Chapter 1: Units associated with basic electrical quantities

1. A resistance of 50kΩ has a conductance of:

(a) 20S (b) 0.02S

(c) 0.02mS (d) 20 kS

2. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a)1N = 1kgm/s2 (b)1V = 1J/C

(c) 30mA = 0.03A (d) 1J = 1N/m

3. The power dissipated by a resistor of 10Ω when a current of 2A passes through it is:

(a) 0.4W (b) 20W (c) 40W (d) 200W

4. A mass of 1200 g is accelerated at 200 cm/s2 by a force. The value of the force required is:

(a) 2.4N (b) 2,400N

(c) 240kN (d) 0.24N

5. A charge of 240C is transferred in 2 minutes. The current flowing is:

(a) 120A (b) 480A (c) 2A (d) 8A

6. A current of 2A flows for 10 h through a100Ω resistor. The energy consumed by the resistor is:

(a) 0.5 kWh (b) 4kWh

(c) 2 kWh (d) 0.02kWh

7. The unit of quantity of electricity is the:

(a) volt (b) coulomb

(c) ohm (d) joule

8. Electromotive force is provided by:

(a) resistances

(b) a conducting path

(c) an electric current

(d) an electrical supply source

9. The coulomb is a unit of:

(a) power

(b) voltage

(c) energy

(d) quantity of electricity

10. In order that work may be done:

(a) a supply of energy is required

(b) the circuit must have a switch

(c) coal must be burnt

(d) two wires are necessary

11. The ohm is the unit of:

(a) charge (b) resistance

(c) power (d) current

12. The unit of current is the:

(a) volt (b) coulomb

(c) joule (d) ampere

Chapter 2: An introduction to electric circuits

1. 60μs is equivalent to:

(a) 0.06 (b) 0.00006 s

(c) 1000 minutes (d) 0.6 s

2. The current which flows when 0.1 coulomb is transferred in 10ms is:

(a) 1A (b) 10A

(c) 10mA (d) 100mA

3. The p.d. applied to a 1 kΩ resistance in order that a current of 100μAmay flow is:

(a) 1V (b) 100V (c) 0.1V (d) 10V

4. Which of the following formulae for electrical power is incorrect?

(a) VI (b)V/I

(c) I2R (d)V2/R

5. The power dissipated by a resistor of 4Ω when a current of 5A passes through it is:

(a) 6.25W (b) 20W

(c) 80W (d) 100W

6. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Electric current is measured in volts

(b) 200kΩ resistance is equivalent to 2MΩ

(c) An ammeter has a low resistance and must be connected in parallel with a circuit

(d) An electrical insulator has a high resistance

7. A current of 3A flows for 50 h through a 6Ω resistor. The energy consumed by the resistor is:

(a) 0.9 kWh (b) 2.7kWh

(c) 9kWh (d) 27kWh

8. What must be known in order to calculate the energy used by an electrical appliance?

(a) voltage and current

(b) current and time of operation

(c) power and time of operation

(d) current and resistance

9. Voltage drop is the:

(a) maximum potential

(b) difference in potential between two points

(c) voltage produced by a source

(d) voltage at the end of a circuit

10. A 240V, 60W lamp has a working resistance of:

(a) 1400ohm (b) 60ohm

(c) 960ohm (d) 325ohm

11. The largest number of 100W electric light bulbs which can be operated from a 240V supply fitted with
a 13A fuse is:

(a) 2 (b) 7 (c) 31 (d) 18

12. The energy used by a 1.5kW heater in 5minutes is:

(a) 5 J (b) 450 J

(c) 7500 J (d) 450000J

13. When an atom loses an electron, the atom:

(a) becomes positively charged

(b) disintegrates

(c) experiences no effect at all

(d) becomes negatively charged

Chapter 3: Resistance Variation

1. The unit of resistivity is:

(a) ohms

(b) ohm millimetre

(c) ohm metre

(d) ohm/metre

2. The length of a certain conductor of resistance 100Ω is doubled and its cross-sectional area is halved.
Its new resistance is:

(a) 100Ω (b) 200Ω

(c) 50Ω (d) 400Ω

3. The resistance of a 2km length of cable of cross-sectional area 2mm2 and resistivity of 2×10−8Ωm is:

(a) 0.02Ω (b) 20Ω

(c) 0.02mΩ (d) 200Ω

4. A piece of graphite has a cross-sectional area of 10mm2. If its resistance is 0.1Ω and its resistivity
10×108Ωm, its length is:

(a) 10km (b) 10 cm

(c) 10mm (d) 10m

5. The symbol for the unit of temperature coefficient of resistance is:

(a) Ω/◦C (b) Ω

(c) ◦C (d) Ω/Ω◦C

6. A coil of wire has a resistance of 10Ω at 0◦C. If the temperature coefficient of resistance for the wire is
0.004/◦C, its resistance at 100◦Cis:

(a) 0.4Ω (b) 1.4Ω

(c) 14Ω (d) 10Ω

7. A nickel coil has a resistance of 13Ω at 50◦C. If the temperature coefficient ofresistance at 0◦C is
0.006/◦C, the resistance at0◦C is:

(a) 16.9Ω (b) 10Ω

(c) 43.3Ω (d) 0.1Ω

8. A colour coding of red-violet-black on a resistor indicates a value of:

(a) 27Ω±20% (b) 270Ω

(c) 270Ω±20% (d) 27Ω±10%

9. A resistor marked as 4K7G indicates a value of:

(a) 47Ω±20% (b) 4.7 kΩ±20%

(c) 0.47Ω±10% (d) 4.7 kΩ±2%

Chapter 4: Batteries and Alternative Sources

1. A battery consists of:

(a) a cell (b) a circuit

(c) a generator (d) a number of cells

2. The terminal p.d. of a cell of e.m.f. 2V and internal resistance 0.1Ω when supplying a current of 5A will
be:
(a) 1.5V(b) 2V

(c) 1.9V (d) 2.5V

3. Five cells, each with an e.m.f. of 2V and internal resistance 0.5Ω are connected in series. The resulting
battery will have:

(a) an e.m.f. of 2Vand an internal resistance of 0.5Ω

(b) an e.m.f. of 10V and an internal resistance of 2.5Ω

(c) an e.m.f. of 2Vand an internal resistance of 0.1Ω

(d) an e.m.f. of 10V and an internal resistance of 0.1Ω

4. If the five cells of question 3 are connected in parallel, the resulting battery will have:

(a) an e.m.f. of 2Vand an internal resistance of 0.5Ω

(b) an e.m.f. of 10V and an internal resistance of 2.5Ω

(c) an e.m.f. of 2Vand an internal resistance of 0.1Ω

(d) an e.m.f. of 10V and an internal resistance of 0.1Ω

5. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) A Leclanché cell is suitable for use in torches

(b) A nickel cadmium cell is an example of a primary cell

(c) When a cell is being charged its terminal p.d. exceeds the cell e.m.f.

(d) A secondary cell may be recharged after use

6. Which of the following statements is false?

When two metal electrodes are used in a simple cell, the one that is higher in the electrochemical series:

(a) tends to dissolve in the electrolyte

(b) is always the negative electrode

(c) reacts most readily with oxygen

(d) acts as an anode

7. Five 2V cells, each having an internal resistance of 0.2Ω, are connected in series to a load of
resistance 14Ω. The current flowing in the circuit is:

(a) 10A (b) 1.4A

(c) 1.5A (d)2/3A

8. For the circuit of question 7, the p.d. at the battery terminals is:

(a) 10V (b) 9 1/3V

(c) 0V (d) 10 2/3V

9. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) The capacity of a cell is measured in volts

(b) A primary cell converts electrical energy into chemical energy

(c) Galvanizing iron helps to prevent corrosion

(d) A positive electrode is termed the cathode

10. The greater the internal resistance of a cell:

(a) the greater the terminal p.d.

(b) the less the e.m.f.

(c) the greater the e.m.f.

(d) the less the terminal p.d.

11. The negative pole of a dry cell is made of:

(a) carbon

(b) copper

(c) zinc

(d) mercury

12. The energy of a secondary cell is usually renewed:

(a) by passing a current through it

(b) it cannot be renewed at all

(c) by renewing its chemicals

(d) by heating it

13. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) A zinc carbon battery is rechargeable and is not classified as hazardous

(b) A nickel cadmium battery is not rechargeable and is classified as hazardous

(c) A lithium battery is used in watches and is not rechargeable

(d) An alkaline manganese battery is used in torches and is classified as hazardous

Chapter 5: Series and Parallel Networks

1. If two 4Ω resistors are connected in series the effective resistance of the circuit is:

(a) 8Ω (b) 4Ω (c) 2Ω (d) 1Ω

2. If two 4Ω resistors are connected in parallel the effective resistance of the circuit is:

(a) 8Ω (b) 4Ω (c) 2Ω (d) 1Ω

3. With the switch in the figure closed, the ammeter reading will indicate:

(a) 1A (b) 75A (c) 1/3A (d) 3A

4. The effect of connecting an additional parallel load to an electrical supply source is to increase the

(a) resistance of the load

(b) voltage of the source

(c) current taken from the source

(d) p.d. across the load

5. The equivalent resistance when a resistor of 1/3Ω is connected in parallel with a 1/4Ω resistance is:

(a) 1/7Ω (b) 7Ω (c) 1/12 Ω (d) 3/4Ω

6. With the switch in the figure closed, the ammeter reading will indicate:

(a) 108A (b) 1/3A (c) 3A (d) 4 3/5A

7. A 6Ω resistor is connected in parallel with the three resistors of Fig. 5.57. With the switch closed the
ammeter reading will indicate:

(a) 3/4A (b) 4A (c) 1/4A (d) 1 1/3A

8. A 10Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 15Ω resistor and the combination in series with a 12Ω
resistor. The equivalent resistance of the circuit is:
(a) 37Ω (b) 18Ω (c) 27Ω (d) 4Ω

9. When three 3Ω resistors are connected in parallel, the total resistance is:

(a) 3Ω (b) 9Ω

(c) 1Ω (d) 0.333Ω

10. The total resistance of two resistors R1 and R2 when connected in parallel is given by:

(a) R1+ R2 (b) 1/R1 + 1/R2

(c) (R1+ R2)/R1R2 (d) R1R2/(R1+ R2)

11. If in the circuit shown in the figure, the reading on the voltmeter is 5V and the reading on the ammeter
is 25mA, the resistance of resistor R is:

(a) 0.005Ω (b) 5Ω

(c) 125Ω (d) 200Ω

12. A variable resistor has a range of 0 to 5 kΩ. If the slider is set at halfway, the value of current flowing
through a 750Ω load, when connected to a 100V supply and used as a potentiometer, is:

(a) 25mA (b) 40mA

(c) 17.39mA (d) 20mA

Chapter 6: Capacitors and Capacitance

1. Electrostatics is a branch of electricity concerned with

(a) energy flowing across a gap between conductors

(b) charges at rest

(c) charges in motion

(d) energy in the form of charges

2. The capacitance of a capacitor is the ratio

(a) charge to p.d. between plates

(b) p.d. between plates to plate spacing

(c) p.d. between plates to thickness of dielectric

(d) p.d. between plates to charge

3. The p.d. across a 10μF capacitor to charge it with 10mC is

(a) 10V (b) 1kV

(c) 1V (d) 10V

4. The charge on a 10pF capacitor when the voltage applied to it is 10kV is

(a) 100μC (b) 0.1C

(c) 0.1μC (d) 0.01μC

5. Four 2μF capacitors are connected in parallel. The equivalent capacitance is

(a) 8μF (b) 0.5μF

(c) 2μF (d) 6μF

6. Four 2μF capacitors are connected in series. The equivalent capacitance is

(a) 8μF (b) 0.5μF

(c) 2μF (d) 6μF

7. State which of the following is false. The capacitance of a capacitor

(a) is proportional to the cross-sectional area of the plates

(b) is proportional to the distance between the plates

(c) depends on the number of plates

(d) is proportional to the relative permittivity of the dielectric

8. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) An air capacitor is normally a variable type

(b) A paper capacitor generally has a shorter service life than most other types of capacitor

(c) An electrolytic capacitor must be used only on a.c. supplies

(d) Plastic capacitors generally operate satisfactorily under conditions of high temperature

9. The energy stored in a 10μF capacitor when charged to 500V is

(a) 1.25mJ (b) 0.025μJ

(c) 1.25 J (d) 1.25C

10. The capacitance of a variable air capacitor is at maximum when

(a) the movable plates half overlap the fixed plates

(b) the movable plates are most widely separated from the fixed plates

(c) both sets of plates are exactly meshed

(d) the movable plates are closer to one side of the fixed plate than to the other

11. When a voltage of 1kV is applied to a capacitor, the charge on the capacitor is 500nC. The
capacitance of the capacitor is:

(a) 2×109 F (b) 0.5pF

(c) 0.5mF (d) 0.5nF

Chapter 7: Magnetic Circuits

1. The unit of magnetic flux density is the:

(a) weber (b) weber per metre

(c) ampere per metre (d) tesla

2. The total flux in the core of an electrical machine is 20mWb and its flux density is 1T. The cross-
sectional area of the core is:

(a) 0.05m2 (b) 0.02m2

(c) 20m2 (d) 50m2

3. If the total flux in a magnetic circuit is 2mWb and the cross-sectional area of the circuit is 10cm2, the
flux density is:

(a) 0.2T (b) 2T

(c) 20T (d) 20mT

Questions 4 to 8 refer to the following data:

A coil of 100 turns is wound uniformly on a wooden ring. The ring has a mean circumference of 1m and a
uniform cross-sectional area of 10cm2. The current in the coil is 1 A.

4. The magnetomotive force is:

(a) 1A (b) 10A

(c) 100A (d) 1000A

5. The magnetic field strength is:

(a) 1A/m (b) 10A/m

(c) 100 A/m (d) 1000 A/m

6. The magnetic flux density is:

(a) 800T (b) 8.85×10−10T

(c) 4π ×10−7T (d) 40π μT

7. The magnetic flux is:

(a) 0.04π μWb (b) 0.01Wb

(c) 8.85μWb (d) 4π μWb

8. The reluctance is:

(a) 108/4π H−1 (b) 1000H−1

(c) 2.5/π×109 H−1 (d)108/8.85H−1

9. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) For non-magnetic materials reluctance is high

(b) Energy loss due to hysteresis is greater for harder magnetic materials than for softer magnetic
materials

(c) The remanence of a ferrous material is measured in ampere/metre

(d) Absolute permeability is measured in henrys per metre

10. The current flowing in a 500-turn coil wound on an iron ring is 4A. The reluctance of the circuit is
2×106 H. The flux produced is:

(a) 1Wb (b) 1000Wb

(c) 1mWb (d) 62.5μWb

11. A comparison can be made between magnetic and electrical quantities. From the following list, match
the magnetic quantities with their equivalent electrical quantities.

(a) current (b) reluctance

(c) e.m.f. (d) flux

(e) m.m.f. (f) resistance

12. The effect of an air gap in a magnetic circuit is to:

(a) increase the reluctance

(b) reduce the flux density

(c) divide the flux

(d) reduce the magnetomotive force

13. Two bar magnets are placed parallel to each other and about 2cm apart, such that the south pole of
one magnet is adjacent to the north pole of the other. With this arrangement, the magnets will:

(a) attract each other

(b) have no effect on each other

(c) repel each other

(d) lose their magnetism

Chapter 8: Electromagnetism

1. A conductor carries a current of 10A at right-angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 500mT.
If the length of the conductor in the field is 20 cm, the force on the conductor is:

(a) 100kN (b) 1kN

(c) 100N (d) 1N

2. If a conductor is horizontal, the current flowing from left to right and the direction of the surrounding
magnetic field is from above to below, the force exerted on the conductor is:

(a) from left to right

(b) from below to above

(c) away from the viewer

(d) towards the viewer

3. For the current-carrying conductor lying in the magnetic field shown in the figure, the direction of the
force on the conductor is:

(a) to the left (b) upwards

(c) to the right (d) downwards

4. For the current-carrying conductor lying in the magnetic field shown in the figure, the direction of the
current in the conductor is:

(a) towards the viewer

(b) away from the viewer

5. The figure below shows a rectangular coil of wire placed in a magnetic field and free to rotate about
axis AB. If the current flows into the coil at C, the coil will:

(a) commence to rotate anti-clockwise

(b) commence to rotate clockwise

(c) remain in the vertical position

(d) experience a force towards the north pole

6. The force on an electron travelling at 107m/s in a magnetic field of density 10μT is 1.6×10−17N. The
electron has a charge of:

(a) 1.6×10−28C (b) 1.6×10−15C

(c) 1.6×10−19C (d) 1.6×10−25C

7. An electric bell depends for its action on:

(a) a permanent magnet

(b) reversal of current

(c) a hammer and a gong

(d) an electromagnet

8. A relay can be used to:

(a) decrease the current in a circuit

(b) control a circuit more readily

(c) increase the current in a circuit

(d) control a circuit from a distance

9. There is a force of attraction between two current-carrying conductors when the current in them is:

(a) in opposite directions

(b) in the same direction

(c) of different magnitude

(d) of the same magnitude

10. The magnetic field due to a current-carrying conductor takes the form of:

(a) rectangles

(b) concentric circles

(c) wavy lines

(d) straight lines radiating outwards

Chapter 9: Electromagnetic Induction

1. A current changing at a rate of 5 A/s in a coil of inductance 5H induces an e.m.f. of:

(a) 25V in the same direction as the applied voltage

(b) 1V in the same direction as the applied voltage

(c) 25V in the opposite direction to the applied voltage

(d) 1V in the opposite direction to the applied voltage

2. A bar magnet is moved at a steady speed of 1.0m/s towards a coil of wire which is connected to a
centre-zero galvanometer. The magnet is now withdrawn along the same path at 0.5 m/s. The deflection
of the galvanometer is in the:

(a) same direction as previously, with the magnitude of the deflection doubled

(b) opposite direction as previously, with the magnitude of the deflection halved

(c) same direction as previously, with the magnitude of the deflection halved

(d) opposite direction as previously, with the magnitude of the deflection doubled

3. When a magnetic flux of 10Wb links with a circuit of 20 turns in 2 s, the induced e.m.f. is:

(a) 1V (b) 4V

(c) 100V (d) 400V

4. A current of 10A in a coil of 1000 turns produces a flux of 10mWb linking with the coil. The coil
inductance is:

(a) 106H (b) 1H

(c) 1μH (d) 1mH

5. An e.m.f. of 1V is induced in a conductor moving at 10 cm/s in a magnetic field of 0.5T. The effective
length of the conductor in the magnetic field is:

(a) 20cm (b) 5m

(c) 20m (d) 50m

6. Which of the following is false?

(a) Fleming’s left-hand rule or Lenz’s law may be used to determine the direction of an induced
e.m.f.

(b) An induced e.m.f. is set up whenever the magnetic field linking that circuit changes

(c) The direction of an induced e.m.f. is always such as to oppose the effect producing it

(d) The induced e.m.f. in any circuit is proportional to the rate of change of the magnetic flux linking the
circuit

7. The effect of inductance occurs in an electrical circuit when:

(a) the resistance is changing

(b) the flux is changing

(c) the current is changing

8. Which of the following statements is false?

The inductance of an inductor increases:

(a) with a short, thick coil

(b) when wound on an iron core

(c) as the number of turns increases

(d) as the cross-sectional area of the coil decreases

9. The mutual inductance between two coils, when a current changing at 20 A/s in one coil induces an
e.m.f. of 10mV in the other, is:

(a) 0.5H (b) 200mH

(c) 0.5mH (d) 2H

10. A strong permanent magnet is plunged into a coil and left in the coil. What is the effect produced on
the coil after a short time?

(a) There is no effect

(b) The insulation of the coil burns out

(c) A high voltage is induced

(d) The coil winding becomes hot

11. Self-inductance occurs when:

(a) the current is changing

(b) the circuit is changing

(c) the flux is changing

(d) the resistance is changing

12. Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are related to:

(a) the e.m.f. of a chemical cell

(b) the e.m.f. of a generator

(c) the current flowing in a conductor

(d) the strength of a magnetic field

Chapter 10: Electrical Measuring Instruments and Measurements

1. Which of the following would apply to a moving coil instrument?

(a) An uneven scale, measuring d.c.

(b) An even scale, measuring a.c.

(c) An uneven scale, measuring a.c.

(d) An even scale, measuring d.c.

2. Which would refer to a moving iron instrument?

(a) An uneven scale, measuring d.c.

(b) An even scale, measuring a.c.

(c) An uneven scale, measuring a.c.

(d) An even scale, measuring d.c.

3. Which would refer to a moving coil rectifier instrument?

(a) An uneven scale, measuring d.c.

(b) An even scale, measuring a.c.

(c) An uneven scale, measuring a.c.

(d) An even scale, measuring d.c.

4. Which of the following is needed to extend the range of a milliammeter to read voltages

of the order of 100V?

(a) a parallel high-value resistance

(b) a series high-value resistance

(c) a parallel low-value resistance

(d) a series low-value resistance

5. The figure shows a scale of a multi-range ammeter. What is the current indicated when switched to a
25A scale?

(a) 84A (b) 5.6A

(c) 14A (d) 8.4A

18. The input and output powers of a system are 2mW and 18mW, respectively. The decibel power ratio
of output power to input power is:

(a) 9 (b) 9.54

(c) 1.9 (d) 19.08

19. The input and output voltages of a system are 500μV and 500mV, respectively. The decibel voltage
ratio of output to input voltage (assuming input resistance equals load resistance) is:

(a) 1000 (b) 30

(c) 0 (d) 60

20. The input and output currents of a system are 3mA and 18mA, respectively. The decibel ratio of
output to input current (assuming the input and load resistances are equal) is:

(a) 15.56 (b) 6

(c) 1.6 (d) 7.78

21. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) The Schering bridge is normally used for measuring unknown capacitances

(b) A.c. electronic measuring instruments can handle a much wider range of frequency than the moving
coil instrument
(c) A complex waveform is one which is non sinusoidal

(d) A square wave normally contains the fundamental and even harmonics

22. A voltmeter has an f.s.d. of 100V, a sensitivity of 1kΩ/V and an accuracy of ±2% of f.s.d. When the
voltmeter is connected into a circuit it indicates 50V. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) Voltage reading is 50±2V

(b) Voltmeter resistance is 100 kΩ

(c) Voltage reading is 50V±2%

(d) Voltage reading is 50V±4%

23. A potentiometer is used to:

(a) compare voltages

(b) measure power factor

(c) compare currents

(d) measure phase sequence

Chapter 11: Semiconductor Diodes

In questions 1 to 5, select which statements are true.

1. In pure silicon:

(a) the holes are the majority carriers

(b) the electrons are the majority carriers

(c) the holes and electrons exist in equal numbers

(d) conduction is due to there being more electrons than holes

2. Intrinsic semiconductor materials have:

(a) covalent bonds forming a tetrahedral structure

(b) pentavalent atoms added

(c) conduction by means of doping

(d) a resistance which increases with increase of temperature

3. Pentavalent impurities:

(a) have three valency electrons

(b) introduce holes when added to a semiconductor material

(c) are introduced by adding aluminium atoms to a semiconductor material

(d) increase the conduction of a semiconductor material

4. Free electrons in a p-type material:

(a) are majority carriers

(b) take no part in conduction

(c) are minority carriers

(d) exist in the same numbers as holes

5. When an unbiased p–n junction is formed:

(a) the p-side is positive with respect to the n-side

(b) a contact potential exists

(c) electrons diffuse from the p-type material to the n-type material

(d) conduction is by means of majority carriers

In questions 6 to 10, select which statements are false.

6.

(a) The resistance of an insulator remains approximately constant with increase of temperature

(b) The resistivity of a good conductor is about 10 7 to 108 ohm metres

(c) The resistivity of a conductor increases with increase of temperature

(d) The resistance of a semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature

7. Trivalent impurities:

(a) have three valeney electrons

(b) introduce holes when added to a semiconductor material

(c) can be introduced to a semiconductor material by adding antimony atoms to it

(d) increase the conductivity of a semiconductor material when added to it

8. Free electrons in an n-type material:

(a) are majority carriers

(b) diffuse into the p-type material when a p–n junction is formed
(c) as a result of the diffusion process leave the n-type material positively charged

(d) exist in the same numbers as the holes in the n-type material

9. When a germanium p–n junction diode is forward biased:

(a) current starts to flow in an appreciable amount when the applied voltage is about 600 mV

(b) the thickness or width of the depletion layer is reduced

(c) the curve representing the current flow is exponential

(d) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to the p-type material

10. When a silicon p–n junction diode is reverse biased:

(a) a constant current flows over a large range of voltages

(b) current flow is due to electrons in the n-type material

(c) current type is due to minority carriers

(d) the magnitude of the reverse current flow is usually less than 1μA

Chapter 12: Transistors

1. In normal operation, the junctions of a p–n–p transistor are

(a) both forward biased

(b) base–emitter forward biased and base– collector reverse biased

(c) both reverse biased

(d) base–collector forward biased and base– emitter reverse biased

2. In normal operation, the junctions of an n–p–n transistor are

(a) both forward biased

(b) base–emitter forward biased and base–collector reverse biased

(c) both reverse biased

(d) base–collector forward biased and base–emitter reverse biased

3. The current flow across the base–emitter junction of a p–n–p transistor is

(a) mainly electrons

(b) equal numbers of holes and electrons

(c) mainly holes

(d) the leakage current

4. The current flow across the base–emitter junction of an n–p–n transistor consists of

(a) mainly electrons

(b) equal numbers of holes and electrons

(c) mainly holes

(d) the leakage current

5. In normal operation an n–p–n transistor connected in common-base configuration has

(a) the emitter at a lower potential than the base

(b) the collector at a lower potential than the base

(c) the base at a lower potential than the emitter

(d) the collector at a lower potential than the emitter

6. In normal operation, a p–n–p transistor connected in common-base configuration has

(a) the emitter at a lower potential than the base

(b) the collector at a higher potential than the base

(c) the base at a higher potential than the emitter

(d) the collector at a lower potential than the emitter

7. If the per unit value of electrons which leave the emitter and pass to the collector is 0.9 in an n–p–n
transistor and the emitter current is 4mA, then

(a) the base current is approximately 4.4mA

(b) the collector current is approximately 3.6mA

(c) the collector current is approximately 4.4mA

(d) the base current is approximately 3.6mA

8. The base region of a p–n–p transistor is

(a) very thin and heavily doped with holes

(b) very thin and heavily doped with electrons

(c) very thin and lightly doped with holes

(d) very thin and lightly doped with electrons

9. The voltage drop across the base–emitter junction of a p–n–p silicon transistor in normal operation is
about

(a) 200mV (b) 600mV (c) zero (d) 4.4V

10. For a p–n–p transistor,

(a) the number of majority carriers crossing the base–emitter junction largely depends on the collector
voltage

(b) in common-base configuration, the collector current is proportional to the collector–base voltage

(c) in common-emitter configuration, the base current is less than the base current in common-
base configuration

(d) the collector current flow is independent of the emitter current flow for a given value of collector–base
voltage

In questions 11 to 15, which refer to the amplifier shown in the figure, select the correct answer from
those given.

11. If RL short-circuited:

(a) the amplifier signal output would fall to zero

(b) the collector current would fall to zero

(c) the transistor would overload

12. If R2 open-circuited:

(a) the amplifier signal output would fall to zero

(b) the operating point would be affected and the signal would distort

(c) the input signal would not be applied to the base

13. A voltmeter connected across RE reads zero. Most probably

(a) the transistor base–emitter junction has short-circuited

(b) RL has open-circuited

(c) R2 has short-circuited

14. A voltmeter connected across RL reads zero. Most probably

(a) the VCC supply battery is flat

(b) the base–collector junction of the transistor has gone open-circuit

(c) RL has open-circuited

15. If RE short-circuited:

(a) the load line would be unaffected

(b) the load line would be affected

In questions 16 to 20, which refer to the output characteristics shown in the figure, select the correct
answer from those given.

16. The load line represents a load resistor of

(a) 1 kΩ (b) 2 kΩ

(c) 3 kΩ (d) 0.5 kΩ

17. The no-signal collector dissipation for the operating point marked P is

(a) 12mW (b) 15mW

(c) 18mW (d) 21mW

18. The greatest permissible peak input current would be about

(a) 30μA (b) 35μA

(c) 60μA (d) 80μA

19. The greatest possible peak output voltage would then be about

(a) 5.2V(b) 6.5V

(c) 8.8V (d) 13V

20. The power dissipated in the load resistor under no-signal conditions is:

(a) 16mW (b) 18mW

(c) 20mW (d) 22mW

Chapter 13: DC Circuit Theory

1. Which of the following statements is true:

For the junction in the network shown in Fig. 13.88:

(a) I5−I4=I3−I2+I1 (b) I1+I2+I3=I4+I5

(c) I2+I3+I5=I1+I4 (d) I1−I2−I3−I4+I5=0

Fig. 13.88

2. Which of the following statements is true?

For the circuit shown in Fig. 13.89:

(a) E1+E2+E3 = Ir1+Ir2+I3r3

(b) E2+E3−E1−I (r1+r2+r3) = 0

(c) I (r1+r2+r3) = E1−E2−E3

(d) E2+E3−E1 = Ir1+Ir2+Ir3 Fig. 13.89

3. For the circuit shown in Fig. 13.90, the

internal resistance r is given by:

𝐼 𝑽−𝑬
(a) (b)
𝑉−𝐸 𝑰
𝐼 𝐸−𝑉
(c) (d)
𝐸−𝑉 𝐼
Fig. 13.90

4. For the circuit shown in Fig. 13.91, voltage

V is:

(a) 12V (b) 2V

(c) 10V (d) 0V

Fig. 13.91

5. For the circuit shown in Fig. 13.91, current I1 is:

(a) 2A (b) 14.4A (c) 0.5A (d) 0A

6. For the circuit shown in Fig. 13.91, currentI2 is:

(a) 2A (b) 14.4A (c) 0.5A (d) 0A

7. The equivalent resistance across terminals AB

of Fig. 13.92 is:

(a) 9.31Ω (b) 7.24Ω

(c) 10.0Ω (d) 6.75Ω

Fig 13.92

8. With reference to Fig. 13.93, which of the

following statements is correct?

(a) VPQ=2V

(b) VPQ=15V

(c) When a load is connected between P and Q, current would flow

from Q to P

(d) VPQ=20V Fig 13.93

9. In Fig. 13.93, if the 15V battery is replaced

by a short-circuit, the equivalent resistance

across terminals PQ is:

(a) 20Ω (b) 4.20Ω (c) 4.13Ω (d) 4.29Ω

10. For the circuit shown in Fig. 13.94, maximum

power transfer from the source is required.

For this to be so, which of the following

statements is true?

(a) R2=10Ω (b) R2=30Ω Fig 13.94

(c) R2=7.5Ω (d) R2=15Ω

11. The open-circuit voltage E across terminals

XY of Fig. 13.95 is:

(a) 0V (b) 20V

(c) 4V (d) 16V Fig 13.95

12. The maximum power transferred by the

source in Fig. 13.96 is:

(a) 5W (b) 200W

(c) 40W (d) 50W

Fig 13.96

13. For the circuit shown in Fig. 13.97, voltage

V is:

(a) 0V (b) 20V

(c) 4V (d) 16V

14. For the circuit shown in Fig. 13.97, currentI1 is:

(a) 25A (b) 4A (c) 0A (d) 20A

Fig 13.97

15. For the circuit shown in Fig. 13.97, current I2 is:

(a) 25A (b) 4A (c) 0A (d) 20A

16. The current flowing in the branches of a d.c. circuit may be determined using:

(a) Kirchhoff’s laws

(b) Lenz’s law

(c) Faraday’s laws

(d) Fleming’s left-hand rule

Chapter 14 – Alternating Voltages and Currents

1. The value of an alternating current at any given instant is:

(a) a maximum value

(b) a peak value

(c) an instantaneous value

(d) an r.m.s. value

2. An alternating current completes 100 cycles in

0.1 s. Its frequency is:

(a) 20Hz (b) 100Hz (c) 0.002Hz (d) 1kHz

3. In Fig. 14.21, at the instant shown, the generated

e.m.f. will be:

(a) zero

(b) an r.m.s. value

(c) an average value

(d) a maximum value

Fig 14.21

4. The supply of electrical energy for a consumer is usually by a.c. because:

(a) transmission and distribution are more easily effected

(b) it is most suitable for variable speed motors

(c) the volt drop in cables is minimal

(d) cable power losses are negligible

5. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) It is cheaper to use a.c. than d.c.

(b) Distribution of a.c. is more convenient than with d.c. since voltages may be readily altered using
transformers

(c) An alternator is an a.c. generator

(d) A rectifier changes d.c. to a.c.

6. An alternating voltage of maximum value 100V is applied to a lamp. Which of the following direct
voltages, if applied to the lamp, would cause the lamp to light with the same brilliance?

(a) 100V (b) 63.7V

(c) 70.7V (d) 141.4V

7. The value normally stated when referring to alternating currents and voltages is the:

(a) instantaneous value

(b) r.m.s. value

(c) average value

(d) peak value

8. State which of the following is false. For a sine wave:

(a) the peak factor is 1.414

(b) the r.m.s. value is 0.707×peak value

(c) the average value is 0.637×r.m.s. value

(d) the form factor is 1.11

9. An a.c. supply is 70.7V, 50Hz. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) The periodic time is 20ms

(b) The peak value of the voltage is 70.7V

(c) The r.m.s. value of the voltage is 70.7V

(d) The peak value of the voltage is 100V

10. An alternating voltage is given by v=100sin(50πt −0.30)V. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) The r.m.s. voltage is 100V

(b) The periodic time is 20ms

(c) The frequency is 25Hz

(d) The voltage is leading v=100sin50πt by 0.30 radians

11. The number of complete cycles of an alternating current occurring in one second is known as:

(a) the maximum value of the alternating current

(b) the frequency of the alternating current

(c) the peak value of the alternating current

(d) the r.m.s. or effective value

12. A rectifier conducts:

(a) direct currents in one direction

(b) alternating currents in one direction

(c) direct currents in both directions

(d) alternating currents in both directions

Chapter 15 – Single-Phase Series A.C. Circuits

1. An inductance of 10mH connected across a 100V, 50Hz supply has an inductive reactance of

(a) 10πΩ (b) 1000πΩ (c) πΩ (d) π H

2. When the frequency of an a.c. circuit containing resistance and inductance is increased, the current

(a) decreases (b) increases (c) stays the same

3. In question 2, the phase angle of the circuit

(a) decreases (b) increases (c) stays the same

4. When the frequency of an a.c. circuit containing resistance and capacitance is decreased, the current

(a) decreases (b) increases (c) stays the same

5. In question 4, the phase angle of the circuit

(a) decreases (b) increases (c) stays the same

6. A capacitor of 1μF is connected to a 50Hz supply. The capacitive reactance is

𝟏𝟎 𝜋 10
(a) 50MΩ (b) kΩ (c) 4 Ω (d) Ω
𝝅 10 𝜋

7. In a series a.c. circuit the voltage across a pure inductance is 12V and the voltage across a pure
resistance is 5V. The supply voltage is

(a) 13V (b) 17V (c) 7V (d) 2.4V

8. Inductive reactance results in a current that

(a) leads the voltage by 90◦

(b) is in phase with the voltage

(c) leads the voltage by π rad

(d) lags the voltage by π/2 rad

9. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) Impedance is at aminimum at resonance in an a.c. circuit

(b) The product of r.m.s. current and voltage gives the apparent power in an a.c. circuit

(c) Current is at a maximum at resonance in an a.c. circuit

𝑨𝒑𝒑𝒂𝒓𝒆𝒏𝒕 𝑷𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓
(d) gives power factor
𝑻𝒓𝒖𝒆 𝑷𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓

10. The impedance of a coil, which has a resistance of X ohms and an inductance of Y henrys, connected
across a supply of frequency K Hz, is

(a) 2πKY (b) X +Y (c)√𝑋 2 + 𝑌 2 (d)√𝑿𝟐 +(𝟐𝝅𝑲𝒀)𝟐

11. In question 10, the phase angle between the current and the applied voltage is given by
𝑌 𝟐𝝅𝑲𝒀 𝑋 2𝜋𝐾𝑌
(a) tan−1 (b) 𝐭𝐚𝐧−𝟏 (c) tan−1 (d) tan
𝑋 𝑿 2𝜋𝐾𝑌 𝑋

12. When a capacitor is connected to an a.c. supply, the current

(a) leads the voltage by 180◦

(b) is in phase with the voltage

(c) leads the voltage by π/2 rad

(d) lags the voltage by 90◦

13. When the frequency of an a.c. circuit containingresistance and capacitance is increased, the
impedance

(a) increases (b) decreases (c) stays the same

14. In an R–L–C series a.c. circuit a current of 5A flows when the supply voltage is 100V. The phase
angle between current and voltage is 60◦ lagging. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) The circuit is effectively inductive

(b) The apparent power is 500VA

(c) The equivalent circuit reactance

(d) The true power is 250W

15. A series a.c. circuit comprising a coil of inductance 100mH and resistance 1Ω and a 10μF capacitor is
connected across a 10V supply. At resonance the p.d. across the capacitor is

(a) 10kV (b) 1kV (c) 100V (d) 10V

16. The amplitude of the current I flowing in thecircuit of Fig. 15.26 is:

(a) 21A (b) 16.8A (c) 28A (d) 12A

17. If the supply frequency is increased at resonance in a series R–L– C

circuit and the values of L, C and R are constant, the circuit will
become:

(a) capacitive (b) resistive (c) inductive (d) resonant

18. For the circuit shown in Fig. 15.27, the value of Q-factor is:

(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 5×10−4 (d) 40

Fig 15.26

19. A series R–L–C circuit has a resistance of 8, an

inductance of 100mH and a capacitance of 5μF. If the
current flowing is 2A, the impedance at resonance is:

(a) 160Ω (b) 16Ω

(c) 8mΩ (d) 8Ω

Fig 15.27

Chapter 16 – Single-Phase Parallel A.C. Circuits

A two-branch parallel circuit containing a 10 resistance in one branch and a 100μF capacitor in the other
has a 120 V, 2/3π kHz supply connected across it. Determine the quantities stated in questions 1to 8.

1. The current flowing in the resistance.

(a) 24A (b) 12A

(c) 16A (d) 20A

2. The capacitive reactance of the capacitor.

(a) 7.5 kilo ohm (b) 6 ohm

(c) 7.5 ohm (d) 12.5 ohm

3. The current flowing in the capacitor.

(a) 24A (b) 12A

(c) 16A (d) 20A

4. The supply current.

(a) 24A (b) 12A

(c) 16A (d) 20A
5. The supply phase angle.

(a) tan -1 4/3 leading (b) tan -1 4/3 lagging

(c) tan -1 3/4 leading (d) tan -1 5/3 lagging

6. The circuit impedance.

(a) 7.5 kilo ohm (b) 6 ohm

(c) 7.5 ohm (d) 12.5 ohm

7. The power consumed by the circuit.

(a)2.4 kW (b) 1.92 kW

(c) 1.44 kW (d) 1.5 kW

8. The power factor of the circuit.

(a) 0.8 leading (b) 0.8 lagging

(c) 0.6 lagging (d) 0.6 leading

9. A two-branch parallel circuit consists of a 15 mH inductance in one branch and a 50μF capacitor in the
other across a 120 V, 1/πkHz supply. The supply current is:

(a) 8 A leading by π/2 rad

(b) 16 A lagging by 90◦

(c) 8 A lagging by 90◦

(d) 16 A leading by π/2 rad

10. The following statements, taken correct to 2 significant figures, refer to the circuit shown in Fig. 16.22.
Which are false?

(a) The impedance of the R–L branch is 5

(b) ILR =50 A

(c) IC =20 A

(d) L =0.80 H

(e) C =16μF

(f) The ‘in-phase’ component of the supply current is 30 A

(g) The ‘quadrature’ component of the supply current is 40 A

(h) I =36A

(i) Circuit phase=33◦41’leading

(j) Circuit impedance=6.9

(k) Circuit power factor=0.83 lagging

(l) Power consumed=9.0 kW

11. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) The supply current is a minimum at resonance in a parallel circuit

(b) The Q-factor at resonance in a parallel circuit is the voltage magnification

(c) Improving power factor reduces the current flowing through a system

(d) The circuit impedance is a maximum at resonance in a parallel circuit

12. An L R–C parallel circuit has the following component values: R =10, L =10mH, C =10μF and V
=100V. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) The resonant frequency fr is 1.5/π kHz

(b) The current at resonance is 1 A

(c) The dynamic resistance is 100

(d) The circuit Q-factor at resonance is 30

13. The magnitude of the impedance of the circuit shown in Fig. 16.23 is:

(a) 7 ohm (b) 5 ohm

(c) 2.4 ohm (d) 1.71 ohm

14. In the circuit shown in Fig. 16.24, the magnitude of the supply current I is:

(a) 17A (b) 7A

(c) 15A (d) 23A

Chapter 17: Filter networks

1. A network designed to pass signals with all frequencies except those between two specified cut-off
frequencies is called a:

(a) low-pass filter (b) high-pass filter

(c) band-pass filter (d) band-stop filter

2. A network designed to pass signals at frequencies above a specified cut-off frequency is called a:

(a) low-pass filter (b) high-pass filter

(c) band-pass filter (d) band-stop filter

3. A network designed to pass signals at frequencies below a specified cut-off frequency is called a:

(a) low-pass filter (b) high-pass filter

(c) band-pass filter (d) band-stop filter

4. A network designed to pass signals with frequencies between two specified cut-off frequencies is
called a:

(a) low-pass filter (b) high-pass filter

(c) band-pass filter (d) band-stop filter

5. A low-pass T-connected symmetrical filter section has an inductance of 200 mH in each of its series
arms and a capacitance of 0.5μF in its shunt arm. The cut-off frequency of the filter is:

(a) 1007 Hz (b) 251.6 Hz

(c) 711.8 Hz (d) 177.9 Hz

6. A low-pass π-connected symmetrical filter section has an inductance of 200 mH in its series arm and
capacitances of 400 pF in each of its shunt arms. The cut-off frequency of the filter is:

(a) 25.16 kHz (b) 6.29 kHz

(c) 17.79 kHz (d) 35.59 kHz

The following refers to questions 7 and 8.

A filter section is to have a nominal impedance of 620 and a cut-off frequency of 2MHz.

7. A low-pass T-connected symmetrical filter section is comprised of:

(a) 98.68μH in each series arm, 128.4 pF in shunt arm

(b) 49.34μH in each series arm, 256.7 pF in shunt arm

(c) 98.68μH in each series arm, 256.7 pF in shunt arm

(d) 49.34μH in each series arm, 128.4 pF in shunt arm

8. A low-pass π-connected symmetrical filter section is comprised of:

(a) 98.68μH in each series arm, 128.4 pF in shunt arm

(b) 49.34μH in each series arm, 256.7 pF in shunt arm

(c) 98.68μH in each series arm, 256.7 pF in shunt arm

(d) 49.34μH in each series arm, 128.4 pF in shunt arm

9. A high-pass T-connected symmetrical filter section has capacitances of 400 nF in each of its series
arms and an inductance of 200 mH in its shunt arm. The cut-off frequency of the filter is:

(a) 1592 Hz (b) 1125 Hz

(c) 281 Hz (d) 398 Hz

10. A high-pass π-connected symmetrical filter section has a capacitance of 5000 pF in its series arm and
inductances of 500μH in each of its shunt arms. The cut-off frequency of the filter is:

(a) 201.3 kHz (b) 71.18 kHz

(c) 50.33 kHz (d) 284.7 kHz

The following refers to questions 11 and 12.

A filter section is required to pass all frequencies above 50 kHz and to have a nominal impedance of 650.

11. A high-pass T-connected symmetrical filter section is comprised of:

(a) Each series arm 2.45 nF, shunt arm 1.03 mH

(b) Each series arm 4.90 nF, shunt arm 2.08 mH

(c) Each series arm 2.45 nF, shunt arm 2.08 mH

(d) Each series arm 4.90 nF, shunt arm 1.03 mH

12. A high-pass π-connected symmetrical filter section is comprised of:

(a) Series arm 4.90 nF, and each shunt arm 1.04 mH

(b) Series arm 4.90 nF, and each shunt arm 2.07 mH

(c) Series arm 2.45 nF, and each shunt arm 2.07 mH

(d) Series arm 2.45 nF, and each shunt arm 1.04 mH

Chapter 18 - DC Transients

An uncharged 2 µF capacitor is connected in series with a 5 MΩ resistor to a 100V, constant voltage, d.c.
supply. In questions 1 to 7, use this data to select the correct answer from those given below:

(a) 10 ms (b) 100V (c) 10 s (d) 10V (e) 20 µA

(f) 1 s (g) 0V (h) 50V (i) 1 ms (j) 50 µA
(k) 20 mA (l) 0A

1. Determine the time constant of the circuit ; C

2. Determine the final voltage across the capacitor; B

3. Determine the initial voltage across the resistor ; B

4. Determine the final voltage across the resistor ; G

5. Determine the initial voltage across the capacitor ; G

6. Determine the initial current flowing in the circuit ; E

7. Determine the final current flowing in the circuit; L

In questions 8 and 9, a series connected C − R circuit is suddenly connected to a d.c. source of V volts.
Which of the statements is false ?

8. (a) The initial current flowing is given by V/R

(b) The time constant of the circuit is given by CR
(c) The current grows exponentially
(d) The final value of the current is zero

9. (a) The capacitor voltage is equal to the voltage drop across the resistor
(b) The voltage drop across the resistor decays exponentially
(c) The initial capacitor voltage is zero
(d) The initial voltage drop across the resistor is IR, where I is the steady-state current

10. A capacitor which is charged to V volts is discharged through a resistor of R ohms. Which of the
following statements is false?
(a) The initial current flowing is V/R amperes
(b) The voltage drop across the resistor is equal to the capacitor voltage
(c) The time constant of the circuit is CR seconds
(d) The current grows exponentially to a final value of V/R amperes

An inductor of inductance 0.1 H and negligible resistance is connected in series with a 50Ω resistor to a
20V d.c. supply. In questions 11 to 15, use this data to determine the value required, selecting your
answer from those given below:

(a) 5 ms (b) 12.6V (c) 0.4A (d) 500 ms (e) 7.4V

(b) (f) 2.5A (g) 2 ms (h) 0V (i) 0A (j) 20V

11. The value of the time constant of the circuit G

12. The approximate value of the voltage across the resistor after a time equal to the time constant B

13. The final value of the current flowing in the circuit C

14. The initial value of the voltage across the inductor J

15. The final value of the steady-state voltage across the inductor H

16. The time constant for a circuit containing a capacitance of 100 nF in series with a 5Ω resistance is:
(a) 0.5 µs
(b) 20 ns
 (c) 5 µs
(d) 50 µs

17. The time constant for a circuit containing an inductance of 100 mH in series with a resistance of 4Ω is:
(a) 25 ms
(b) 400 s
(c) 0.4 s
(d) 40 s

18. The graph shown in Fig. 18.21 represents the growth of current in an L − R series circuit connected to
a d.c. voltage V volts. The equation for the graph is:

(a) i = I(1 − e−Rt/L)

(b) i = Ie−Li/t
(c) i = Ie−Rt/L
(d) i = I(1 − eRL/t )

Chapter 19 - Operational Amplifiers

1. A differential amplifier has an open-loop voltage gain of 100. The input signals are 2.5V and 2.4V. The
output voltage of the amplifier is:
(a) −10 V
(b) 1 mV
(c) 10V
(d) 1 Kv

2. Which of the following statements relating to operational amplifiers is true?

(a) It has a high open-loop voltage gain at low frequency, a low input impedance and low output
impedance
(b) It has a high open-loop voltage gain at low frequency, a high input impedance and low
output impedance
(c) It has a low open-loop voltage gain at low frequency, a high input impedance and low output
impedance
(d) It has a high open-loop voltage gain at low frequency, a low input impedance and high output
impedance

3. A differential amplifier has a voltage gain of 120 × 10 3 and a common-mode rejection ratio of 100 dB.
The common-mode gain of the operational amplifier is:
(a) 1.2 × 103
 (b) 1.2
(c) 1.2 × 1010
(d) 1.2 × 10-5

4. The output voltage, Vo, in the amplifier shown in Fig. 19.26 is:
(a) −0.2 V
(b) +1.8 V
(c) +0.2 V
(d) −1.8 V

5. The 3 kΩ resistor in Fig. 19.26 is replaced by one of value 0.1 MΩ. If the op amp has an input bias
current of 80 nA, the output offset voltage is:
(a) 79.2 µV
(b) 8 µV
(c) 8 mV
(d) 80.2 nV

6. In the op amp shown in Fig. 19.27, the voltage gain is:

(a) −3
(b) +4
(c) +3
(d) −4

7. For the op amp shown in Fig. 19.28, the output voltage, Vo, is:
(a) −1.2 V
(b) +5 V
(c) +2 V
(d) −5 V
8. A steady voltage of −1.0 V is applied to an op amp integrator having component values of R = 100 kΩ
and C = 10 µF. The value of the output voltage 10 ms after applying the input voltage is:
(a) +10 mV
(b) −1 mV
(c) −10 mV
(d) +1 mV

9. In the differential amplifier shown in Fig. 19.29, the output voltage, Vo, is:
(a) +1.28 mV
(b) 1.92 mV
(c) −1.28 mV
(d) +5 µV

10. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) A digital computer requires a D/A converter
(b) When negative feedback is used in an op amp, a constant and predictable voltage gain results
(c) A digital voltmeter requires a D/A converter
(d) The value of frequency at which the open-loop gain has fallen to unity is called the transition
frequency

Chapter 20 - Three- phase Systems

Three loads, each of 10 ohms resistance, are connected in star to a 400V, three – phase supply.
Determine the quantities stated in questions 1 to 5, selecting answers from the following list:
 40 400
(a) 𝐴 (b) √3 (16) kW (c) 𝑉
√3 √3

(d) √3 (40) A (e) √3 (400) V (f) 16 kW

(g) 400 V (h) 48 kW (i) 40A

1. Line Voltage (g)

2. Phase Voltage (c)

3. Phase Current (a)

4. Line Current (a)

5. Total power dissipated in the load (f)

6. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) For the same power, loads connected in delta have a higher line voltage and a smaller
line current than loads connected in star.

(b) When using the two – wattmeter method of power measurement the power factor is unity,
when the wattmeter readings are the same

(c) A.c may be distributed using a single phase system with two wires, a three – phase system
with three wires or three phase system with four wires.

(d) The natonal standard phase sequence for a three – phase supply is R, Y, B

Three loads, each of resistance 16 ohms and inductive reactance 12 ohms are connected in delta to a
400V, three – phase supply. Determine the quantities stated in questions 7 to 12, selecting the correct
answer from the following list

(a) 4 ohms (b)√3 (400) V (c) √3 (6.4) kW

(d) 20 A (e) 6.4 kW (f) √3 (20) A

20 400
(g) 20 ohms (h) V (i) V
√3 √3

(j) 19.2 kW (k) 100 A (l) 400 V

(m) 28 ohms

7. Phase impedance (g)

8. Line Voltage (l)

9. Phase Voltage (l)

10. Phase Current (d)

11. Line Current (f)

12. Total power dissipated in the load (j)

13. The phase voltage of a delta – connected three – phase system with balanced loads is 240 V. The
line voltage is

(a) 720 V (b) 440 V

(c) 340 V (d) 240 V

14. A four – wire, three – phase star connected system has a line current of 10 A. The phase current is:

(a) 40 A (b) 10 A

(c) 20 A (d) 30 A

15. The line voltage of a four – wire, three – phase star- connected system is 11 kV. The phase voltage
is:

(a) 19.05 kV (b) 11 kV

(c) 6.35 kV (d) 7.78 kV

16. In the two – wattmeter method of measurement power in a balanced three- phase system, readings of
P1 and P2 watts are obtained. The power factor may be determined from:
𝑃1+𝑃2 𝑷𝟏− 𝑷𝟐
(a) √3 ( 𝑃1−𝑃2 ) (b) √𝟑 ( 𝑷𝟏+ 𝑷𝟐 )

(𝑃1−𝑃2) (𝑃1+𝑃2)
(c) (d)
√3(𝑃1+𝑃2) √3(𝑃1−𝑃2)

17. The phase voltage of a four – wire three – phase star – connected system is 110 V. The line voltage
is:

(a) 440 V (b) 330 V

(c) 191 V (d) 110 V

Chapter 21 - Transformers

1. The emf equation of a transformer of secondary turns N2, magnetic flux density Bm, magnetic area of
core a, and operating at frequency f is given by:

(a) E2 = 4.44(N2)(Bm)(a)(f) volts

(b) E2 = 4.44((N2)(Bm)(f)/(a)) volts

(c) E2 = (N2)(Bm)(f) / (a) volts

(d) E2 = 1.11 (N2)(Bm)(a)(f) volts

2. In the auto – transformer shown in Fig. 21.22, the current in section PQ is

(a) 3.3 A (b) 1.7 A (c) 5 A (d) 1.6 A

3. A step up transformer has a turns ratio of 10. If the output current is 5 A, the input current is:

(a) 50 A (b) 5 A

(c) 2.5 A (d) 0.5 A

4. A 440V / 110 V transformer has 1000 turns on the primary winding. The number of turns on the
secondary is:

(a) 550 (b) 250

(c) 4000 (d) 25

5. An advantage of an auto – transformer is that

(a) it gives a high step up ratio

(b) iron losses are reduced

(c) copper loss is reduced

(d) it reduces capacitance between turns

6. A 1 kV / 250 V transformer has 500 turns on the secondary winding. The number of turns on the
primary is:

(a) 2000 (b) 125

(c) 1000 (d) 250

7. The core of a transformer is laminated to:

(a) limit hysteresis loss

(b) reduce the inductance of the windings

 (c) reduce the effects of eddy current loss

(d) prevent eddy currents from occurring

8. The power input to a mains transformer is 200 W. If the primary current is 2.5 A, the secondary voltage
is 2 V and assuming no losses in the transformer, the turns ratio is:

(a) 40:1 step down (b) 40:1 step up

(c) 80:1 step down (d) 80:1 step up

9. A transformer has 800 primary turns and 100 secondary turns. To obtain 40 V from the secondary
winding, the voltage applied to the primary winding must be:

(a) 5 V (b) 320 V

(c) 2.5 V (d) 20 V

A 100kVA, 250V/10kV, single – phase transformer has a full load copper loss of 800 W and an iron loss
of 500 W. The primary winding contains 120 turns. For the statements in questions 10 to 16, select the
correct answer from the following list

(a) 81. 3 kW (b) 800 W (c) 97. 32%

(d) 80 kW (e) 3 (f) 4800

(g) 1.3 kW (h) 98.40% (i) 100 kW

(j) 98.28% (k) 200 W (l) 101.3 kW

(m) 96.38% (n) 400 W

10. The total full – load losses (g)

11. The full – load output power at 0.8 power factor (d)

12. The full – input power at 0.8 power factor (a)

13. The full – load efficiency at 0.8 power factor (h)

14. The half full – load copper loss (k)

15. The transformer efficiency at half full load, 0.8 power factor (j)

16. The number of secondary winding turns. (f)

17. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) In an ideal transformer, the volts per turn are constant for a given value of primary voltage

(b) In a single – phase transformer, the hysteresis loss is proportional to frequency

 (c) A transformer whose secondary current is greater than the primary current is a step –
up transformer

(d) In transformers, eddy current loss is reduced by laminating the core

18. An ideal transformer has a turns ration of 1:5 and is supplied at 200 V when the primary current is 3
A. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) The turns ratio indicates a step – up transformer

(b) The secondary voltage is 40 V

(c) The secondary current is 15 A

(d) The transformer rating is 0.6 kVA

(e) The secondary voltage is 1 kV

(f) The secondary current is 0.6 A

19. Iron losses in a transformer are due to:

(a) eddy currents only

(b) flux leakage

(c) Both eddy current and hysteresis losses

(d) the resistance of the primary and secondary windings

20. A load is to be matched to an amplifier having an effective internal resistance of 10 ohms via a
coupling transformer having a turns ratio of 1:10. The value of the load resistance for maximum power
transfer is:

(a) 100 ohms (b) 1 kilo ohms

(c) 100 mili ohms (d) 1 mili ohms

Chapter 22 - DC Machines

1. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) A d.c. motor converts electrical energy to mechanical energy

(b) The efficiency of a d.c. motor is the ratio input power to output power

(c) A d.c. generator converts mechanical power to electrical power

(d) The efficiency of a d.c. generator is the ratio output power to input power

A shunt-wound d.c. machine is running at n rev/sand has a shaft torque of T Nm. The supply current is IA
when connected to d.c. bus-bars of voltage V volts. The armature resistance of themachineis Ra ohms,
the armature current is IaA and the generated voltage is E volts.
Use this data to find the formulae of the quantities stated in questions 2 to 9, selecting the correct answer
from the following list:

(a) V −Ia Ra (b) E + Ia Ra

(c) VI (d) E − Ia Ra

(e) T (2πn) (f) V +Ia Ra

2. The input power when running as a generator. (e. T (2πn))

3. The output power when running as a motor.(e. T (2πn)

4. The input power when running as a motor.(c. VI)

5. The output power when running as a generator.(c. VI)

6. The generated voltage when running as a motor.(a.V −Ia Ra)

7. The terminal voltage when running as a generator.(d. E − Ia Ra)

8. The generated voltage when running as a generator.(f. V +Ia Ra)

9. The terminal voltage when running as a motor.(b. E + Ia Ra)

10. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) A commutator is necessary as part of a d.c. motor to keep the armature rotating in the same
direction

(b) A commutator is necessary as part of a d.c. generator to produce unidirectional voltage at the
terminals of the generator

(c) The field winding of a d.c. machine is housed in slots on the armature

(d) The brushes of a d.c. machine are usually made of carbon and do not rotate with the armature
11. If the speed of a d.c. machine is doubled and the flux remains constant, the generated e.m.f.

(a) remains the same,

(b) is doubled,

(c) is halved

12. If the flux per pole of a shunt-wound d.c. generator is increased, and all other variables are kept the
same, the speed

(a) decreases, (b) stays the same, (c) increases

13. If the flux per pole of a shunt-wound d.c. generator is halved, the generated e.m.f. at constant speed

(a) is doubled, (b) is halved, (c) remains the same

14. In a series-wound generator running at constant speed, as the load current increases, the terminal
voltage

(a) increases (b) decreases (c) stays the same

15. Which of the following statements is false for a series-wound d.c. motor?

(a) The speed decreases with increase of resistance in the armature circuit

(b) The speed increases as the flux decreases

(c) The speed can be controlled by a diverter

(d) The speed can be controlled by a shunt field regulator

16. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) A series-wound motor has a large starting torque

(b) A shunt-wound motor must be permanently connected to its load

(c) The speed of a series-wound motor drops considerably when load is applied

(d) A shunt-wound motor is essentially a constant-speed machine

17. The speed of a d.c. motor may be increased by

(a) increasing the armature current

(b) decreasing the field current

(c) decreasing the applied voltage

(d) increasing the field current

18. The armature resistance of a d.c. motor is 0.5, the supply voltage is 200V and the back e.m.f. is 196V
at full speed. The armature current is:

(a) 4A (b) 8A

(c) 400A (d) 392A

19. In d.c. generators iron losses are made up of:

(a) hysteresis and friction losses

(b) hysteresis, eddy current and brush contact losses

(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses

(d) hysteresis, eddy current and copper losses

20. The effect of inserting a resistance in series with the field winding of a shunt motor is to:

(a) increase the magnetic field

(b) increase the speed of the motor

(c) decrease the armature current

(d) reduce the speed of the motor

21. The supply voltage to a d.c. motor is 240V.If the back e.m.f. is 230V and the armature resistance
is0.25, the armature current is:

(a) 10A (b) 40A

(c) 960A (d) 920A

22. With a d.c. motor, the starter resistor:

(a) limits the armature current to a safe starting value

(b) controls the speed of the machine

(c) prevents the field current flowing through and damaging the armature

(d) limits the field current to a safe starting value

23. From Fig. 22.31, the expected characteristic for a

shunt-wound d.c. generator is:

(a) P (b) Q
 (c) R (d) S

24. A commutator is a device fitted to a generator. Its function is:

(a) to prevent sparking when the load changes

(b) to convert the a.c. generated into a d.c. output

(c) to convey the current to and from the windings

(d) to generate a direct current

Chapter 23 - Three- phase Induction Motors

1. Which of the following statements about a three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor is false?

(a) It has no external electrical connections to its rotor

(b) A three-phase supply is connected to its stator

(c) A magnetic flux which alternates is produced

(d) It is cheap, robust and requires little or no skilled maintenance

2. Which of the following statements about a three-phase induction motor is false?

(a) The speed of rotation of the magnetic field is called the synchronous speed

(b) A three-phase supply connected to the rotor produces a rotating magnetic field

(c) The rotating magnetic field has a constant speed and constant magnitude

(d) It is essentially a constant speed type machine

3. Which of the following statements is false when referring to a three-phase induction motor?

(a) The synchronous speed is half the supply frequency when it has four poles

(b) In a two-pole machine, the synchronous speed is equal to the supply frequency

(c) If the number of poles is increased, the synchronous speed is reduced

(d) The synchronous speed is inversely proportional to the number of poles

4. A four-pole three-phase induction motor has asynchronous speed of 25 rev/s. The frequency of the
supply to the stator is:

(a) 50Hz (b) 100Hz

(c) 25Hz (d) 12.5Hz

Questions 5 and 6 refer to a three-phase induction motor. Which statements are false?

5. (a) The slip speed is the synchronous speedminus the rotor speed

(b) As the rotor is loaded, the slip decreases

(c) The frequency of induced rotor e.m.f.s increases with load on the rotor

(d) The torque on the rotor is due to the interaction of magnetic fields

6. (a) If the rotor is running at synchronous speed, there is no torque on the rotor

(b) If the number of poles on the stator is doubled, the synchronous speed is halved

(c) At no-load, the rotor speed is very nearly equal to the synchronous speed

(d) The direction of rotation of the rotor is opposite to the direction of rotation of the
magnetic field to give maximum current induced in the rotor bars

A three-phase, four-pole, 50Hz induction motor runs at 1440 rev/min. In questions 7 to 10, determine the
correct answers for the quantities stated, selecting your answer from the list given below:

(a) 12.5 rev/s (b) 25 rev/s (c) 1 rev/s

(d) 50 rev/s (e) 1% (f) 4%

(g) 50% (h) 4Hz (i) 50Hz

(j) 2Hz

7. The synchronous speed.(b. 25 rev/s)

8. The slip speed.(c. 1 rev/s)

9. The percentage slip.(f. 4%)

10. The frequency of induced e.m.f.s in the rotor.(j. 2Hz)

11. The slip speed of an induction motor may be defined as the:

(a) number of pairs of poles ÷ frequency

(b) rotor speed−synchronous speed

(c) rotor speed + synchronous speed

(d) synchronous speed−rotor speed

12. The slip speed of an induction motor depends upon:

 (a) armature current (b) supply voltage

(c) mechanical load (d) eddy currents

13. The starting torque of a simple squirrel-cage motor is:

(a) low

(b) increases as rotor current rises

(c) decreases as rotor current rises

(d) high

14. The slip speed of an induction motor:

(a) is zero until the rotor moves and then rises slightly

(b) is 100 per cent until the rotor moves and then decreases slightly

(c) is 100 per cent until the rotor moves and then falls to a low value

(d) is zero until the rotor moves and then rises to 100 per cent

15. A four-pole induction motor when supplied from a 50Hz supply experiences a 5 per cent slip. The
rotor speed will be:

(a) 25 rev/s (b) 23.75 rev/s

(c) 26.25 rev/s (d) 11.875 rev/s

16. A stator winding of an induction motor supplied from a three-phase, 60Hz system is required to
produce a magnetic flux rotating at 900 rev/min. The number of poles is:

(a) 2 (b) 8

(c) 6 (d) 4

17. The stator of a three-phase, two-pole induction motor is connected to a 50Hz supply. The rotor runs at
2880 rev/min at full load. The slip is:

(a) 4.17% (b) 92%

(c) 4% (d) 96%

18. An eight-pole induction motor, when fed from a 60Hz supply, experiences a 5 per cent slip. The rotor
speed is:

(a) 427.5 rev/min (b) 855 rev/min

 (c) 900 rev/min (d) 945 rev/min

Chapter 24 - Some Practical Laboratory Experiments