OutSystem Associate

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1. Regarding Reactive Web Apps in OutSystems, which B) Synchronous requests

of the following option is False? block the execution of
a) Reactive web app is a cross-device app code which causes "freez-
b) Data requests are executed synchronously ing" on the screen and an
c) The code generated by OutSystems results in a sin- unresponsive user experi-
gle page app ence
d) A developer builds the Reactive Web App in Service
Studio

2. Which of the following is not a Development Environ- C) The Service Centre is

ment a management and ad-
A) Service Studio ministration console for
B) Integration Studio an environment (for ex-
C) Service Center ample, Development, Pro-
duction).

3. Which of the following is false? B) Data is requested asyn-

A) A reactive web application is an application for mul- chronously, allowing for a
tiple devices more fluid experience.
B) Data requests are synchronously
C) The Code generated by OutSystems results in a
single-page application
D) A developer creates a Reactive Web App in service
studio

4. The business concepts that need to be stored and A) Entities

accessed in our applications must be modelled as... Ideally, each business
A) Entities concept will be mapped
B) Entity Diagrams into an entity.
C) Entity Relationships
D) Database Tables

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5. Which of the following statements about entities is C) Entities are stored only
false? in memory
A) Entities have attributes The entities are persistent
B) Entities do not require an identifier and are in fact created in
C) Entities are stored only in memory the database as tables.
D) Entities can be created, updated and deleted

6. Which of the following mappings between Outsys- C) Reference attribute -

tems and databases is NOT correct? Primary key
A) Entities - Tables Entity Identifiers are those
B) Attributes - Columns that are mapped to prima-
C) Reference attribute - Primary key ry keys
D) Index - Index

7. If an entity attribute called HouseNumber is created, D) Nothing, it will auto-

what needs to be done about its data type? matically set to Integer
A) Must be defined as an Integer Outsystems data type in-
B) Must be set to decimal ference engine takes care
C) Nothing, it will automatically set to Identifier of that.
D) Nothing, it will automatically set to Integer

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of a static B) Contains a set of

entity? records
A) It cannot be changed after the first publication As many as you want but
B) Contains a set of records they need to be defined
C) It has two Entity Shares during development.
D) It cannot be extended with any new attributes

9. Regarding the records of a static entity, which of the A) Values for all 4 stan-
following options is false? dard attributes must be
A) Values for all 4 standard attributes must be defined defined
B) Records can only be added and removed during
development Static entity attributes can
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C) The record identifier is the Identifier of the Static be mandatory or not, a

Entity value only needs to be
D) The identifier attribute is mandatory for all static defined if the attribute is
entities. mandatory

10. Are static entities more similar to that of another pro- B) Enumeration
gramming concept? This is the Closest one
A) Linked list
B) Enumeration
C) Hash maps
D) Static variables

11. The screens can be composed of a combination of A) True

several elements called widgets. Each of the elements with-
A) True in a screen is called a wid-
B) False get

12. What kind of variables can be created within a Screen? C) Input parameters and
A) Only local variables local variables
B) Input parameters only Screens have no output
C) Input parameters and local variables parameters
D) Input parameters, output parameters and local
variables

13. Which of the following options is false B) Local variables on

A) Input parameters allow data to pass between one screen can be ac-
screens when navigating between them cessed directly from an-
B) Local variables on one screen can be accessed di- other Screen
rectly from another Screen The scope of input para-
C) Local variables allow the temporary storage of rel- meters and local variables
evant information within a Screen is limited to the screen
D) When the value of a local variable changes, the user they were defined on
interface reacts immediately
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14. The expression widget... B) Displays the calculated

A) Displays only static text text at run time
B) Displays the calculated text at run time The expression widget
C) Displays only the results of mathematical expres- displays calculated values,
sions evaluated at run time. That
may depend on variables
for example.

15. Which of the following behaviours is true for links and C) Links and buttons can
buttons? navigate to screens or
A) Links can only navigate to screens trigger screen actions.
B) Buttons can only have a screen action as a target Users can interact with
when they click the application using links
C) Links and buttons can navigate to screens or trigger and buttons. This triggers
screen actions. an action, sends data or
D) Only links can navigate to external URLs navigates to a screen.

16. Regarding the If widget, which of the following is B) More branches can be
false? added to an If Widget.
A) Functions can be used within the condition of an If. Each if widget only has
B) More branches can be added to an If Widget two branches, True &
C) Only one of the branches is shown at run time. False.
D) Several widgets can be added within each branch.

17. Regarding the container widget, which of the follow- D) All containers must
ing options is false? have at least one widget
A) Containers allow you to group multiple widgets inside
together Containers can be empty
B) By default, containers can span 1 - 12 columns
C) Containers can be placed inside other containers
D) All containers must have at least one widget inside

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18. Which of the following options is correct? D) Client actions can call
A) Screen actions can call up other screen actions on server actions
a different screen Likewise, the actions on
B) Customer actions can call up screen actions the screen can also call up
C) Server actions can call client actions server actions
D) Client actions can call server actions

19. Client actions and server actions can have the follow- C) Input and output pa-
ing variables: rameters, as well as local
A) Input and output parameters, but without local variables
variables They can have multiple in-
B) Input parameters and local variables, but no output puts, outputs and local
parameters variables
C) Input and output parameters, as well as local vari-
ables
D) Output parameters and local variables, but no in-
put parameters

20. The flow of an action can have.... C) Only one start node, but
A) Several start and end nodes several end nodes
B) One or more initial nodes, but only one final node Action nodes can only
C) Only one start node, but several end nodes have one start node but
D) Just a start node and an end node end at several end nodes

21. Regarding the If Statement, which of the following is D) More branches can be
false? added, if necessary
A) The True and False branches are mandatory Not for an If, although for
B) Only one of the branches is executed, depending the Switch instruction, this
on the result of the If condition is possible.
C) If statements can also be used to implement loops
D) More branches can be added, if necessary

22.
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Regarding the switch instruction, which of the follow- B) Each branch classified
ing options is false as True is executed
A) The first branch evaluated by the condition as True Only one branch can be
is executed executed in the Switch:
B) Each branch classified as True is executed The first one that evaluates
C) If no branch evaluates to True, the Otherwise to true, if not then the oth-
branch will be executed erwise branch
D) The otherwise branch must exist

23. Within a flow of action... C) The exception Handler

A) Only one exception handler can exist flow cannot cross other
B) It is mandatory to have at least one exception han- flows
dler Each flow must be inde-
C) The exception Handler flow cannot cross other pendent of others
flows

24. If we have multiple exception handlers in an action Execution is moved to the

flow and an exception is raised.... Exception Handler which
A) execution is always moved to the Global Exception is more specific to the Ex-
Handler. ception
B) Execution is moved to the Exception Handler which
is more specific to the Exception. - Different Exceptions are
C) Execution is moved to all Handlers except for the handled by different Spe-
action. cific Handlers
D) A Switch statement is required to select which Ex-
ception Handler will continue to run.

25. In an Aggregate, the Sources section is used to... Define the entities from
A) Set values to test the aggregate's output records. which we want to retrieve
B) Define the entities from which we want to retrieve the records
the records.
C) Defining conditions for obtaining specific subsets - Aggregates support one
or more entities of origin
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of records. and with defined relation-

D) Define the order of the aggregates output records. ships between them.

26. Considering that we can add several filters to an ag- A record is included in the
gregate, which of the following is false? output if it matches at least
A) A record is included in the output if it matches at one of the filters
least one of the filters.
B) Filters are concatenated with the AND operator. - For a record to be includ-
C) All filters are translated into SQL and included in the ed in the output results,
WHERE clause. it must be true for all de-
D) Logical operators and some built-in functions can fined filters
be used within the filters.

27. Regarding Sorting in aggregates, which of the follow- It is mandatory to define

ing options is correct? the direction for all Sorting
A) Aggregates support only one Sorting criterion. criteria (ASC or DESC)
B) If more than one Sorting criterion is defined, all - The direction for sorting
of them must have the same direction (increasing or criteria must be set.
decreasing).
C) It is mandatory to define the direction for all Sorting
criteria (increasing or decreasing).
D) It is only possible to define several Sorting criteria
if there are duplicate records in the entity.

28. In an aggregate, the purpose of the test values section Define values to test the
is.... visualization of the aggre-
A) Define values to test the visualization of the aggre- gate output.
gate output.
B) To define the conditions for obtaining specific - The test values section is
records, not all records. used to test the aggregate
C) To define the order of your checkouts. and view output records

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D) To define the entities from which we want to obtain

records.

29. Regarding the screen aggregates, which of the follow- Screen aggregates can
ing is false? only be executed when ex-
A) Screen aggregates are executed asynchronously plicitly called
and in parallel.
B) Screen aggregates exist only in the scope of the
screen in which they were defined.
C) Screen aggregates can only be executed when ex-
plicitly called.
D) Screen aggregates can only fetch data from the
database.

30. How is the data fetched by an aggregate linked to a Setting the widget's
table or a list widget? source property for the
A) Setting the widget's Source property for the Aggre- aggregate output
gate output.
B) The connection is made automatically since the - Widgets have access
Aggregate is within the scope of the Screen. to the Screen aggregates
C) Adding an Expression within the widget that refers output, so linking can be
to an attribute of the data fetched by Aggregate. easily defined through the
D) Creating a screen action that programmatically as- source property.
signs the widget to the data fetched by Aggregate.

31. Considering ListItem and List Actions, which of the When List items have the
following options is false? full slide option enabled,
A) List actions can only be used within list items. List Action is not required.
B) List items can be used outside of lists
C) When List Items have the full slide option enabled, - To determine what hap-
List Action is not required. pens when you slide, it
uses the logic defined in
the list item.
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D) The List Action triggers a Screen Action that will

have the logic to be executed when sliding.

32. Regarding the data relationship, which of the follow- An entity must have an
ing options is correct? identifier to allow relation-
A) An entity must have an identifier to allow relation- ships
ships.
B) A reference attribute must be mandatory. - Relationships are creat-
C) An entity can have only one reference attribute. ed by defining an attribute
D) The entity identifier must be an integer. with the data type Entity
identifier.

33. Which of the following steps is necessary to create a Set the data type of Enti-
1-to-1 relationship between Entity A and Entity B? ty B's identifier attribute to
A) Set the data type of Entity B's identifier attribute to Entity A's Identifier
Entity A's Identifier.
B) Add a new Entity C, with two reference attributes of - Entity A will be an exten-
type Entity Identifier A and Entity Identifier B. sion of entity A, so they will
C) Add a new reference attribute of type Entity Identi- share the same identifier.
fier B to Entity A.
D) Add a new Entity C, with the identifier attribute
being a composition of the Identifier types of Entity A
and Entity B.

34. Which of the following steps is necessary to create a 1 Entity B must have a refer-
to many relationship between a Master Entity A and a ence attribute of type En-
Detailed Entity B? tity identifier A
A) Set the data type of the identifier attribute of Entity
B to Identifier of Entity A. - The detailed entity must
B) Add a new Entity C, with two reference attributes of refer to the master entity
type Entity Identifier A and Entity Identifier B.
C) Entity A must have a reference attribute of type
Entity Identifier B.
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D) Entity B must have a reference attribute of type

Entity identifier A.

35. Which of the following steps is necessary to create And a new entity C, with
a many-to-many relationship between Entity A and Two reference attributes
Entity B? of type Entity Identifier A
A) Set the data type of the identifier attribute of Entity and Entity Identifier B
B to Identifier of Entity A.
B) Add a new reference attribute of type Entity Identi- - Entity C will be the join-
fier B to Entity A. ing entity that helps sup-
C) Add a new Entity C, with two reference attributes of port the Many-to-Many
type Entity Identifier A and Entity Identifier B. relationship
D) Add a new reference attribute of type Identifier
from Entity B to Entity A and a new reference attribute
of type Identifier from Entity A to Entity B.

36. Regarding the indexes, which of the following options Unique indexes help to
is correct? avoid duplication of data
A) Custom indexes cannot be added to an entity.
B) The indices speed up data recovery without any - When a unique index is
impact. defined on a set of at-
C) Unique indexes help to avoid duplication of data. tributes, the data stored
D) Indexes on referenced attributes cannot be delet- in those attributes will be
ed. unique

37. Regarding the Delete Rule property, which of the fol- Ignore
lowing options does not guarantee referential integri-
ty? - This option does not en-
A) Protect sure referential integrity
B) Delete and should be used with
C) Ignore caution.

38.
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Which of the following behaviours does not apply to A form has a source prop-
forms? erty that will contain the
A) A form groups input widgets and allows data to be values sent by the user
viewed and edited.
B) A Form has a Source property that will contain the - It's the inputs inside a
values sent by the user. form that have a variable
C) In addition to the input widgets, a Form can contain property that will have the
other widgets, such as Links and Buttons. value in each input.
D) A form is useful for validating the data sent by the
user.

39. Considering Dropdown and Button Group, which of Each button group item
the following options is false? within a button group has
A) A Button Group needs a Button Group item to rep- a variable property to save
resent each option that the user will have available to the option chosen by the
choose from. user
B) The Dropdown List property defines the data that
will appear as options for the user on a Screen. - The button group has a
C) Each button group item within a button group has variable where the value
a Variable property to save the option chosen by the of the chosen item will be
user. save.
D) The Dropdown Variable property will keep the val-
ue selected by the user. This value is defined in the
Options Value property.

40. The checkbox or switch widgets are linked to a vari- Boolean

able of what type?
A) Text
B) Integer
C) Boolean
D) Date

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41. Considering Inputs and Labels, which of the following Labels associated with
options is the correct option mandatory fields will dis-
A) Each Input must have an associated Label. play a visual cue on the
B) An Input widget can only be used for the Text data screen.
type.
C) To access the value sent in an Input widget, we can
simply use InputName.Value.
D) Labels associated with mandatory fields will display
a visual cue on the screen.

42. What is the behaviour of the Screen when a widget is Displays the regular wid-
not valid (valid property set to false)? get, applies a specific style
A) The Screen displays the grayed-out widget and dis- (for example, red border)
plays the input validation error message. and displays the validation
B) The widget does not appear on the screen and the error message.
validation message appears instead.
C) Displays the regular widget and displays the valida- - Shows which entries are
tion error message when we hover. not valid and why.
D) Displays the regular widget, applies a specific style
(for example, red border) and displays the validation
error message.

43. Which of the following is not a validation incorporated Maximum length of text
into OutSystems? fields
A) Required fields
B) Maximum length of text fields
C) Input field data types

44. Which of the following options is correct in relation to The Valid property of the
the valid property form? form must be verified after
A) The Valid property of the Form must be verified the last custom validation
after the last custom validation.

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B) The Valid property of the Form is automatically - Avoids storing invalid

changed to False when all input fields on the Form are data in the database
not valid.
C) The Valid property of the Form must be explicitly set
to False (for example, with an Assign) when an input
field is not valid.
D) When integrated validations are enabled, the Valid
property of the Form is automatically checked before
executing the client's action logic.

45. Considering the users and functions in OutSystems, By default, end users are
Which of the following options is the correct? managed in the internal
A) By default, end users are managed in the internal user's application.
Users application.
B) End users can only be created programmatically, - The Users app can
using Actions from the Users application. be accessed through the
C) There are three functions built into OutSystems: browser, where users can
Anonymous, AppUser and Registered. be created and managed.
D) All users, with or without login, automatically have
the registered role.

46. In OutSystems. How do we restrict access to a Screen? In the Screen Properties,

A) Access the Users application and associate the deselect the functions to
Screen with a specific function. restrict your access.
B) In Screen Properties, deselect the functions to re-
strict your access. - There is a checkbox for
C) Use the CheckRole action. each role in the applica-
D) We don't. Only users with a username and pass- tion
word can access it.

47. Considering the integrated function actions, which of The CreateUserWithRole

the following options is false? action creates an end user

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A) The CheckRole action checks whether a user has and assigns the role to
that specific role. him
B) The GrantRole action allows you to programmati-
cally grant a role to a user. - This action does not ex-
C) The RevokeRole action allows you to remove a role ist! It is a two-step opera-
from a user programmatically. tion: creating the user and
D) The CreateUserWithRole action creates an end user then assigning them the
and assigns the role to him. role.

48. In OutSystems where can we place breakpoints? Only in actions (Client and
A) Only in actions (client side and server side) Server side)
B) Server-side logic only.
C) Client-side logic only. - Breakpoints can ONLY
D) In Actions and Variables be placed in actions flows,
whether they are client or
server-side

49. In OutSystems, it is possible to inspect the values of True

the variables during debugging
A) True - It is possible to inspect
B) False the values of the vari-
ables during debugging,
depending on the scope.

50. Which of the following commands is not available in Restart Debugging

the OutSystems debugger?
A) Stop Debugging - You cannot restart your
B) Continue Request debugging while your in-
C) Step Over stance is running. You can,
D) Restart Debugging however, stop it and then
re-run it.

51.

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When debugging a consumer module, how do we At the producer, set the

ensure that the execution stops at the breakpoints Input Module property to
defined in the producer module? the consumer module.
A) We just need to set breakpoints in the producer
module. Execution will stop at its breakpoints auto- - After this step, we can in-
matically. spect the logic of any ac-
B) We also need to start the debugger on the producer tion
module.
C) Nothing, just leave Service Studio open.
D) At the producer, set the Input Module property to
the consumer module.

52. Consider an aggregate with a "with or without" junc- All records from the left
tion between two entities. What is the expected out- entity, even if there is no
put of the aggregate? match on the right entity
A) All records from both entities (FULL OUTER JOIN). (Left join)
B) "Only records in which there is correspondence
between the two entities (INNER JOIN)." - The order of the entities
C) All records from the left entity, even if there is no in the join matters
match on the right entity (LEFT JOIN).
D) All records from the right entity, even if there is no
match on the left entity (RIGHT JOIN).

53. Considering that aggregates may have hidden Hiding columns in the ag-
columns, which of the following options is correct? gregate affects only the
A) Hiding columns in the aggregate affects only the view of the output
view of the output.
B) Empty columns in the database are automatically - Hidden columns will still
hidden. be available at the exit
C) Hidden columns help to optimize the aggregate.
D) Hidden columns are not part of the output.

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54. Which of the following elements cannot be used to Server actions using entity
create calculated attributes in an aggregate? attributes
A) Value of the attributes of the Source Entities.
B) Built-in functions that can be translated into SQL
(for example, Length (), Power ()).
C) Variables
D) Server actions using entity attributes.

55. Consider that we want to apply aggregate functions The aggregate output will
to an aggregate. Which of the following is false? contain all the attributes
A) We can apply several aggregation functions within of the source entities plus
an aggregate. the aggregation columns.
B) The aggregate output will contain all the attributes
of the source entities plus the aggregation columns. - Only aggregation
C) We can apply the following functions to attributes columns are returned
of the integer data type: sum, max, min, count and
average.
D) The aggregate output will not include columns in
grey.

56. In OutSystems, a block is a reusable UI component. A block can only be reused

Which of the following is NOT correct? once
A) A Block promotes reuse, that is, develop once, reuse
several times.
B) A block encapsulates its own logic.
C) A Block improves maintenance, that is, changes the
design or functionality, affects all uses.
D) A block can only be reused once.

57. A block can be used in.... Screens and internal

A) Only within other screens. blocks, except for itself
B) Screens and internal blocks, including himself.

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C) Screens and internal blocks, except for itself.

D) Only within other blocks.

58. Regarding Placeholders, which of the following op- A placeholder reserves

tions is correct? space on the interface
A) A Placeholder reserves space on the interface to be to be allocated when the
allocated when the block is instantiated. block is instantiated
B) When a block with Placeholders is instantiated, it is
mandatory to place at least one widget inside Place- - The content within a
holders. placeholder can be differ-
C) Placeholders can be added to screens and blocks. ent for each instance
D) Only one Placeholder can be added per block.

59. Regarding block events, which of the following is Events can be defined at
False? the block or screen level
A) Events can be defined at the block or screen level.
B) The events allow you to pass information from the - Events allow communi-
scope of the Block to the parent scope. cation with the parent ele-
C) Events are triggered by a block and handled by your ment. The screens do not
father. have a parent.
D) Two instances of a Block can use the same handler
for the same event.

60. In which of the following situations is it necessary to When the event is defined
define a handler for a block event? as mandatory
A) When the event has input parameters.
B) When the block has Placeholders.
C) When the event's input parameters are all manda-
tory.
D) When the event is defined as mandatory.

61. In which of the following situations is the On Parame- When the block's parent
ters Changed Event triggered? changes the value of at
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A) If the value of a block input parameter changes least one of the block's in-
within an action of the block's client. put parameters
B) On Changed parameters must be explicitly trig-
gered by the block's parent.
C) When the block's parent changes the value of at
least one of the block's input parameters.

62. Which of the following events is not available on After Fetch

Screens or Blocks?
A) Initialize - This event is only avail-
B) Ready able in Screen Aggregates
C) After Fetch and Data Actions, it acts
D) Render on the data obtained from
the database or server

63. Considering the Initialize event of a Screen, which of Set the default value for a
the following options would be the best use case for local variable
that event?
A) Recover data from the server database.
B) Act based on the data returned by a data action.
C) Manipulate the DOM.
D) Set the default value for a local variable.

64. Which of the following is the correct order of occur- Initialize, Ready, Render,
rence of events on a Screen? Destroy
A) Initialize, Ready, Render, Destroy.
B) Initialize, Destroy, Ready, Render.
C) Ready, Initialize, Render, Destroy.
D) Initialize, Render, Ready, Destroy.

65. Which of the following options is correct in relation to Client Variables are useful
Client Variables? for caching frequently ac-
A) The value of a Client Variable is shared among all cessed information
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connected users.
B) Binary lists or data can also be stored in Client - By caching the val-
Variables. ues that are accessed
C) Client Variables should be used to store confidential frequently in the client
information. variables, it is possible
D) Client Variables are useful for caching frequently to avoid requests to the
accessed information. database or server.

66. Which of the following would be a good use case for Username
a Client Variable?
A) Credit Card Number. - Since the name of the
B) Profile picture. logged-in user is often
C) User Identifier. shown, this is a good can-
D) Username. didate for a client variable.

67. The value of a site property can be modified in the Ser- True
vice Center to change the behaviour of the application
at runtime. - The default value can
A) True be set at design time and
B) False modified in the Service
Center to be applied to the
environment

68. Which of the following is a good use case for a site REST Web service API key
property?
A) Current user ID.
B) Total quantity of products in stock.
C) REST Web service API key.
D) Search keyword.

69. Which of the following options is correct, when imple- Pagination's Max records
menting pagination with tables or lists? property contains the
A) The Initial Pagination Index property contains the
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current page number. number of records to be

b) Pagination's Max Records property contains the shown per page
number of records to be shown per page.
C) The Total Count entry for the Pagination standard
should be set to the number of records per page.

70. Regarding the classification in a Table, which of the The On Sort event has an
following options is correct? input parameter contain-
A) All header cells must have the Sort Attribute prop- ing the clicked column
erty set.
B) Only the sort attribute of the header cells needs to - And that entry is associ-
be set. The data is updated automatically. ated with the column that
C) The On Sort event has an input parameter contain- end user selected to sort
ing the clicked column.

71. Regarding the classifications of Lists, which of the fol- Other widgets should be
lowing options is correct? used to allow the end user
A) The lists have an integrated On Sort event. to define the classification
B) Classification clauses cannot be changed dynami- criteria
cally at run time when using Lists.
C) Other widgets should be used to allow the end user - These widgets would
to define the classification criteria. trigger an update of the
data with the new classifi-
cation criteria

72. Which of the following is the correct syntax for entities {Entity}.[Attribute]
and attributes
A) {Entity}. [Attribute]
B) (Entity). {Attribute}
C) [Entity]. {Attribute}
D) Entity.Attribute

73.
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Considering the aggregates and the SQL tool, which The SQL tool allows you to
of the following is the correct option? write queries that contain
A) All queries that can be written in an SQL tool can be subqueries.
defined in an aggregate.
B) The junctions between entities can only be defined
in aggregates.
C) The SQL tool allows you to write queries that con-
tain subqueries.
D) Grouping of attributes can only be done with the
SQL tool.

74. A developer should favour the use of a Structure in- Yes, because queries will
stead of the Entity when outputting an SQL SELECT retrieve fewer attributes
Query. Do you agree with this statement? and fewer data
A) Yes, because consultations are easier to maintain.
B) Yes, because queries will retrieve less attributes and - By selecting just and ex-
less data. actly the necessary attrib-
C) No, because it is exactly the same. utes, you will ensure the
D) No, it is preferable to use the Entity instead of the query output is optimized.
Structure.

75. Regarding non-SELECT queries, which of the following It is mandatory to de-

options is the correct one? fine the Entity or Outgoing
A) It is not possible to execute DELETE queries with the Structure
SQL tool.
B) It is not possible to use Query Parameters in
non-SELECT queries.
C) It is mandatory to specify all attributes in an INSERT
query.
D) It is mandatory to define the Entity or Outgoing
Structure.

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76. What is required to create a many-to-many relation- Create a third Entity that
ship between two Entities? contains two attributes of
types Order ID and Prod-
uct ID

77. Which of the following statements is true? An Entity Identifier can

only be a single attribute

78. The image below shows an aggregate. What will the The two aggregation
attributes of the GetOrdersShippingState.List.Current attributes: ShippingState
record be? and Count

79. In the Aggregate below the Orders are fetched with The aggregate returns Or-
their reviewers (Employees). Which of the following ders with Priority and with
options is correct? zero or more Employees

80. How would you change the following Aggregate to Create a group By over the
return the number of orders per priority Priority.Id attribute and a
Count over the Order.Id
attribute

81. Which of the following sentences about the On Initial- The On Initialize event
ize lifecycle event is true? is triggered before the
Screen or Block is ren-
dered and before fetching
any data.

82. The screen below has two Dropdowns: one to select Call the GetCities Aggre-
a Country and the other to select a City. The Get- gate in the GetCountries'
Countries and GetCities Aggregates fetch the data On After Fetch Event han-
displayed in the dropdowns and both have the Fetch dler
property set to At Start. Which of the following options

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is not a valid step to only fetch the cities of the country

selected in the dropdown?

83. Regarding Blocks in OutSystems reactive apps, which Blocks can be instantiat-
of the following options is correct? ed on Screens and other
Blocks.

84. Which of the following options is a valid usage of the The Trigger Event allows
Trigger Event node? a Block to notify its par-
ent (Screen or Block) that
something relevant oc-
curred in the scope of the
Block

85. A form has a Save button with the Built-in Validations Check if the mandatory
property set to Yes. Which validations are automati- fields are filled in and
cally performed when a user clicks the button? if the data submitted by
the user matches the data
type expected in the input
fields

86. The CountriesDropDown will allow users to select a Country.Label

country. What should be set in the Options Text prop-
erty to make sure that the names of the countries
appear in the dropdown

87. Considering a Button in a Screen, Which of the follow- Block

ing options cannot be set as its On Click property?

88. The Absolute Action returns an absolute value(abs) of When the input parameter
a number N passed as Input Parameter. When does (N) is Zero
the Action return 0?
A. Never.
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B. When the input parameter (N) is less than zero.

C. When the input parameter (N) is zero.
D. When the input parameter (N) is greater than zero.

89. Consider the following Action. What happens if the The RecordNotfound flow
GetEmployeeById Aggregate does not return any is executed
record?
A. The DatabaseException flow is executed.
B. The RecordNotFound flow is executed.
C. No exception flow is executed.
D. The module's global exception handler is executed.

90. Considering the Function property in Client Actions, Setting the Function prop-
which of the following options is correct? erty to Yes restricts the Ac-
A. Setting the Function property to Yes restricts the tion to have only one Out-
Action to have only one Output Parameter. put Parameter
B. Setting the Function property to No ensures the
Action can only be used in the module where it is
defined.
C. Setting the Function property to Yes is not possible,
if the Action is exposed to other modules as Public.
D. Setting the Function property to No ensures the
Action can only be used in Screen Expressions.

91. Michael is a user of the Orders application and only Michael has access to
has the OrdersAdmin Role assigned to him. Which of Screens with the Regis-
the following options is correct? tered Role checked
A. Michael has access to Screens with the Registered
Role checked.
B. Michael does not have access to Screens with the
Anonymous Role checked.
C. Michael has access to Screens that have the Or-

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dersAdmin Role checked, but not to Screens with the

Registered Role checked.
D. Michael has only access to Screens that have the
OrdersAdmin Role checked.

92. Which of the following options should not be a use Password (Confidential
case of Client Variables? data)
A. Username.
B. Password.
C. Search filter keyword.
D. ID of a user session.

93. The Action in the image calculates the Square root The debugger will stop at
(sqrt) of a positive decimal number (N). Knowing that the breakpoint in the End
the function was called with N = 0, and that the de- node
bugger is stopped at the Start node, what will happen
when the developer selects the Continue (F9) option
highlighted in the picture?
A. The Action will end, with sqrt = 0.
B. The Action will throw an exception and sqrt will have
no value.
C. The debugger will stop in the N < 0 If node.
D. The debugger will stop at the breakpoint in the End
node

94. The image shows a Pagination widget that is associ- The GetMovies Aggregate
ated with a Table on a Screen that was already im- is not being refreshed in
plemented. There are no error messages in Service the OnNavigate Action.
Studio, but when the user selects a new page (in the
Pagination widget) the results do not change on the
Table. What is the reason for that behaviour?
A. The GetMovies Aggregate is not being refreshed in

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the OnNavigate Action.

B. The Max. Records of the Aggregate should be equal
to the total number of movies in the database.
C. The Table is not being refreshed on the OnNavigate
Action.
D. The Max Records property of the Pagination should
be set to GetMovies.Count and the TotalCountto
RecordsPerPage.

95. A screen contains a Form to collect Customer data. Set the Built-in validation
The Form has a Save Button with the On Click property of the Save button to Yes
set to a SaveOnClick Action, which sends the data to and check if the Form's
the Server to store it in the database. The developer Valid property is True
must ensure that the Action will not send the data to
the server when the mandatory Customer data fields
have not been filled in. What is the best way to do
that?
A. Just set the Built-in validations of the Save button to
Yes.
B. Perform custom validations for all inputs. If one
fails, set the Valid property of the Form to False.
C. Set the Built-in validations of the Save button to Yes
and check if the Form's Valid property is True.
D. Set the Built-in validations of the Save button to Yes
and add an Exception Handler flow to handle invalid
inputs.

96. When using a link to navigate to another screen, an After the first onrender of
event sequence are fired until the destination screen the destination screen
is displayed for the user. From which event the transi-
tion from a screen to another starts?

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97. Which of the options CAN'T be used to terminate a JavaScript

flow in a client action defined on the screen?

98. The usage of ........... allows part of the interface to be BLOCKS

reused, and any change in it reflects everywhere it is
used.

99. Customer wants to categorize their products into Creating a new stat-
three different types: Toys, Utilities and Tools. Which ic entity called Product-
is the most appropriate way to do this? Type with the respec-
tive records and create
the ProductType Identifi-
er field name Product.Pro-
ductType

100. About Blocks, select the CORRECT alternative You can define custom
events

101. What is the data type of ProductImage.Id Product Identifier

102. At which point is the OnReady event triggered? When the DOM is fully
loaded

103. About Site Properties, select the CORRECT alternative. You can change it directly
in the Service Center

104. About Client Actions defined on a screen, it is COR- You can use it within an-
RECT to say that: other client Action defined
on the same screen

105. A "car" entity refers to the "brand" entity through the A database exception will
BrandId column. Considering that this column has the be raised and no car will
property DeleteRule=Protect, what will happen if we be deleted

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try to delete a brand that is being used by the "car"

entity?

106. About blocks, select the Incorrect alternative It can only be used on
screens

107. Which of the events can't be triggered by a screen OnParametersChanged

108. About Server Actions, it is incorrect to say that: You can use it in the
OnClick attribute of a link

109. About Block events, select the FALSE alternative You can shoot the event
within a Client Action de-
fined in the logic tab

110. What kind of information should never be stored in Passwords

Client variables?

111. At Service Centre, under the monitoring tab, which General

screen is used to access the logs generated by the
LogMessage Action.

112. At which point does the OnParametersChanged event When the value of some
is triggered on a block Input Parameter of a block
is changed in the Parent

113. Which Data type cannot be assigned to a Site Property Record

114. Consider a screen with an aggregate with the property Immediately after the
Fetch=AtStart. At what point does the request to this onInitialize event
Aggregate be Triggered?

115. About Client Actions defined in Logic Tab, it is INCOR- You can use it within a
RECT to say that: Server Action

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116. When browsing from a screen A to B, at which mo- After the transition from
ment the OnDestroy event of the screen A is trig- Screen A to B and before
gered? the DOM of the screen A is
destroyed

117. The best way to receive from the user a value restrict- Radio Button
ed to a small list is through a ....

118. Consider a screen that lists the result of an aggregate Onrender

with the fetch=At Start property. Which of the events
will be triggered more than once?

119. We need to make a search in the vehicles avail- Include a filter in the ag-
able in the database by the plate or model of the gregate with Vehicle.Plate
car. When searching, nothing on the screen changes. = Search or Vehicle.model
What should be done to correct this problem = Search

120. At which point is the OnRender event triggered? After the DOM is com-
pletely loaded and when-
ever some data on the
screen (variable, aggre-
gate, etc.) Changes

121. One of the following Tools allows you to manage the LifeTime
application's lifecycle across an infrastructure. Which
one?
A. Service Center
B. LifeTime
C. Service Studio
D. Integration Studio

122. During the 1-click Publish, your application data mod- True
el, code, and interface is compiled and generates. Net
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Code, HTML, Javascript and CSS

A) True
B) False

123. In which Service Studio layer can Screens and Blocks Interface
be found?
A) Processes
B) Interface
C) Logic
D) Data

124. In which Service Studio layer can entities be found? Data

A) Processes
B) Interface
C) Logic
D) Data

125. Regarding Reactive Web Apps in OutSystems, which B) Data requests are exe-
of the following options is false? cuted synchronously.
A. Reactive Web app is a cross-device app.
B. Data requests are executed synchronously.
C. The code generated by OutSystems results in a
single-page application.
D. A developer builds the Reactive Web App in Service
Studio.

126. Regarding Mobile Apps in OutSystems, which of the Mobile App do not have
following options is false? offline capabilities
A. Mobile Apps can run natively on iOS and Android.
B. Mobile Apps can be distributed as a PWA.
C. Mobile Apps do not have offline capabilities.
D. The programming model of Mobile Apps is similar
to Reactive Web Apps.
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127. What happens when a developer publishes a mod- The OutSystems platform
ule? compiles it and gener-
A. The OutSystems platform compiles it and generates ates the HTML, CSS, and
the HTML, CSS, and JavaScript. JavaScript.
B. The browser opens.
C Nothing.
D. The code is uploaded but only compiled when a
user accesses the application.

128. Which of the following options is false regarding mod- Elements can be exposed
ules and applications? and reused, but only with-
A. An application is composed of a set of modules. in the same application
B. Modules can be of different types such as Reactive
Web App, Blank or Extension.
C. Elements can be exposed and reused, but only with-
in the same application.
D. A module that reuses an element from another
module is called a Consumer.

129. Which of the following is not an entity action of the RetrieveCustomer

Customer Entity?
A. CreateCustomer.
B. RetrieveCustomer.
C. UpdateCustomer.
D. DeleteCustomer.

130. In OutSystems, how do we restrict access to a Screen? In the screen Properties,

A. Go to the Users application and associate the untick roles to restrict their
Screen to a specific role. access.
B. In the Screen Properties, untick roles to restrict their
access.
C. Use the CheckRole Action.
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D. We don't. Only users with a username and pass-

word can access.

131. Which of the following options is false regarding All Aggregates, by default,
Screen Aggregates? have the Fetch property
A. The Render Event on the Screen is triggered when set to On Demand
an Aggregate with the Fetch property set to "only on
demand" finishes its execution.
B. A Screen Aggregate can be triggered when a screen
is initializing or only On Demand.
C. All Aggregates, by default, have the Fetch property
set to On Demand.
D. The On After Fetch Event is triggered for every
Aggregate, regardless of its Fetch property.

132. Consider an Aggregate with the Fetch property set to Programmatically, using a
only on demand. When does that aggregate run? Refresh Data node in a
A. Automatically, when the Screen is initializing. Screen Action
B. Programmatically, using a Refresh Data node in a
Screen Action.
C. Automatically, when the Aggregates set to run "At
Start" finish.
D. Programmatically, using a Server Action.

133. Mobile App have access to local storage and can be True
developed to work offline, online, or in both scenarios
A. True
B. False
C. Either
D. Neither

134. In a ReactiveWeb App, Data is requested asynchro- True

nously, thus allowing a more fluid experience
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A. True
B. False
C. Either
D. Neither

135. LifeTime allows you to manage IT users and teams True

A. True
B. False
C. Either
D. Neither

136. Attributes of static entities can be mandatory or not. True

A value is only required to be set if the attribute is
mandatory
A. True
B. False

137. Screens have Output Parameters. False

A. True
B. False
C. It depends on the setup of the developer
D. Producer module only

138. The scope of Input Parameters and Local Variables is True

limited to the Screen where they are defined
A. True
B. False
C. Varies depending on the module setup
D. Varies when using function.

139. Screen actions can also call Server Actions True

A. True
B. False
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C. Either
D. Neither

140. Different Exceptions are handled by different specific True

Handlers
A. True
B. False
C. Either
D. Neither

141. The "Delete" Delete Rule property option does not False
ensure referential integrity in the relationship and
should be used with caution
A. True
B. False

142. Considering Users and Roles in OutSystems, which of By default, end-users are
the following options is correct? managed in the built-in
A. By default, end-users are managed in the built-in Users application
Users application.
B. End-users can only be created programmatically,
using Actions from the Users application.
C. There are three built-in roles in OutSystems: Anony-
mous, AppUser and Registered.
D. All users, with or without a login, have automatically
the Registered Role.

143. Considering that Aggregates can have hidden Hiding columns in the Ag-
columns, which of the following options is correct gregate only affects the
A. Hiding columns in the Aggregate only affects the preview of the output.
preview of the output.
B. Columns that are empty in the database are auto-
matically hidden.
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C. The hidden columns help optimizing the Aggre-

gate.
D. The hidden columns are not part of the output.

144. Consider that we want to apply aggregation functions The output of the Aggre-
in an aggregate. Which of the following options is gate will contain al attrib-
false? utes from the Source En-
A. We can apply multiple aggregation functions inside tities plus the aggregation
an Aggregate. columns
B. The output of the Aggregate will contain all attrib-
utes from the Source Entities plus the aggregation
columns.
C. We can apply the following functions on attributes
of integer data type: sum, max, min, count and aver-
age.
D. The output of the Aggregate will not include the
columns at grey.

145. The order of the Entities in the join does not matter False
A. True
B. False

146. It is possible to translate all server actions into SQL False

A. True
B. False

147. When using aggregation functions, the output of the True

Aggregate will not include the columns at grey
A. True
B. False

148. The content inside a placeholder may be different for True

each instance
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A. True
B. False

149. Recursion is allowed when using blocks False

A. True
B. False

150. Events only allow to communicate with the parent True

element
A. True
B. False

151. When the event is mandatory, a Block event such True

as the Client Action must be specified to handle the
event. Although it may be empty.
A. True
B. False

152. On Parameters Change allows a Block to receive the True

input change from the parent screen
A. True
B. False

153. Event Handler can be defined at the Screen level False

A. True
B. False

154. On Parameters Changed is from Parent to Block while True

Event Handler is from to Block to Parent
A. True
B. False

155. After Fetch

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Which event is only available in Screen Aggregates

and data actions and acts upon data fetched from the
database or server?
A. Ready
B. Render
C. Destroy
D. After Fetch

156. Which event is used to set focus on one particular Ready

widget?
A. Ready
B. Render
C. Destroy
D. After Fetch

157. Which Event is best used for adding JavaScript listen- Ready
ers to elements that are part of the DOM?
A. Ready
B. Render
C. Destroy
D. After Fetch

158. Which event is best used to react changes in data? Render

A. Ready
B. Render
C. Destroy
D. After Fetch

159. Considering the OnInitialize lifecycle event, which of The On Initialize event
the following options is true? is triggered before the
A. The On Initialize event is triggered before the Screen or Block is ren-
Screen or Block is rendered and before fetching any dered and before fetching
data. any data
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B. The On Initialize event is triggered after the Screen

or Block has been rendered, so you can use it to ma-
nipulate its structure.
C. The On Initialize event is triggered after an Aggre-
gate finishes fetching data and can be used to act
upon the retrieved data before it's used in the Screen.
D. The On Initialize event is triggered after the input
parameter of a Block changes

160. Which event is needed for very specific use cases such Destroy
as removing Javascript listeners or to clean the DOM
that was previously changed in the ready event.
A. Ready
B. Render
C. Destroy
D. After Fetch

161. Considering a Button in a Screen, which of the follow- Block

ing options cannot be set as its On Click Destination?
A. Screen.
B. Client Action.
C. Block.
D. External Site.

162. Which event is useful when aggregates depend on After fetch

each other?
A. Ready
B. Render
C. Destroy
D. After Fetch

163. Which event handler of the first aggregate can be On After Fetch
used to refresh the query of the second aggregate?
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A. On Ready
B. On After Fetch
C. On Destroy
D. After Fetch

164. In Outsystems, an Entity Identifier .... Can only be a single at-

A. ... must have its Data Type set to Long Integer. tribute
B. ... must be set to Auto Number.
C. ... can only be a single attribute.
D. ... is created automatically and cannot be modified.

165. Which event is needed if we do some logic over the After Fetch
result such as checking if it is empty
A. Ready
B. Render
C. Destroy
D. After Fetch

166. Regarding Blocks in OutSystems reactive apps, which Blocks can instantiated
of the following options is correct? on Client Actions on the
A. Blocks can only be instantiated on Screens. Screen.
B. Blocks can be instantiated on Screens and other
Blocks.
C. Blocks can be instantiated on Client Actions on the
Screen.
D. Blocks can be instantiated on Screens and external
HTML pages, using a special HTML tag.

167. The Id attribute in the Resource Entity has the Delete C)

Rule property set to Ignore. Which of the following
statements is true?

A. Deleting a record from the ToDo Entity will leave the

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corresponding record in the Resource Entity.

B. Deleting a record from the ToDo
C. Deleting a record from the Resource Entity is only
possible after deleting the corresponding record from
the ToDo Entity.
D. Deleting a record from the ToDo Entity is not pos-
sible if there is a Resource with the same Id in the
Database.

168. Calculated Attributes in Aggregates D)

A) allow you to use your own functions, over existing
attribute values
B) need to be defined using SQL syntax
C) are calculated in memory by OutSystems, before
setting up the final SQL
D) allow you to add new attributes based on the values
of existing attributes.

169. When the delete entity action is invoked.... B)

A) The record is passed to this action
B) The ID of the record is passed to this action
C) The attributes to be deleted are passed to this ac-
tion

170. Regarding Server actions, please select the one that is D)

true:
A) Server actions can't have more than one termina-
tion node
B) Server actions can only have one termination node
C) Server actions can have more than one termination
node as long as one of them is a termination node of

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Destination Type
D) Server actions can't have nodes of type Destination

171. Consider the data model below containing User, asset D)

and category Entities. What do you need to do to have
Assets assigned to one specific Category?
A) Create a new attribute AssestId in the Category
Entity, with Data Type set to Asset Identifier
B) Create a new attribute CategoryId in the Asset En-
tity, with Data type set to long Integer
C) Create a new attribute AssetId in the Category En-
tity, with Data type set to Long Integer
D) Create a new Attribute CategoryId in the Asset En-
tity, with data Type set to Category Identifier

172. This Data Model: D)

A) Contains an unnecessary one-to-one relationship
B) Contains an attribute in the Order entity that
shouldn't be there
C) Contains an unnecessary many-to-many relation-
ship
D) Contains an attribute in the Status entity that
shouldn't be there

173. The For Each statement iterates a List by: A)

A) ... changing the List's Current property
B) ... changing the For Each's record property
C) ... changing the For Each's current property
D) ... None of the above

174. The Client Action ChangeStatus shown in the screen- B)

shot....
A) ... can be called from another module
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B) ... can be called from a Server Action

C) ... can be used in an Expression in a Screen
D) ... can be called in a Screen Action and by Client
Action

175. Regarding Site Properties, which of the following is D)

true?
A) Site properties can't be changed outside Service
Studio
B) Site properties can't be accessed in Screen Action
C) Site properties can't be of data type Record
D) Site properties can't be set programmatically

176. Consider that a block is changed. Which of the follow- D)

ing is true?
A) It is not possible to change a referenced block
B) Only new instances will be affected, old ones will
remain the same
C) We need to refresh old instances in order to update
them
D) All instances are affected

177. In OutSystems, an Entity identifier ... A)

A) ... is created by default with Long Integer data and
set as Auto Number
B) ... must have Long Integer data type and must be
set as Auto Number
C) ... must have Long Integer data type, but it doesn't
need to be set as Auto Number
D) ... is created by default with Long Integer data type
and the default value is 1

178. B)
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How would you change the following Aggregate to

return the number of orders per priority?
A) Create a GroupBy over the Order.Id attribute and a
Count over the Priorty.Id attribute
B) Create a Group By over the Priority.Id attribute and
a Count over the Order.Id attribute
C) Change the Join between the Order and the Priority
to Only With and create a Count over the Priority.Id
attribute
D) Remove the Join between the Order and the Order-
Status and create a Count over the Priority.Id attribute

179. Select what is true, considering Events: D)

A) Events can have several input and output parame-
ters
B) Events can only have 1 input parameter
C) Events can only have 1 output parameter
D) Events can only have input parameters

180. The CreateOrUpdate <Entity> Entity Action ... B)

A) ... returns a List containing the Ids of the created or
updated records
B) ... will update an existing Record if its Id Input Para-
meter is not null
C) ... will fail with an exception when used with a Data-
base Entity
D) ... receives a List of Entity records

181. Considering the following Aggregate, where the Or- A)

ders are fetched with their reviewers (Employees),
which of the following options is correct?
A) The Aggregate returns Orders with Priority and

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with zero or more Employees

B) The Aggregate returns Orders with Status and at
least one Employee
C) The Aggregate returns Orders without Employee
and without Status
D) The Aggregate only returns Orders with Priority,
Status and Employee

182. Consider the Action called Absolute which returns an A)

absolute value (abs) of a number N passed as Input
Parameter. When does the Action return 0 ?
A) When the input parameter (N) is zero
B) When the input parameter (N) is less than zero
C) When the input parameter (N) is greater than zero
D) Never

183. David bought a bunch of products with a 10% dis- C)

count. What would be the best way of calculating the
price with the discount?
A) Create a calculated attribute ProductWithDis-
count with the expression: OrderItem.TotalPrice - (Or-
derItem.TotalPrice * 0.1)
B) This is not possible to do with an Aggregate. Use an
SQL instead
C) Create a calculated attribute ProductWithDiscount
with the expression: Product.Price - (Product.Price *
0.1)
D) Use a For Each to cycle through each order item and
calculate the price with the discount

184. The following Screen has two Dropdowns, one to se- A)

lect a Country and one to select a City. The GetCoun-

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tries and GetCities Aggregates provide the countries

and the cities to be displayed in the respective drop-
downs and are both set to be fetched At Start. Which
of the following options is not a valid step if we want
to just fetch the cities for the country selected in the
respective dropdown?
A) Set the Fetch property of the GetCities Aggregate to
Only On Demand
B) Call the GetCities Aggregate in the GetCountries'
On After Fetch Event handler
C) Refresh the GetCities Aggregate in the OnChange
Action of the Country Dropdown
D) Filter the GetCities Aggregate by the selected coun-
try

185. Consider the following Block, where the OnClickAction D)

Action is set as the OnClick Event handler for a Button
inside MyBlock. Taking into account this scenario, se-
lect the correct option.
A) If no Event handler is defined for MyEvent, the
trigger Event statement will throw an error at runtime
B) The Event handler for MyEvent must be defined
when instantiating MyBlock
C) The Event handler for MyEvent must be defined in
MyBlock properties
D) The Event handler for MyEvent does not need to
be defined, as the OnClick Event handler will handle
MyEvent as well

186. When I want to sort the results in an Aggregate ... C)

A) ... I need to add an input parameter to the Aggre-
gate
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B) ... I can do it by selecting the attribute by which

I want to sort as long as no filter exists for that at-
tribute
C) ... I can do it simply by right-clicking that attribute
and choosing between ascending or descending or-
der
D) ... I need to write a Dynamic Sort expression

187. Business concepts that need to be stored and ac- A)

cessed in our applications should be modelled as...
A) Entities
B) Entity diagrams
C) Entity relationships
D) Database tables

188. Consider the following Action, which calculates the D)

square root (sqrt) of a positive decimal number (N).
Knowing that the function was called with N = 0, and
the debugger is stopped at the Start node, what will
happen when the developer selects the Continue (F9)
option highlighted in the picture?
A) The Action will end, with sqrt = 0
B) The debugger will stop in the N < 0 If node
C) The Action will throw an exception and sqrt will have
no value
D) The debugger will stop at the breakpoint in the End
node

189. A developer should favour using a Structure instead A)

of the Entity in the output of a SELECT SQL Query. Do
you agree with this statement?
A) Yes, because queries become easier to maintain

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B) Yes, because queries will retrieve fewer Attributes

and less data
C) No, since it is exactly the same
D) No, it is preferable to use the Entity instead of the
Structure

190. Considering the following Aggregate, what will be the C)

attributes of the GetOrdersShippingState.List.Current
record?
A) The two aggregation attributes (ShippingState and
Count) plus all the attributes of the Source Entity
B) Six attributes corresponding to the six visible
columns in the Aggregate: ShippingState, Count, De-
scription, DueDate, CreatedOn and Priority
C) The two aggregation attributes: ShippingState and
Count
D) The two aggregation attributes (ShippingState and
Count) plus the columns used to calculate these ag-
gregations

191. Considering the following Entities, what is required to A)

create a many-to-many relationship between them?
A) Create a third Entity that contains two attributes of
types Order Identifier and Product Identifier
B) Create an attribute of type Product Identifier in the
Order Entity
C) Create an attribute of type Order Identifier in the
Product Entity and an attribute of type Product Iden-
tifier in the Order Entity
D) Create a third Entity with a primary key of type
Order Identifier and an attribute of type Product Iden-
tifier
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192. Consider the following Pagination that is associated A)

with an already implemented Table on a Screen. There
are no errors in Service Studio, but when the user se-
lects a new page (in the pagination widget) the results
do not change on the Table. What is the reason for that
behaviour?
A) The GetMovies Aggregate is not being refreshed in
the OnNavigate Action
B) The Max Records property of the Pagination should
be set to GetMovies.Count and the TotalCount to
RecordsPerPage
C) The Table is not being refreshed on the OnNavigate
Action
D) The Max. Records of the Aggregate should be equal
to the total number of movies in the database

193. Regarding Blocks in OutSystems reactive apps, which C)

of the following options is correct?
A) Blocks can only be instantiated on Screens
B) Blocks can be instantiated on Client Actions on the
Screen
C) Blocks can be instantiated on Screens and other
Blocks
D) Blocks can be instantiated on Screens and external
HTML pages, using a special HTML tag

194. Regarding non-SELECT queries, which of the following D)

options is correct?
A) It is not possible to execute DELETE queries with the
SQL Tool
B) It is not possible to use Query Parameters in
Non-SELECT queries
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C) It is mandatory to specify all Attributes in an INSERT

query
D) It is mandatory to set the Output Entity or Structure

195. Consider a Form with a Save button with the Built-in A)

Validations property set to Yes. When a user clicks
on the Save button, which validations are performed
automatically?
A) If the mandatory fields are filled in and if the data
submitted by the user matches the data type expected
in the input fields
B) If the mandatory fields and the non-mandatory
fields used in the logic are filled in
C) Only if the mandatory fields are filled in
D) If the mandatory fields are filled in and if the data
submitted by the user matches the data type of the
source of the Form

196. If we want to change the default "Menu" block, what B)

should you do?
A) Insert CSS to customize the block in the module
Style Sheet
B) Insert CSS to customize the block in the block Style
Sheet
C) Go to every screen that uses the block in order to
change it
D) Insert the CSS on the OutSystems UI Style Sheet,
because it is the base Style Sheet

197. Considering the On Initialize lifecycle event, which of D)

the following options is true?
A) The On Initialize event is triggered after the input

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parameter of a Block changes

B) The On Initialize event is triggered after an Aggre-
gate finishes fetching data and can be used to act
upon the retrieved data before it's used in the Screen
C) The On Initialize event is triggered after the Screen
or Block has been rendered, so you can use it to ma-
nipulate its structure
D) The On Initialize event is triggered before the
Screen or Block is rendered and before fetching any
data

198. Considering a Button in a Screen, which of the follow- A)

ing options cannot be set as its On Click Destination?
A) Block
B) Screen
C) Client Action
D) External Site

199. In OutSystems, an Entity Identifier ... D)

A) ... must be set to Auto Number
B) ... is created automatically and cannot be modified
C) ... must have its Data Type set to Long Integer
D) ... can only be a single attribute

200. Consider a Screen that contains a Form to collect Cus- B)

tomer data. The Form has a Save Button with the On
ClickDestination set to a SaveOnClick Action, which
sends the data to the server to store it in the database.
What is the best way to make sure that we do not send
the data to the server when the mandatory Customer
data fields have not been filled in?
A) Set the Built-in validations of the Save button to Yes

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and add an Exception Handler flow to handle invalid

inputs
B) Set the Built-in validations of the Save button to Yes
and check if the Form's Valid property is True
C) Just set the Built-in validations of the Save button to
Yes
D) Perform custom validations for all inputs. If one
fails, set the Valid property of the Form to False

201. In OutSystems, the For Each statement ... D)

A) ... cannot iterate over the List result of an Aggre-
gate
B) ... allows defining an Integer with value n and re-
peat the same Cycle path flow n times, If the Start
Index is defined
C) ... requires a Condition to stop the loop
D) ... allows iterating through all the elements in a List

202. Which of the following mappings between OutSys- C)

tems and the Database is NOT correct?
A) Entities - Tables
B) Attributes - Column
C) Reference attribute - Primary Key
D) Index - Index

203. In a 1-1 relationship, the extension entity Identifier A)

A) Must be assigned programmatically
B) Can be an Auto-number
C) Can be Text

204. Considering a Dropdown widget, which of the follow- B)

ing is true?
A) Values are only mandatory if variable is not filled
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B) The data type of Variable must be the same as

Values
C) You can only select result aggregate results for the
List
D) You can select an entity for the List. The user will
have to select one of the records

205. Which of the following statements about Entities is B)

false?
A) Entities have attributes
B) Entities do not require an identifier
C) Entities are only stored in memory
D) Entities can be created, updated, and deleted

206. Which of the following can't be made public? B)

A) Database entities
B) Site Properties and User exceptions
C) Screens
D) Client actions

207. If an Entity Attribute named HouseNumber is created, D)

what needs to happen to its Data Type? I think it is C)
A) It should be set to Integer
B) It should be set to Decimal
C) Nothing, it will automatically be set to Identifier
D) Nothing, it will automatically be set to Integer

208. Consider that we want to add the Urgent record to C)

the Priority Static Entity. What is the correct way to
accomplish this at runtime?
A) Use the CreatePriority Entity Action with the new
record as input, since records from a Static Entity can-
not be
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B) Use the CreateOrUpdatePriority or the CreatePrior-

ity Entity Action with the new record as input
C) It is not possible, since Static Entity records can only
be created or updated at design time
D) Use the SQL Query Tool, since Static Entities only
have the Get Entity Action available

209. If you have an unique index on attributes Name, B)

Email
A) A database exception will be thrown if you
try to insert (John,john@example.com) and (John,
john.james@example.com)
B) A database exception will be thrown if you try
to insert (John,john@example.com,555-33333) and
(John,john@example.com,777-99999)
C) c)A database exception will be thrown if you try
to insert (John,john@example.com) and (John James,
john@example.com)
D) You can either display Name or Email on screen, but
not both at the same time

210. Which of the following options should not be a use C)

case of client variables?
A) ID of a user session
B) Username
C) Password
D) Search filter keyword

211. Considering the following Roles of the CinemaDetail B)

screen, which statement is true?
A) An Anonymous user will be automatically redirect-
ed to the InvalidPermissions Screen

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B) Any user with the OSMDbAdmin role can access the

Screen
C) Only users with both OSMDbAdmin and OSMD-
bUser roles can access the CinemaDetail Screen
D) Non-registered users can access the CinemaDetail
Screen

212. Which of the following is not an Entity Action of the B)

Customer Entity?
A) CreateCustomer
B) RetrieveCustomer
C) UpdateCustomer
D) DeleteCustomer

213. Consider the following Server Action. What happens if D)

the GetEmployeeById Aggregate does not return any
record?
A) The module's global exception handler is executed
B) No exception flow is executed
C) The DatabaseException flow is executed
D) The RecordNotFound flow is executed

214. In OutSystems, where can we place breakpoints? D) Check if A) is correct

A) In Actions only (Client-side and Server-Side)
B) Server-side logic only
C) Client-side logic only
D) In Actions and Variables

215. In OutSystems, it is possible to inspect the values of A)

variables while debugging
A) True
B) False

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216. Which of the following commands is not available in D)

the OutSystems debugger?
A) Stop Debugging
B) Continue Request
C) Step Over
D) Restart Debugging

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