24-11-2024

9610WMD801266240012 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) In new system of untis unit of mass α kg, unit of length is β m & unit of time is γ sec then in this
system 10 J will be represented by :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) The frequency of vibration f of a mass m suspended from a spring of spring constant K is given by
a relation of this type, f = CmxKy. Where C is a dimensionless quantity. The values of x and y are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according
to v(x) = βx–2n where β and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of
the particle as a function of x, is given by :

(1) –2nβ2x–4n – 1
(2) –2β2x–2n + 1
(3) –2nβ2x–4n + 1
(4) –2nβ2x–2n – 1

4) Find the acceleration of particle at x = 5 m with the help of graph, where v is velocity and x is

displacement.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Ship A is moving at a speed of 3 m/s towards East and ship B towards North with a speed of 4 m/s.
If ship A is chosen as frame of reference, the direction and magnitude of velocity of ship B will be :-

(1) 5 m/s ; 53° North of West

(2) 5 m/s ; 37° North of East
(3) 5 m/s ; 37° East of South
(4) 5 m/s ; 53° South of West

6)

A body of mass 1 kg lies on smooth inclined plane. A force F = 10N is applied horizontally on the
block as shown. The magnitude of normal reaction by inclined plane on the block is:

(1)
(2) 40 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 20 N

7) For the system shown in figure, the pulleys and string are ideal. The tension in the string will be :-

(1)
θ

(2)
mg sinθ
(3) 2 mg sinθ
(4)
sinθ

8) Referring to figure (A) & (B) :-

(1) Reading of spring balance in (A) is 8 g and in (B) is also 8 g

(2) Reading in (A) is less than 8 g and in (B), it is 8 g
(3) Reading of spring balance in (A) is 8 g and in (B), it is less than 8 g
(4) Reading in both (A) and (B) is less than 8 g

9) In Fig. spring constant of the spring is 100 N/m. Extension produced in the spring is;(g = 10m/s2)

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm

10) At time t = 0 particle starts moving along the x-axis. If its kinetic energy increases uniformly
with time 't', the net force acting on it must be proportional to :-

(1)
(2) constant
(3) t

(4)

11) A rod of length 1m and mass 0.5 kg hinged at one end, is initially hanging vertical. The other end
is now raised slowly until it makes an angle 60º with the vertical. The required work is :(use g = 10
m/s2)
(1)
J

(2)
J

(3)
J

(4)
J

12) If object is released from rest from given position than find height
upto which object can rise on inclined plane on other side.

(1) 0.2 m
(2) 1.2 m
(3) 0.6 m
(4) 0.1 m

13) A particle is released from a height H. At a certain height its kinetic energy is two times its
potential energy. Height and speed of particle at that instant are :-

(1)
,

(2)
,

(3)
,

(4) ,

14) A pump motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate from a given pipe. To obtain thrice as
much water from the pipe in the same time power of the motor has to be increased :-

(1) 3 times
(2) 9 times
(3) 27 times
(4) 81 times

15) A particle moves in a circular path of radius R with an angular velocity ω = a – bt where a and b
are positive constants and t is time. The magnitude of the acceleration of the particle after time
is :-
(1)

(2)
(3) R(a2 + b)
(4) a2R

16) A disc of radius R has a light pole fixed perpendicular to the disc at the circumference which in
turn has a pendulum of length R attached to its other end as shown in the following figure. The disc
is rotated with a constant angular velocity ω. The string is making an angle 30° with the rod, Then

the angular velocity ω of disc is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) If a particle starts from rest with constant angular acceleration over a circular path then find
ratio of angular displacements in first t sec, next t sec and in next t seconds. :-

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 3 : 5
(3) 1 : 4 : 9

(4)

18) A body of mass 'm' is moving with constant speed v on a track

shown in figure. At point A and point B radius of curvature is R. NA, NB and NC represents normal
reactions at A, B and C which of the following option is correct ?

(1)
NA = mg –
NB = mg +
(2)

(3) NC = mg
(4) All of these

19) A particle of mass m is released from the top of a smooth hemisphere of radius R. Calculate the
angle with vertical where it loses contact with the hemisphere.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Three identical charged balls each of charge 2C are suspended from a common point P by silk
threads of 2m each (as shown in figure). They form an equilateral triangle of side 1m. The ratio of

net force on a charged ball to the force between any two charged balls will be : -

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3)
(4)

21) Two particles A and B having charges 20 μC and –5 μC respectively are held fixed with a
separation of 5 cm. At what position a third charged particle should be placed so that it does not

experience a net electric force?

(1) At 5 cm from 20 μC on the left side of system

(2) At 5 cm from –5 μC on the right side
(3) At 1.25 cm from –5 μC between two charges
(4) At midpoint between two charges

22) Shown in the figure are two point charges +Q and –Q inside the cavity of a spherical shell. The
charges are kept near the surface of the cavity on opposite sides of the centre of the shell. If σ1 is the
surface charge on the inner surface and Q1 net charge on it and σ2 the surface charge on the outer

surface and Q2 net charge on it then : -

 σ1≠ 0, Q1 = 0
(1)
σ2 = 0, Q2 = 0
σ1≠ 0, Q1 = 0
(2)
σ2≠ 0, Q2 = 0
σ1= 0, Q1 = 0
(3)
σ2 = 0, Q2 = 0
σ1≠ 0, Q1 ≠ 0
(4)
σ2≠ 0, Q2 ≠ 0

23) Consider the force F on a charge 'q' due to a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R
carrying charge Q distributed uniformly over it. Which one of the following statements is true for F,
if 'q' is placed at distance r from the centre of the shell?

(1)
for r < R

(2)
> F > 0 for r < R

(3)
for r > R

(4)
for all r

24) A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net

field at the centre O is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) In a cuboid of dimension 2L × 2L × L, a charge q is placed at the centre of the surfaces 'S'
having area of 4L2. The flux through the opposite surface to 'S' is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown is : -

(1)

(2) 4C
(3) 2C

(4)
C

27) A source of potential difference V is connected to the combination of two identical capacitors as
shown in the figure. When key 'K' is closed, the total energy stored across the combination is E1.
Now key 'K' is opened and dielectric of dielectric constant 5 is introduced between the plates of the
capacitors. The total energy stored across the combination is now E2. The ratio E1/E2 will be : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Voltage rating of a parallel plate capacitor is 500 V. Its dielectric can withstand a maximum
electric field of 106 V/m. The plate area is 10–4 m2. What is the dielectric constant if the capacitance
is 15 pF? (given ε0 = 8.86 × 10–12 C2/Nm2)

(1) 3.8
(2) 8.5
(3) 4.5
(4) 6.2

29) Statement 1 : It is not possible to make a sphere of capacity 1 farad using a conducting
material.
Statement 2 : It is possible for earth as its radius is 6.4 × 106 m.

(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
(3)
Statement 1.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.

30) The electric current through a wire varies with time as I = I0 + βt, where I0 = 20 A and β = 3
A/s. The amount of electric charge crossed through a section of the wire in 20s is : -

(1) 1600 C
(2) 800 C
(3) 80 C
(4) 1000 C

31) In the given figure, a battery of emf E is connected across a conductor PQ of length ' ' and
different area of cross-sections having radii r1 and r2 (r2 < r1).

Choose the correct option as one moves from P to Q : -

(1) Drift velocity of electron increases.

(2) Electric field decreases.
(3) Electron current decreases.
(4) All of these.

32) The equivalent resistance between points A and B in the given network is : -

(1) 65Ω
(2) 20Ω
(3) 5Ω
(4) 2Ω

33) Two cells are connected in opposition as shown. Cell E1 is of 8V emf and 2Ω internal resistance;
the cell E2 is of 2V emf and 4Ω internal resistance. The terminal potential difference of cell E2 is

_________ V.

(1) 6V
(2) –8V
(3) –6V
(4) 8V

34) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Alloys such as constantan and manganin are used in making standard resistance coils.
Reason R : Constantan and manganin has very small value of temperature coefficient of resistance.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

35) A point charge 2×10-2 C is moved from P to S in a uniform electric field of 30 NC-1 directed along
positive x-axis. If coordinated of P and S are (1,2,0)m and (0,0,0)m respectively, the work done by
electric field will be -

(1) 1200 mJ
(2) 600 mJ
(3) –600 mJ
(4) –1200 mJ

SECTION-B

1) The refractive index of water measured by the relation is found to have

values of 1.34, 1.38, 1.32 and 1.36; the mean value of refractive index with percentage error :-

(1) 1.35 ± 1.48%

(2) 1.35 ± 0%
(3) 1.36 ± 6%
(4) 1.36 ± 0%

2) The diameter of a cylinder is measured using a vernier calliper with no zero error. It is found that
the zero of the Vernier scale lies between 5.10 and 5.15 cm of the main scale. The vernier scale has
50 divisions equivalent to 2.45 cm. The 24th division of the Vernier scale exactly coincides with one of
the main scale divisions. The diameter of the cylinder is

(1) 4.112 cm
(2) 5.124 cm
(3) 5.136 cm
(4) 5.148 cm

3) A stone dropped from a building of height h and it reaches after t seconds on earth. From the
same building if two stones are thrown (one upwards and other downwards) with the same speed u
and they reach the earth surface after t1 and t2 seconds respectively, then :-

(1) t = t1 – t2

(2)
t=
(3) t =
t=
(4)

4) A ball is dropped from a tower. If it takes 1 sec to cross the last 55 m before hitting the ground,
find the height from which it was dropped. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 55 m
(2) 50 m
(3) 90 m
(4) 180 m

5) The given graph shows the variation of velocity with displacement. Which one of the graph given

below correctly represents the variation of acceleration with displacement ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Two balls are thrown horizontally from the top of a tower with velocities v1 and v2 in opposite
directions at the same time. After how much time the angle between velocities of balls becomes
90°?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A heavy uniform chain lies on horiozntal table top. If the coefficient of friction between the chain
and the table surface is 0.25, then the maximum fraction of the length of the chain that can hang
over one edge of the table is

(1) 20%
(2) 25%
(3) 35%
(4) 15%

8) The force required to just move a body up an inclined plane is 3 times the force required to just
prevent the body from sliding down the plane. The coefficient of friction is μ. The inclination θ of the
plane is :-

(1) tan–1 (μ)

(2) tan–1 (μ/2)
(3) tan–1 (2μ)
(4) tan–1 (3μ)

9) The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination θ is perfectly smooth while the lower half is
rough. A body starting from the rest at the top comes back to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of
friction for the lower half is given by

(1) μ= sinθ
(2) μ= cotθ
(3) μ= 2cosθ
(4) μ= 2tanθ

10) A single conservative force acts on a 2 kg particle that moves along the x-axis. The potential
energy is given by U = (x – 4)2 – 16. Here, x is in metre and U in Joule. At x = 6m, the kinetic energy
of particle is 8J then maximum kinetic energy of the particle is :-

(1) 16J
(2) –4J
(3) 8J
(4) 12J

11)
The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies with the position of the particle as shown in
the figure. The body is in stable equilibrium at -

(1) x = x1
(2) x = x2
(3) Both x1 and x2
(4) Neither x1 nor x2

12) Two point charges Q each are placed at a distance d apart. A third point charge q is placed at a
distance x from mid-point on the perpendicular bisector. The value of x at which charge q will
experience the maximum Coulomb's force is : -

(1) x = d

(2)
x=
x=
(3)

(4)
x=

13) If the charge on a capacitor is increased by 2 C, the energy stored in it increases by 44%. The
original charge on the capacitor is (in C) : -

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

14) A Copper (Cu) rod of length 25 cm and cross-sectional area 3 mm2 is joined with a similar
Aluminium (Al) rod as shown in figure. Find the resistance of the combination between the ends A
and B. (Take Resistivity of Copper = 1.7 × 10–8 Ωm Resistivity of Aluminium = 2.6 × 10–8 Ωm )

(1) 2.170 mΩ
(2) 1.420 mΩ
(3) 0.0858 mΩ
(4) 0.858 mΩ
15) The current flowing through R2 is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Assertion (A) :- A tertiary carbocation is more stable than a secondary carbocation which is
more stable than a primary carbocation.
Reason (R) :- The inductive effect operate through sigma bonds and decrease rapidly with increase
in distance between the substituent and the reactive centre.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

2) Arrange the following in decreasing order of acidic strength.

(1) S > Q > R > P

(2) R > Q > P > S
(3) Q > R > S > P
(4) P > Q > S > R

3) Arrange the following in decreasing order of Basic strength.

(1) P > Q > R > P
(2) P > R > S > Q
(3) R > Q > P > S
(4) S > R > Q > P

4) Arrange the following in decreasing order of acidic strength.

(1) P > Q > R > S

(2) Q > R > S > P
(3) S > Q > R > P
(4) S > R > Q > P

5) Which one of the following compounds is not aromatic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Arrange the following in decreasing order of heat of hydrogenation :

(1) P > Q > R > S
(2) S > R > Q > P
(3) Q > P > S > R
(4) R > Q > P > S

7) Which is a pair of geometrical isomers ?

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and IV
(4) III and IV

8) The compound which has maximum number of chiral centres is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
9) 2- butyne and 1, 3-butadiene are :

(1) chain isomer

(2) position isomer
(3) functional isomer
(4) tautomers

10) The number of alkyne possible with molecular formula C5H8 is :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

11) Which of the following structure has D-configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which one of the following is the most stable conformer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Which of the following compounds does not have any geometrical isomer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14) The absolute configuration of the following compound is :

(1) 2S, 3R
(2) 2S, 3S
(3) 2R, 3S
(4) 2R, 3R

15) The correct IUPAC name of the compound is:

(1) 5-carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanecarboxaldehyde
(2) 2-carboxy-5-fonnylecyclohexane
(3) 4-formyl-2-oxocyclohexanecarboxylic acid
(4) 4-carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanal

16) The IUPAC name of is :

(1) 3-Iodo-4, 5, 5-trimethylhexane

(2) 4-Iodo-1, 1, 3-trimethylhexane
(3) 4-Iodo-2, 2-dimethylheptane
(4) 4-Iodo-2, 2, 3-trimethylhexane

17) Which is the best leaving group (weakest conjugate base) ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) OH⊝

18) The increasing order of hydrolysis of the following compounds is

(1) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)

(2) (i) < (iv) < (iii) < (ii)
(3) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)
(4) (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (ii)

19) Match the reaction given in Column I with the names given in Column II.

Column-I Column-II

A. 1. Fitting reaction

Wurtz-Fitting
B. 2.
reaction

Finkelstein
C. 3.
reaction

Sandmeyer
D. 4.
reaction
(1) A → 2, B → 1, C → 4, D → 3
(2) A → 1, B → 2, C → 4, D → 3
(3) A → 2, B → 4, C → 1, D → 3
(4) A → 2, B → 1, C → 3, D → 4

20) The increasing order of basicity of the following compounds is :

(1) II < IV < I < III
(2) I < II < III < IV
(3) IV < I < II < III
(4) II < I < III < IV

21) What is the end-product of the following ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) and can be distinguished by

(1) neutral FeCl3 solution

(2) iodoform test
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
23)
In the above reaction X is

(1) phenol
(2) benzoic acid
(3) salicylaldehyde
(4) carbonic acid

24) Which of the following order is correct for hyperconjugation of these radicals ?

(1) P > Q > R

(2) R > Q > P
(3) Q > P > R
(4) P > R > Q

25) The IUPAC name of the following compound

(1) Hexanoic anhydride

(2) dipropanoic anhydride
(3) ethoxy propanoic acid
(4) propanoic anhydride

26) 2-hexene Products

The two products formed in above reaction are-

(1) Butanoic acid and acetic acid

(2) Butanal and acetic acid
(3) Butanal and acetaldehyde
(4) Butanoic acid and acetaldehyde

27) In the given reaction identify A and B

CH3—C≡C—CH3 + H2 ”B”

(1) A : n-Pentane B : Cis-2-butene

(2) A : 2-Pentyne B : Cis-2-butene
(3) A : n-Pentane B : trans-2-butene
(4) A : 2-Pentyne B : trans-2-butene

28) Benzene on nitration gives nitrobenzene in presence of HNO3 and H2SO4 mixture, where :

(1) Both H2SO4 and HNO3 act as a bases

(2) HNO3 acts as an acid and H2SO4 acts as a base
(3) Both H2SO4 and HNO3 act as an acids
(4) HNO3 acts as a base and H2SO4 acts as an acid

29) Which of the following reagent will be able to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne ?

(1) NaNH2
(2) HCl
(3) O2
(4) Br2

30) Both methane and ethane may be obtained by a suitable one step reaction from :

(1) CH3–CH2–Cl
(2) CH3–Cl
(3) CH3–OH
(4) CH2–CH2–OH

31) Consider the given reaction, identify the product "D".

(1)

(2) CH3—CH2—CH2—OH

(3)
(4)

32) The increasing order of the rate of HCN addition to compound A to D is

A. HCHO B. CH3COCH3
C. PhCOCH3 D. PhCOPh

(1) A < B < C < D

(2) C < D < B < A
(3) D < C < B < A
(4) D < B < C < A

33) Identify the name reaction :

(1) Stephen reaction

(2) Etard reaction
(3) Rosenmund reaction
(4) Gatterman-Koch reaction

34) The Final product formed in the following reaction sequence is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
35) In the reaction,

Which of the following compounds will be formed ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) Match the ions given in Column I with their nature given in Column II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) 1. Stable due to resonance

(B) 2. Destabilised due to inductive effect

(C) 3. Stabilised by 9αH hyperconjugation

(D) 4. A secondary carbocation

(1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(2) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(4) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

2)

Match the alkyl groups in Column I with their IUPAC nomenclature in Column II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) —CH2C(CH3)3 1. 2-methylpropyl

(B) —C(CH3)3 2. 1,1-dimethylethyl

 (C) —CH2CH2CH(CH3)2 3. 3-methylbutyl

(D) —CH2CH(CH3)2 4. 2,2-dimethylpropyl

(1) A→4, B→2, C→3, D→1
(2) A→4, B→1, C→2, D→3
(3) A→3, B→2, C→1, D→4
(4) A→4, B→3, C→2, D→1

3) Which of the following is the correct order for bond energy C–H bonds in these compounds ?

(1) Y > Z > X

(2) X > Z > Y
(3) X > Y > Z
(4) Z > X > Y

4) What is the maximum number of stereoisomers that could exist for the compound below ?

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 16

5) The given pair is:

(1) enantiomers
(2) homomers
(3) constitutional isomer
(4) diastereomers

6) Number of primary, secondary and tertiary hydrogen in the following are respectively :
(1) 15 2 2
(2) 16 1 2
(3) 17 2 2
(4) 17 2 1

7) In the following reaction (where * represents 14C)

Product formed is

(1)

(2)

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4)

8) Arrange the following in increasing order of reactivity in aromatic nucleophilic substitution ?

(1) I < IV < III < II

(2) IV < III < I < II
(3) I < IV < II < III
(4) III < IV < I < II
9) Major product of the following reactions is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Match the species in Column I with the corresponding properties in Column II.

Column-I Column-II

A. CH3OH 1. Gives ketone on reaction with Cu

B. CH3CH2OH 2. Gives white ppt. with Lucas reagent immediately

C. (CH3)2CHOH 3. Cannot be synthesised using Grignard’s reagent

D. (CH3)3COH 4. Gives iodoform test

(1) A → 3, B → 4, C → 1,4, D → 2
(2) A → 4, B → 3, C → 1,4, D → 2
(3) A → 2, B → 4, C → 1,4, D → 3
(4) A → 3, B → 2, C → 1,4, D → 4

11)
In this reaction

(1) I is E1, II is E2
(2) I is E2, II is E1
(3) Both are E1
(4) Both are E2

12)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The major product obtained from the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The major product of the following reactions are :

Y and Z are

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

15)
Product B is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A
1) What will happen if the pH of lysosome is equivalent to cytoplasm.

(1) Hydrolytic enzymes work more efficiently.

(2) Hydrolytic enzymes becomes more active.
(3) Hydrolytic enzymes perform specific function only.
(4) Hydrolytic enzymes do not work.

2) _____A____ proteins are tightly binds with phospholipid, thus they can not easily removed from
membrane. Carbohydrates are present in the form of _____B_____ on the outer surface of plasma
membrane are involved in ___C__.

(1) A-Peripheral, B-Glycolipid, C-Transport

(2) A-Integral, B-Glycoprotein, C-Cell to cell recognition
(3) A-Integral, B-Glycolipid, C-Endocytosis
(4) A-Pereipheral, B-Glycoprotein, C-Cell Division

3) Given below are some statements

A. Centrosome is an organelle usually containing four cylindrical structures called centrioles.
B. Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie opposite to each other.
C. Centrioles form the basal body of cilia or flagella.
D. The location of centrioles during cell division decides the plane of division.
How many of the given statements are correct.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

4) 'X' organelle is involved in process of glycosylation and glycosidation.

This organelle is also known as dictyosome in plant cells.
Identify this 'X' organelle.

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Golgi body
(3) Cytoskeleton
(4) Peroxisomes

5) If the tip of seedling is cut off, growth as well as bending ceases because it hampers :-

(1) Respiration
(2) Photosynthesis
(3) Perception of light stimulus
(4) Transpiration

6) Growth hormones function :-

(1) Always as growth inhibitor.

(2) Sometimes as growth promotors and sometimes as growth inhibitors.
(3) Always as growth promotors.
(4) Rarely as growth promotors.

7) The phenomenon of apical dominance can be overcome by exogenous application of :-

(1) ABA
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Cytokinins
(4) Ethylene

8) The first natural cytokinin of plants is :-

(1) Zeatin
(2) Kinetin
(3) Dihydrooxyzeatin
(4) Riboxylzeatin

9) Bakanae disease in japan was due to a fungus known as :-

(1) Gibberella fujikori

(2) Aspergillus flavus
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Plasmopara viticola

10) Identify the incorrect statement about Z scheme :-

(1) Z shaped is formed when all the carriers are placed in sequence on a redox potential scale.
(2) PS I are excited when they receive red light of wavelength 700 nm.
(3) PS II absorbs 680 nm of blue light causing electrons to become excited.
(4) Addition of electron (downhill) reduces NADP+ to NADPH + H+

11) _______________ is the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate in the presence of
light.

(1) Phosphorylation
(2) Photo phosphorylation
(3) Light reaction
(4) Dark reaction

12) Photophosphorylation occurs due to cyclic flows of electrons when only PS I is functional in :-

(1) Stroma lamellae

(2) Grana lamellae
(3) Stroma
(4) Lumen
13) Proton or hydrogen ions that are produced by splitting of water accumulate in :-

(1) Stroma
(2) Thylakoid membrane
(3) Lumen of thylakoid
(4) Stroma lamella

14)

NADP reductase enzyme is located on the _______________ of the membrane.

(1) Thylakoid membrane

(2) Lumen
(3) Stroma side of thylakoid membrane
(4) Lumen side of thylakoid membrane

15) Which pigment is directly involved in the photosynthetic process as the chief pigment?

(1) Chlorophyll b
(2) Xanthophyll
(3) Carotenoids
(4) Chlorophyll a

16) Which of the following organisms is not involved in oxygen evolution during photosynthesis?

(1) Green plants

(2) Sulfur bacteria
(3) Green bacteria
(4) Cyanobacteria

17) How many ATP are formed in ETS from reduced NAD+ generated in one turn cycle of krebs'
cycle?

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 9

18) Chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP synthesis in respiration based on :-

(1) Proton gradient between lumen and stroma.

(2) Proton gradient between matrix and inner membrane.
(3) Proton gradient between matrix and inner membrane space.
(4) Proton gradient between matrix and inter membrane space.

19) Which of the following is the end product of glycolysis?

(1) Citric acid
(2) Pyruvic acid
(3) Lactic acid
(4) Glucose

20) Which process in cellular respiration does not require oxygen?

(1) Glycolysis
(2) Kreb's cycle
(3) Electron transport chain
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation

21) In aerobic respiration, glucose is fully oxidized to:

(1) Ethanol
(2) Water
(3) Lactic acid
(4) Carbon dioxide and water

22) The electron transport chain is located in which part of the mitochondria?

(1) Outer membrane

(2) Intermembrane space
(3) Matrix
(4) Inner membrane

23) In disjunction (separation) of sister chromatids at anaphase :-

(1) Centromere moves first and arms trail behind.

(2) Arms move first and centromere trails behind.
(3) Any of the above cases.
(4) Centromere does not move in anaphase.

24) What happens in meiosis?

(1) One division of nucleus and one division of chromosomes.

(2) Two divisions of nucleus and one division of chromosomes.
(3) Two divisions of nucleus and three divisions of chromosomes.
(4) One division of nucleus and two divisions of chromosomes.

25) Bivalents are formed in :-

(1) Diplotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Interkinesis
26) The four elements called "Big-four" which make up 95% of all elements found in a living system
are :-

(1) C, H, O, N
(2) C, H, O, P
(3) C, H, O, S
(4) C, N, O, P

27) Macromolecules are :-

(1) Nucleic acids, proteins and polysaccharides

(2) Nucleic acids and monosaccharides
(3) Amino acids and polysaccharides
(4) Amino acids, lipids and nucleotides

28) Fructose is a ketose sugar and also called :-

(1) An aldose
(2) Fruit sugar
(3) Cane sugar
(4) Corn sugar

29) Invert sugar is mixture of :-

(1) Maltose and fructose

(2) Glucose and galactose
(3) Glucose and fructose
(4) All of the above

30) Non-reducing sugars have :-

(1) Free CHO group and free CO group

(2) Neither free CO, not free CHO group
(3) Free CHO and bound CO group
(4) Free CO group and bound CHO group

31) A fat molecule has :-

(1) 3 glycerol and one fatty acid molecules.

(2) One glycerol and 3 fatty acid molecules.
(3) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecules.
(4) 3 glycerol and 3 fatty acid molecules.

32) 8 types of gametes are produced by following genotype :-

(1) AAbbCC
(2) AaBbCc
(3) AABbcc
(4) AabbCC

33) Statement-1 : Alleles are slightly different forms of the different gene.
Statement-2 : The segregation of alleles is a random process and so there is 100 percent chance of
a gamete containing both allele.

(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct.

(2) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct.
(4) Both statement-1 and statemen-2 are incorrect.

34) Haemophilia in man is due to:

(1) Sex - limited inheritance

(2) Primary non - disjunction
(3) Sex - linked inheritance
(4) Sex - influenced inheritance

35) Which of the following is a recombinant type of progeny obtained by Morgan while carrying out
dihybrid cross in Drosophila for body colour and eye colour?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) Statement-I : The quasifluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of protein with in the
overall bilayer.
Statement-II : The fluid nature of membrane is not important for cell growth, cell division,
endocytosis and secretion.
Choose the appropriate answer from given above statements.

(1) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-I is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

2)

(1) A - Cell membrane, B - Nucleus, C - Plastid, D - Centrosome

(2) A - Plasma membrane, B - Lysosome, C - Plastid, D - Centrosome
(3) A - Cell membrane, B - Nucleus, C - Nucleus, D - Lysosome
(4) A - Plasma membrane, B - Non-cytosolic, C - Plastid, D - Microbodies

3)

Match List-I (Plant hormone) with List-II (Typical physiological effect) and select the correct answer
the codes given below the lists :-

List-I List-II

(A) Auxin (1) Apical dominance

(B) Gibberellin (2) Cell division

(C) Cytokinin (3) Fruit ripening

(D) Ethylene (4) Internodal elongation

(1) A–1, B–4, C–2, D–3
(2) A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2
(3) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
(4) A–4, B–1, C–3, D–2

4)

Go through the following figure :-

Choose the correct labelling.

(i) (ii) (iii)

(1) Log phase Exponential phase Stationary phase

(2) Lag phase Exponential phase Stationary phase

(3) Exponential phase Log phase Stationary phase

(4) Stationary phase Exponential phase Log phase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Which statement is incorrect with respect of splitting of water :-

(1) Splitting of water is associated with PS II

(2) Water is splits into 2H+, [O] and electrons
(3) Oxygen is one of the net products of splitting of water
(4) Splitting of water process occurs on the outer side of the membrane of thylakoid

6) Identify the correct statements with respect to that photophosphorylation :-

(1) When two photosystem work in a series, process called cyclic photophosphorylation
(2) Two photosystem are connected through a electron transport chain.
When only PS II is functional, the electron is circulated with the photosystem and
(3)
phosphorylation occurs due to non cyclic flow of electrons.
Membrane of grana have both PS I and PS II but lacks NADP reductase enzyme in non cyclic
(4)
photophosphorylation.
7)
What is incorrect about A :-

(1) It has an absorption peak at 680 nm

(2) It is a part of photosystem I.
(3) They transfer electron to another acceptor molecule that has a greater redox potential
(4) It shows uphill movement of electrons

8) Pyruvic acid + CoA + NAD+ Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH + H+

A is →

(1) Coenzyme A
(2) Mg+2
(3) K+
(4) ATP

9) Select the incorrect assumption for calculations on respiratory balance sheet :-

(1) There is a sequential orderly pathway.

(2) NADH synthesised in glycosis transferred into the mitochondria.
(3) Indermediates in the pathway are utilised to synthesise.
(4) Only glucose is being respired.

10) What is the cause of cell division?

(1) Increase in surface area/volume ratio due to growth of cell.

(2) Nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio decreases due to increase in size of cell.
(3) Disturbance in lipid and protein ratio.
(4) All of the above

11) The sequence of substages of prophase-I are :-

(1) Leptotene — Zygotene — Pachytene — Diplotene — Diakinesis

(2) Leptotene — Zygotene — Pachytene — Diakinesis — Diplotene
(3) Leptotene — Zygotene — Pachytene — Diakinesis
(4) Leptotene — Pachytene — Diplotene — Zygotene — Diakinesis

12) Trun over number of an enzyme means :-

(1) Number of substrate molecules acted upon by one molecule of an enzyme per minute.
(2) Number of enzyme molecules acting on one molecule of substrate per minute.
(3) Number of molecules of end product produced by an enzyme in one minute.
(4) Number of substrate molecules acted upon by an enzyme per second.

13)

The figure given below shows three velocity substrate concentration curves for an enzyme reaction.
What do the curves a, b and c depict respectively?

(1) A–normal enzyme reaction, B–competitive inhibition, C–non-competitive inhibition

A–enzyme with an allosteric modulator added, B–normal enzyme activity, C–competitive
(2)
inhibition
A–enzyme with an allosteric stimulator, B–competitive inhibition added, C–normal enzyme
(3)
reaction
(4) A–normal enzyme reaction, B–non-competitive inhibitor added, C–allosteric inhibitior added

14) Turner’s syndrome in humans occurs due to

(1) Autosomal abnormality

(2) Euploidy
(3) Aneuploidy
(4) Polyploidy

15) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer
Statement I: In chromosomal theory of inheritance, knowledge of chromosomal segregation is
united with mendelian principles.
Statement II: The genes on chromosomes regulating the characters are called the phenotype and
the physical expression of the characters is called genotype.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer

List – I List – II

(a) Law of Dominance (i) 3:1

(ii) F1 phenotype is intermediate between the

(b) Co-dominance
parents

(c)Incomplete dominance (iii) Phenylketonuria

(d) Pleiotropy (iv) AB blood group

(1) (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(2) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(4) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

2) Which of the following statements is incorrect for sex determination in honey bees?

(1) Males have half the number of chromosomes than that of a female.
(2) Males produce sperms by meiosis.
(3) Drones do not have father and thus cannot have sons.
(4) Their sex determination is called as haplodiploid sex-determination system.

3) As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group of father is B+, mother is A+ and child is O+.
Their respective genotype can be :-
(A) IBi / IAi / ii
(B) IBIB / IAIA / ii
(C) IAIB / iIA / IBi
(D) IAi / IBi / IAi
(E) iIB / iIA / IAIB
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C & B only
(4) D & E only
4) What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development,
gynaecomastia and is sterile ?

(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(2) Edward syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome
(4) Turner’s syndrome

5) Match the following Column & select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Flame cells (i) Prawns

(b) Nephridia (ii) Planaria

(c) Malpighian tubule (iii) Cockroach

(d) Green gland (iv) Earthworm

(1) a-iii, b-iv. c-ii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iv. c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv. c-i, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-iii. c-iv, d-i

6) Which of the following statement is/are not incorrect?

(1) GER in a healthy individual is approximately 125ml/day.

(2) A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release rennin.
(3) Nearly 90% of the filterate has to be reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
(4) Reabsorption of water also occurs passively in the initial segments of the nephron.

7) An increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of-

(1) ADH
(2) Vasopressin
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) ANF

8) During the hemodialysis process-

I- Blood is drained from a convenient artery and an anticoagulant is added (heparin)
II- Blood is mixed with antiheparin & passed into the vein.
III- Removal of nitrogenous waste from Blood.
IV- Blood is passed through a coiled porous cellophane membrane of a true bathing in dialysis fluid.
Arrange the steps :

(1) I → IV → III → II
(2) I → IV → II → III
(3) II → III → I → IV
(4) III → I → II → IV

9) Match the Column-I with Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Uremia (i) Accumulation of urea in Blood.

(b) Renal calculi (ii) Presence of Glucose in urine.

(c) Glomerulonephritis (iii) Stones formed within the Kidney

(d) Glycosuria (iv) Inflammation of glomeruli of Kidney.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

10) Which of the following animal is poikilothermal with three chambered heart ?

(1) Sea horse

(2) Penguin
(3) Crocodile
(4) Tortoise

11) Which of the following characters are shared by ambhibia and reptilia ?

(1) Moist skin

(2) Three chambered heart
(3) External fertilisation
(4) Direct development

12) Which of the following correctly represent the phylum platyhelminthes ?

(1) Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and pseudocoelomate animals.

(2) Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate animals with organ level of organisation.
(3) Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and acoelomate animals with organ level of organisation.
(4) Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and acoelomate animals with tissue level of organisation.

13) Match the given column with their respective distinctive characteristics:

Column I Column II

a. Aschelminthes i. Gills for respiration and excretion

b. Hemichordata ii. Bioluminescence

c. Mollusca iii. Worm like marine animals

 Complete alimentary canal with well developed
d. Ctenophora iv.
muscular pharynx
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c -iv, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c -i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c -ii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c -iv, d-iii

14) Which of the following is incorrect about bony fishes?

(1) Includes both fresh water and marine water animals

(2) Four pairs of gills
(3) Skin covered by placoid scales
(4) Air bladder regulates buoyancy

15) Statement I : Endoskeleton is fully ossified with pneumatic long bones of aves.
Statement II: Aves are warm blooded animals with four chambered heart.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

16) Select the incorrect option -

(1) Fertilisation is internal in reptilia with direct development.

(2) Ambhibians body divisible into head and trunk.
(3) All tetrapods are warm blodded animals.
(4) Pisces are poikilothermal with two chambered heart.

17) Identify the following cell/tissue?

(1) Unicellular glandular epithelium (Salivary gland)

(2) Multicellular glandular epithelium (Goblet gland)
(3) Unicellular glandular epithelium (Goblet gland)
(4) Multicellular glandular epithelium (Salivary gland)
18) How many statements are incorrect for bones ?
(A) Bones have hard and non-pliable ground substances.
(B) Matrix is rich in collagen fibres.
(C) Osteoblasts are present in lacunae.
(D) Bone is specialized connective tissue.
(E) They serve weight-bearing function.

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

19) Match column-I and Column-II

Column I Column II

A. Adipose tissue i. Dense connective tissue

B. Ligament ii. Fluid connective tissue

C. Cartilage iii. Loose connective tissue

D. Blood iv. Skeletal connective tissue

(1) A-ii,B-i,C-iv,D-iii
(2) A-i,B-iii,C-ii,D-iv
(3) A-iii,B-i,C-iv,D-ii
(4) A-iii,B-i,C-ii,D-iv

20) Sinus venosus in frog :-

(1) Opens in right auricle and present on dorsal surface of heart

(2) Sac like opens in ventricle and present on ventral surface of heart
(3) Collects oxygenated blood from pulmonary veins and opens in ventricle
(4) Collects deoxygenated blood from vena cava and opens in left auricle

21) Given below is a diagrammatic representation of internal organ of frog labelled A, B, C and D
showing digestive system :

Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) A— is liver secrete bile juice
(2) B— is intestine and its length is reduced in frog due to its carnivorous nature
(3) C— is urinary bladder which opens in cloaca
(4) D— is kidney, which is metanephric

22) Following is the diagram of the male reproductive system of frog select the correct set of names
labelled A, B, C and D.

A B C D

(1) Fat bodies Ureter Bidder's canal Vasa efferentia

(2) Fat bodies Bidder's canal Ureter Vasa efferentia

(3) Adrenal gland Bidder's canal Ureter Vasa efferentia

(4) Testes Adrenal gland Kidney Vasa efferentia

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Sexual dimorphism in cockroach is shown by :-

(1) Anal cerci which are present in males only

(2) Anal styles which are present in males only
(3) Anal cerci which are present in females only
(4) Anal styles which are present in females only

24) Assertion (A): Blood Group O can donate blood to individuals of all blood groups.
Reason(R): Blood Group O lacks antigens on RBCs

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the
(2)
assertion.
(3) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.
25) From the below mentioned statements choose the incorrect option.

(1) A network of fibrin threads traps blood cells and forms the coagulum.
(2) Calcium ions play a very important role in clotting.
(3) Thrombokinase release by platelets and injured tissue initiates blood clotting mechanism.
(4) Thrombin is formed from prothrombin.

26) The mass of this tissue is seen in the lower left corner of the right atrium, it is -

(1) The atrio-ventricular node

(2) The sino- atrial node
(3) The atrioventricular bundle
(4) Bundle of HIS

27) Choose the incorrect statement from those mentioned below.

(1) Open circulatory systems are less efficient than closed circulatory systems.
(2) Blood is pumped by the heart in both open and closed circulatory system.
(3) Blood always remains confined in blood vessels in the open circulatory system.
(4) Tunicates and arthropods share the same type of circulatory system.

28) In higher organisms like humans, blood serves the primary function of:

(1) Forming cellular components of blood.

(2) Transporting nutrients, gases, and waste products.
(3) Regulating the cardiac activity..
(4) Supporting the skeletal system.

29) Assertion (A): AB + blood can be safely donated to a receiver with AB – blood group for the first
time.
Reason(R): Rh antigens are naturally absent in AB – receiver.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the
(2)
assertion.
(3) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

30) Which of the following does not shift the oxy-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?

(1) increased pH
(2) increased carbon dioxide
(3) increased temperature
(4) All of the above

31) Which of the following is entirely made of cartilage?

(1) Nasal septum
(2) Larynx
(3) Glottis
(4) Trachea

32) Pneumotaxic centre which can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre is
present at:

(1) Pons region of brain

(2) Thalamus
(3) Spinal cord
(4) Right cerebral hemis·phere

33)

Study the spirograph and identify the correctly matched volumes from the codes given:

TV IRV ERV RV

(1) A C B D

(2) A B C D

(3) B A C D

(4) C B A D
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Contraction of diaphragm:

(1) Increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis
(2) Increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorsoventral axis
(3) Decreases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the anteroposterior axis
(4) Decreases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorsoventral axis

35) What amount of carbon dioxide is delivered by every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood to the
alveoli?

(1) 4 ml
(2) 5 ml
(3) 15 ml
(4) 20 ml

SECTION-B

1) Following pedigree chart represents inheritance of

(1) X-linked dominant trait

(2) Autosomal dominant trait
(3) Autosomal recessive trait
(4) X-linked recessive trait

2) Consider the following statements.

I. 100% parental combinations are found in F2 -generation in case of linkage.
II. F2 phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1 in dihybrid cross.
III. Dihybrid test cross ratio is 1:1 in F2-generation.
IV. Linked genes tends to separate frequently.
Which of the statement given above are correct ?

(1) I, II and IV
(2) I, III and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I and II

3) Which of the following Statement is correct with respect to the given figure.
(1) B is Ureter
(2) D is Adrenal gland, which releases ADH.
(3) C is Urinary Bladder, in which Urine is stored.
(4) A is Urethra

4) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) In Cortical nephrons the loop of Henle is too short & extends only very little into the medulla.
(2) Vasa recta is well developed in cortical nephrons.
The Malphighian corpuscle, PCT and DCT of the nephron are situated in the cotical region of
(3)
the kidney.
(4) Loop of Henle is hair pin like structure which has a descending and an ascending limb.

5) Given below are two statements :

Assertion (A) : All the essential nutrients, 70-80% electrolytes and water are reabsorbed from PCT.
Reason(R) : PCT is lined by simple cuboidal Brush Border epithelium which increases surface area.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) (A) & (R) both are true, & (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) & (R) both are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

6) Match the following with their respective phylum:

Column I Column II

a. Cucumaria i. Mollusca

b. Limulus ii. Cnidaria

c. Chaetopleura iii. Arthropoda

 d. Pennatula iv. Echinodermata
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c -iv, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-i, c -ii, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c -i, d-ii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c -iv, d-iii

7) Select the correct statement with reference to non-chordates.

a. Presence of ventral, solid and double central nervous system.
b. Non chordata is divided into three subphylum.
c. post anal tail is absent .
d. presence of ventral heart.

(1) a and b only

(2) a and c only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) b, c and d only

8) Select the most appropriate option regarding the characteristic feature of the mammalia.

(1) Mammary gland, two pairs of limbs and ventral heart

(2) Mammary gland, hairs and ventral heart
(3) Mammary glands, hairs, pinna, ventral heart
(4) Mammary glands, cosmopolitan, ventral heart

9) Given below is a figure of the mouth parts of cockroach labelled A,B and C :

Identify correct one :-

(1) A is mandible
(2) B is hypopharynx; acting as tongue
(3) C is upper lip known as labrum
(4) A is lower lip known as labium

10) Match the following columns with reference to cockroach and select the correct option :

Column I Column II
 (a) Grinding of the food particles (i) Hepatic caeca

(b) Secrete gastric juice (ii) 10 segment

(c) 10 pairs (iii) Proventriculus

(d) Anal cerci (iv) Spiracles

(v) Alary muscles

(1) a→(iii), b→(i), c→(iv), d→(ii)
(2) a→(iv), b→(iii), c→(v), d→(ii)
(3) a→(i), b→(iv), c→(iii), d→(ii)
(4) a→(ii), b→(iii), c→(i), d→(iv)

11) Match the types of white blood cells (in Column A) with their percentage ( in column B) and role
(in column C) and choose the correct option.

Column A Column B Column C

A Neutrophils 60-65% Resist infections

B Lymphocytes 6 – 8% immune resonses

C Eosinophils 2-3% phagocytosis

D Basophils 0.5-1% secretes histamines,serotonin

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

12) What is the correct direction of flow of Lymph in human body?

(1) Lymphatic vessels Interstitial fluid Blood capillaries Major veins

(2) Blood capillaries Interstitial fluid Lymphatic vessels Major veins
(3) Interstitial fluid blood capillaries lymphatic vessels major veins
(4) Major veins lymphatic vessels Interstitial fluid major veins

13) Fibrous connective tissue builds up in the lungs causing them not to inflate properly, and
actually deflating them is called:

(1) Chronic bronchitis

(2) Emphysema
(3) Pulmonary fibrosis
(4) Asthma

14) Approximately seventy percent of carbondioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the
lungs

(1) as bicarbonate ions

(2) in the form of dissolved gas molecules
(3) by binding to RBC
(4) as carbamino-haemoglobin

15) Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful
expiration, because of

(1) Residual Volume (RV)

(2) lnspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
(3) Tidal Volume (TV)
(4) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 1 4 1 1 4 2 4 4 2 1 2 3 2 4 2 4 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 3 3 3 4 3 3 2 4 4 1 3 1 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 2 3 4 1 2 1 3 4 4 2 4 1 4 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 4 2 3 3 1 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 2 3 4 1 4 1 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 1 4 4 1 4 4 1 2 1 3 4 1 1

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 1 3 3 1 3 3 2 1 1 1 3 1 1 2

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 2 2 2 3 2 3 1 1 3 2 1 3 3 4 2 4 4 2 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 4 1 2 3 1 1 2 3 2 2 2 4 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 1 2 4 2 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 3

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 1 1 2 4 4 1 1 4 2 3 2 3 1 3 3 1 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 4 2 1 3 1 3 2 1 1 2 1 3 1 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

f = C m x ky
T–1 = [M]x [MT–2]y
0 0
M L T–1 = Mx+yT–2y
Comparing powers of M and T
M: x + y = 0

T : –2y = –1 ⇒ y =
OR
Time-period of simple pendulum
T = 2π

f=
f = C m x ky
Comparing powers of m and k

x=

3)

v = β x–2n

so = – 2nβ x–2n–1

Now a = v = (βx–2n) (–2nβ x–2n–1)

⇒ a = –2nβ2 x–4n–1

4) ⇒
5)

tan θ = , θ = 53°
53° North of west

6)
F.B.D. of block
N2 = F2 + (mg)2

7)

8) For (A) → For (B) →

T= T=
T = 3g T = 4g
Reading → T′ = 2T Reading → T′ = 2T
= 6g = 8g

9)

10)

KE ∝ t ⇒ u2∝t ⇒ u ∝
a=

11) Wext + Wc = ΔK = 0,

Wext – mg = 0 Wext = = (0.5) (10) = J.

12)

Wfr = Uf – Ui
–0.1mg × 10 = mgh – mg × 1.2
–1 = h – 1.2

h = 0.2 m

13)
At P point,
KE = 2 PE

mv2 = 2 mgh

× =2×g×h
H – h = 2h

⇒h=

and v = =2

14) Since P' = n3P

∵ n=3 P' = 27P

15)

At

⇒ Now

16) The bob of the pendulum moves in a circle of radius (R + R sin 30°) =
Force equations: T sin 30° =m
T cos 30° = mg

⇒ tan30° =

17)

∴ Required ratio = 1 : 3 : 5

18)

19)
h = R – R cos θ
v2 = u2 + 2 g h
= u2 + 2 g R(1 – cos θ) ....(i)

....(ii)
When the particle loses contact
N=0 ....(iii)
From (i), (ii) and (iii), we have
v2 = gR cos θ = u2 + 2gR(1 – cos θ)
3gR cos θ = u2 + 2gR
∴u=0

θ = cos–1

20)
Let force between two charge be F. Then

=
so, required ratio

21)
Let, charge q be placed at P.
At point P forces due to 20 μC & –5μC should be in opposite direction.

For net force & from coulomb's law force

22) Inside the cavity net charge is zero.

∴ Q1 = 0 and σ1 = 0
There is no effect of point charges +Q, –Q and induced charge on inner surface on the outer
surface.
∴ Q2 = 0 and σ2 = 0

23) For spherical shell

(if r ≥ R)
=0 (if r < R)
Force on charge in electric field, F = qE
∴F=0 (For r < R)

(For r > R)
24)
Let us consider a differential element subtending at angle dQ at the centre Q as shown in
the figure. Linear charge density

Charge on the element

Electric field at the centre O due to dq is

Resolving dE into two rectangular component, we find the component dE cos θ will be counter
balanced by another element on left portion. Hence resultant field at O is the resultant of the
component dE sinθ only.

The direction of E is towards negative y-axis

25)
After placing similar cubic at the bottom, we get cube of side 2L having change q at its centre.

From the Gauss's law electric flux through whole cube, ϕ =

Flux passing through shaded face

26) The circuit can be reduced to

The equivalent capacitance of the combination is

Ceq = C + C = 2C

27) When switch is closed then both capacitor will be parallel.

Ceq = 2C

Energy
E1 = CV2
When switch is opened charge on right capacitor remain CV while potential on left capacitor
remain same.
Dielectric K = 5
C' = KC
C' = 5C

28) Capacitance of a capacitor with a dielectric of dielectric constant k is given by

15 × 10–12 =
k = 8.5

29) Capacitance of sphere is given by :

If, C = 1F then radius of sphere needed :

9 × 109 m is very large, it is not possible to obtain such a large sphere. Infact earth has radius
6.4 × 106 m only and capacitance of earth is 711 μF.

30) Charge,

= 1000C
31)
Current is constant in the conductor, I = constant

Resistance of element of conductor,

Drift velocity,

As and

32)

33)

Applying Kirchhoff voltage law, KVL C to B

VC – 2 – 4 × 1 = VB
VC – VB = 6V

34) They have high resistivity, low-temperature coefficient of resistance ability to attain good
resistance values in small size.

35)
36) The mean value of refractive index,

and

Δμ =
= 0.02

Thus

37)

MSD = 0.05 cm, VSD =

Vernier constant = 1 MSD -1 VSD

= where 1 MSD = 0.5 mm

LC =
Reading =5.10+VC×24=5.10+0.024=5.124cm

38)

h= …(1)

....(2)

....(3)

39) =u+ (2n – 1)

55 = 0 + (2n – 1)
11 = 2n – 1 ⇒ n = 6
so total distance fallen by the particle

S = ut + at2= 0 + × 10 × (6)2 = 180 m

40)

From given v – x graph

Equation is v =
⇒ v = –3x + 30
as a =
⇒ a = (–3x + 30) (–3)
⇒ a = 9x – 90

41)
After time t.

Since

–v1v2 + g2t2 = 0 ⇒ t =

42) Let M is the mass of the chain of length L. If y is the maximum length of chain which can
hang outside the table without sliding, then for equilibrium of the chain, the weight of hanging
part must be balanced by the force of friction on the portion of the table.

W = fL ...(i)
But from figure

and

So that
Substituting these values of W and fL in eqn. (i), we get

or or
or

43)

F1 = mg sinθ + μ mg cos θ
F2 = mg sinθ – μ mg cos θ

∴ tanθ + μ = 3(tanθ – μ)
2μ = tanθ ⇒ θ = tan–1(2μ)

44) For the upper half

.....(1)
For the lower half

......(2)
From (1) & (2)

45) At x = 6, KE = 8J
P.E. = (6 – 4)2 – 16 = –12J
T.E. = K.E. + P.E. = 8 – 12 = –4J
U = (x – 4)2 – 16
at x = 4 U is minimum
Umin = –16J
K.E.max = T.E. – Umin = –4 –(–16) = 12J

46)

at x = x2, F = 0

(for stable equilibrium)

47)
We have, from the given figure
Fnet = 2F cosθ

Fnet =
For maximum Fnet

48) . As C = constant,

So,

⇒ 1.2q1 = q1 + 2 ⇒ 0.2 q1 = 2
⇒ q1 = 10C

49) In parallel combination, equivalent resistance,

or, ∴ R = 0.858mΩ

50)
Equivalent resistance,
Req = 2Ω
 At point D,
Current through

At point C,
Current through R2,

CHEMISTRY

51)

52) Acidic strength ∝ –I or –M effect ∝

53)

54) –I power increases acidity.

55)
56) S is most stabilise so, has minimum value.

57) Both have same molecular formula.

58)

59) Both have same M.F. but different F.G.

60)

61)

62)
both-CH3 are anti to each other.

63)
64)
If 4th group is on horizontal line then configuration become opposite

65)

66)
4-Iodo-2, 2, 3-trimethylhexane

67) If acid is strongest, its conjugate base is the weakest and is the best leaving group.
Strongest acid is

Thus, is the best leaving group.

68) Cyclic and tertiary halides undergo hydrolysis by SN1 mechanism and involve the formation
of carbocation intermediate. Greater the stability of carbocation, higher is the ease of halides
to undergo hydrolysis. The order of stability of carbocations is as

However, C—Br bond in bromobenzene acquires some double bond character, hence it has
least tendency to undergo hydrolysis. Therefore, the increasing order of hydrolysis of the given
compounds is
69)

(A) A mixture of an alkyl halide and aryl halide when treated with sodium in dry ether and this
is called Wurtz-Fitting reaction.
(B) Aryl halides give analogous compound when treated with sodium in dry ether, in which two
aryl groups are joined together. It is called Fitting reaction.
(C) Diazonium salt when treated with cuprous chloride or cuprous bromide gives
chlorobenzene or bromobenzene. The reaction is known as Sandmeyer’s reaction.
(D) Alkyl iodides are prepared by the reaction of alkyl chlorides with sodium iodide in dry
acetone. The reaction is known as Finkelstein reaction.

70)

71)

72)

73)
74) 7α – H in P

75)

76)
It is oxidative ozonolysis.

77) A : 2 – Pentyne B : trans-2-butene

78)
79) NaNH2 is used to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne

80)

81)

82) Addition of HCN to carbonyl compound is nucleophilic addition reaction.

83)

84)

85)

88) As the stability of radical increases bond energy decreases.

89) Molecule is symmetrical
n–1
Total stereoisomer = 2 +
4–1
=2 +
= 23 + 2 = 10

90)

91)

92) Due to , there is formation of benzyne intermediate.

which gives two product is equivalent amount.

93) II is most reactive due to three-NO2 at o and p-positions. IV is least reactive due to each of
resonance activation by nitro group present at meta-position. I is more reactive than III due to
two NO2 group at o and p-position.

94)
96)

97)

98)

99)
 100)

BIOLOGY-I

101)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

102)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

103)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99

104)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

110) NCERT Page # 139

111) NCERT Page # 138

112) NCERT Page # 140

113) NCERT Page # 140

114) NCERT Page # 141

123)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123

124)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

125)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

126)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 105

127)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 105

132)

Type of gametes = 2n, here n is no. of heterozygous gene.

133) NCERT Pg. # 56, 57 (E) / 63, 64 (H)

134) Sex-linked inheritance

135) NCERT pg.no. 68

136) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 132

137)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93-99

140) NCERT Page # 139

141) NCERT Page # 140

142) NCERT Page # 138

146)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

149) Aneuploidy

150)
 NCERT pg.no. 67

BIOLOGY-II

151)

NCERT pg.no. 59, 60, 61, 69

152)

NCERT pg.no 71

153) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 61, 62

154) NCERT Pg. # 92 (Chromosomal Disorder)

155) XIth NCERT-206

156) XIth NCERT-209

157) XIth NCERT-212

158) XIth NCERT - 213-214

159) XIth NCERT-214

160) NCERT XI, Page # 48;49

161) NCERT XI, Page # 48,49

162) NCERT XI Page # 42

163) NCERT XI Page # 42,43,44

164) NCERT XI Page # 48

165) NCERT XI Page # 48

166) NCERT XI Page # 48

167) NCERT XI, Pg. # 102

168) NCERT XI, Pg. # 104

169) NCERT XI, Pg. # 103, 104

170) NEW NCERT XI, Pg. # 82

171) NEW NCERT XI, Pg. # 81

172) NEW NCERT XI, Pg. # 83

173) NCERT XI, Pg. # 112

174)

NCERT P.No. # 195

175) NCERT P.No. # 196

176)

NCERT P.No. # 199

177)

NCERT P.No. # 194

178)

NCERT P.No. # 194

179)

NCERT P.No. # 196

180)

Decrease in affinity between O2 and Hb and dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin (Right shift).

181)
NCERT XI, Page # 184

182)

NCERT XI, Page # 190

183)

NCERT XI, Page # 186,187

184)

NCERT XI, Page # 186

185)

NCERT XI, Page # 190

186)

NCERT pg.no. 73

187) NCERT Pg. # 83 (Linkage and Recombination)

188) XIth NCERT-206

189) XIth NCERT-208

190) XIth NCERT-209

191) NCERT XI Page # 41,42,44,45

192) NCERT XI Page # 46

193) NCERT XI Page # 48

194) NCERT XI, Pg. # 112

195) NCERT XI, Pg. # 112

196)
NCERT P.No. # 194

197)

NCERT P.No. # 197

198)

NCERT XI, Page # 190,191

199)

NCERT XI, Page # 189,190

200)

NCERT XI, Page # 186,187