
an all-India organization. Thus, the Indian an organisation to look after the Muslim interests.
National Congress was founded and its first The proposal was accepted.
session was held at Bombay in 1885. W.C.  The All-India Muslim League was finally set up
Banerjee was its first president. It was attended on December 30, 1906.
by 72 delegates from all over India. Minto Morley Reforms (1909)
 The second session was held in Calcutta in 1886  Minto, the Viceroy and Morley, the Secretary of
and the third in Madras in 1887.
State for India jointly proposed reforms to the
 Between 1885 and 1905, the Congress leaders Indian Councils. An Act, called the Indian
were moderates. The Moderates had faith in the Councils Act or the Minto-Morley Reforms Act
British justice and goodwill. They were called was passed in 1909.
moderates because they adopted peaceful and
 A separate communal electorate was introduced
constitutional means to achieve their demands.
for the Muslims.
 In 1905, Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the
Servants of India Society to train Indians to The Lucknow Pact (1916)
dedicate their lives to the cause of the country.  During the 1916 Congress session at Lucknow
Partition of Bengal (1905) two major events occurred. The divided Congress
became united. An understanding for joint action
 By Lord Curzon on 16th October, 1905 through
against the British was reached between the
a royal proclamation, reducing the old province
of Bengal in size by creating East Bengal and Congress and the Muslim League and it was
Assam out of the rest of Bengal. called the Lucknow Pact.
 The partition of Bengal in 1905 provided a spark  The signing of the Lucknow Pact by the Congress
for the rise of extremism in the Indian National and the Muslim League in 1916 marked an
Movement. important step in the Hindu-Muslim unity.
 Curzon’s real motives behind this partition were: The Home Rule Movement (1916)
 To break the growing strength of Bengali  Two Home Rule Leagues were established, one
nationalism since Bengal was the base of Indian by B.G. Tilak at Poona in April 1916 and the
nationalism. other by Mrs. Annie Besant at Madras in
 To divide the Hindus and Muslims in Bengal. September 1916.
 21

 While Tilak’s Movement concentrated on Non-Co-operation Movement (1920-22)

Maharashtra, Annie Besant’s Movement covered  Mahatma Gandhi announced his plan to begin
the rest of the country. Non-Cooperation with the government as a sequel
August Declaration
to the Rowlatt Act, Jallianwala Bagh massacre
and the Khilafat Movement. It was approved by
 On 20 August, 1917, Montague, the Secretary of the Indian National Congress at the Nagpur
State in England, promised the gradual session in December, 1920.
development of self-governing institutions in
 The Congress observed the Non-Co-operation
India.
movement in 1920. The main aim of this
 This August Declaration led to the end of the movement was to attain Swaraj through non-
Home Rule Movement. violent and peaceful means.
Rowlatt Act (1919)  The whole movement was abruptly called off on
 In 1917, a committee was set up under the 11th February, 1922 by Gandhi following the
presidentship of Sir Sydney Rowlatt to look into Chauri-Chaura incident in the Gorakhpur district
the militant Nationalist activities. On the basis of of U.P. Many top leaders of the country were
its report the Rowlatt Act was passed in March stunned at this sudden suspension of the Non-
1919 by the Central Legislative Council. As per Co-operation Movement.
this Act, any person could be arrested on the  On 5th February an angry mob set fire to the
basis of suspicion. No appeal or petition could be police station at Chauri-Chaura and twenty two
filed against such arrests. police men were burnt to death.
 This Act was called the Black Act and it was Swaraj Party
widely opposed. An all-India hartal was organized  Leaders like Motilal Nehru and Chittranjan Das
on 6 April, 1919. formed a separate group within the Congress
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April, 1919) known as the Swaraj Party on 1 January, 1923.
 On 13th April, the Baisakhi day (harvest festival),  The Swarajists wanted to contest the council
a public meeting was organized at the Jallianwala elections and wreck the government from within.
Bagh (garden). Gen. Dyer marched in and without Simon Commission (1927)
any warning opened fire on the crowd. The firing  The Act of 1919 included a provision for its
continued for about 10 to 15 minutes and it review after a lapse of ten years. However, the
stopped only after the ammunition exhausted. review commission under the chairmanship of
 According to official report 379 people were Sir John Simon was appointed by the British
killed and 1137 wounded in the incident. There Government two years earlier of its schedule in
was a nationwide protest against this massacre 1927.
and Rabindranath Tagore renounced his  Indian leaders opposed the commission, as there
knighthood as a protest. were no Indians in it, they cried Simon Go Back.
Khilafat Movement (1920)  The government used brutal repression and at
 The chief cause of the Khilafat Movement was Lahore, Lala Lajpat Rai was severely beaten in
the defeat of Turkey in the First World War. lathi-charge.
 The Muslims in India were upset over the British Nehru Report (1928)
attitude against Turkey and launched the Khilafat  The Secretary of State, Lord Birkenhead,
Movement. challenged the Indians to produce a Constitution
 Ali brothers, Mohd Ali and Shaukat Ali started that would be acceptable to all. The challenge
this movement. It was jointly led by the Khilafat was accepted by the Congress, which convened
leaders and the Congress. an all party meeting on 28 February, 1928.
 22

 A committee consisting of eight was constituted  Thus, Poona Pact agreed upon a joint electorate
to draw up a blueprint for the future Constitution for upper and lower castes.
of India. It was headed by Motilal Nehru. The Demand for Pakistan
Report published by this Committee came to be
 Chaudhary Rehmat Ali gave the term Pakistan in
known as the Nehru Report.
1933.
Lahore Session (1929)  In March 1940, the Muslim League demanded
 On Dec. 19, 1929, under the Presidentship of the creation of Pakistan.
J.L. Nehru, the INC, as its Lahore session,
Cripps Mission (1942)
declared Poorna Swaraj (Complete Independence)
as its ultimate goal.  The British Government in its effort to secure
 On Dec. 31, 1929, the newly adopted tricolour Indian co-operation in the Second World War
flag was unfurled and Jan. 26, 1930 was fixed as sent Sir Stafford Cripps to India on 23 March,
the First Independence Day, which was to be 1942. This is known as Cripps Mission.
celebrated every year.  The main recommendations of Cripps was the
promise of Dominion Status to India.
Dandi March (1930)
 Congress rejected it. Gandhi called Cripp’s
 On 12th March, 1930, Gandhi began his famous proposals as a “Post-dated Cheque”.
March to Dandi with his chosen 79 followers to
break the salt laws. He reached the coast of Dandi Quit India Movement (1942-1944)
on 5 April, 1930 after marching a distance of  The All India Congress Committee met at
200 miles and on 6 April formally launched the Bombay on 8 August, 1942 and passed the
Civil Disobedience Movement by breaking the famous Quit India Resolution. On the same day,
salt laws. Gandhi gave his call of ‘do or die’.
Civil Disobedience Movement
 On 8th and 9th August, 1942, the government
arrested all the prominent leaders of the Congress.
 Countrywide mass participation by women.
Mahatma Gandhi was kept in prison at Poona.
 The Garhwal soldiers refused to fire on the people Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Abul Kalam Azad, and
at Peshawar. other leaders were imprisoned in the
Round Table Conference Ahamednagar Fort.
 The first Round Table Conference was held in  Quit India Movement was the final attempt for
November 1930 at London and it was boycotted country’s freedom.
by the Congress. Indian National Army (INA)
 On 8 March, 1931 the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was  On July 2, 1943, Subhash Chandra Bose reached
signed. As per this pact, Mahatma Gandhi agreed Singapore and gave the rousing war cry of ‘Dilli
to suspend the Civil-Disobedience Movement and Chalo’. He was made the President of Indian
participate in the Second-Round Table Conference. Independence League and soon became the
 In September 1931, the Second Round Table supreme commander of the Indian National Army.
Conference was held at London. Mahatma Gandhi He gave the country the slogan of Jai Hind.
participated in the Conference but returned to  INA had three fighting brigades names after
India disappointed. Gandhi, Azad and Nehru. Rani of Jhansi Brigade
 In January 1932, the Civil-Disobedience was an exclusive women force. INA headquarters
Movement was resumed. at Rangoon and Singapore.
Poona Pact (1932) Cabinet Mission (1946)
 The idea of separate electorate for the depressed  The Cabinet Mission put forward a plan for
classes was abandoned, but seats reserved for solution of the constitutional problem. A proposal
them in the provincial legislature were increased. was envisaged for setting up an Interim
 23

Government, which would remain in office till a  After extensive consultation Lord Mountbatten put
new government was elected on the basis of the forth the plan of partition of India on 3 June, 1947.
new Constitution framed by the Constituent The Congress and the Muslim League ultimately
Assembly. approved the Mountbatten Plan.
 Elections were held in July 1946 for the formation Indian Independence Act, 1947
of a Constituent Assembly.
 The salient features of this Act was the partition
 Muslim league observed the Direct Action Day
of the country into India and Pakistan would come
on 16 August, 1946.
into effect from 15 August, 1947.
 An Interim Government was formed under the
 On 15th August, 1947 India, and on the 14th
leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru on 2 September,
1946. August Pakistan came into existence as two
independent states.
Mountbatten Plan (1947)
 Lord Mountbatten was made the first Governor
 On 20 February 1947, Prime Minister Atlee
General of Independent India, w hereas
announced in the House of Commons the definite
Mohammad Ali Jinnah became the first Governor
intention of the British Government to transfer
General of Pakistan.
power to responsible Indian hands by a date not
later than June 1948.  C. Rajagopalachari became the first and last
 Lord Mountbatten armed with vast powers Indian Governor-General of India. When India
became India’s Viceroy on 24 March, 1947. The became a Republic on 26 January, 1950 Dr.
partition of India and the creation of Pakistan Rajendra Prasad became the first President of our
appeared inevitable to him. country.
 Socio-Religious Movements and Organisation
Year Place Name of the Organisation Founder
1815 Calcutta Atmiya Sabha Ram Mohan Roy
1828 Calcutta Brahmo Samaj Ram Mohan Roy
1829 Calcutta Dharma Sabha Radhakanta Dev
1839 Calcutta Tattvabodhini Sabha Debendranath Tagore
1840 Punjab Nirankaris Dayal Das, Darbara Singh, Rattan Chand etc.
1844 Surat Manav Dharma Sabha Durgaram Manchharam
1849 Bombay Paramhansa Mandli Dadoba Pandurung
1857 Punjab Namdharis Ram Singh
1861 Agra Radha Swami Satsang Tulsi Ram
1866 Calcutta Brahmo Samaj of India Keshab Chandra Sen
1866 Deoband Dar-ul-Ulum Maulana Hussain Ahmed
1867 Bombay Prarthna Samaj Atmaram Pandurung
1875 Bombay Arya Samaj Swami Dayanand Saraswati
1875 New York (USA) Theosophical Society Madam H.P. Blavatsky and Col. H.S. Olcott
1878 Calcutta Sadharan Brahmo Samaj Anand Mohan Bose
1884 Pune (Poona) Deccan Education Society G.G. Agarkar
1886 Aligarh Muhammadan Educational Syed Ahmad Khan
Conference
1887 Bombay Indian National Conference M.G. Ranade
1887 Lahore Deva Samaj Shivnarayan Agnihotri
1894 Lucknow Nadwah-ul-Ulama Maulana Shibli Numani
1897 Belur Ramakrishna Mission Swami Vivekananda
1905 Bombay Servents of Indian Society Gopal Krishna Gokhale
1909 Pune (Poona) Poona Seva Sadan Mrs. Ramabai Ranade and G.K. Devadha
1911 Bombay Social Service League N.M. Joshi
1914 Allahabad Seva Samiti H.N. Kunzru
 24

 Newspapers and Journals

 Bengal Gazette (1780) James Angustus Hikky
(India’s first newspaper)
 Kesari B.G. Tilak
 Maratha B.G. Tilak
 Sudharak G.K. Gokhale
 Amrit Bazar Patrika Shishir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh
 Yugantar Bhupendranath Datta and Birender Kumar Ghosh
 Bombay Chronicle Firoze Shah Mehta
 New India (Daily) Annie Besant

 Books and Authors

 Causes of the Indian Mutiny Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
 Ghulam Giri Jyotiba Phule
 Anandmath Bankim Chand Chatterjee
 Satyarth Prakash Swami Dayanand
 Unhappy India Lala Lajpat Rai
 India Divided Dr. Rajendra Prasad
 The Discovery of India J.L. Nehru
 Neel Darpan Dinbandhu Mitra
 Hind Swaraj M.K. Gandhi
 What Congress and Gandhi have done Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
to the untouchables

 Important Sayings
‘Back to Vedas’ Dayanand Saraswati
‘Dilli Chalo!’ Subhash Chandra Bose’s battle cry of Azad Hind Fauj
‘Do or Die’ Mahatma Gandhi (while launching Quit India movement in 1942)
‘Give me blood and Subhash Chandra Bose (in his address
I will give you freedom’ to soldiers of Azad Hind Fauj)
‘My ultimate aim is to wipe Jawaharlal Nehru
every tear from every eye’
‘Swaraj is my birthright Bal Gangadhar Tilak
and I will have it’
‘Inqualab Zindabad’ Bhagat Singh
‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan’ Lal Bahadur Shastri
‘Sarfaroshi ki tamanna Ram Prasad Bismill
Ab Hamare Dil mein Hai’
‘Saare Jahan Se Achcha, Dr. Mohammed Iqbal
Hindustan Hamara’
‘Hindi, Hindu, Hindustan’ Bhartendu Harishchandra
‘Vande Mataram’ Bankim Chandra Chatterjee


 25

4 Indian Geography

 India extends between 8°4' N and 37°6' N Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West
latitudes and between 68°7' E and 97°2' E Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram).
longitudes.  Indian subcontinent is located in the Northern
 India, has a total geographic area of 32,87,263 and Eastern hemisphere.
sq. km. This is only 2.42 per cent of the  Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of
total geographic area of the world but holds 17.5 Bengal; Lakshadweep, Amindivi and Minicoy in
per cent of the world’s population. the Arabian Sea.
 The 23½° N, which is the Tropic of Cancer, runs  Ocean India lies midway between the Far East
across the country. India has a length of 3214 km and Middle East. The trans-Indian Ocean routes
from north-to-south and 2933 km from east-to- connecting the industrially developed countries
west. It has a land frontier of 15200 km. of Europe in the West and the under developed
 The total length of the coastline of the mainland, countries of East Asia pass close by Indian
Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar subcontinent is surrounded by Arabian Sea in the
Islands is 7,516.6 km. South-West and Bay of Bengal in the South-East.
 India shares its common border with Afghanistan  India is bordered on three sides by water and on
and Pakistan in the north-west, China and Bhutan one by land, it is also a peninsula.
in the north, and Bangladesh in the east. In the
 There are 28 States, and 7 Union Territories and
south, Sri Lanka is separated from India by a
1 National Capital Territory (Delhi) in India.
strait, known as the Palk Strait.
 82°30' E longitude is considered as the Indian Highest Peaks of India
Standard Meridian. The local time of this
Highest Peak Height State
longitude is taken as the Indian Standard Time
(in m)
(IST). This is 5½ hours ahead of the Greenwich
Mean Time. Mt. K2 8611 PoK (India)
 India is the second most populous country in the Kanchenjunga 8598 Sikkim
world with a population of 1.21 billion, which is Nanda Devi 7817 Uttarakhand
17.44% of the world. Saltoro Kangri 7742 Jammu and Kashmir
 India shares longest boundary with Bangladesh Kangto 7090 Arunachal Pradesh
(4053 km), followed by China (3380 km), Reo Purgyil 6816 Himachal Pradesh
Pakistan (2912 km), Nepal (1690 km), Myanmar Saramati 3841 Nagaland
(1463 km), Bhutan (605 km) and Afghanistan Sandakphu 3636 West Bengal
(88 km). Khayang 3114 Manipur
 In India, the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N latitude) Anaimudi 2695 Kerala
passes through 8 states (Gujarat, Rajasthan, Dodda Betta 2636 Tamil Nadu

25 2125 (GA & Sc.)—4

 26

Important Sanctuaries and National Park

Name Location Reserve for
Achanakmar Sanctuary Bilaspur, Chhattisgarh Tiger, boar, chital, sambar, bison
Bandhavgarh National Park Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh Tiger, panther, chital, nilgai, wild boar
Bandipur Sanctuary Border of Karnataka and Elephant, tigers, panther, sambar,
Tamil Nadu deer, birds
Banerghatta National Park Bangalore, Karnataka Elephant, chital, deer, grey
partridges, green pigeon
Bhadra Sanctuary Chikmagalur, Karnataka Elephant, chital, panther, sambar,
wild boar
Bhimabandh Monghyr, Bihar Tiger, leopard, sambar, wild boar,
chital, water birds
Bori Sanctuary Hoshangabad, Madhya Pradesh Tiger, panther, sambar, chital, wild
boar, barking deer
Borivili National Park Mumbai Panther, sambar, langur, wild boar,
chinkara
Chandraprabha Sanctuary Near Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh Famous for Gir lions, chital, sambar
Corbett National Park Nainital, Uttarakhand Tiger, leopard, elephant, sambar
(named in memory of Jim Corbett)
Dachigam Sanctuary Dachigam, Kashmir Kashmiri stag
Dalma Sanctuary Singhbhum, Jharkhand Elephant, leopard, wild boar, barking
deer
Dandeli Sanctuary Dharwar, Karnataka Tiger, panther, elephant, chital,
sambar, wild boar
Dudhwa National Park Lakhimpurkheri, Uttar Pradesh Tiger, panther, sambar, chital, nilgai,
barking deer
Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary Mandsaur, Madhya Pradesh Chital, sambar, chinkara, barking
deer, wild birds
Garampani Sanctuary Diphu, Assam Elephant, leopard, wild buffalo,
langur
Ghana Bird Sanctuary Bharatpur, Rajasthan Water birds, black-buck, chital,
sambar
Gir Forest Junagarh, Gujarat India’s biggest wildlife sanctuary
famous for Gir lions
Gautam Buddha Sanctuary Gaya, Bihar Tiger, leopard, sambar, chital,
barking deer
Hazaribagh Sanctuary Hazaribagh, Jharkhand Tiger, leopard, chital, nilgai, sambar,
wild cat
Intangki Sanctuary Kohima, Nagaland Elephant, gaur, tiger, panther,
barking deer, wild boar
Jaldapara Sanctuary West Bengal Rhinoceros
Kawal Sanctuary Adilabad, Andhra Pradesh Tiger, panther, gaur, chital, wild boar
Kaziranga National Park Jorhat, Assam Horned rhinoceros, gaur, elephant,
leopard, wild buffalo
Khangchandzenda Gangtok, Sikkim Snow leopard, musk deer,
National Park Himalayan boar
Kinnersani Sanctuary Khamrsan, Andhra Pradesh Tiger, panther, gaur, chital, sambar,
nilgai
 27

Name Location Reserve for

Kolleru Pelicanary Elluru, Andhra Pradesh Pelicans, painted stroke
Nogerhole National Park Coorg, Karnataka Elephant, tiger, panther, sambar, chital
Namdafa Sanctuary Tirap, Arunachal Pradesh Elephant, panther, sambar, tiger, chital,
king cobra
Nawegaon National Park Bhandara, Maharashtra Tiger, panther, sambar, chital, nilgari
Pachmarhi Sanctuary Hoshangabad, Tiger, panther, boar, sambar, nilgai,
Madhya Pradesh barking deer
Pakhal Sanctuary Warangal, Telangana Tiger, panther, sambar chital, nilgai
Parambikulam Sanctuary Palghat, Kerala Tiger, leopard, gaur, elephant, nilgai,
chital
Pench National Park Nagpur, Maharashtra Tiger, panther, gaur, sambar, chital,
nilgai
Periyar Sanctuary Idukki, Kerala Elephant, tiger, panther, gaur, nilgai,
sambar, wild beer
Ranganthittoo Bird Islands in river Cauvery in Important bird sanctuary
Sanctuary Karnataka
Rhola National Park Kulu, Himachal Pradesh Snow-leopard, brown boar, musk deer,
snowcock, new pigeon
Sariska Sanctuary Alwar, Rajasthan Tiger, panther, sambar, nilgai, chital,
chinkara
Sharaswathy Valley Shimoga, Karnataka Elephant, tiger, panther, sambar,
Sanctuary gaur, chital, wild boar
Shikari Devi Sanctuary Mandi, Himachal Pradesh Black boar, musk deer, panther,
leopard, partridge
Shivpuri National Park Shivpuri, Madhya Pradesh Tiger, panther, sambar, hyena, sloth,
boar, nilgai
Similipal Sanctuary Mayurbhanj, Odisha Elephant, tiger, leopard, gaur, chital
Someshwara Sanctuary Canara, Karnataka Tiger, Panther, Wild Boar, Leopard
Sunderban Tiger Reserve South 24 parganas, West Tiger, deer, wild boar, crocodile,
Bengal Gangetic dolphin
Sonai Rupa Sanctuary Tezpur, Assam Elephant, sambar, wild boar, one-
horned rhinoceros
Tadoda National Park Chandrapur, Maharashtra Tiger, panther, sambar, nilgai, chinkara,
chital
Todwai Sanctuary Warangal, Telangana Tiger, panther, sambar, gaur, jungle cat
Tansa Sanctuary Thane, Maharashtra Panther, sambar, chital, four-horned
antelope
Tungabhadra Sanctuary Bellary, Karnataka Panther, chital, sloth boar, four-horned
antelope
Valvadore National Park Bharnagar, Gujarat Wolf, black buck
Vedanthangal Bird Tamil Nadu Important bird sanctuary
Sanctuary
Wynad Sanctuary Cannanore and Kozhikode, Elephant, gaur, sambar, chital, wild
Kerala boar, deer
Wild Ass Sanctuary Little Rann of Kutch, Gujarat Wild ass, wolf, nilgai, chinkara
 28

Biosphere Reserve of India

Eleven of the eighteen Biosphere Reserve are a part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves,
based on the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme list.
Biosphere Reserves of India in UNESCO List

Name States Year

Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka 2000
Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve Tamil Nadu 2001
Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve West Bengal 2001
Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve Uttarakhand 2004
Nokrek Biosphere Reserve Meghalaya 2009
Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve Madhya Pradesh 2009
Simlipal Biosphere Reserve Odisha 2009
Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve Great Nicobar 2013
Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh 2012
Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve Kerala and Tamil Nadu 2016
Khangchendzonga National Park Sikkim 2018

PROJECT TIGER
 It was launched on April 1, 1973 to ensure maintenance of viable population of the tigers in India.
 There are 50 tiger reserves in the country:
Name of Tiger Reserve State Name of Tiger Reserve State
Bandipur Karnataka Bori, Satpura, Panchmarhi Madhya Pradesh
Kanha Madhya Pradesh Katarniaghat Uttar Pradesh
Melghat Maharashtra Kaziranga Assam
Palamau Jharkhand Corbett Uttarakhand
Ranthambhore Rajasthan Manas Assam
Sunderbans West Bengal Similipal Odisha
Periyar Kerala Nagarjunasagar Andhra Pradesh
Sariska Rajasthan Dudhwa Uttar Pradesh
Buxa West Bengal Valmiki Bihar
Indravati Chhattisgarh Tadobo-Andhari Maharashtra
Namdapha Arunachal Pradesh Panna Madhya Pradesh
Kalakad-Mundanthurai Tamil Nadu Bhadra Karnataka
Pench Madhya Pradesh Pakhui-Nameri Arunachal-Assam
Bandhavgarh Madhya Pradesh Nagarhole Karnataka
Dampha Mizoram Nameri Assam
Pench Maharashtra
 29

Important Projects and their Beneficiary States

Project River Purpose Beneficiary States
Farakka Project Ganga, Power, irrigation, avoid West Bengal
Bhagirathi accumulation of slit to
improve navigation
Beas Project Beas Irrigation and power Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab
and Himachal Pradesh
Rajasthan Canal Project Sutlej, Beas Irrigation Rajasthan, Punjab and
and Ravi Haryana
Chambal Project Chambal Power and irrigation Madhya Pradesh and
Rajasthan
Kakrapara Project Tapti Irrigation Gujarat
Ukai Project Tapti Power and irrigation Gujarat
Ramganga Multipurpose Chisot stream Power and irrigation Uttar Pradesh
Project near Kala
Matatilla Project Betwa Multipurpose power Uttar Pradesh and Madhya
and irrigation Pradesh
Tehri Dam Project Bhilangana, Hydroelectricity Uttarakhand
Bhagirathi
Rihand Scheme Rihand Hydroelectricity Uttar Pradesh
Kundah Project Kundah Hydroelectricity and Tamil Nadu
irrigation
Bhakra Nangal Project Sutlej Power and irrigation Punjab, Himachal Pradesh,
Haryana and Rajasthan
Damodar Valley Damodar Power, Irrigation and Bihar and West Bengal,
flood control shared by Madhya Pradesh
Hirakud Mahanadi Power and irrgation Odisha
Tunghabhadra Project Tungabhadra Power and irrigation Andhra Pradesh and
Karnataka
Nagarjuna Sagar Project Krishna Power and irrigation Andhra Pradesh
Gandak River Project Gandak Power and irrigation Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Nepal
(joint venture of India and
Nepal)
Kosi Project Kosi Flood control, Bihar
Power and irrigation
Tawa Project Tawa Irrigation Madhya Pradesh
(Narmada)
Poochampad Project Godavari Irrigation Andhra Pradesh
Malaprabha Project Malaprabha Irrigation Karnataka
Durgapur Barrage Damodar Irrigation and navigation Karnataka, West Bengal and
Jharkhand
Mahanadi Delta Project Mahanadi Irrigation Odisha
Iddukki Project Periyar Hydroelectricity Kerala
Koyna Project Koyna Hydroelectricity Maharashtra
 30

Mineral Resources of India

Resources Place
Coal West Bengal (Raniganj, Burdwan, Bankura, Purulia, Birbhum, Jalpaigudi,
Darjeeling), Jharkhand (Jharia, Giridih, Kharhawadi, Bokaro, Hazaribagh,
Karnapura, Rampur, Palamau), Odisha (Rampur, Hindgir, Talcher, Sambal),
Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh (Rewa, Pench valley, Umaria, Korba,
Sohagpur, Mand river area, Kanha valley, Betul), etc. Power sector is the largest
consumer of coal in India followed by steel industry, cement industry, etc.
Manganese Maharashtra (Nagpur, Bhandara, Ratnagiri), Madhya Pradesh (Balaghat,
Chhindawara), Odisha (Keonjhar, Bonai, Kalahandi), Andhra Pradesh (Kadur,
Garibadi).
Copper Madhya Pradesh (Balaghat), Rajasthan (Khetri), Jharkhand (Singhbhum,
Masobani, Surda), Karnataka (Chitradurg, Hassan).
Mica Jharkhand (Hazaribagh, Giridih, Kodarma), Bihar (Gaya, Bhagalpur), Andhra
Pradesh (Guntur, Vizag, Kurnool), Rajasthan (Bhilwara, Udaipur, Jaipur).
Petroleum Assam (Digboi, Naharkatiya, Badarpur, Masinpur and Pallharia), Gujarat
(Ankleshwar, Khambat, Kalol), Mumbai High, Bassein (South of Mumbai High),
etc. Recently oil has been discovered in Cauvery basin, Krishna and Godavari
basin, Khambat basin, etc.
Iron India possesses Haematite, a very high-grade iron ore. In Madhya Pradesh
(Bailadila, Jabalpur), Goa (North Goa), Karnataka (Bababudan hills,
Chikmangalur, Hospet), Jharkhand (Singhbhum, Noamundi), Andhra Pradesh,
Odisha. India is the fifth largest exporter of iron ore in the world. Japan is the
biggest buyer accounting for about 3/4th of India’s total exports. Major ports
handling iron ore export are Vishakhapatnam, Paradip, Marmagao and
Mangalore.
Bauxite Chief ore for producing aluminium. In Odisha (Kalahandi, Koraput, Sundargarh,
Bolangir, Sambalpur), Jharkhand (Lohardaga, Gumla), Madhya Pradesh
(Jabalpur, Mandla, Shahdol, Katni, Balaghat), Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh,
Gujarat, Tamil Nadu.
Gold Karnataka (Kolar, Hutti, Raichur), Andhra Pradesh (Ramgiri and Yeppamanna
goldfields in Chittor and Anantapur districts).
Silver, Zinc & Lead Rajasthan (Zawar mines near Udaipur), Andhra Pradesh (Mysore, Chitradurg),
Karnataka (Kolar mines).
Uranium Jharkhand (Jaduguda), Rajasthan (Ajmer), Andhra Pradesh (Nellore, Nalgonda),
Karnataka (Gulbarga).
Thorium Kerala coast (From Monazite sand), rocks of Aravallis in Rajasthan

Water Transport
The Government has recognised the following National Waterways of India
NW 1 Allahabad to Haldia 1629 km
NW 2 Sadia to Dhubri on Brahmaputra river 819 km
NW 3 Kollam to Kottapuram 186 km
NW 4 Kakinada to Marakkanam along Godavari and Krishna river 1110 km
NW 5 Mangalgarhi to Paradeep and Talcher to Dhamara Mahanadi and Brahmini 1623 km
 31

Important National Highways Railway Zones and Headquarters

NH Connects Railway Zones Headquarters
NH 1 New Delhi-Ambala-Jalandhar-Amritsar Central Mumbai VT
NH 2 Delhi-Mathura-Agra-Kanpur-Allaha- Eastern Kolkata
bad-Varanasi-Kolkata Northern New Delhi
NH 3 Agra-Gwalior-Nasik-Mumbai North Eastern Gorakhpur
NH 4 Thane and Chennai via Pune and North-East Frontier Maligaon-Guwahati
Belgaum Southern Chennai
NH 5 Kolkata-Chennai South Central Secunderabad
NH 6 Kolkata-Dhule South Eastern Kolkata
NH 7 Varanasi-Kanyakumari (2369 km) Metro Railway Kolkata
NH 8 Delhi-Mumbai (via Jaipur, Baroda and Western Mumbai Churchgate
Ahmedabad) East Coast Bhubaneshwar
NH 9 Mumbai-Vijayawada East Central Hajipur
NH 10 Delhi-Fazika North Central Allahabad
NH 24 Delhi-Lucknow North Western Jaipur
NH 26 Lucknow-Varanasi South Western Bangalore (Hubli)
NH 44 Srinagar-Kanyakumari (3745 km) West Central Jabalpur
(Longest National highway) South East Central Bilaspur

Major Ports of India

Name State River/Strait/Ocean
Kolkata West Bengal Hoogly River
Mumbai (Busiest and biggest) Maharashtra Arabian Sea
Chennai (Oldest and artificial) Tamil Nadu Bay of Bengal
Cochin (Natural harbour) Kerala Arabian Sea
Vishakhapatnam (Deepest Port) Andhra Pradesh Bay of Bengal
Paradip Odisha Bay of Bengal
New Titucorin (Southernmost) Tamil Nadu Bay of Bengal
Marmagao Goa Arabian Sea
Kandla (Tidal Port) Gujarat Arabian Sea
Mangalore (exports Kudremukh iron-ore) Karnataka Arabian Sea
J. L. Nehru Port (Fastest Growing) Maharashtra Arabian Sea
Ennore (Most modern in private hands) Tamil Nadu Bay of Bengal

Forest and Tree Cover of India (2019)

Class Area (sq. km) Percentage of Geographical Area
Forest Cover— Very Dense Forest 99,278 3.02
Moderately Dense Forest 3,08,472 9.38
Open Forest 3,04,499 9.26
Total Forest and Tree Cover 8,07,276 24.56
Scrub 46,297 1.41
Non Forest 25,28,923 76.92
Total Geographical Area 32,87,469 100.00
 32

Major Tribes in India

Tribes State Tribes State

Abors Assam Lepchas Sikkim
Apatamis Arunachal Pradesh Lushais Tripura
Badagas Nilgiri (TN) Murias Bastar region in
Baiga Madhya Pradesh Chhattisgarh
Bhils Mostly in Madhya Pradesh Mikirs Assam
and Rajasthan, also in Mundas Jharkhand
Gujarat Nagas (Angami, Sema, Ao, Tangkul,
Bhotias Garhwal and Kumaon regions Lahora): Nagaland, some
in Uttarakhand parts in Assam and NEFA
Chenchus Andhra Pradesh, Odisha region
Gaddis Himachal Pradesh Oarons (also Bihar, Odisha
Garos Meghalaya called Kurukh)
Gonds Madhya Pradesh, also in Onges Andaman and Nicobar
Bihar, Odisha and Andhra Islands
Pradesh Santhals Birbhum region in Bengal,
Jarawas Little Andamans Hazaribagh, Ranchi and
Khas Jaunsar-Babar area in Palamau in Jharkhand
U.P. Sentinelese Sentinel Island, Andaman and
Khasis Assam, Meghalaya Nicobar
Khonds Odisha Shompens Andaman and Nicobar
Kol Madhya Pradesh Todas Nilgiri (Tamil Nadu)
Kotas Nilgiri (Tamil Nadu) Uralis Kerala
Kuki Manipur Warlis Maharashtra

Mangrove Cover Report 2017 (Area in sq. km)

Sl. No. States/UTs Very Dense Moderately Open Total Change with
Mangrove Dense Mangrove Mangrove respect
Mangrove to ISFR 2015
1. Andhra Pradesh 0 213 191 404 37
2. Goa 0 20 6 26 0
3. Gujarat 0 172 968 1140 33
4. Karnataka 0 2 8 10 7
5. Kerala 0 5 4 9 0
6. Maharashtra 0 88 216 304 82
7. Odisha 82 94 67 243 12
8. Tamil Nadu 1 25 23 49 2
9. West Bengal 999 692 423 2114 8
10. A & N Islands 399 169 49 617 0
11. Daman & Diu 0 0 3 3 0
12. Puducherry 0 0 2 2 0
Total 1481 1480 1960 4921 181
 33

Forest Cover of India in 2019

States/UTs Geogra- VDF MDF OF Total Percent of
phical Forest Geographical
Area Area Area
Andhra Pradesh 1,62,968 1,994 13,938 13,205 29,137 17.88
Arunachal Pradesh 83,743 21,095 30,557 15,036 66,688 79.63
Assam 78,438 2,795 10,279 15,253 28,327 36.11
Bihar 94,163 333 3,280 3,693 7,306 7.76
Chhattisgarh 1,35,192 7,068 32,198 16,345 55,611 41.13
Delhi 1,483 6.72 56.42 132.30 195.44 13.18
Goa 3,702 538 576 1,123 2,237 60.43
Gujarat 1,96,244 378 5,092 9,387 14,857 7.57
Haryana 44,212 28 451 1,123 1,602 3.62
Himachal Pradesh 55,673 3,113 7,126 5,195 15,434 27.72
Jammu & Kashmir* 53,258 4,203 7,952 8,967 21,122 39.66
Ladakh 1,69,421 78 660 1,752 2,490 1.47
Jharkhand 79,716 2,603 9,687 11,321 23,611 29.62
Karnataka 1,91,791 4,501 21,048 13,026 38,575 20.11
Kerala 38,852 1,935 9,508 9,701 21,144 54.42
Madhya Pradesh 3,08,252 6,676 34,341 36,465 77,482 25.14
Maharashtra 3,07,713 8,721 20,572 21,485 50,778 16.50
Manipur 22,327 905 6,386 9,556 16,847 75.46
Meghalaya 22,429 489 9,267 7,363 17,119 76.33
Mizoram 21,081 157 5,801 12,048 18,006 85.41
Nagaland 16,579 1,273 4,534 6,679 12,486 75.31
Odisha 1,55,707 6,970 21,552 23,097 51,619 33.15
Punjab 50,362 8 801 1,040 1,849 3.67
Rajasthan 3,42,239 78 4,342 12,210 16,630 4.86
Sikkim 7,096 1,102 1,552 688 3,342 47.10
Tamil Nadu 1,30,060 3,605 11,030 11,729 26,364 20.27
Telangana 1,12,077 1,608 8,787 10,187 20,582 18.36
Tripura 10,486 654 5,236 1,836 7,726 73.68
Uttar Pradesh 2,40,928 2,617 4,080 8,109 14,806 6.15
Uttarakhand 53,483 5,047 12,805 6,451 24,303 45.44
West Bengal 88,752 3,019 4,160 9,723 16,902 19.04
A & N Islands 8,249 5,678 684 381 6,743 81.74
Chandigarh 114 1.36 14.24 6.43 22.03 19.32
Dadra & Nagar Haveli 491 0 80 127 207 42.16
Daman & Diu 111 1.40 5.69 13.40 20.49 18.46
Lakshdweep 30 0 16.09 11.01 27.10 90.33
Puducherry 490 0 17.66 34.75 52.41 10.70
Total 32,87,469 99,278 3,08,472 3,04,499 7,12,249 21.67
* Includes Jammu & Kashmir area outside LoC that is under illegal occupation of Pakistan and China.
   2125 (GA & Sc.)—5
 34

5 Capital/State

STATES AND UNION TERRITORIES OF INDIA

States of India
States Capital Principal Area
Language(s) in (sq. km)
1 2 3 4
1. Andhra Amaravati Telugu, Urdu 1,60,205
Pradesh
2. Arunachal Itanagar Monpa, Miji 83,743
Pradesh
3. Assam Dispur Assamese 78,438
4. Bihar Patna Hindi 94,163
5. Chhatisgarh Raipur Hindi 1,35,191
6. Goa Panaji Konkani, Marathi 3,702
7. Gujarat Gandhi Ngr Gujarati 1,96,024
8. Haryana Chandigarh Hindi 44,212
9. Himachal Simla Hindi, Pahari 55,673
Pradesh
10. Jharkhand Ranchi Hindi, Santhali 79,714
11. Karnataka Bengaluru Kannada 1,91,791
12. Kerala Thiruva- Malayalam 38,863
nanthapuram
13. Madhya Bhopal Hindi 3,08,000
Pradesh
14. Maharashtra Mumbai Marathi 3,07,713
15. Manipur Imphal Manipuri 22,327
16. Meghalaya Shillong Khasi, Garo, 22,429
English
17. Mizoram Aizawl Mizo, English 20,987
18. Nagaland Kohima Angami, Ao, Chang 16,579
19. Odisha Bhubaneswar Odiya 1,55,707
20. Punjab Chandigarh Punjabi 50,362
34 2125 (GA & Sc.)—5-II
 35

1 2 3 4
21. Rajasthan Jaipur Hindi, Rajasthani 3,42,239
22. Sikkim Gangtok Bhutia, Nepali, Lepcha 7,096
23. Tamil Nadu Chennai Tamil 1,30,058
24. Tripura Agartala Bengali, Kakborek 10,491
25. Uttarakhand Dehradun* Hindi, Garhwali 53,483
26. Uttar Pradesh Lucknow Hindi, Urdu 2,40,928
27. West Bengal Kolkata Bengali 88,752
28. Telangana Hyderabad Telugu, Urdu 1,14,840
Union Territories
1. Andaman & Port Blair Hindi, Nicobarese 8,249
Nicobar
Islands
2. Chandigarh Chandigarh Hindi, Punjabi 114
3. Dadra & Nagar Daman Gujarati, Hindi 603
Haveli and
Daman & Diu
4. Delhi Delhi Hindi, Urdu, Punjabi 1,483
5. Lakshadweep Kavaratti Malayalam 32
6. Puducherry Puducherry Tamil 479
7. Jammu & Srinagar/Jammu Kashmiri, Dogri, Urdu 2,22,236 (1)
Kashmir
8. Ladakh Leh Ladakhi —

Special Features Union Territories :

States : (i) Largest in population --- Delhi
(i) Largest population --- Uttar Pradesh (ii) Minimum population --- Lakshadweep
(ii) Highest density of population --- Bihar (iii) First to achieve 100% literacy —Lakshadweep
(iv) Highest density of population --- Delhi
(iii) Lowest density of population --- Arunachal
Pradesh Census 2011: Since 1881 census operations take
place regularly every ten years. According to 2011
(iv) Largest in area --- Rajasthan census, the total population of India w as
(v) Highest literacy --- Kerala 1,21,08,54,977 (62.3 crore male and 58.7 crore fe-
(vi) Minimum population --- Sikkim male).
(vii) Minimum area --- Goa Some Special Features: (1) Average density of
(viii) First to achieve 100% electrification --- population --- 382 per sq km. (2) Literacy --- Total
73.0% (male --- 80.9%; female --- 64.6%). (3) Kerala
Haryana
has more women than men i.e. 1084 women for
(ix) Lowest literacy --- Bihar every 1000 men.

(1) Includes 78,114 sq km under illegal occupation of Pakistan, 5,180 sq km illegally handed over by Pakistan to China and 37,555
sq km under illegal occupation of China.
Note: The figures are based on Census of India 2011.
* Provisional Capital.
 36

6 General Science

IMPORTANT INVENTIONS
Name of Invention Inventor Nationality Year
Aeroplane Orville & Wilbur Wright U.S.A. 1903
Ball-Point Pen John J. Loud U.S.A. 1888
Barometer Evangelista Torricelli Italy 1644
Bicycle Kirkpatrick Macmillan Britain 1839-40
Bifocal Lens Benjamin Franklin U.S.A. 1780
Car (Petrol) Karl Benz Germany 1888
Celluloid Alexander Parkes Britain 1861
Cinema Nicolas & Jean Lumiere France 1895
Clock (mechanical) I-Hsing & Liang Ling-Tsan China 1725
Diesel Engine Rudolf Diesel Germany 1895
Dynamo Hypolite Pixii France 1832
Electric Lamp Thomas Alva Edison U.S.A. 1879
Electric Motor (DC) Zenobe Gramme Belgium 1873
Electric Motor (AC) Nikola Tesla U.S.A. 1888
Electro-magnet William Sturgeon Britain 1824
Electronic Computer Dr. Alan M. Turing Britain 1943
Film (moving outlines) Louis Prince France 1885
Film (musical sound) Dr. Le de Forest U.S.A. 1923
Fountain Pen Lewis E. Waterman U.S.A. 1884
Gramophone Thomas Alva Edison U.S.A. 1878
Helicopter Etienne Oehmichen France 1924
Jet Engine Sir Frank Whittle Britain 1937
Laser Charles H. Townes U.S.A. 1960
Lift (Mechanical) Elisha G. Otis U.S.A. 1852
Locomotive Richard Trevithick Britain 1804
Machine Gun James Puckle Britain 1718
Microphone Alexander Graham Bell U.S.A. 1876
Microscope Z. Janssen Netherlands 1590
Motor Cycle G. Daimler Germany 1885
Photography (on film) John Carbutt U.S.A. 1888
Printing Press Johann Gutenberg Germany c.1455
Razor (safety) King C. Gillette U.S.A. 1895
Refrigerator James Harrison & Alexander Catlin U.S.A. 1850
Safety Pin Walter Hunt U.S.A. 1849
Sewing machine Barthelemy Thimmonnier France 1829
Ship (steam) J.C. Perier France 1775
Ship (turbine) Hon. Sir C. Parsons Britain 1894
Skyscraper W. Le Baron Jenny U.S.A. 1882
Slide Rule William Oughtred Britain 1621

36
 37

Name of Invention Inventor Nationality Year

Steam Engine (condenser) James Watt Britain 1765
Steel Production Henry Bessemer Britain 1855
Steel (stainless) Harry Brearley Britain 1913
Submarine David Bushnell U.S.A. 1776
Tank Sir Ernest Swinton Britain 1914
Telegraph M. Lammond France 1787
Telegraph Code Samuel F.B. Morse U.S.A. 1837
Telephone (perfected) Alexander Graham Bell U.S.A. 1876
Television (mechanical) John Logie Baird Britain 1926
Television (electronic) P.T. Farnsworth U.S.A. 1927
Thermometer Galileo Galilei Italy 1593
Transformer Michael Faraday Britain 1831
Transistor Bardeen, Shockley & Brattain U.S.A. 1948
Washing Machine (elec.) Hurley Machine Co. U.S.A. 1907
Zip-Fastener W.L. Judson U.S.A. 1891

IMPORTANT DISCOVERIES
Discovery Discoverer Nationality Year
Aluminium Hans Christian Oerstedt Denmark 1827
Atomic number Henry Moseley England 1913
Atomic structure of matter John Dalton England 1803
Chlorine C.W. Scheele Sweden 1774
Electromagnetic induction Michael Faraday England 1831
Electromagnetic waves Heinrich Hertz Germany 1886
Electromagnetism Hans Christian Oersted Denmark 1920
Electron Sir Joseph Thomson England 1897
General theory of relativity Albert Einstein Switzerland 1915
Hydrogen Henry Cavendish England 1766
Law of electric conduction Georg Ohm Germany 1827
Law of electromagnetism Andre Ampere France 1826
Law of falling bodies Galileo Italy 1590
Laws of gravitation & motion Isaac Newton England 1687
Laws of planetary motion Johannes Kepler Germany 1609-10
Magnesium Sir Humphry Davy England 1808
Neptune (Planet) Johann Galle Germany 1846
Neutron James Chadwick England 1932
Nickel Axel Cronstedt Sweden 1751
Nitrogen Daniel Rutherford England 1772
Oxygen Joseph Priestly England 1772
C.W. Scheele Sweden
Ozone Christian Schonbein Germany 1839
Pluto (Planet) Clyde Tombaugh U.S.A 1930
Plutonium G.T. Seaborg U.S.A 1940
Proton Ernest Rutherford England 1919
Quantum Theory Max Planck Germany 1900
Radioactivity Antoine Bacquerel France 1896
Radium Pierre & Marie Curie France 1898
Silicon Jons Berzelius Sweden 1824
Special theory of relativity Albert Einstein Switzerland 1905
Sun as centre of solar system Copernicus Poland 1543
Uranium Martin Klaproth Germany 1789
Uranus (Planet) William Herschel England 1781
X-rays Wilhelm Roentgen Germany 1895
 38

Scientific Instruments
Name of Instrument Used for
Altimeter measuring altitude
Ammeter measuring strength of an electric current
Anemometer measuring the velocity of wind
Audiometer measuring level of hearing
Barometer measuring atmospheric pressure
Callipers measuring the internal and external diameters of tubes
Calorimeter measuring quantity of heat
Compass finding out direction
Dynamo converting mechanical energy into electrical energy
Galvanometer detecting and determining the strength of small electric currents
Hydrometer measuring specific gravity of a liquid
Hygrometer measuring the humidity in the atmosphere
Lactometer measuring the purity of milk
Manometer measuring the gaseous pressure
Micrometer measuring minute distances, angles, etc.
Microscope seeing magnified view of very small objects
Photometer measuring intensity of light from distant stars
Pyrometer measuring high temperatures
Radar detecting and finding the presence and location of moving objects like aircraft, missile, etc.
Radiometer measuring the emission of radiant energy
Rain Gauge measuring the amount of rainfall
Seismograph measuring and recording the intensity and origin of earthquake shocks
Sextant measuring altitude and angular distances between two objects or heavenly bodies
Spectrometer measuring the refractive indices
Spherometer measuring the curvature of spherical objects/surface
Sphygmomanometer measuring blood pressure
Stethoscope ascertaining the condition of heart and lungs by listening to their function
Stroboscope viewing objects that are moving rapidly with a periodic motion as if they were at rest
Tachometer measuring the rate of revolution or angular speed of a revolving shaft
Telescope viewing magnified images of distant objects
Thermocouple measuring the temperature inside furnaces and jet engines
Thermometer measuring human body temperature
Thermostat regulating constant temperature
Ultrasonoscope measuring utrasonic sounds
Viscometer measuring the viscosity of a fluid
Voltmeter measuring potential difference between two points.

 Central Drug Research Institute, Lucknow (Uttar

MAJOR SCIENCE RESEARCH
Pradesh)
INSTITUTIONS  Central Leather Research Institute, Chennai (Tamil
 National Institute of Oceanography, Panaji (Goa) Nadu)
 National Science Centre, New Delhi  Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagonostics,
 Central Salt and Marine Chemical Research Hyderabad (Telangana)
Institute, Bhavnagar (Gujarat)  Central Road Research Institute, New Delhi
 39

 National Metallurgical Laboratory, Jamshedpur The building blocks of Protein are Amino acids
(Jharkhand) and there are large number of amino acids.
 Central Institute for Cotton Research, Nagpur  Proteins are essential for the growth of children and
(Maharashtra) teenagers, and for maintenance and making good the
 Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute, Kochi wear and tear of the body tissues in adults.
(Kerala)  An adult needs about 1 gm of protein per kg of
 Central Potato Research Institute, Shim la body weight.
(Himachal Pradesh)  Fats: They are esters of long chain fatty acids and
 Central Rice Research Institute, Cuttack (Odisha) an alcohol called glycerol. Fats also contain atoms
 Central Tobacco Research Institute, Rajahmundr of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
(Andhra Pradesh)  The main function of fats in the body is to provide
 Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi a steady source of energy and for this purpose, they
are deposited within the body.
 Cement Research Institute of India, Ballabhgarh
(Haryana)  One gm of fat gives 37 kilojoules of energy which
is more than double of that given by carbohydrates.
 Indian Cancer Research Centre, Mumbai
(Maharashtra)  Fats, the richest source of energy to our body, can
be stored in the body for subsequent use. Fats,
 Indian Roads Congress, New Delhi
soluble in organic solvents and insoluble in water,
 Atomic Energy Commission, Mumbai (Maharashtra)
also supply fat-soluble vitamins to our body.
 Bhabha Atomic Research Centre, Trombay,
 Minerals: Some of the important minerals needed
Mumbai (Maharashtra) by our body are — iron, iodine, calcium,
 Indian Space Research Organisation, Bengaluru phosphorus, sodium, potassium, zinc, copper,
(Karnataka) magnesium, chloride, fluoride and sulphur.
 Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station,  We get most of the minerals in combined form from
Thumba, Thiruvananthapuram (Kerala) plant sources. Deficiency of these minerals causes
 Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Thiruvananthapuram many diseases.
(Kerala)  Energy Requirements: The energy requirement
of a body varies according to age, sex, lifestyle,
FOOD occupation, climate and special situations like
pregnancy and lactation.
 It is a nutritive substance taken by an organism for
growth, work, repair and maintaining life Age Energy requirements
processes. It provides energy to do work and 5 years 6000 kJ per day
maintain body heat, provides materials for the 11 years 9000 kJ per day
growth of the body, makes necessary materials for 18 years 11000 kJ per day
reproduction and provides materials for the repair Adult (normal work) 9600 kJ per day
of damaged cells and tissues of our body. Adult (heavy work) 12000 kJ per day
Adult (very heavy work) 16000 kJ per day
 Carbohydrates: For a normal person, 400 to 500
gms of carbohydrates are required daily but for  Vitamins: They act as catalysts in certain chemical
sportspersons, growing children and nursing reactions of metabolism in our body.
 They don't provide energy to our body nor form
mothers, it is on higher side.
body tissues.
 Proteins: They are complex organic com-pounds  More than 15 types of vitamins are known and only
made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen. 2 vitamins — D and K can be formed in our body.
 40

Vitamin Necessity Source

Vitamin A For maintaining healthy eyesight, normal skin Cod liver oil, fish, eggs, milk, carrot, leafy
and hair vegetables.
Vitamin B1 For growth, carbohydrate metabolism, functioning Milk, soya-food, meat, whole cereals,
of heart, nerves and muscles. green vegetables.
Vitamin C For keeping teeth, gums and joints healthy, for Citrus fruits, guava, tomatoes.
increasing resistance of body to infection
Vitamin D For normal growth of bones and teeth Milk, eggs, butter, cod liver oil, sun light.
Vitamin E For normal reproduction, functioning of muscles Green leafy vegetables, milk, butter,
and protection of liver tomato.
Vitamin K For normal clotting of blood and normal Green leafy vegetables, soyabean,
functioning of liver tomato.

 Roughage: Though it does not provide any energy Iodine Goitre

to the body, yet keeps the digestive system in order, Fluoride Dental caries
by helping in retaining water in the body and Calcium and Affects formation
preserving constitution. phosphorus of bones and teeth
 The main source of roughage are salads, cabbage, Hormone Disease
corn cob, porridge, vegetables and fruits with stems. Deficiency
Insulin Diabetes
DISEASES Thyroxine Cretinism (child), Goitre
COMMUNICABLE DISEASES STH Dwarfism, Gigantism

 They are the diseases which can be transmitted ALLERGIC DISEASE

from reservoirs of infection or infected person to  In these diseases, body becomes hypersensitive to
the healthy but susceptible persons. some foreign agents, allergens, which cause
 The disease causing agent or the pathogen can be inflammation when come in contact with the body
transmitted directly or indirectly. or enter inside the body.
 Foreign agents can be dust, pollens, certain-foods,
DEFICIENCY DISEASES
serum, certain drugs or fabrics.
 These occur due to deficiency of some nutrients in
 The unfavourable response of the body to allergens
the diet or some hormone due to hypo activity or
is called allergic reaction. Asthma and hay fever
damage to endocrine glands.
are allergic diseases.
Diet Deficiency Disease
Protein Kwashiorkor BACTERIAL DISEASES
Protein-energy Marasmus  Bacteria are minute organisms which are known
malnutrition to cause a number of diseases:
Vitamin A Night-blindness, Disease Incubation Spread
Xerophthalmia period through
Vitamin B1 Beri-Beri Tuberculosis 2-10 weeks Air-borne,
Vitamin B2 Cheilosis droplet infection
Vitamin B5 Pellagra Diptheria 2-6 days Air-borne droplet
Vitamin C Scurvy infection
Vitamin D Rickets (in children), Cholera 6 hours to Contaminated
(in adult) Osteomalacia 2-3 days food and water.
Vitamin K Hypothrombinemia House flies are
Iron Anaemia the vectors
 41

Disease Incubation Spread  The tongue helps in ingestion, chewing, tasting and
period through swallowing of food and mixing of food and saliva.
Leprosy Upto 5 years Prolonged and  Salivary glands secret saliva which helps in
intimate contact digestion of starch. Gastric glands present in the
Whopping 7-14 days Droplet infection mucosa of the stomach, provide acidic medium for
cough the food digestion.
Tetanus 3-21 days Entry of cysts  Liver, the largest sized, reddish brown gland of
through any body, secrets bile. Liver is present in the right upper
wound made by
part of the abdomen. The bile secreted by the liver
sharp object,
dog bite or fall is stored in gall bladder. It helps in the
on the road emulsification and digestion of fats.
Typhoid 1-3 weeks Directed and  Pancreas is the second largest gland in human body
Contact and secretes pancreatic juices. Intestine also secret
Plague 2-6 days Rats and bed- juices.
bugs transmit
the germs
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
Pneumonia 1-3 days Air-borne  Oxygen is needed for the oxidation and expelling
of carbon dioxide is necessary to avoid its-
VIRAL DISEASES accumulation. This process of exchange of gases
Disease Incubation Spread between the environment and the body, is called
period through respiration.
Chicken-pox 12-20 days Direct contact  In some unicellular organisms like aerobic bacteria,
with infected
persons or
amoeba, hydra, etc. there is direct exchange of
infected objects gases between the carbon dioxide of the body and
Smallpox 12 days Droplet infection
oxygen of water.
Poliomyalitis 7-14 days Direct and oral  There is no blood for transport of gases. However,
in larger and complex form of animals, specialised
Measles 10 days Droplet infection
respiratory organs are developed.
Mumps 12-26 days Droplet infection
 Amphibians respire through skin, fishes through
Rabies 1-3 months Bite of rabied
animal like dogs,
gills and mammals birds and reptiles through lungs.
monkeys, cates  A normal adult inspires or expires about 500 ml of
Influenza 24-28 hours Air-borne gas with each breath and about 72 breathes per
minutes.
DISEASES CAUSED BY PROTOZOA
CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
 Amoebiasis (Amoebic dysentery), Malaria, Kala-
azar, Trypanosomiasis and Giardiasis are main  Main components of the circulatory system are
diseases caused by Protozoans. heart, blood vessels and blood.
 Malaria is a parasitic infection.  Heart is a thick, muscular, contractile and automatic
pumping organ. In birds and mammals, heart is
divided into four chambers.
SYSTEM OF HUMAN BODY
 Arteries are thick walled blood vessels which
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM always carry the blood away from the heart to
 The digestive system consists of alimentary canal various body parts.
and digestive glands. Alimentary canal is about  Veins are thin walled blood vessels which always
8-10 meters long tube of varying diameter. Food carry the blood from various parts generally to the
is taken in through mouth. heart.
2125 (GA & Sc.)—6
 42

 In an adult healthy person, the normal rate of heart SKELETON SYSTEM

beat at rest is about 70-72 times per minute.  The frame or the hard structure of the human body
BLOOD is composed from the bones and the organs of
making such frame are called skeleton system.
 It is red, opaque, somewhat sticky and viscous fluid
in the body of animals. Bones
 It is slightly alkaline (pH = 7.4), heavier than water  Bone is the hardest tissue of the body and form the
(sp gr = 1.05) and five times more viscous than largest section of the body weight.
distilled water.  Bones contain organic as well as inorganic matters.
 Blood forms 6 to 10% of the body weight. With advancing age, the inorganic matter's share
 An adult, on average, has about 6.8 litres of blood. increases, causing the bones to become more
brittle.
 Blood contains plasma and blood corpuscles with
the former occupying 55-60% of the volume.  Long bones such as humerus and femur are hollow
while small bones are solid.
 Plasma transports food components, metabolic
wastes and hormones; keeps constant level of pH EXCRETORY SYSTEM
of blood, maintains body temperature and helps in  In men, excretory system is formed of one pair of
blood clotting. kidneys, one pair of ureters, a urinary bladder and
 Erythrocytes or red blood corpuscles (RBCs), a urethra. Kidney is about 10 cm long, bean shaped,
leukocytes or white blood corpuscles (WBCs) and dark-red and slightly flattened structure.
blood platelets are other parts of the blood.  Sweet glands, oil glands, lungs and liver also act
 Due to the presence of iron containing pigment as additional excretory organ.
haemoglobin, RBCs are red in colour. The RBCs  In case of kidney failure, a man can treated by
are crucial for ex-change of oxygen and carbon hemodialysis or transplan-tation of a kidney from
dioxide. WBCs are nucleated and non-pigmented a donor's body.
cells. They are larger in size than RBCs but far NERVOUS SYSTEM
less in number (1 : 600).
 The system which controls and coordinates the
 WBCs play an important role in immune system body functions, retains memory and receives and
of the body. Blood platelets cause the coagulation sends signals, is called the nervous system.
of blood and clot formation to prevent excessive
 The nervous system comprises brain, spinal cord,
bleeding.
nerves and nerve fibres.
 Human blood is divided into four main Groups—
 Human brain weighs about 1200 to 1400 gm. Main
A, B, AB and O.
parts of the brain are cerebrum, cerebellum and
 The plasma of Group A blood contains an anti-B medulla oblongata.
factor and vice-versa, so that people of Groups A  Cerebrum controls voluntary function and is site
and B cannot accept each other's blood. of intelligence, will power, emotions, etc.
 Group AB contains neither anti-A nor anti-B factor  Cerebellum controls involuntary functions like
and people with this group can receive transfusions heart beat, respiration, etc.
from both but can give to neither.
 Spinal cord is about 45 cm long and about 35 gm
 Group O contains both anti-A and anti-B and can in weight. It conducts impulses to and from the
receive blood only from Group O but can donate brain and controls reflex actions of the body.
blood to all Groups. Group O is called universal  Various cranial (arising from of ending into brain)
donor because they can donate to all the Groups. and spinal nerves (arising from spinal cord) control
 Group AB is called universal acceptor because they smell, vision, movements of body parts, taste and
can accept blood from all Groups. hearing.
 43

REPRODUCTION SYSTEM  So, crippling hereditary diseases can also be cured

 In this type of reproduction, there is formation and like hemophilia etc.
fusion of sex cells, called gametes. DNA FINGERPRINTING
 Organism develops from the zygote through  It consists of examining repetitive DNA in the
embryo formation. genome for variations in the length of restriction
 It generally involves two parents — male and fragments.
female.  Every individual has his own pattern, so that
 The offsprings are different from the parent as fingerprinting can match blood to a particular
variations appear due to new combinations of person, and patterns are inherited from parent to
genes. So, it plays an important role in evolution. child, allowing the method to identify relationships
 All higher plants and animals reproduce sexually. between individuals.
CHROMOSOMES IN-VITRO FERTILIZATION
 Plants and animals have fixed num ber of  When a sperm and an egg are made to fertilize
chromosomes per cell. outside a living body (usually a test tube), it is
 Genes are located on chromosomes and are called in-vitro fertilization.
responsible for transfer of characteristics from one  This process has been used to impregnate several
cell to the next either in the same organism or from females who could not do so through natural means.
parents to offspring. DISEASES AND THE PARTS OF BODY THEY
 Man has 23 pairs of chromosomes, of which one AFFECT
pair is sex chromosomes. Disease Part of body affected
 Males child inherits X chromosomes from the AIDS Immune system of body
female parent and Y from the male parent. Arthritis Inflammation of joints
 Female child receives a X chromosome each from Asthma Lungs
Cataract Eyes
either of its parents.
Conjunctivitis Eyes
 Mendel was the first scientist to explain Diabetes Pancreas
transmission of units from reproductive cells of the Diphtheria Throat
parents to the off-springs. Glaucoma Eyes
Eczema Skin
CLONING Goitre Front of the neck (due to enlarge-
 It is the process of producing genetically identical ment of thyroid gland)
Gout Joints of bone
copies of a biological material, starting from a Jaundice Liver
single cell. The original genes are transplanted and Meningitis Brain or spinal cord
thus one can produce organisms of known and Pleurisy Pleura (inflammation of)
desirable characteristics. Polio motor neurons
Pneumonia Lungs
GENETIC ENGINEERING
Pyorrhoea Sockets of teeth
 It is the method of artificial synthesis of new genes Tuberculosis Lungs
and their subsequent transplantation or methods Typhoid Intestine
of correcting the defective genes. Malaria Spleen
 It has helped in producing plants and animals with Leukaemia Blood
specific characters. Rickets Bones


 44

7 Health, Hygiene & Sanitation

HEALTH Maintaining proper standards of sanitation are

necessary for improving and protecting health and
Health is the level of functional and metabolic
wellbeing of the people.
efficiency of a living organism. The World Health
Organization (WHO-2006) defined human health in Sanitation includes steps to ensure access and
its broader sense as “a state of complete physical, use of toilets by everyone. It also includes ways to
mental, and social well-being and not merely the separate human excreta from coming in contact with
absence of disease or infirmity”. Health, or health other individuals. One of the important factors to
and well-being, are also includes a supportive maintain proper sanitation is to end the practice of
environment, personal security, freedom of choice, ‘open defecation’. This may be done by involving
individuals and community members to build,
social relationships, adequate employment and
maintain and use toilets. Therefore, sanitation is
income, access to educational resources, and cultural
often associated w ith our surroundings or
identity (Diaz et al., 2006; Millennium Assessment
environment.
2005).
Over the last decade, health promotion HYGIENE
practitioners have increasingly been asked to think Hygiene is a set of practices performed for the
about the relationships between humans and the preservation of health. Hygiene is often associated
environment in terms of ecosystems (Brown, 1994) with our body. According to the World Health
and to adopt an ‘ecological’ approach to health Organisation (WHO), “Hygiene refers to conditions
promotion (Kickbusch, 1989) with the environment and practices that help to maintain health and
an integral part of human development (Hancock, prevent the spread of diseases.”
1993a).
One of the most effective ways to protect
SANITATION AND HYGIENE ourselves and others from diseases is to adopt good
practices of personal hygiene. These may include:
Maintaining proper sanitation and good hygiene  taking bath at least once a day.
practices are necessary for healthy living.
 washing hands
Sanitation  after using the toilet.
Sanitation means all measures that promote:  before preparing food or serving food.
 Proper disposal of human and animal wastes  before and after eating food.
(solid as well as liquid wastes). It also includes  if someone around you is infected with cold
disposal of hazardous wastes from hospitals/ or any other infectious disease.
industries/other sources.  after handling pets and domestic animals.
 Use and proper maintenance of toilets.  brushing teeth in the morning and before
 Avoiding of open defecation. going to bed.

44
 45

 rinsing mouth after every meal. According to the Ministry of Drinking Water
 wearing clean clothes. and Sanitation (MDWS), Government of India’s
Baseline Survey 2013, the above efforts resulted in
We will now try to find out how improper India’s sanitation coverage in rural areas to reach
hygiene can affect our health negatively. Have you close to 40 per cent. This progress however was
come across a person with a strong unpleasant body not satisfactory as most of the efforts focused more
smell. You must have experienced this in a crowded on construction of toilets and not enough on
places such as bus, train, etc. You may have also ensuring their use. The Swachh Bharat Mission
felt that your body is smelly sometime. launched by the Government is an effort to address
When we do not take regular bath our body this issue.
smells because of sweat. This is particularly true in Swachh Bharat Mission
summer. The foul smell is due to the action of On 2nd October 2014, the Prime Minister, Shri
bacteria on sweat. Narendra Modi, launched the Swachh Bharat
Similarly, washing hands is essential to remove Mission (SBM). The Mission is being implemented
harmful germs, if any, sticking to our hands. These both in urban and rural areas, and aims to create an
germs may stick to our body during our day to day Open Defecation Free India by 2nd October 2019,
activities. These germs are so small that we cannot which is the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma
see them. Regular washing of hands helps to remove Gandhi, the Father of the Nation. It also aims at
these germs, some of which could be a source of creating cleaner cities, towns and villages across
disease such as common cold and diarrhoea. the country.
Wearing washed and clean clothes also protects us The Swachh Bharat Mission logo consists of
from harmful germs. Gandhiji’s spectacles and the slogan, Ek Kadam
When we eat, some tiny food particles remain Swachhata Ki Aur. The Swachh Bharat Mission
trapped in the mouth in between the teeth. The action aims to provide toilet facilities to all, and promote
of bacteria on them may give rise to bad breath. their use at all times. Under the programme, the
Bad breath may also be due to diseases of the teeth, government provides incentives to households to
gums and mouth. Regular brushing of teeth and build and use toilets.
rinsing of mouth removes the food particles to a Cleanliness of homes and surroundings and
large extent. If bad breath continues, one must visit public places like schools, hospitals, offices, bus
the dentist. stands, railway stations and markets, etc., are also
important components of the Mission. Good hygiene
IMPORTANT SANITATION SCHEMES IN INDIA
practices like hand washing after defecation and
The period 1981–1990 was celebrated worldwide before meals are being promoted. Hand washing
as the International Decade of Water and Sanitation. facilities in schools are being set up so that children
It reflected global concern about sanitation. can wash their hands before and after having their
In India, sanitation services in urban areas are mid day meal.
provided by municipal bodies. In rural areas these The Swachh Bharat Mission has created a lot
services are provided through state government of excitement and enthusiasm among citizens.
departments and gram panchayats. In rural areas, Students in particular have come forward and are
the Government of India started the Central Rural participating in awareness and cleanliness activities
Sanitation Programme (CRSP) in 1986, followed across the country. Government departments, public
by the Total Sanitation Campaign (TSC) in 1999, and private enterprises, civil society, youth
and the Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan in 2012. The organisations and the general public are participating
objective of all these schemes was to encourage in the activities. Various events are being held in
rural households to build and use toilets, so to which mass participation in cleanliness activities
accelerate sanitation coverage. Households were and its promotion is seen. Many celebrities have
provided financial incentives for this. also supported and participated in the programme.

 46

8 Geography of Jammu & Kashmir

LOCATION Lesser Himalayas: Composed of Perm o-

Strategically located Jammu and Kashmir UT Carboniferous volcanic rocks of granite,
constitutes the northern most extremity of India. gneisses, quartz and states, the Pir Panjal
J&K Situated between 32.15 degree and 37.05 constitutes the first mountain rampart comprising
degree north latitude and 72.35 degree and 83.20 the westernmost part of the Lesser Himalayas.
degree east longitude. The UT share international Greater Himalayas: This contains ranges reaching
border with Pakistan. Indian States/UT that share more than 20,013 ft (6,100 m) in altitude. These
borders with J&K are Punjab, Himachal Pradesh & ranges act as a climatic divide and stop the cold
Ladakh (UT). wind coming from Central Asia.
The UT is well connected with rest of the Valley of Kashmir: Between the Pir Panjal and the
country by air, rail and road. The Indian Airlines western end of the Great Himalayan ranges lies
and private airlines operate regular flights to Srinagar a deep asymmetrical basin called the Valley of
and Jammu. Kashmir.
The National Highway 1-A connects the capital Upper Indus Valley: The Valley of the Upper Indus
cities of Srinagar and Jammu with rest of the country. river follows the geological strike (structural
There are daily passenger trains connect-ing Jammu trend) westwards from the Tibetan border to
with most of the major cities of the country. The the point in the Pakistani sector where, it rounds
J&K UT consists of 20 districts.
the great mountainous mass of Nanga Parbat to
PHYSIOGRAPHY run southwards in deep gorges cut across the
strike. In its upper reaches, gravel terraces flank
The territory of the state is divided into seven
physiographic zones closely associated with the the river, each tributary builds an alluvial fan in
structural components of the western Himalayas. the main valley.
These include: Karakoram: The Karakoram region contains some
Plains: The plains of the Jammu region are of the world’s highest peaks. As the altitude
characterized by interlocking sandy alluvial fans rises very much and majestic peaks appear; K 2
that have been deposited during the Pleistocene (Godwin Austin) the second highest peak in the
age by the streams flowing from the foothills world (28,264 ft or 8,611 m) occupies the most
and by a much dissected pediment (eroded important position.
bedrock surface) covered by loams and loess
(fine deposits of silt). CLIMATE
Foothills: Rising from 2,002 to 7,002 ft, the foothills Climate exerts a profound influences on the
form the outer and inner zones. inhabitants of any region. Their social, cultural,

46
 47

economic and other aspects of life are directly or The aforementioned climatic divide does not
indirectly governed by climate. The climate of the apply only to Kashmir valley but also to the parts of
state ragnes from the burning and the scorching heat Jammu which, like Kashmir valley, are subjected to
of the plains of (Jammu Division) to the snow-capped snowfall and a severe winter. There is such heavy
heights of Gulmarg (Kashmir). All these represent snowfall on the way to Ladakh from the valley that
the two different climatic zones. it remains cut off by road for about 5-6 months
every year.
The extreme variants of climate in Jammu &
Kashmir are due to its location and topography. The MOUNTAINS AND THEIR PASSES
sheltered valley of Kashmir, however, exhibits an
Kashmir valley is enclosed by high mountain-chains
exception to its peripheral region.
on all sides, except for certain passes and a narrow
Broadly, the UT of Jamm u & Kashmir gorge at Baramulla. There are Shivalik hills towards
comprises two distinct climatic regions: temperate the south and very lofty mountains in the north, the
Kashmir valley, and the humid sub-tropical region peaks of which always remain covered with snow.
of Jammu. There are volcanic mountain too in the state. Some
The temperature in the region varies spatially. of the famous mountains and their passes are:
Mean monthly temperature is lowest in January and Karakoram and Kyunlum: Both these mountain
highest in July, except in Jammu, where highest ranges lie to the north and north-east of the
temperature is experienced in June. Mean monthly state and separate it from Russian, Turkistan
temperature in January varies from –17°C at Drass and Tibet. In the north-west, Hindukush range
to 14°C at Jammu. Considering the overall continues towards Karakoram ranges, where K2
distribution of climatic elements, three units become peak, the second highest peak of the world, is
obvious: situated. Two lofty peaks of Gasherbrum (8,570
1. The windward (Jammu region) m) and Masherbrum (7,827 m) also lie there.
People of Ladakh pass through Karakoram pass
2. The high altitude Kashmir (Himadri, Pir Panjal)
(5,352 m) and Nubra pass (5,800 m) while going
3. The Kashmir valley to Chinese Turkistan and Khattan. One can reach
The climate of the Valley of Kashmir has its Tibet from Ladakh via Kharudangala pass
own peculiarities. The seasons are marked with (5,557 m) and Changla pass (5,609 m).
sudden change and the climate can be divided into Zaskar: It is about 600 metres above sea level and
six seasons of two months each. separates Indus valley from the Valley of
Kashmir. It prevents south-west, coastal winds
Seasons of the Valley
from reaching Kashmir. Ladakh region
Season Period Local Term terminates at Zojila pass (3,529 m), from where
begins the Valley of Kahsmir. Poet pass (5,716
Spring 16th March Sont
m) is also a famous pass in this range.
to 15th May
Summer 16th May Retkol
Nun Kun: It lies between Ladakh and Kashmir
to 15th July (Grishm) border. It is 7,055.1 m above sea level. To its
south-east is situated Kulu and to its north-west
Rainy 16th July to Waharat
is situated Kargil tehsil of Ladakh. One has to
15th September
pass through Bawalocha pass (4,891 m) to reach
Autumn 16th September Harud Leh (Ladakh) from Kulu.
to 15th November
Nanga Parbat: This range spreads in Gilgit. Its
Winter 16th November Wandah height is 8,107.68 m above sea level and is
to 15th January utterly devoid of vegetation. It was conquered
Ice Cold 16th January Shishir by the Italian mountaineers in 1954. This is now
to 16th March under the unlawful possession of Pakistan.
 48

Burzil: It bifurcates Kashmir and Ladakh on which is now in dormant state. There is a temple on
Burzil pass is situated at a height of 3,200 m this peak and many sulphur springs are found
above sea level. at the foot of the hill. These volcanic mountains
Amarnath: Amarnath mountain is famous for its are the cause of earthquakes in Kashmir. So
holy Amarnath cave, at a height of 5,372 m far, twelve devastating earthquakes have
above sea level. They have to pass Mahagunas occurred in Kashmir. Of these, the earthquake
pass (1,475 m) on their way to Shri Amarnathji. of 1885 was the most devastating. Hundreds of
Gwasharan (5,450 m) is situated in the Lidar houses collapsed, thousands of people died and
valley towards Pahalgam; on it lies the famous there were cracks in the earth as a result of this
glacier Kolahi. Sheshnag mountain also spreads earthquake.
in this valley. It is called Sheshnag as its peaks CROPS
resemble the heads of seven big snakes.
Rice: It is the most dominant crop in the entire state.
Toshmaidan: Toshmaidan (4,270 m) and Kajinag
It can be well grown in the hot and moist climate
(3,700 m) mountains lie in the inner Himalayas.
as well. Paddy crop (rice) is usually transplanted
They ramain clad with snow throughout the year,
in the third week of May, while in the external
but during summer when the snow melts, the
plains of Jammu it is transplanted in the
water flows down into the Jhelum river.
beginning of July, on the commencement of
Afarwat: This mountain spreads through the monsoon. The valley of Kashmir, in the state is
Guimarg valley. The famous spring Alpathar famous as the “Rice Bowl”. The Tehsil of Ranbir
lies on its peak, from which, Nullah Nagal Singhpura (Jammu) is famous for its Basmati
comes out and flows down into the Wular lake. Rice. Rice is majorly grown in the districts of
Pir Panjal: This range separates Kashmir valley from Jammu, Anantnag, Baramulla, Kupwara,
the outer Himalayas and it is about 2,621 km in Srinagar, Pulwama and Kathua.
length and 50 km in breadth. Famous Banihal Wheat: It is the second, major, significant crop in
pass (2,832 m) lies in the shape of a tunnel on the state. It needs cold and moist weather
its peak, it remains covered with snow during conditions to grow. It also needs 30 cm to 50 cm
winter making it impassable. Now at a height of rainfall. It is a “rabi” crop in Jammu and
of 2,200 m above sea level a new tunnel, namely Kashmir. The fields are ploughed, many-a-time,
‘Jawahar Tunnel’ has been constructed. The before sowing the seeds. Wheat is mainly
tunnel is 2,825 m long and it was opened for produced in Jammu, Kathua, Udhampur and
traffic on 22nd Dec, 1956. On the other end of Rajouri.
this range lie Baramulla pass (1,582 m) and Maize: It is one of the most important cereal crop
Hajipir pass (2,750 m). Hajipir joins Punch and in the state. It needs warm and moist weather
Uri. During 1965 Indo-Pak War, the Indian conditions. It is mainly used as food for the
Army had occupied this pass. Later on, it was people living in Kandi areas. It is also used as
handed over to Pakistan. a green fodder. Around 30 per cent of the gross
Shivalk: These hills extend from the north of the cropped area of the state, in 1983-84 was
outer plains to middle mountains of the state reserved for the cultivation of Maize. The
reaching heights varying from 600 m to leading maize producing areas of Jammu
1,500 m above sea level. Division are Rajouri, Doda, Poonch, Udhampur
Volcanic Peak: One Volcanic Peak ‘Soyamji’ etc. The important areas in the Kashmir Division
(1,860 m) is situated in North Machhipura are Kupwara, Baramulla and Anantnag etc.
(Handwara) and the other ‘Kharewa peak’ lies Saffron: It is the significant cash crop of Jammu
in Tehsil Pahalgam, which is now dead or and Kashmir. The Saffron crop needs very
extinct; the former, however, continued eruption different weather conditions to grow. The
of Lava for about thirteen months during 1934, conditions of extreme cold and extreme heat is
 49

not supportive for saffron. Moderate weather 2. Damage to the textural and chemical properties.
conditions with light snowing is ideal for saffron 3. Depletion of the fertile layers of the soil
cultivation. This crop is extremely expensive to through soil erosion.
grow. The labour and seeds costs very high.
4. Agricultural marketing is very expensive in the
This is harvested in October and early
state. It becomes costly because of the distance
November. In this period, picking of Saffron
between the fruit gardens’ and the markets.
flowers just after the disappearance of dew is
The hyped transportation costs makes the fruits
ideal to get pleasant fragrance. These days
very expensive, in terms of competing with
Saffron cultivation is being done in various
Tehsils of five districts in Kashmir Division. It fruits of other states.
is mainly grown in Pulwama Tehsil with 75 per FORESTS
cent of the total saffron production.
The state has 21,122 sq km under forest area
Shortcomings’ in Agriculture constituting about 39.66% of total geographical area
1. Shortage of advanced and modern resources. of 53,258 sq km.

District-wise Forest cover of Jammu & Kashmir in 2019 (in sq. km)
District Shape File Very Mod. Open Total % of
Area Dense Dense Forest Shape
Forest Forest File Area

Anantnag 2,727 126.55 455.28 492.36 1,074.19 39.39

Badgam 1,250 100.85 76.04 164.95 341.84 27.35
Bandipura 2,676 270.85 177.16 194.83 642.84 24.02
Baramulla 2,062 287.57 211.90 370.79 870.26 42.20
Doda 2,411 327.98 703.50 454.45 1,485.93 61.63
Ganderbal 1,620 129.36 179.13 186.01 494.50 30.52
Jammu 2,407 0.00 241.41 526.22 767.63 31.89
Kathua 2,512 108.16 607.96 615.32 1,331.44 53.00
Kishtwar 8,179 235.96 716.41 832.68 1,785.05 21.82
Kulgam 1,265 84.92 99.00 206.32 390.24 30.85
Kupwara 2,744 783.42 408.34 273.19 1,464.95 53.39
Mirpur 3,759 0.00 484.66 753.13 1,237.79 32.93
Muzaffarabad 4,663 873.97 441.86 293.20 1,609.03 34.51
Pulwama 896 15.70 117.72 240.72 374.14 41.76
Punch 4,244 332.28 1,121.33 654.10 2,107.71 49.66
Rajauri 2,635 42.04 424.48 838.78 1,305.30 49.54
Ramban 1,288 70.55 287.17 308.52 666.24 51.73
Reasi 1,932 234.54 393.58 470.29 1,098.41 56.85
Samba 921 0.00 124.26 207.53 331.79 36.02
Shupiyan 505 62.50 37.22 224.33 324.05 64.17
Srinagar 282 0.24 20.03 24.97 45.24 16.04
Udhampur 2,280 115.42 624.03 634.57 1,374.02 60.26
Grand Total 53,258 4,202.86 7,952.47 8,967.26 21,122.59 39.66
2125 (GA & Sc.)—7
 50

FRUITS Kesri (Cox's Orange Pippin): An old English

Apple
medium-sized apple; it is round to conical in
shape with skin orange red deepening to bright
Amri (Ambri Kashmiri): Lawrence describes it as red. The flesh is yellow, firm, crisp, tender and
"the most popular apple in Kashmir .............. a very juicy. A dessert apple with good aroma
sweet fruit ripening in October and keeping its and sub-acidic taste. The fruit matures in mid
condition for a long time and finding favour August.
with the natives of India for its sweetness and
its handsome appearance". Ambri is indigenous Pear
to Kashmir and continues to enjoy superiority Nakh Kashmiri (Chinese Sandy Pear): This variety
by virtue of its crisp, sweet flesh and excellent gets its name from grained flesh. A conical
aroma. The fruit is blushed red, striped, medium- shaped, small to medium sized variety with crisp,
sized and oblong to conical in shape with longer white and juicy flesh. The skin is thick and
storage life. The fruit matures in the last week green in colour that turns yellow on ripening.
of September to first week of October. It is an Carries well in storage and is an excellent dessert
excellent dessert variety. variety.
American trel (American Apirogue) : This variety Williams: A widely known English variety. The fruit
has crisp juicy, greenish white and sweet flesh is large-sized and symmetrical. Skin is yellow
and is usually medium-sized, as a result of which with faint blush. The flesh is fine, grained, juicy
it has become very popular with consumers. and sweet. The fruit matures in mid-July. A
Oblate-shaped, blushed and good dessert variety and the choice of canners.
patchy red with a smooth surface, it matures in
the last week of September. A good dessert Cherry
variety. Gilas Double (Bigarreau Napoleon): This variety
Delicious (Red Delicious): A world-renowned is large-sized anti attractive with cream-red
variety. It is one of the most widely grown colour. The flesh is firm and juicy but slightly
apples. The fruit is tapering in shape with acidic. A good keeper; excellent for canning,
characteristic five lobes at the apex. Skin is and dessert purposes.
smooth, striped and blushed red. Flesh is fine GilasAwal Number (Guigne Pourpera Pecoce):
grained, greenish white, sweet, very juicy and Medium-sized, light red coloured and quite
crisp with good aroma. Size is medium to large fleshy. The flesh is juicy and sweet with acidic
and it matures by the end of September. A good tinge. First to come in the market in May. A
dessert variety. good dessert variety.
Maharaji (White Dotted Red): A large-sized apple Gilas Misri (Bigarreau Noir Grossa): Large sized
with bright red colour on a green base with and red coloured; its skin is firm and flesh is
conspicuous dots. Flesh is crisp, very juicy, sweet and juicy. A good dessert variety.
acidic and aromatic. The variety sweetens in
storage and in an excellent keeper. The fruit Walnut
matures in late October. It is also a cooking and Kashmir walnuts are popular within the country as
dessert variety. well as in foreign markets; a source of substantial
Hazaratbali (Benoni): A medium-sized apple with foreign exchange. On the basis of shell thickness
rounds to slightly conical in shape and red to these are grouped as “Burzil”. “Kagzi” and “Wont”;
striped skin; white juicy and sweet flesh. It is corresponding to “Paper-shelled”. Walnut Kernels
the earliest variety of apple available from the are used in confectionery, as dessert and for
valley, maturing in mid-July. extraction of oil.
2125 (GA & Sc.)—7-II
 51

Almond foreign markets. To promote this segment floriculture

Kashmir almonds are known for their superiority of nurseries have been developed where ornamental
taste and are very popular with the consumers. Like and medicinal plants are produced, besides the seed
walnuts these are also grouped on the basis of shell multiplication programmes of flower seeds. One of
thickness as “Papery”, “Thin-shelled”, and “Thick- the landmark achievement of floriculture department
shelled”. Considered as highly nourishing and of has been the establishment of Tulip Garden first of
great medicinal value, its kernels are used in its kind of Siraj Bagh Srinagar. Situated on the
confectionery as well as dessert. Its trees are the foothills of the mighty Zabarwan mountains the
first blooming fruit trees and an enchanting sight garden has the distinction of being Asia's largest
that lends glamour to the spring in Kashmir. Tulip garden. The garden remains in full bloom for
one month (last week of March to last week of April).
Peaches The garden witness highest inflow of tourists which
Quetta: Fruit medium to above medium, pointed, includes film making companies for shooting song
halves acuminate. Skin thick, downy, Yellow base sequences in this beautiful garden.
with scattered red patches. Flesh firm, creamy
yellow, moderately juicy, sweet with acidic blend FLOWERS
when fully ripe. Free stone. The fruit is ready for Flower Kerria Japonica: Deciduous, arching,
harvest in 3rd week of August. graceful shrub butter cup like, golden yellow
flowers are borne along green shoots. From mid
Apricot
to late spring, foliage is bright green.
Gilgati Sweet: Fruit medium, from oblong to rather Flower Visteria: Deciduous, woody-stemmed,
ovate, slightly irregular in shape. Cavity rather deep twining climber leaflets, scented, pea like violet
to medium in depth, regular and acute. Skin yellow flowers are carried in Drooping recemes blooms
when fresh (brown yellow when dried) sweet, in early spring.
moderately flavoured, stone free kernel sweet. Ready
Flower Tulip: Tulips are excellent in the rock
for picking in the last week of June.
Gardens informal bedding, as elegant cut flowers
Strawberry and for containers. A large variety of the hybrids
Strawberry is earliest fruit available in Srinagar are now available. Flow ers mid spring,
market during April. Sub-tropical areas in Jammu propagation by bulbs.
have potential to grow the crop under irrigated Flower Magnolia Liliflora: Deciduous shrub with
condition. It is valued for easy propagation, early open habit oval to pear shaped, dark green
maturity, high yield with 5 to 9 per cent sugar. Plants leaves, large deep purple, flowers, creamy white
start bearing in second year. Over 2000 varieties of flushed purple inside.
garden strawberry are known with large fruit, Flower Chaen-Omelee Speciose: Well branched,
weighing 30-70 grams. spreading shrub dark green glossy leaves and
bowl shaped flower about 5 cm across from
Plums
mid winter to mid spring small to medium,
Santa Rosa: Fruit medium, roundish, regular, skin propagation by cutting seeds and layering.
smooth and thin flesh deep red, juicy, sweet and
soft full of aroma, stone cling type. TRANSPORT AND COMMUNICATION
FLORICULTURE Transport
Floriculture sector has been identified as the most In the landlocked state like Jammu and Kashmir,
focussed segment of horticulture. There is much road transport is an indispensable means of
more income to farmers from flower cultivation due communication for the regular distribution of
to growing demand for flowers in domestic and essential and other commodities. The government
 52

has given the highest priority to the construction Presently, 2038 schemes at an estimated cost of
and maintenance of roads. ` 5486.14 crore have been sanctioned under this
programme in nine phases, against which an amount
Railways of ` 2462.94 crore stands released by GOI ending
The railway line between Jammu and Udhampur, November, 2013 against which ` 2382.86 crore
started in 1981-82, was completed by 1997-98. stands utilized. So far 891 schemes have been
` 142 crores, with an addition of another ` 50 crores completed. A total road length of 4968 kms have
have been spent on completing it. This railway line also been completed till date.
has been further extended up to Srinagar at an Main Roads
additional cost of ` 1,900 crores.
1. Srinagar—Shopian Road: 95 kms long.
Anantnag-Qazigund Rail Line Cleared Sopore connected with Teethwal through
The Then Prime Minister Manmohan Singh Handwara, Trehgem and Chowhibal.
inaugurated the Anantnag-Qazigund section of the 2. Jhelum Valley Road: 133 kms long road. It
railway line in Srinagar in October 2009. With the connects Srinagar with Baramulla and Uri. It
inauguration of the 18.359 km rail link between is a National Highway.
Anantnag and Qazigund, the 119 km railway line 3. Dhar—Udhampur Road: A defence Road is
from Qazigund to Baramulla has become operative. connecting Dhar with Udhampur.
The project has been completed at an expenditure 4. Jammu—Pathankot Road: It is the National
of about ` 3,250 crore. highway, 108 kms long. It links the UT with
rest of the country.
Roads
5. Banihal Cart Road: 300 kms long,
The UT is connected to the rest of the country connectivity for Jamm u and Kashmir.
through just one highway (NH 1A), 400 kms stretch Connectivities of the road connect other areas
(approx) maintained by Border Roads Organization among themselves.
(BRO) of India. As Railway network of the UT is 6. Jammu—Poonch Road: 230 kms long
in infancy stage, this has rendered the UT totally Important from Defence point of view.
dependent on road connectivity which provides links
7. Srinagar—Shopian Road: It is 53 kms long
to the remote areas of the UT. Out of 9933
and branches off from Pampore.
habitations only 2735 habitations are yet to be
connected. A total length of 26711 kms of road is 8. Srinagar—Baltal Road: 118 kms long, passes
being maintained by PWD. through Ganderbal and crosses through Sindh
Nullah.
Flagship Programme—PMGSY 9. Srinagar—Wayil Road: Road passes through
The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) Achhabal, Kokarnag and is 85 kms long.
is a flagship programme which was launched in 10. Batote, Doda, Bhadherwah and Kishtwar
December, 2000 in the country and also extended to Road: Doda and Kishtwar connected Doda is
J&K UT in the same year. The objective of the 45 kms from Batote, Bhadherwah 53 kms and
PMGSY programme is to provide connectivity by away from Doda.
way of all weather roads to the unconnected 11. Srinagar—Pahalgam Road: 98 kms long,
habitations in rural areas. Under Bharat Nirman passes through Anantnag and Mattan from
Programme, it is envisaged to provide road Pahalgam. It leads to Amarnath cave.
connectivity to all the unconnected habitations 12. Srinagar—Bandipur Road: 56 km long leads
in the country having population more than to Bandipur from Srinagar. It passes through
1000 souls as per census 2001 whereas in hilly states Sumbal, Mansar lake, Safapur and Ajas. From
and desert areas the target is to provide connectivity Bandipur, there is a 33 kms long road to Sopore
with population size of 500 souls and above. and one to Gurez.
 53

13. Srinagar Gulmarg Road: It is 29 kms long, Communication

connectivity between Srinagar and Tangmarg Com munication facilities have considerably
and Gulmarg, a tourist place. expanded with the opening of new telephone
Aviation exchanges, extension of existing lines and the
establishment of direct-dialing services between
There are two major airports in the UT providing
aerial transport among two regions of the UT and Srinagar and Jammu, Srinagar and Delhi and
the Country. Out of the two Srinagar airport has between Srinagar, Anantnag and Baramulla. This
been upgraded as international airport named as service has been extended upto Mumbai and other
Sheikh-ul-Alam Airport, while as the facilities at important towns in the country. The much awaited
Jam mu airport is also being upgraded. mobile telephony was launched in Jammu &
Commissioning of Sheikh-ul-Alam International Kashmir by BSNL in August 2003. A new radio
Airport at Srinagar has opened the new vistas for transmitter of much greater power has since been
enhancing connectivity at International level which installed in Jammu, and the Srinagar station has been
will inturn facilitate international tourism, promote further strengthened. The TV station in Srinagar,
international trade especially export which will catering to a population of more than 20 lakhs, has
provide a big push to the economy and generate become very popular. Similar is the case with the
avenues of better employment. Jammu TV station.

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 54

9 Culture of Jammu & Kashmir

Jammu and Kashmir has the distinction of having sung by a group of females comprising 15-20
multifaceted, variegated and unique cultural blend, members. This traditional dance form depicts
making it distinct from the rest of the country, not the feelings and emotions of women folk.
only from the different cultural forms and heritage, (d) Bakh/Gwatri/Kark/Masade: It is a chorous
but from geographical, demographically, ethical, narrative singing sung by a group of 10 singers
social entities, forming a distinct spectrum of without the accompaniment of any musical
diversity and diversions into Kashmir and Jammu, instruments.
all professing diverse religion, language and culture, (e) Gwatri: It is a singing/ dance combined tradition
but continuously intermingling, making it vibrant in which the singers narrate some text which is
specimens of Indian Unity amidst diversity. Its enacted by the Gwatari dancers.
different cultural forms like art and architecture, (f) Karak: It is a tale ballet singing form sung by
fair and festivals, rites and rituals, seer and sagas, a community called ‘Jogies’.
language and mountains, embedded in ageless (g) Benthe: This is chorous singing tradition
period of history, speak volumes of unity and performed specific community of tribal called
diversity with unparalleled cultural cohesion and Gujjar and Bakerwal. Dance is performed by 5-
cultural service. 7 members.
While the Kashmir has been the highest learning KASHMIR REGION
centre of Sanskrit and Persian where early Indo- (a) Bhand Pather: It is a traditional folk theatre
Aryanic civilization has originated and flourshed, it style combination of play and dance in a satirical
has also been embracing point of advent of Islam style where social traditions, evils are depicted
bringing its fold finest traditions of Persian and performed in various social and cultural
civilization, tolerance, brotherhood and sacrifice. functions.
Some of the popular performing traditions of (b) Chakri: It is most popular form of Kashmiri
folk music. It has some resemblance with chakra
J&K are as fallows:
of mountainous regions of Uttar Pradesh.
JAMMU REGION (c) Sufiana Music: Sofians musiqui came to
Kashmir from Iran in the 15th century. Over
(a) Kud: It is basically a ritual dance performed in the years it has established itself as the classical
honour of Lok Devatas. This dance style is music form of Kashmir and has incorporated a
performed mostly during nights. number of Indian Ragas in its body. Hafiz
(b) Heren: It is a traditional theatre form performed Nagma in fact, used to be part of sofiana music.
during Lohri festival by 10-15 members. This
style is mostly performed in hilly regions of OTHER POPULAR PERFORMING
Jammu. TRADITIONS OF J&K
(c) Fumenie and Jagarana: This dance style is Rouf: This dance is almost steeped in antiquity. Rouf
performed by the ladies on the eve of groom’s is always performed in the accompaniment of
departure to in-laws house. Both the songs are pleasant pathetic song.
54
 55

Hafiz Nagma: Hafiz Nagma is based on the classical 2. Syrk Turkman: An antique Syrk rug named
music of Kashmir the Sofiyiana Kalam. The after the tribe who first wove it.
Sufiyana Kalam has its own ragas known as 3. Kashmir Qum: Persian in Origin.
Muquam. The prominent instrument used in Hafiz
4. Turkman Princes Bukhara: Based on Candle
Nagma is called Santoor-a hundred stringed
stand holder pattern.
instrument played with sticks. The dance use in
this tradition is known as ‘Hafiza’. 5. Kashmir Moghul: A bold geosmetric and
Song of Habba Khatoon: Habba Khatoon was the floral effect.
renowned princess of Kashmir. Her feelings 6. Kashmir Kashan: depicting the tree of
during her separation from the Yousuf King is life.
depicted in this song. The song is based on the
folk renderings of Kashmiri Music. WOOD WORK
Jagarna: This marriage song cum-dance form has Khatumband and Zali Pinjra : traditional wood
the elements of theatre. While the menfolk of crafts of Kashmir.
the bridegroom’s house have gone with the Barat,
women folk are left alone in the house. CUISINE
Surma: This song in Dogri, set to dance reveals the
anguish of a newly married girl whose husband KASHMIRI DISHES
is away in the Army. The ever increasing yearning Kashmiri cuisine, comprising mostly of non-
of reunion is depicted through this song-dance. vegetarian dishes, is characterised by three different
Bakhan: This folk song is a widely prevalent form
styles of cooking-the Kashmiri Pandit, the Muslims
of mass entertainment in this region. The haunting
and the Rajput styles. Traditional Kashmiri cooking
Melody of Pahari songs add to the beauty and
joy of daily life. There are certain songs which is called ‘Wazhawan’ and is rich and aromatic with
are independent of Instruments. “Bakhan” is such a wonderful flavour. Rice is the staple food and
a best example. “Bakhan” are in verse. lamb, goat’s meat and chicken form the basis of
Geetru: A dance-song of Dogra Pahari region of many famous dishes. Spices and condiments play a
Jammu being performed at the occasion of feasts, very important role in the Kashmiri delights.
festivals and marriages by the rural folk parties of Asafoetida, aniseed, dry garlic, cloves and cinnamon
this region. are added for extra flavoring. Kashmiri Hindus use
fenugreek, ginger and aniseed in their food, while
ART AND CRAFT Muslims use garlic, Kashmiri chillies, cloves and
The two regions of the State-Jammu and Kashmir, cinnamon. One of the distinct features of Kashmiri
specialise in different arts and crafts. The two regions cuisine is the generous use of curds in the gravies,
are: giving the dishes a creamy consistency. Some known
1. Jammu: Basholi paintings, Calico painting dishes of Kashmir are yakhni, (Kashmiri Mutton
and Phoolkari. Curry) tabaq naat, dum aloo, (boiled patatoes with
2. Kashmir: Carpets, Kashmiri Shawls, Wood heavy amounts of spice) rogan josh (lamp cooked in
carving, Papiermarche, Chainstitch, Crewel, heavy spices), gaustaba (Meat balls in Curd), Zaamdod
Namda. (Curd), Rista (Pounded mutton balls, smaller in size
SOME WELL-KNOWN DESIGNERS OF than goshtaba and Cooked in heavy spices) and of
CARPETS course the signature rice which is particular to Asian
1. Mohtashan Kashan: A well known Persian cultures. The dishes are cooked in mustard oil and
designer. water, with the addition of red and green chilies.


 56

10 History of Jammu & Kashmir

Kashmir is perhaps, to possess an authentic account Sir Walter Lawrence writes “The valley is an
of its history from the very earliest period. This past emerald set in pearls; a land of lakes, clear streams,
account of the valley, its culture and traditions, rise green turf, magnificent trees and mighty mountains
and fall of various Kingdoms, victory and defeats of where the air is cool, and the water sweet, where
the people have been noted carefully, yet critically men are strong, and women vie with the soil in
by the sons of its soil. True it is, that the Kashmiriat fruitfulness. “He further writes that the valley
literature is very rich in information about Kashmir. contains everything which should make life
The beauty and the salubrious climate of the enjoyable. There is sport varied and excellent; there
valley was known even from the ancient times. The is scenery for the artist and the layman, mountain
mythological traditions supported fully by the for the mountaineer, flower for the Botanist, a vast
research of geologists confirm that the valley field for the Geologist and magnificent ruins for the
originally was a huge lake called “Satisar”, (the land archaeologist.
of goddess Sati, consort of Lord Shiva) and its waters
PRE-HISTORIC TIMES
were blocked near Baramulla (ancient Varahmulla).
In the words of Sir Francis Young Husband, “The According to the oldest extant book on Kashmir,
huge lake must have been twice the length and three “Nilmat Puran”, in the Satisar lived a demon called
times the width of the lake of Geneva, completely Jalod Bowa, who tortured and devoured the people,
encircled by snowy mountains as high, and higher who lived near mountain slopes. Hearing the
than Mount Blank, while in the immediately suffering of the people, a great saint of our country,
following glacial period, mighty glaciers came Kashyap by name, came to the rescue of the people
wending down to the Sindh, Lidder, and other valleys here. After performing penance for a long time, the
even to the edge of water.” saint was blessed, and he was able to cut the
Kashmir’s greatest historian Kalhan writes about mountain near Barahmulla, which had blocked the
his native land “It is a country where the sun shines water of the lake from flowing into the plains below.
mildly, being the place created by Rishi Kashyap, The lake was drained, the land appeared, and the
for his glory - big and lofty houses, learning, Saffron, demon was killed. The saint encouraged people from
icy cool water and grapes rare in Heaven are plentiful India to settle in the valley. The people named the
here - Kailash is the best place in the three worlds valley as Kashyap-Mar and Kashyap-Pura. The name
(Tn-bk), Himalayas the best place in Kailash, and Kashmir also implies land desicated from water: “ka”
Kashmir the best place in Himalayas”. Our immortal (the water) and shimeera (to desicate). The ancient
Sanskrit poet Kalidas writes about the valley; Greeks called it “Kasperia” and the Chinese pilgrim
“The place is more beautiful than the heaven and Hien-Tsang who visited the valley around 631 A.D.
is the benefactor of supreme bliss and happiness. It called it KaShi-Mi-Lo”. In modern times the people
seems to me that I am taking a bath in the lake of of Kashmir have shortened it into “Kasheer” in their
nectar here.” tongue.
56
 57

Regarding pre historic times Dr Sunil Chandra Bijbehra), he built a Shiva Temple, thus winning
Ray writes Pre-historic explorations have discovered the heart of the local population, who were mostly
the occurence of quatemary Glacial cycles in the worshippers of Lord Shiva making a gift of the valley
valley. The chief Geological formation of the ice- to Sangha.
age here are the lacustrine deposits called the According to local tradition, like Lord Shri
“Karewas”, which overlay the terminal moraines of Krishna, Lord Buddha is also supposed to have
the first Glaciation and are comprised of two groups, visited Kashmir. After the death of Ashoka, his son
Lower and Upper, differentiated by the moraines of Jaluka ascended the throne of Kashmir, and the latter
the second Glaciation. The fossil remains of Elphas- was succeeded by his son King Damodar II, Jaluka
hysudrious obtained in the lower ‘Karewas’ point to was a great king who cleared the valley of oppressing
lower “Pleistocene age”, writes De Teera. The ‘Malechas’.
neolithic culture is indicated by the discovery of
The scholars also, accept the theory that the
ground and polished stone axes, hoes, pestle, and
valley for over two hundred years was ruled by Indo-
bone implements at the well-known megalithic site
Greek Kings before the start of “Turushka” (Kushan)
of Burazahoma, ten miles east of, Srinagar.
rule in the state. Cunningham records a large fund
Burazahoma is famous as one of the only two
of silver coins of Azes (and Azilies) (coins of Indo-
megalithic sites in the extreme north-west of Indian
Scythians) on the banks of Vitasta (river Jhelum) in
sub-continent. We do not exactly know the Cultural
the hills between Varahmulla and Jhelum.
horizon of the Burazahoma megalithic, nor the
Purpose for which they were erected, but the The contact with the Greeks is responsible for
indications are, they were put in places towards the the beautiful architectural and sculptural style of old
end of the neolithic period at that site, between 400 Kashmir temples, and the coinage of later Kashmir
to 300 B. C.” Kings has also been influenced by this contact. The
three kings mentioned by Kalhan are Huska, Juska,
In 1960, Archaeological Department of the Govt.
and Kanishka, each of them is credited with the
of India began systematic excavation at this site.
foundation of a town, christened after their respective
Near about the siltbed, pits have been discovered in
names: Hushkapura, Jushkapura and Kanishkapura.
sections, indicating a settlement of early Pit dwellers
The Kushan Kings also built many temples and
whose date has tentatively been fixed at 3000 BC
Vihars. Kanishka held the third great council of the
.This is perhaps the only known find of such a
Buddhist church at “Kundalvan”.
settlement in India. It is possible that more valuable
data would be found, when extensive surface Hien Tsang has given the proceedings of this
diggings are completed. Council. Nearly 500 Buddhist and Hindu scholars
attended this conference, and a learned Kashmir
HINDU PERIOD Brahmin Vasumitra presided over its session. Some
Kalhana in his book Rajatarangini stated that the of the great Buddhist Scholars, who took active part
history of Kashmir started just before the great in this council, were Ashvagosha, Nagarjuna,
Mahabharat war. According to him the first king Vasubandu Sangamitra and Jinamitra.
who ruled over Kashmir is Gonanda, his reign is Hiuen-Tsang praises the intellectual caliber of
placed as 653 Kaliera, the traditional date of the Kashmir scholars, and considered them as
coronation of King Yudhistira, the eldest brother of incomparable. The entire proceedings of the
the Pandvas, Gonanda was killed in a battle along conference were inscribed on copper plates in
with his son and at the time of the commencement Sanskrit, enclosed in stone boxes, deposited in a
of the Mahabharat war, Gonanda II was ruling over Vihar. Like famous Gilgit manuscripts, it is possible
Kashmir. that these copper plates may be unearthed in near
Ashoka founded the old city of Srinagar known future, and we would learn much about the rich
now as “Pandrethan”. At Vijeshwari (modern cultural history of the valley.
2125 (GA & Sc.)—8
 58

In 950, Khemgupta ascended the throne of His two important Hindu ministers were Kota Bhat
Kashmir, a man of mediocre ability who married and Udyashri. At the begining of his reign, he led
princess Didda, daughter of the ruler of Lohara an army to Sindh and defeated its ruler. While
(Poonch) and granddaughter of the Sahi King of returning he defeated Afgans near Peshawar and then
Kabul. In 980 A.D. Didda ascended the throne after he conquered Kabul, Gazni, Qandhar, Pakhali, Swat
the death of her husband. Before her, two other and Multan. He invaded Badakshan, and then
queens had ruled Kashmir namely Yashovati and marched towards Dardistan and Gilgit, which he
Sugandha. Didda was a very unscrupulous and easily conquered. Then he marched towards
willful lady and led a very immoral life. But inspite Bulochistan and Ladhak. The ruler of Kashgar
of these drawbacks, she was an able ruler, who firmly (central Asia) came with a huge army and Shihab-
ruled the valley. She died in 1003 A.D. and left the ud-din whose army was numerically inferior,
throne of Kashmir to her family in undisputed inflicted a crushing defeat and the Kashgar army
succession, as her children had died young, she was almost wiped out. This led to the annexation of
transmitted the crown to Sangramraj, son of her Laddhak and Bultistan, which were claimed by the
brother Udairaj, the ruler of Lohara (Poonch). It Kashgar ruler. It is also said that the ruler of Kashmir
was during her time that Mahmud Gaznavi twice marched towards Delhi, and on the way conquered
tried to capture the valley but the fort at Lohara, Kangra, and then the army of Ferozashah Tughlaq
remarkable for its height and strength proved opposed him on the banks of Sutluj. Since the battle
impregnable. The Sultan was obliged to abandon between the rulers of the Delhi and Kashmir was
the conquest. indecisive, peace was concluded, and it was agreed
From 1089 - 1101 AD, King Harsha and from that all the territory from Sirhind to Kashmir
1155-1339, the Kashmir rulers remained busy with belonged to the Kashmir ruler. Shihab-ud-din was
intrigues, debauchery, and mutual quarrels. The last not only a great conqueror but also an able
Hindu ruler of Kashmir was Udayan Dev. Before administrator, and he governed his kingdom with
his death, he embraced Islam. His death in 1339 firmness and justice. He was tolerant ruler and treated
paved the way for the establishment of Muslim rule his Hindu subjects generously.
in Kashmir. It is reported that owing to prolonged campaigns
he needed money, and his ministers asked him to
MUSLIM PERIOD loot the temples, but he stoutly opposed the proposal,
After the death of Queen Kota, Shah Mir ascended and to quote Jonaraj, he is reported to have said in
the throne under the name of Sultan Shamas-ud-din, anger: “Past generation have set-up images to obtain
and his dynasty ruled the state for 222 years. This fame, and earn merit, and you propose to demolish
period is one of the most important in the annals of them. Some have obtained renown by setting up
Kashmir, in as much as Islam was firmly established images of gods, others by worshipping them, some
here. The Shah-Miri dynasty has given us only two by maintaining them, and you propose demolishing
rulers, who are worthy of mention. One is Sultan them How great is the enormity of such a deed”.
Shihab-ud-din, and the second is the great Sultan The king founded a new town which he called
Zain-ul-Abidin. The former ascended the throne in Shihab-ud-din pora, known now as Shadipur(now
1354, and continued to rule till 1371. He was full of near sumbal in District Bandipora). He is also said
energy, and vigour and he was able to establish his to have erected many mosques and monasteries.
sway over the neighboring countries. His army Shihab-ud-din can rightly be called the Lalitaditya
mainly consisted of Damras, Lavans and the hill of medieval Kashmir. During his time Kashmir
tribes of Poonch, Rajapuri and Kishtwar. The armies marched to distant lands, and our victorious
important commanders who served under him were banners were unfurled on many forts of foreign
both Hindus and Muslims, such as Chandra-Damra, countries. Thus this great ruler raised Kashmir to
Laula Daniara, Shura, Syed Hassan and Abdul Raina. great eminence, and power.
 59

The next ruler was Sultan Qutab-ud-din, and in In 1470 A. D. the Sultan died and for a long
whose time the important event and worth time his death was mourned by the people. Sultan
mentioning revolution is the arrival of Iranian sufi Zain-ul-Abidin’s death sounded the death knell of
saint Mir Sayyed Ali Hamdani, who was the most Shah-Miri dynasty. It met the same fate that the
remarkable personality of the then muslim world. Lohara dynasty had met after the death of Jaisimha
At the time of his third visit he got with himself 700 in 1156. The only important event that took place
Syyeds from Hamdan, who were being out to torture before the establishment of Chak dynasty was the
by Timur, ruler of Persia. Iranian saint, Mir Syyed invasion of Mirza Haider Dughlat who attacked
Ali Hamadani is known as the founder of Islam in Kashmir from Zogila pass in 1533. Soon he was
Kashmir. These syyeds established their centres of able to establish his ascendancy in the valley. The
Moghul, like Dulchu earlier, killed, looted and
missonery activities in different parts of the valley.
plundered the people, and made women and children
In 1389, Qutab-ud-din died, and he was succeeded
their slaves. The Sultan of Kashmir, Nazuk Shah,
by his eldest son Sultan-Sikandar. Shahi-Khan or
became almost a puppet in his hands. Moghuls were
Sultan Zain-ul-Abidin ascended the throne in 1420 appointed on high posts everywhere, and the Jagirs
A. D. and ruled upto 1470 A. D. nearly for half a of Kashmir Noblemen were confiscated. For more
century. His accession to the throne, proved to be than a decade Mirza was the virtual ruler of the
the return of a bright and warm day after a cold and valley and he gave peace and orderly Government
a chilly night. to the country. He encouraged Kashmir Art and
Zain-ul Abidin organized a huge army, and with Crafts, and trade and commerce once again thrived
its help he reconquered the Punjab, Western Tibet, in the valley. The last Kashmiri ruler, Sultan Habib
Ladhak and Balti region, Kulu and Ohind (Hazara). Shah, a weakling was deposed by his commander,
The Sultan also maintained cordial and friendly and nobles raised on throne Gazi Chak, a prominent
relations with rulers of other countries. The Sheriff military General of the time. He was the direct
of Macca and the Kings of Juan and Egypt sent him descendant of Lankar Chak who had come to
presents. The Maharaja of Gwalior, hearing that the Kashmir towards the close of Hindu rule. The Chak
Sultan was interested in Music, sent him valuable rule began in Kashmir in 1561 and lasted till 1587,
works on Indian music. There was also an exchange when Akbar, the great Moghul Emperor conquered
Kashmir.
of embassies and gifts between the great Sultan and
the rulers of Sindh, Bengal, Tibet, Gujarat, Malwa MUGHAL PERIOD
and Delhi. The Sultan improved the tone of During the period of Mughal rule from 1587 to 1752,
administration which had rudely been shaken. He the people enjoyed peace and order. Akbar built a
appointed talented persons in high administrative new town near Hariparbat and called it Nagar-Magar
posts, irrespective of caste or creed. The Sultan had and built the massive wall around the hill. The
a high sense of justice and no one who committed Mughal rulers never came alone, but were always
a crime was spared, however close he was to throne. accompanied by hundreds of Nobles, Amirs and
Many grandees who were favourites of the king, Umras, Princes and Army Generals. Jahangir came
were severly punished when found guilty. The king virtually, under the spell of the scenic beauty of the
took keen interest in agriculture and like Lalitaditya place, and wherever he found a hill coming down
and Avantivarman, many canals were dug out in all gently to a spring or a grove of majestic Chinar
parts of the Kingdom. Jonraj and Shriva have given trees or a beautiful lake, he utilized the place for
details of these canals in their valuable books. Owing planting a pleasure garden.
to these irrigation works, the draining of marshes Shalimar and Nishat gardens on the banks of
and reclamation of large areas for cultivation, Dal Lake, would keep Jahangir’s love for natural
Kashmir became self-sufficient in food, and rice was beauty ever fresh in our memory. Table shows
cheap. important Mughal gardens from J&K.
 60

Mughal Gardens in J&K life. Thousands of people migrated to India during

these hard days, and no wonder the population of
Name of Gardens Name of the ruler who the valley came down to two lakhs from nine lakhs.
built it
Shalimar Jehangir for his beloved SIKH RULE
wife Noorjahan At last the reign of terror broke the patience of the
Chashmashahi Shahjahan peace loving people, and a deputation of Kashmiris
led by Pandit Birbal Dhar, and his son Pandit
Nishat Jehangir
Rajakak Dhar, left for Lahore and fervently requested
Harwan Asif Khan Maharaja Ranjit Singh to conquer Kashmir. Three
Pari Mahar Shahjehan prominent Muslims helped Pandit Birbal Dhar in
Important gardens are Shalimar, Harwan and his escape from the valley. They were Abdul Qadoos
Nishat. All gardens are facing Dal Lake. Aurangazeb Gojwari, Mallick Zulfiqar and Malik Kamgar. In
visited Kashmir only once in 1665. Because of 1819, 30,000 soliders of Maharaja Ranjit Singh
instability, lack of unity and discriminations of attacked Kashmir, defeated the Pathans, and the state
Mughul kings lead to Afghan invasion in 1752. In became a part of Ranjit Singh’s empire. On receipt
Kashmir most of the gardens are built by Mughal of the news, Maharaja Ranjit Singh bestowed
rulers. honours in Dhar family and Lahore was illuminated
for three days, Sikh rule lasted for only 27 years
AFGHAN RULE and during this period 10 Governors administersd
The rulers of Kabul were great despots, and they the country one after another, out of whom the last
ruled all the parts of their kingdom ruthlessly with two were Muslims. In the beginning Sikh rule also
an iron hand. The cornerstone of their policy was proved to be oppressive. “It must have been an
terror. As many as twenty eight Durrani Subedars intense relief ”, writes Lawrence, “to all classes in
governed Kashmir during these sixty seven years. Kashmir to see the downfall of the evil rule of
Most of the well to do people of the valley were Pathan, and to none was the relief greater than to
summoned by the Abid Ali Governor Abdullah Khan the peasants who had been cruely fleeced by the
to his palace, and ordered to surrender all their wealth rapacious sardars of Kabul. I do not mean to suggest
on pain of death. Their houses were completely that the Sikh rule was benign or good, but it was at
sacked, and many people were put to sword. There any rate better than that of the Pathans”. The Sikh
was complete gloom and despair on every side. rule over Kashmir lasted only for a brief span of
All the prosperity of the valley was gone, and time, during which the rulers at Lahore were far too
the people could not even move on the streets, for pre-occupied at home to pay any attention to the
fear of being robbed of even their scanty clothing. affairs of this outlying province of theirs. The misery
Each and everyday for a Kashmiri was a day of of the people increased due to natural calamities as
struggle and uncertainty. In 1819 the State was added well, such as premature snow falls, which would
to the Sikh Kingdom of Punjab. The Sikh rule over destroy a ripe rice crop leading to famines. These
Kashmir lasted only for a brief span of time, during famines were followed by diseases like cholera and
which the rulers at Lahore were far too pre-occupied plague, resulting in a heavy loss of life. Thousands
at home to pay any attention to the affairs of this of people migrated to India during these hard days,
outlying province of theirs. and no wonder the population of the valley came
The misery of the people increased due to down to two lakhs from 8 lakhs.
natural calamities as well, such as premature snow Mr. Ranel Tayler who visited Kashmir in 1846
falls, which would destroy a ripe rice crop leading writes about Kashmir, “The town presents a very
to famines. These famines were followed by diseases miserable apperance. The houses made of wood are
like cholera and plague resulting in a heavy loss of tumbling in every direction. The streets are filthy
 61

for want of drainage, none of the bazars looked was succeeded by Maharaja Ranbir Singh who ruled
wellfilled and prospseous and altogether my ride from 1857 to 1885.
made me very unhappy”. Moorcraft who visited the In 1885 Maharaja Sir Pratap Singh ascended
valley in 1835 writes, “Everywhere the people were the throne and he ruled for a period of 40 years. The
in most abject condition, not one sixteenth of the real modernization of the state and several
cultivable land is under cultivation, and the progressive reforms were carried out by him. Sir
inhabitants are starving. They were in a condition of Walter Lawrence brought the first assessment of land
extreme weakness Villages were half deserted and revenue system in the state on scientific lines. The
those who lived there were the semblance of extreme two mountain roads, Jhelum valley road and Banihal
sickness. Villages were filthy and swarming with Cart were built by linking the state with the rest of
beggars. The rural folk on the whole were half naked India.
and miserably emaciated and presented a ghostly picture
of poverty and starvation”. Such was the general A scheme for drainage of the valley reclaiming
condition of the state when Maharaja Ranjit Singh died waste-land and preventing floods by digging flood
in 1830. His death was a signal for the mutiny of Sikh channels was put into operation. Construction of
Army which become uncontrollable, and plunge entire water reservoir at Harwan and establishment of
Punjab into confusion and chaos. electric generating plant at Mohra was also
undertaken during this period. Two colleges in the
DOGRA PERIOD state besides large number of education institutions
Dogras are from Indo-Aryan ethnic group in south were also established by the order of the Maharaja.
Asia. Dogras believed to be suryavanshi Rajputs of The administrative machinery was completely
chattri origin. They are migrated from Rajputana overhauled. There was development in the means of
many centuries ago. They live predominantly in the communication and telegraphs. Telephones and post
J&K, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh and North East offices were opened in many places. After the death
Pakistan. They speak their own language called of Maharaja Pratap Singh his nephew Maharaja Sir
Dogri. Most of the Dogras are Hindus, some are Hari Singh ascended the throne in 1925. He
Muslims and some are Sikhs. From 1846 to 1949, continued to govern the state till 1949. Hari Singh
four Dogra kingdoms are ruled in J&K. The Kashmir was the last ruler of Kashmir. When India got
accession was started at the time of Maharaja freedom in 1947 the land was divided into two parts-
Harising. Table gives names of Dogra rulers of J&K. India and Pakistan.
List of Dogra Rulers By this time most of the princely states of India
were united to form the Indian Union. Kashmir, an
Gulab Singh 1846 - 1857 independent state under Raja Hari Singh, decided to
Ranbir Singh 1857 - 1885 join India due to great similarity in culture and social
Partab Singh 1885 - 1925 aspects. The instrument of accession was signed
between Lord Mountbatten and Raja Harisingh in
Hari Singh 1925 - 1949
terms of defense, external affairs and rehabilitation
The two Anglo-Sikh Wars led to the final of refugees.
extinction of Sikh sovereignty in the Punjab and by The most important thing that had far reaching
virtue of the treaties of Lahore and Amritsar the consequences in the future of the state was the birth
British who had by now become undisputed master of political parties and the growth of political
of India. The greatest service of the first Dogra ruler consciousness in the state during this period. But
is the foundation that he laid for the modern Jammu more important was the liberation of the country
and Kashmir State. The Maharaja died in 1857 after from the British Yoke in 1947 that ended all the
a rule of 11 years, during which period he laid the traces of foreign domination, absolutism and
foundation of a sound system of administration. He autocracy in our country.

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Multiple Choice Questions

1. Who constructed Chashma Shahi and Pari A. Shah Mir B. Sadr-ud-din
Mahal in the Valley? C. Qutub-ud-din D. Yusuf Khan
A. Shahjahan B. Jehangir 11. Dogri script was introduced by which ruler?
C. Akbar D. Qasim Khan A. Raja Maldev B. Raja Shakti Karan
2. Who was called the "Lalitaditya of medieval C. Raja Bahu Lochan D. Jambu Lochan
Kashmir'? 12. Sher-e-Kashmir Institute of Medical Sciences
A. Sultan Shihab-ud-din is situated in:
B. Sultan Ala-ud-din A. Jammu B. Srinagar
C. Sultan Sikander C. Awantipura D. None of these
D. Sultan Qutb-ud-din
13. Most important source of irrigation in Jammu
3. Who was the first King to prohibit the slaugh- & Kashmir is:
ter of animals? A. Tanks B. Canals
A. Lalitaditya B. Jaya Simha C. Wells D. None of these
C. Damodra II D. Meghavahana
14. Pampore is famous for:
4. Who built Shankaracharya temple? A. Saffron B. Tabacco
A. Gopaditya B. Gonanda I C. Pulses D. None of these
C. Harsha D. Sussala
15. During whose reign ‘Persian’ became the lan-
5. The first Muslim King who built the very first guage of court?
mosque in Kashmir was: A. Sultan Zain-ul-Abdin
A. Rinchana B. Shams-ud-din B. Sultan Ala-ud-din
C. Ala–ud–din D. Qutub–ud–din C. Shahmir
6. The famous tomb of Sheikh Noor-ud-din D. Shiva Somak
Noorani is situated in which district? 16. Who imposed ‘Grahkrtya’ and ‘Begar’?
A. Kishtwar B. Budgam A. Shankara Varman B. Shah Mir
C. Baramulla D. Bandipora C. Raja Maldev D. Raja Shakti Karan
7. Between whom treaty of Amritsar was signed? 17. The founder of Lohara dynasty was:
A. British Govt. and Gulab Singh A. Hariraja B. Avanta
B. British Govt. and Hari Singh C. Kalasa D. Sangramaraja
C. British Govt. and Karan Singh
D. British Govt. and Ranbir Singh 18. Kalhana, a famous historian of Kashmir was
lived during the reign of:
8. When was the treaty of Amritsar signed? A. Jayasimha B. Ramadeva
A. March 15, 1843 B. March 16, 1846 C. Suhadeva D. Bhikshachara
C. March 16, 1847 D. March 20, 1850
19. Lalitaditya was the ruler of which dynasty?
9. Which Mughal ruler paid much tribute to the A. Karkota B. Utpala
beauty of Kashmir? C. Lohara D. Gupta
A. Akbar B. Jahangir
C. Shahjahan D. Aurangzeb 20. Mir Syed Ali Hamdani make his first visit in
Kashmir during the reign of:
10. What was Islamic name given to Rinchen who A. Sultan Shahab-ud-din
embraced Islam? B. Shah Mir Kazi Chak
62
 63

C. Sultan Sikandar 33. K2 peak (Godwin Austin) is situated in:

D. Zain–ul–Abdin A. Karakoram range
21. Who was the founder of Gupta dynasty? B. Zaskar range
A. Abhimanyu Gupta B. Sugandha C. Nanga Parbat range
C. Parva Gupta D. Jayapida D. None of these
22. During the reign of which King Chinese 34. Which of the following districts has the largest
traveller Hiuen Tsang visited Kashmir? area?
A. Lalitaditya B. Damodar I A. Anantnag B. Kathua
C. Durlabha Vardhana D. Jaluka C. Leh D. None of these
23. The founder of old city of Srinagar called as 35. What is the name of a typical folk dance of
Pandrethan was: rural Jammu region, which means blowing and
A. Kaniska B. Ashoka the dances open and close their fingers?
C. Gonanda II D. Parvarsend A. Rouf B. Phummian
24. During the rule of which King Muhammed of C. Hakit D. Dambali
Ghazni attacked on Kashmir? 36. The winner of Sahitya Academy award for
A. Raja Jasdev B. Didda Kashmiri for the first time was:
C. Nandi Gupta D. Raja Ajaib Dev A. Zinda Kaul B. Lal Mal
25. The founder of Jammu City was: C. Gulal Shah D. Wazir Mal
A. Raja Maldev B. Maha Lochan 37. Who is the writer of book ‘Flower of Nishat
C. Raja Jasdev D. Jambu Lochan Bagh’?
26. In which year Maharaja Ranjit Singh invaded A. Mahjoor B. Abdur Sattar
Kashmir? C. Parmanand D. Zinda Koul
A. 1810 A.D. B. 1814 or 1815 A.D. 38. Who is the writer of romantic poems Shvin
C. 1820 A.D. D. 1825 A.D. Khusro, Laila Majnu and Yusuf Zulekha?
27. Who was the first Muslim Sultan of Kashmir? A. Zinda Kaul B. Mahmud Gami
A. Shah Mirza B. Zain-ul-Abdin C. Parmanand D. Rasool Mir
C. Ghazi Chak D. Yousuf Shah 39. Who is the author of the book ‘The History of
28. Who introduced Buddhism in Kashmir? Struggle’ for freedom in Kashmir?
A. Damodra B. Mihirkula A. Shrivats Vikal
C. Rinchana D. Ashoka B. Ranbir
29. Who was the first King in the history of C. Mulla Ahmad
Kashmir, whose name was mentioned by D. Pt. Prem Nath Bazaz
Kalhana? 40. The writer of novel ‘Phull Bina Dali’’ was:
A. Balbhadra B. Krishna A. Shrivats Vikal B. Rasool Mir
C. Gonanda D. Damodra C. Parmanand D. Zinda Kaul
30. Jammu & Kashmir Minerals Limited was 41. The poet who is known as father of Kashmiri
incorporated in: Ghazals :
A. 1970 B. 1960 A. Abdur Sattar B. Parmanand
C. 1955 D. None of these C. Zinda Koul D. Rasool Mir
31. Jhelum river originates from: 42. Who was the writer of ‘Kavya Lamkara’?
A. Dal lake B. Verinag A. Vamana B. Bhamaha
C. Wular lake D. None of these C. Matri Gupta D. Ananda Vardhana
32. Poat Pass is situated on: 43. Who wrote famous composition ‘Shikayat’?
A. Num Kum range B. Nanga Parbat range A. Yusuf Shah Chak
C. Zaskar range D. None of these B. Sultan Haider Ali
 64

C. Mulla Ahmad 55. Who is known as 'Little Tibet'?

D. Sultan Zain-ul-Abdin A. Kargil B. Samba
44. The female monk in Ladakh's language is C. Ladakh D. Riasi
called: 56. Which lake of Kashmir is largest freshwater
A. Momo B. Chomo lake?
C. Gomo D. Lomo A. Wular Lake B. Dal Lake
45. The prominent instrument used in Hafiz- C. Mansar Lake D. Pongkong Lake
Nagma is called: 57. Which among the following is known as ‘Rice
A. Santoor B. Harmoniam Bowl of Kashmir’?
C. Tabla D. Sitar A. Ganderbal B. Kulgam
46. In which century Sufiana music came to C. Bandipora D. Shopian
Kashmir from Iran? 58. Which of the following Lakes is not belonging
A. 12th century B. 13th century to Ladakh region?
C. 14th century D. 15th century A. Tso Moriri B. Rupshu
47. Who had started construction of famous C. Mansar D. None of these
Raghunath Temple Complex? 59. Suru, Nubru and Hemis are the famous tourists
A. Gulab Singh B. Ranbir Singh resorts in:
C. Pratap Singh D. Hari Singh A. Doda B. Srinagar
48. Who is called the first muslim saint of C. Ladakh D. Poonch
Kashmir? 60. Rashmi, Vishav and Rambiar are the tributaries
A. Nuru-din-Noorani B. Baba Ghulam Shah of which river?
C. Jalal-ud-din-Rumi D. Pir Baba A. Kishanganga B. Jhelum
49. Who introduced famous musical instrument C. Chenab D. Ravi
‘Rabab’? 61. 'Himadri' is another name of:
A. Zain-ul-Abdin B. Haider Ali A. Outer plains B. Shiwaliks
C. Yusuf Shah D. Hussain Shah C. Greater Himalayas D. Middle Himalayas
50. Which is the original script of the Dogri 62. ‘Aksai Chin’ is a dissected:
language? A. Deep Gorge
A. Sanskrit (Naga) B. Apbhramsa B. Intermontane Plateau
C. Persian D. Takri C. Intermontane Valley
51. What is the name of dance which is performed D. Intermontane Strike Valley
by Kashmiri Pandit women around the bridal 63. Srinagar is connected with Jammu by which
rangoli during marriage? National Highway?
A. Chakkri B. Rouf A. NH-1A B. NH-2A
C. Dambli D. Weug Nachun C. NH-1B D. NH-2B
52. Where is Sri Ashtadashbhuja Devi (Eighteen 64. Deodar, Chir, Kail, Fir etc. are the species of
Arms) temple located? which forests?
A. Ramsu B. Sarthal (Doda) A. Scrub Forests
C. Jammu D. Sarthal (Bani) B. Sub-Tropical Forests
53. Which is the largest tributary of river Jhelum? C. Coniferous Forests
A. Sindh B. Eri D. Temperate Forests
C. Liddar D. Pohru 65. ‘Mata Vaishno Devi’ Shrine is located in which
54. Which type of coal is found is Riasi? district?
A. Bituminus B. Peat A. Jammu B. Poonch
C. Lignite D. Anthracite C. Reasi D. Doda
 65

66. Shrine of Amarnath is in which district of A. 2016 B. 2017

J&K? C. 2018 D. 2019
A. Badgam B. Anantnag 77. The establishment of the first silk factory was
C. Doda D. Baramula in 1897 by:
67. What is the annual rainfall in Jammu? A. Maharaja Pratap Singh
A. 975 mm B. 1115.9 mm B. Maharaja Ranjit Singh
C. 1506 mm D. 2000 mm C. Maharaja Gulab Singh
D. Maharaja Ranbir Singh
68. Which is called the Gateway of J&K?
A. Akhnoor B. Uri 78. The introduction of the New J&K Industrial
C. Jasrota D. Lakhanpur Policy was in the year of:
A. 2013 B. 2014
69. The famous Ski resort in J&K is at:
C. 2015 D. 2016
A. Zaskar B. Gulmarg
C. Pahalgam D. Sona Marg 79. The projection of Kashmir as ‘Golfers
Paradise’ is due to:
70. The J&K state is divided into how many
A. Tourism B. Scenic beauty
geographical Zones? C. Writer Spots D. Cultural Heritage
A. Four B. Five
C. Six D. Seven 80. The creation of ‘Geology and Mining’
Department in Jammu was in:
71. Which among the following is/are situated A. 1969-70 B. 1959-60
near/around Dal Lake? C. 1979-80 D. 1989-90
A. Naseem Bagh B. Nishat Bagh
C. Shalimar Bagh D. All of the above 81. When was Integrated Rural Development
Programme launched in J&K?
72. The power of Governor of a State to promul- A. August 5, 1975 B. Sept. 5, 1978
gate ordinance is given in the Constitution of C. July 15, 1982 D. Oct. 2, 1980
India in:
A. Article 123 B. Article 212 82. The capicity of Bagalihar hydro electric power
project is:
C. Article 213 D. Article 356
A. 300 MW B. 400 MW
73. Thein Dam is built across: C. 450 MW D. 500 MW
A. Beas B. Ravi
83. What is Igophy that was introduced in Ladakh?
C. Ujh D. Basantar
A. New irrigation scheme
74. The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of B. Tribal development programme
J&K is: C. Self employment generation scheme
A. 32°16´ N to 37°5´ N and 70°40´ E to D. Infrastructural development programme
90°30´E 84. In which year, the National Family Planning
B. 32°17´ N to 36°6´ N and 70°40´ E to Programme was started?
82°30´E A. 1955-56 B. 1960-61
C. 32°17´ N to 37°5´ N and 72°40´ E to C. 1957-58 D. 1965-66
80°30´E 85. J&K launched the first five year plan in the
D. 32°15´ N to 38°7´ N and 73°20´ E to year of:
75°32´E A. 1951 B. 1955
75. How much area China has illegally occupied? C. 1961 D. 1956
A. 79,130 sq. km B. 37,555 sq. km 86. On which date ‘Law Day’ is celebrated in
C. 5,960 sq. km D. 21,260 sq. km India?
76. In which year the Sustainable Development A. 26th November B. 28th October
Goals came into effect? C. 2nd October D. 15th August
2125 (GA & Sc.)—9
 66

87. ‘Right to Education’ is a Fundamental Right 97. How many members are in J&K Legislative
under: Assembly?
A. Article 14 B. Article 19 A. 75 B. 83
B. Article 22 D. Article 21-A C. 95 D. 100
88. Which Article of the Constitution provides for 98. In J&K Panchayat Adalat enjoy:
the formation of new States? A. Criminal Jurisdiction
A. Article 3 B. Article 2 B. Civil Jurisdiction
C. Article 13 D. Article 39 C. Both A and B
89. Which of the following writs is N OT D. None of these
specifically provided in the constitution of 99. How many seats are in J&K for Lok Sabha?
India? A. 4 B. 5
A. Mandamus B. Quo Warranto C. 8 D. 10
C. Injunction D. Prohibition
100. Which district was carved out from Baramulla
90. Constitutional safeguards to civil servants are in the 1979?
ensured by: A. Kupwara B. Bandipora
A. Article 310 B. Article 311 C. Pulwama D. Ganderbal
C. Article 312 D. Article 315
101. Name the instrument with the help of which a
91. Under ........... of the constitution Public sailor in a submarine can see the objects on
Accounts and Audit Reports is to be laid before the surface of the sea.
both the Houses of Parliament. A. Telescope B. Periscope
A. Article 151 B. Article 153 C. Gycroscope D. Stereoscope
C. Article 154 D. Article 158
92. Articles ............ of the Indian Constitution 102. ‘HEMOPHILLIA’ is the disease of ............
explain the position and functions of the A. liver B. blood
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. C. brain D. bones
A. 148 to 149 B. 156 to 160 103. Vitamin A is abundantly found in ............
C. 159 to 165 D. 185 to 193 A. Brinjal B. Tomato
93. Under the Comptroller and Auditor-General C. Carrot D. Cabbage
of India there is in each state: 104. ............ is not soluble in water.
A. Audit Chief General A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B
B. Accountant General C. Vitamin C D. None of these
C. Comptroller Accountant
D. Chief of the state Accounts 105. The blood vessels with the smallest diameter
are called ............
94. Which Article of the Indian Constitution
A. capillaries B. arterioles
provides for the setting up of the Consolidated
C. venules D. lymphatics
Fund?
A. Article 266(1) B. Article 278(1) 106. Out of the following ............ has the greatest
C. Article 283(1) D. Article 301(1) elasticity.
95. Seventy-Third Amendment Act is extremely A. steel B. rubber
important for political empowerment of: C. aluminium D. annealed copper
A. Women B. Scheduled Castes 107. Cooking gas is a mixture of which of the
C. Scheduled Tribes D. All of these following two gases?
96. The newly-created district Bandipora is A. Carbon Dioxide and Oxygen
situated in the north shore of: B. Butane and Propane
A. Tsomoriri Lake B. Nagin Lake C. Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide
C. Wular Lake D. Dal Lake D. Methane and Ethylene
2125 (GA & Sc.)—9-II
 67

108. The substance most commonly used as a food A. 1 litre B. 3 litres

preservative is: C. 4 litres D. 5 litres
A. sodium carbonate B. tartaric acid
120. Red/green colour blindness in man is known
C. acetic acid D. benzoic acid
as :
109. Normally, the substances that fight against A. Protanopia
diseases in human systems are known as: B. Deutetanopia
A. dioxyribonucleic acids C. Both A and B above
B. carbohydrates D. Marfan’s syndrome
C. enzymes
121. The blue colour of the water in the sea is due
D. antibodies
to :
110. The SI unit of temperature is ............ A. Reflection of the blue light by the
A. Kelvin B. Celsius impurities in sea water
C. Fahrenheit D. None of the above B. Reflection of the blue sky by sea water and
scattering of blue light by water molecules
111. One of the common fungal diseases of man
is : C. Absorption of other colours by water
A. plague B. ringworm molecules
D. None of the above
C. cholera D. typhoid
112. Omar Abdullah belongs to which party? 122. The image formed on the retina of the eye is:
A. upright and real
A. PDP
B. larger than the object
B. J&K PPP
C. small and inverted
C. National Conference
D. enlarged and real
D. None of these
123. Make in India Scheme was launched in:
113. Jenner introduced the method of making
people immune to : A. 2013 B. 2014
A. small pox B. rabies C. 2015 D. none of these
C. cholera D. polio 124. Oil rises up the wick in a lamp :
114. The largest cell in the human body is : A. because oil is volatile
B. due to the capillary action phenomenon
A. Nerve cell B. Live cell
C. due to the surface tension phenomenon
C. Muscle cell D. Kidney cell
D. because oil is very light
115. What is the device that steps up or steps down
125. The ‘stones’ formed in human kidney consist
the voltage?
mostly of :
A. Dynamo B. Conductor
A. calcium oxalate
C. Inductor D. Transformer
B. sodium acetate
116. The protein deficiency disease is known as : C. magnesium sulphate
A. Kwashiorker B. Cirrhosis D. calcium
C. Eczema D. Clycoses
126. Bharat Nirman Scheme was launched in:
117. Iron deficiency causes : A. 2005 B. 2006
A. rickets B. anaemia C. 2007 D. 2008
C. cirrhosis D. goitre
127. Which part of an eye is transplanted?
118. Blood group of an individual is controlled by : A. Cornea B. Retina
A. Haemoglobin B. Shape of RBC C. Iris D. Sciera
C. Shape of WBC D. Genes
128. The Universal donor group of blood is:
119. In a normal man the amount of blood pumped A. O B. A
out by the heart per minute is about : C. B D. AB
 68

129. The green colour of the leaf is due to : 138. Indus seals:
A. Presence of Chloroplast A. were purely secular in character
B. Presence of Chromium B. were used as means of exchange by
C. Presence of Nicoplast Harappans
D. Presence of excess of oxygen C. reveal their religions character
D. were exported in big numbers
130. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched in:
A. 2014 B. 2015 139. Who among the following was the first to
C. 2016 D. 2017 suggest the similarity between Sanskrit
language of Aryans, Greeks and Latin?
131. Which crop was the earliest to be cultivated A. Sir Williams Jones
by the people of Indus Valley? B. Monier Williams
A. Wheat B. Rice C. Max Muller
C. Cotton D. Rye D. None of the above
132. The Harappan Civilisation was chiefly 140. Which was not the cause of Aryans Victory
concentrated in: over the Dasas or Dasyus?
A. Punjab, Rajasthan and Gujarat A. Use of chariots in war
B. Sindh, Punjab and Rajasthan B. Use of horses in war
C. Haryana, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu C. Use of metal armours and helmets
D. Punjab, Rajasthan and Assam D. Use of elephant in war
133. Pre-Harappan settlement was discovered in 141. The important characteristics of the vedic
1981 at the foot of the Bolan pass on the religion were:
Bolan river at one of the following places. 1. Goddes like ‘prithvi’, ‘Aditi’ and ‘Usha’
Identify it; 2. Goddes are co-equal to their male-partners
A. Mansa B. Manda 3. Predominance of male dieties.
C. Mehergarh D. Alamgirpur 4. Worship of nature.
134. One thing is common among the following Codes:
between the Indus and M esopotam ian A. only 3 and 4 B. only 2 and 4
civilisation. Identify: C. only 1 and 4 D. only 1 and 3
A. Larger urban complex 142. Which of the following statement is not correct
B. Seals rolled on clay tablets regarding Indra?
C. Ornamental architecture A. He was the god exclusively associated with
D. Use of potter’s wheel sacrifices.
B. He was know as ‘Purandara’ or breaken
135. The Indus valley belonged to:
of forts
A. Mediterranean race C. He killed the evil dragon ‘Virata’
B. Proto-Astraloid race D. He was the god of Thunder.
C. Tibetan Mongoloid race
D. Alpine race 143. Which of the following region was called
“Arya varta”?
136. The important public place discovered at A. From Yamuna upto West Bengal
Mohenjo-daro was: B. Punjab and Delhi Region
A. the great bath C. The whole of northern India
B. the great granary D. The region beyond Vindhya mountain
C. the great cemetery
144. In India Varna law enjoyed:
D. the acropolis
A. Legal Sanction only
137. Indus script is: B. Religions Sanction only
A. bonstrophedon B. indeographic C. Economic Sanction only
C. cuneiform D. logographic D. The Sanction of both the state and religion.
 69

145. Which statement an asceticism is correct? C. The place where the Budha died
A. The Atharva Veda after refers to ascetics D. The place where he attained enlightenment
as Vratyas 153. Early Schism in Buddhism divided the
B. By the time of the Upanishads, asceticism Buddhist order into:
was widespread A. Sthavirvadins and Mahasanghikas
C. Vratya was a priest of non-vedic fertility B. Mahasanghikas Sunyavadins
cult which involved ritual dancing and C. Sunyavadins and Sarvastivadins
flagellation D. Sthavirvadins and Sarvastivadins
D. All of the above. 154. The Bhabru Edict records Ashoka’s faith in:
146. The speculation of the upanishads centre A. Tisaranam
around one word of the Rig veda which one B. Toleration
is that? C. Dharmavijya
A. Parjapati B. Varuna D. Solicitude for the Welfare of the people
C. Brahman D. Indra 155. Which one of the following statement on the
147. Which among the following is not be called social life in the Sangam era is not correct?
Vedanga? A. The widows had to cut off their hair,
A. Siksha B. Vyakarna discard all ornaments and eat only the
C. Jyotisha D. Manu Smriti plainest food.
B. Civil and military offices were held by the
148. Identify the correct sequence among the
rich peasants called velalas.
following units of political organization.
C. Caste distinction existed.
A. kula, vis, grama, jana
D. Tolkappiar calls the comm ercial
B. jana, vis, grama, kula community as vaisigas.
C. vis, kula, jana, grama
D. grama, jana, kula, vis 156. Which one of the following statement on
Sangam literature is not correct?
149. Which of the following are the Brahmans A. It enables us to trace a connected political
appended to the Rig veda? history of Tamil Kingdom.
A. Aitareya Brahmana and Kausitiki Brahmana B. It sheds light on socio-religious aspects of
B. Gopatha Brahmana Tamil-Kingdom.
C. Satapatha Brahmana C. It sheds light on trade relations with
D. None of these “Yavanas”.
150. The term “Niyoga” means D. It sheds light on the pronounced fusion
A. Marriage of a childless widow with the that had occurred between the Sanskrit and
brother or blood relation of her deceased the Tamil culture.
husband for the sake of progeny. 157. Which was the most important city under
B. To produce off spring by illegal means. Chandragupta Maurya?
C. To remain unmarried through out the life. A. Pataliputra B. Kausambi
D. None of the above. C. Ujjain D. Taxila
151. Mahayana Buddhism originated in: 158. Megasthenes refers to the rule of Heracles
A. Andhra Pradesh, 1st Century B.C. (Vasudeva Krishna’s) daughter who was
B. Bihar, 1st Century A.D. assigned villages to rule in Southern region,
C. Kashmir, 3rd Century B.C. and who was probably the founder of Pandya
D. Bengal, 2nd Century A.D. kingdom. Identify her:
152. Where has the Rummindei Pillar been erected? A. Pandia B. Panlavi
A. The birth place of the Budha C. Maitri D. Pandara
B. The place where he preached his sermon 159. The term ‘ahara’ as an administrative united
first appears in:
 70

A. Arthasastra 171. Which of the following is a Kharif crop?

B. Ashokan inscriptions A. Gram B. Barley
C. Rig Veda C. Wheat D. Rice
D. Epics 172. The characteristic Feature of peninsular rivers
160. What was the name of the Chola king who in India is:
performed Aswamedha sacrifice? A. They are better used for irrigation
A. Rajendra I B. Karikala B. They are more suitable for hydel projects
C. Parantaka D. Rajadhiraja I C. Flow of water is less regular as compared
161. Corbett National Park is situated in: to Himalayan rivers
A. Gujarat B. Uttarakhand D. They receive water from the melting snows
C. Madhya Pradesh D. Assam in summer
162. India tops in the production of: 173. Which of the following slogans has been
A. Copper B. Jute adopted under the social forestry programme?
C. Iron ore D. Coal A. A tree for each person
163. To check the expansion of Thar desert which B. A tree for each family
of the following measures should be used? C. A tree for each house
A. Afforestation D. A tree for each child
B. Construction of canals 174. Match the two-columns
C. Construction of dams (a) Bhilai 1. Aluminium
D. Artificial rain (b) Renukoot 2. Steel
164. Manganese is found in: (c) Bangalore 3. Machine tools
A. Punjab B. Jammu (d) Ahmedabad 4. Textiles
C. Madhya Pradesh D. All of the above 5. Zinc Smelting
165. Indian rhinos are found in: A. (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4
A. Kaziranga Game Sanctuary B. (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-5
B. Corbett National Park C. (a)-2, (b)-5, (c)-3, (d)-5
C. Kanha National Park D. None of these
D. Gir Forest 175. India exports which of the following minerals
166. In India rain forests are mainly found in: most?
A. Deccan region B. Malabar region A. Zinc B. Copper
C. North-east India D. None of these C. Petroleum D. Iron ore
167. Natural Sanctuary of Flamingos is situated in: 176. The magnetic compass does not indicate
A. Kaziranga B. Pullicat, Nellore direction properly in some part of the world.
C. Hyderabad D. Bharatpur This may be due to:
168. Arrange the following states in the descending A. Presence of large amounts of underground
order according to the production of sugarcane: iron deposits
I. Uttar Pradesh II. Maharashtra B. Sedimentary rocks nearby
III. Tamil Nadu IV. Karnataka C. Some fault in it
A. II, I, III, IV B. I, II, III, IV D. Disturbances in the ionosphere of the earth
C. I, II, IV, III D. None of these 177. The planet which is called twin sister of Earth
169. Nagarjunasagar Project is situated on the river: is:
A. Cauvery B. Krishna A. Venus B. Mercury
C. Godavari D. Tungabhadra C. Mars D. Jupiter
170. Petroleum was first struck in: 178. Which of the following is not a lagoon?
A. Ankleshwar B. Mumbai A. Sambhar B. Chilka
C. Digboi D. Koyale C. Pullicat D. None of these
 71

179. The countries having natural frontiers with 189. The largest irrigation canal in India is the:
India are: A. Indira Gandhi Canal
A. China, Myanmar and Nepal B. Yamuna Canal (West)
B. Afghanistan, Nepal and Myanmar C. Upper Ganga Canal
C. China, Myanmar and Afghanistan D. Lower Ganga Canal
D. China, Russia and Bangladesh 190. The normal sea route from Black Sea to
180. The area of the Indian Union is: Mumbai passes through the:
A. 32,87,263 sq. km. B. 55,26,892 sq. km. A. Kiel Canal
C. 32,00,000 sq. km. D. 35,00,000 sq. km. B. Cape of Good Hope
181. Which one of the following longitudes C. Suez Canal
D. Panama Canal
determines the Indian Standard Time?
191. ‘Paryushan Parv’ is Celebrated by—
A. 85.5° E B. 86.5° E
A. Baudhs B. Hindhus
C. 84.5° E D. 82.5° E
C. Jains D. Sikhs
182. India is situated between:
192. Ranga Swami Cup is awarded in—
A. 8°4 N to 37°6 N. latitudes and 60°7 E to
A. Hockey B. Football
98°25 longitudes
C. Cricket D. Volleyball
B. 8° N to 37° N. latitudes and 68° E to
97° E longitudes 193. The weight of a Basketball is—
C. 8° N to 38° N. latitudes and 60° E to A. 400-500 ounce B. 500-600 gm
90° E longitudes C. 567-650 ounce D. 567-650 gm
D. 9° N to 36° N. latitudes and 64° E to 194. The length and width of a volleyball court
100° E longitudes is—
183. The length of the Himalayas between Indus A. 17 × 9 metre B. 18 × 9 metre
Gorge and Brahmaputra Gorge is: C. 19 × 10 metre D. 20 × 10 metre
A. 3000 km B. 2200 km 195. Name the first Indian woman who won the
C. 8000 km D. 2500 km Gold Medal in Asian games—
184. The longest railway platform in India is at: A. P.T. Usha B. Sunita Rani
A. Howrah B. New Delhi C. Shayni Abrahim D. Kamaljit Sandhu
C. Gorakhpur D. Mughalsarai 196. Which of the following game’s playground
185. The lengths of Indian coast line and land has ‘bonus line’?
frontiers are respectively: A. Basketball B. Hockey
A. 5700 km and 15000 km C. Kabaddi D. Volleyball
B. 7500 km and 15200 km 197. Davis Cup is associated with—
C. 6000 km and 15000 km A. Hockey B. Volleyball
D. 5500 km and 15200 km C. Baseball D. Lawn Tennis
186. The climate of India is: 198. In test cricket, how many bouncers can be
A. subtropical climate bowled in one over?
B. tropical climate A. 1 B. 2
C. monsoon type climate C. 3 D. 4
D. savanna type climate 199. Olympia city is situated in which country of
187. India is connected with Europe through: the world?
A. Suez Canal route B. Red Sea A. Greece B. Germany
C. Mediterranean Sea D. Persian Gulf C. Italy D. China
188. The north-south extent of India is: 200. ‘Set Shot’ is related to—
A. 3200 km B. 3050 km A. Snooker B. Squash
C. 2900 km D. 3000 km C. Basketball D. Golf
 72

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A D A A B A B B B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B B B A A A D A A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C B B D B A D C B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B C A C B A A B D A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D B D B A D A A A D
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D B A D C A B D C B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C B A D C B B D B D
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D C B C B A C D C D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
D C A C A A D A C B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A A B A D C B C B A
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
B B C A A A B D D A
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
B C A A D A B D D A
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
B B B B A A A A A A
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
C A C D A A D B A D
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A A B D D C D B A A
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A A A A D A A A B D
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
B B A C A C B C B C
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
D C D A D A A A A A
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
D B D C B C A A A C
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
C A D B D C D B A C
2007