KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

PATNA REGION Set-A

Pre-Board-I EXAMINATION- (XII) 2024-25

roll no Code No. 57/1

Please check that the Question Paper contains 6 printed pages.

Please check that this question paper contains 33 questions.
15-minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will be
distributed at …………... From ………….. to …………….., the students will read the
question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer book during this period.
Any act of unfair means be avoided else it can lead to expulsion.

BIOLOGY (Theory)
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section– C
has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and
Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A
student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION A
1 Persistent nucellus in seed is called:
a. Endosperm b. Albumin c. Perisperm d. Scutellum
2 identify the type of inheritance from following
pedigree:
a) X linked recessive inheritance
b) Y linked Inheritance
c) Autosomal Dominant inheritance
d) None of the above
3 In sickle cell anemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplet
codes for valine?
(a) GGG
(b) A AG
(c) G A A
(d) GUG

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4 Person having genotype IA IB would show the blood group as AB. This is because of
(a) pleiotropy
(b) co-dominance
(c) segregation
(d) incomplete dominance.
5 Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand, because:
a. DNA molecule being synthesized is very long
b. it is a more efficient process
c. DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization only in one
direction (5’ → 3’)
d. none of the above
6 Chemically gene is a:
a. DNA
b. DNA + Histone Protein
c. DNA + Non-Histone Protein
d. DNA + Histone Protein + Non-Histone Protein
7 By the statement ‘survival of the fittest’, Darwin meant that
(a) the strongest of all species survives
(b) the most intelligent of the species survives
(c) the cleverest of the species survives
(d) the species most adaptable to changes survives.
8 Which of the following are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution?
(a) Genetic drift and mutation
(b) Adaptive radiation and homology
(c) Mutation and natural selection
(d) Branching descent and natural selection
9 Match the items in Column ‘A’ and Column ‘B’ and choose correct
answer.
Column A Column B
(i) Lady bird (a) Methano bacterium
(ii) Mycorrhiza (b) Trichoderma
(iii) Biological control (c) Aphids
(iv) Biogas (d) Glomus
The correct answer is:
a) i b, ii d, iii c, iv a b) i c, ii d, iii b, iv a
c) i d, ii a, iii b, iv c d) i c, ii b, iii a, iv d
10 The three steps involved in PCR are ________
a) annealing, extension, and denaturation
b) extension, denaturation, and annealing
c) denaturation, annealing, and extension
d) denaturation, extension, and annealing
11 In Bt-cotton, the Bt-toxin present in plant tissue as pro-toxin in converted into active toxin
due to _____
a. Acidic pH of the insect gut
b. Alkaline pH of the insect gut
c. Presence of conversion factors in insect gut
d. Action of gut microorganisms

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12 A population with a larger proportion of older individuals than younger
ones will likely to:
a. grows larger and then decline
b. continues to grow larger indefinitely
c. decline
d. none of these
Assertion reason type Questions(Q13-16)
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.
13 Assertion: A person should be considered reproductively healthy if they have healthy
reproductive organs but are emotionally imbalanced.
Reason: This statement about reproductive health was given by WHO.
14 Assertion: Hemophilia shows Criss-cross inheritance.
Reason: The gene that causes hemophilia is recessive and lies in the sex (X)
chromosome.
15 Assertion: Cancer cells show uncontrolled growth.
Reason: Cancer cells show the property of contact inhibition.
16 Assertion: E coli having pBR322 with DNA insert at BamH1 site cannot grow in medium
containing tetracycline.
Reason: Restriction site of BamH1 is present in tetracycline resistant region of pBR322.
SECTION B
17 In pea plant, round seed coat is dominant over wrinkled seed coat. What
will be the expected ratio of phenotypes, when we cross
i) heterozygous round x heterozygous round
ii) heterozygous round x homozygous wrinkled
18 The non coding strand of a Transcription Unit reads as 5’ATTATCGATTAA3’, write down
the sequence of complementary DNA strand and mRNA transcribed from it.
OR
How does Mendelian Disorder Hemophilia is different from Phenylketonuria?

19 Explain the mechanism of Replication of a Retrovirus with reference to HIV.

20 Why do children cured by enzyme replacement therapy for adenosine deaminase
deficiency need periodic treatment?
21 Which growth curve is more realistic
exponential or logistic and why?

OR
Mention and explain the term used to
describe a population interaction between
an orchid growing on a forest tree.

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 SECTION C
22 In the TS of a mature anther given below, identify ‘a’
and ‘b’ and mention their functions.

23 (i). Name the labels A, B, C, D, and E in the

diagram of seminiferous tubule. (any four)

(ii) What is spermiation?

24 (i) Name any two copper releasing IUDs.

(ii) Explain, how do they act as effective contraceptives in human females.
(iii) CDRI Lucknow has made an effective contraceptive pill. Name & give its chemical
nature.
25 A. State Hardy Weinberg Principle. Name any four factors which affect it.
B. In a certain population, the frequency of three genotypes is as follows.
Genotypes:
Frequency: BB Bb bb
22% 62% 16%
What is the likely frequency of B and b alleles?

26. State how does an Aeration tank decrease the BOD of the sewage? Mention the role of
Anaerobic Sludge Digesters in Biogas production?

27. Study the below diagram and answer the following

questions;
(a) Identify the process shown in diagram and
define the process.
(b) Name the dye used to stain DNA fragments to
get orange bands
in ultraviolet light.
(c) Define elution.
OR
Why is ‘plasmid’ an important tool in biotechnology experiments?
28. Where would you expect more species biodiversity in tropics or in polar regions? Give
reasons in support of your answer.

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 SECTION D

29 Read the following and answer these questions from (i) to (iii) given below:
Transgenic animals can serve as factories that in some cases, may produce large
amounts of proteins more efficiently. Transgenic mice have been engineered to express
human antibodies by introducing a large segment of human DNA encoding human
immunoglobulin genes. In transgenic large animals such as cows or sheep proteins of
pharmaceutical value can be produced in large quantities in milk which is later purified.
Transgenesis can be used to alter many phenotypic properties including growth rate, fat
composition, milk production, hair texture, etc.

(i) Write the advantages of production of transgenic animals. 1

(ii) why Mouse is most preferred animal for studies on gene transfer? 2
(Iii) Which of the phenotypic properties can be altered using transgenesis? 1
OR
Name two transgenic animals which are used to produce protein enriched milk.

30 Except for the deep-sea hydro-thermal ecosystem, the sun is the only source of energy
for all ecosystems on Earth. Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 per cent of it is
photosynthetically active radiation (PAR). We know that plants and photosynthetic
bacteria (autotrophs), fix Sun’s radiant energy to make food from simple inorganic
materials. Accordingly, we find different types of food chain.
I. Name common herbivores in the terrestrial ecosystem.
ii. Which ecosystem on earth does not require the sun as an energy source? Why?
iii. What do you mean by PAR?
OR
Name any two producers from the aquatic ecosystem.

SECTION E
31 The graph given below shows the variation in the levels of ovarian hormones during
various phases of menstrual cycle:

(a) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’.

(b) Specify the source of the hormone marked in the diagram.
(c) Reason out why A peaks before B.
(d) Compare the role of A and B.
(e) Under which condition will the level of B continue to remain high on the 28th day?

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 OR

(a) Compare the fate of sperms shown in the

diagram.
(b) State the role of zona pellucida in this
process.
(c) Analyze the changes occurring in the ovum
during the process.
(d) How is the entry of sperm into the ovum
facilitated?
(e) Specify the region of female reproductive
system where the event
represented in the diagram takes place.

32 Answer the following questions based on Meselson and Stahl’s experiment

(i) Write the name of the chemical substance used as the only source of nitrogen in the
experiment.
(ii) Why did they allow the synthesis of the light and the heavy DNA molecules in the
organism?
(iii) How did they distinguish the heavy DNA molecules from the light DNA molecules?
(iv) Write the conclusion the scientists arrived at, at the end of the experiment.
(v) Which organism was used for the experiment?
OR
(i) Why is DNA molecule considered as a better hereditary material than RNA molecule?
(ii) In a typical nucleus, some regions of chromatin are stained light and others dark.
Explain why it is so and what is its significance.
33 Study a part of the life cycle of malarial parasite given
alongside. Answer the questions that follow:
(a) Mention the roles of ‘A’ in the life cycle of the malarial
parasite.
(b) Name the event ‘C’ and the organ where this event
occurs.
(c) Identify the organ ‘B’ and name the cells being released
from it.
(d) Explain the cause of periodic recurrence of chill and high
fever during malarial attack in humans.
OR
(i)Name the two types of immunity in a human body. Why are
cell-mediated and humoral immunities so called?
(ii)Write the scientific names of the causal organisms of elephantiasis and ringworm in
humans. Mention the body parts affected by them.

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