SRINIX COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BALASORE

MCQ Question
NAME OF THE FACULTY: DEEPAK KUMAR PARIDA
SUBJECT: Software Project Management
SEMESTER: 7th BRANCH: CSE
Multiples choice Questions:
1. What is Software?
a) Software is set of programs
b) Software is documentation and configuration of data
c) Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
d) None of the mentioned
2. Which of these does not account for software failure?
a) Increasing Demand
b) Low expectation
c) Increasing Supply
d) Less reliable and expensive
3. What are attributes of good software?
a) Software maintainability
b) Software functionality
c) Software development
d) Software maintainability & functionality
4. Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes?
a) Software dependence
b) Software development
c) Software validation
d) Software specification
5. Which of these is incorrect?
a) Software engineering belongs to Computer science
b) Software engineering is a part of more general form of System Engineering
c) Computer science belongs to Software engineering
d) Software engineering is concerned with the practicalities of developing and delivering
useful software
6. Which of these is true?
a) Generic products and customized products are types of software products
b) Generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market
c) Customized products are commissioned by particular customer
d) All of the mentioned
7. Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole?
a) Heterogeneity
b) Flexibility
c) Business and social change

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 d) Security
8. The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for?
a) Software processes
b) Software Security
c) Software reuse
d) Software Validation
9. Which of these is not true?
a) Web has led to availability of software services and possibility of developing highly
distributed service based systems
b) Web based systems have led to degradation of programming languages
c) Web brings concept of software as service
d) Web based system should be developed and delivered incrementally
10. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
11. Which of the following is not a conflict in software development team?
a) Simultaneous updates
b) Shared and common code
c) Versions
d) Graphics issues
12. What are the types of requirements?
a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) All of the mentioned
13. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) Elicitation
b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Documentation
14. The user system requirements are the parts of which document?
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) DDD
d) SRD
15. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following?
a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder
c) Managers
d) Users of the software

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16. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
17. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
18. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
19. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) Very low
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) High
20. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
21. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the
costs of a software development project?
a) Travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) Effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
22. Selection of a model is based on
a) Requirements
b) Development team & Users
c) Project type and associated risk
d) All of the mentioned
23. The spiral model was originally proposed by
a) IBM
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman
d) Royce
24. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s
participation is not involved?
a) Waterfall & Spiral

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 b) RAD & Spiral
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping
25. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less
experience on similar projects?
a) Spiral
b) Waterfall
c) RAD
d) Iterative Enhancement Model
26. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a
project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model
would you select?
a) Waterfall
b) Spiral
c) RAD
d) Incremental
27. A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the
market, what model approach would they prefer?
a) RAD
b) Iterative Enhancement
c) Both RAD & Iterative Enhancement
d) Spiral
28. The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular
29. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral
30. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.
a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
b) High amount of risk analysis
c) Strong approval and documentation control
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date
31. RAD stands for
a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned

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32. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
33. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
34. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?
a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
b) Increases reusability of components
c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components, highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are
required
35. For the best Software model suitable for the project, in which of the phase the
developers decide a roadmap for project plan?
a) Software Design
b) System Analysis
c) Coding
d) Testing
36. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
37. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.
a) CAD, CAM
b) Firmware, Embedded
c) Generic, Customised
d) None of the mentioned
38. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change
without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned
39. Purpose of process is to deliver software
a) In time
b) With acceptable quality
c) that is cost efficient
d) Both in time & with acceptable quality

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40. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five
process framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality,
change, and risk?
a) Reusability management
b) Risk management
c) Measurement
d) User Reviews
41. Process adopted for one project is same as the process adopted from another project.
a) True
b) False
42. The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic
phases, regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely
the__________ phase which focuses on what, the_________ phase which focuses on how
and the_________ phase which focuses on change.
i. support
ii. Development
iii. Definition
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 1, 3
c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2
43. Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product?
a) Keypad control of a security system
b) Pattern recognition game playing
c) Digital function of dashboard display in a car
d) None of the mentioned
44. Four types of change are encountered during the support phase. Which one of the
following is not one that falls into such category?
a) Translation
b) Correction
c) Adaptation
d) Prevention
45. Which of the following term describes testing?
a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
46. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
47. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?
a) Retesting

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 b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing
48. White Box techniques are also classified as
a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
d) None of the mentioned
49. What are the various Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) All of the mentioned
50. Boundary value analysis belongs to?
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
d) None of the mentioned
51. Alpha testing is done at
a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
c) Developer’s & User’s end
d) None of the mentioned
52. The testing in which code is checked
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Red box testing
d) Green box testing
53. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called
a) Unit testing
b) Regression testing
c) Adhoc testing
d) None of the mentioned
54. Acceptance testing is also known as
a) Grey box testing
b) White box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
55. Which of the following is non-functional testing?
a) Black box testing
b) Performance testing
c) Unit testing
d) None of the mentioned

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56. Beta testing is done at
a) User’s end
b) Developer’s end
c) User’s & Developer’s end
d) None of the mentioned
57. Unit testing is done by
a) Users
b) Developers
c) Customers
d) None of the mentioned
58. Which of the following is black box testing
a) Basic path testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis
d) None of the mentioned
59. Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software
a) KLOC
b) Function Points
c) Size of module
d) None of the mentioned
60. Why is software difficult to build?
a) Controlled changes
b) Lack of reusability
c) Lack of monitoring
d) All of the mentioned
61. Which of the following is not a conflict in software development team?
a) Simultaneous updates
b) Shared and common code
c) Versions
d) Graphics issues
62. Which of the following lasts for the duration of the project and covers the development
process?
a) Monitoring all key parameters like cost, schedule, risks
b) Taking corrective actions when needed
c) Providing information on the development process in terms of metrics
d) All of the mentioned
63. Which of the following is not a typical environment in communication facilitation?
a) Multiple teams
b) Multiple user groups
c) Multiple fests
d) Multiple locations
64. Which of the following is a software process?
a) Analysis and design

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 b) Configuration and management
c) Business modeling
d) All of the mentioned
65. Which of the following is not included in Issues Meetings?
a) Issues gathered the day before
b) Regular schedule of meeting
c) Discussion with business
d) Attendance
66. Which of the following is not a part of Software Configuration Management Basics?
a) Identification
b) Version
c) Auditing and Reviewing
d) Status Accounting
67. What is a collection of software elements treated as a unit for the purposes of SCM?
a) Software Configuration Item
b) Baseline
c) Configuration
d) Configuration Control Board
68. What is one or more software configuration items that have been formally reviewed
and agreed upon and serve as a basis for further development?
a) Configuration
b) Baseline
c) Software
d) All of the mentioned
69. What is validating the completeness of a product?
a) Identification
b) Software
c) Auditing and Reviewing
d) Status Accounting
70. What is group with the responsibility for reviewing and approving changes to
baselines?
a) Software Configuration Item
b) Baseline
c) Configuration
d) Configuration Control Board
71. What is a specific instance of a baseline or configuration item?
a) Software
b) Configuration
c) Version
d) Status Accounting
72. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
a) SQA
b) SQM

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 c) SQI
d) SQA and SQM
73. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a) A compliant product
b) Good quality output
c) Delivery within budget and schedule
d) All of the mentioned
74. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
75. According to Pareto’s principle, x% of defects can be traced to y% of all causes. What
are the values of x and y?
a) 60, 40
b) 70, 30
c) 80, 20
d) No such principle exists
76. What is Six Sigma?
a) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance
b) The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
c) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance AND The “Six Sigma”
refers to six standard deviations
d) A Formal Technical Review (FTR) guideline for quality walkthrough or inspection
77. Six Sigma methodologies define three core steps.
a) define, measure, control
b) define, measure, analyze
c) analyze, improve, control
d) analyze, design, verify
78. Software safety is equivalent to software reliability.
a) True
b) False
79. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to
shipment?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
80. The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is
known as
a) Quality of design
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality of testing

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 d) None of the mentioned
81. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management
responsibility?
a) Process control
b) Document control
c) Control of nonconforming products
d) Servicing
82. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability
information to maximize information hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time
b) Organizational restructuring
c) Requirements changes
d) None of the mentioned
83. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management
tasks.
a) True
b) False
84. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned
85. CMM stands for
a) Capability Management Module
b) Conservative Maturity Model
c) Capability Maturity Module
d) Capability Maturity Model
86. The ISO 9000 series of standards is a program that can be used for external quality
assurance purposes.
a) True
b) False
87. According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be
a) Deleted
b) Eliminated
c) Identified
d) Eliminated and identified
88. ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of quality records.
a) Collection
b) Maintenance
c) Verification
d) Dis-positioning

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89. Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM?
a) Design
b) Repeatable
c) Managed
d) Optimizing
90. In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are
described in
a) Software Product Engineering
b) Software Quality Assurance
c) Software Subcontract Management
d) Software Quality Management
91. The CMM emphasizes
a) Continuous process improvement
b) The need to record information
c) The need to accept quality system
d) None of the mentioned
92. _______ states that, where appropriate, adequate statistical techniques are identified
and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.
a) ISO 9001
b) ISO 9000-4
c) CMM
d) All of the mentioned
93. Which of the following is not a metric for design model?
a) Interface design metrics
b) Component-level metrics
c) Architectural metrics
d) Complexity metrics
94. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of
a) Analysis Model
b) Testing
c) Design Model
d) Source Code
95. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by
a) Booch
b) Boehm
c) Albrecht
d) Jacobson
96. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six

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97. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.
a) Black Box
b) White Box
c) Gray Box
d) Green Box
98. Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes
here?
a) “fan check-out” of module i
b) “fan check-in” of module i
c) “fan in” of module i
d) “fan out” of module i
99. SMI stands for
a) Software Mature Indicator
b) Software Maturity Index
c) Software Mature Index
d) Software Maturity Indicator
100. As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product starts becoming unstable
a) True
b) False
101. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules
a) in the current release
b) in the current release that have been changed
c) from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
d) none of the mentioned
102. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
a) Reliability
b) Usability
c) Efficiency
d) Functionality
103. You are working in Company as a project manager. What will you do to minimize
the risk of software failure?
a) Request a large budget
b) You will increase the team size
c) Track progress
d) None of the above
104. Which of the following is/are considered stakeholder in the software process?
a) Customers
b) End-users
c) Project managers
d) All of the above.
105. The work breakdown that covers the acquisition of a specific defense material item
and is related to contractual effort, is called______
a) Contract WBS

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 b) Contract Program WBS
c) Program WBS
d) None of these
106. Work Breakdown Structure how many types…
a) Three
b) Two
c) Four
d) None of these
107. What type of reviews conducted at each of this phases_____
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Coding
d) All of given
108. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a
software project?
a) Only performance.
b) Only context.
c) Information objectives, function, performance
d) None of the above.
109. You are working in JIO as a project manager. Company wants to develop a project.
You are also involved in planning team. What will be your first step in project
planning?
a) Establish the objectives and scope of the product.
b) Determine the project constraints.
c) Select the team.
d) None of the above.
110. Which aspect is important when the software is moved from one platform to
another?
a) Maintenance
b) Operational
c) Transitional
d) All of the above
111. For the best Software model suitable for the project, in which of the phase the
developers decide a roadmap for project plan?
a) Software Design
b) System Analysis
c) Coding
d) Testing
111. What are Requirements refined and analyzed to assess their clarity, completeness,
and_____
a) Consistency
b) Correctness
c) Concurrency

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 d) None of these
112. A software project that meets all the given objectives is a success of _________.
a) Project fundamental purpose
b) Project quality
c) Project requirement
d) Project management
113. What is the abbreviation of PM-CMM:
a) product management capability maturity model
b) process management capability maturity model
c) people management capability maturity model
d) project management capability maturity model
114. _________ is not a project manager’s activity.
a) Project design.
b) Project management.
c) Project planning.
d) Project control.
115. The __________ is not an approach to software cost estimation?
a) Analytical
b) Critical
c) Empirical
d) Heuristic
116. Which one of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Staff turnover
b) Testing
c) Product competition
d) Specification delays
117. What is the process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Project Management Life Cycle
c) Manager life cycle
d) All of the mentioned
118. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for_________.
a) customers
b) project manager
c) team
d) project
119. Which of the following is the sub-process of process improvement?
a) Process introduction
b) De-processification
c) Process analysis
d) Process distribution

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120. Which one the following is an internal software quality from given below?
a) reusability
b) reliability
c) scalability
d) usability
121. What is the symbolic representation of RUP __________________
a) Rational Unified Process
b) Rational Unified Process
c) Rational Unified Program
d) Rational Unified Process
122. The software equation can be used to show that
a) Productivity goes up when deadline changes
b) Total effort is mainly driven by size in KLOC
c) Any deadline can be met by increasing team size
d) Cost may become prohibitive with schedule compression
123. Risk projection attempts to rate each risk in two ways
a) likelihood and exposure
b) likelihood and consequences
c) likelihood and cost
d) likelihood and impact
124. A project budget report shows spending of Rs. 350,000/- against a budgeted amount
of Rs. 400,000/-. Which of the following is true?
a) The project will complete within budget
b) They are doing a good job managing the project
c) We cannot be sure how the project is going
d) Project is spending less than the required amount
125. The 40-20-40 rule suggests that the least of amount of development effort be spent
on:
a) Planning
b) Coding
c) Testing
d) Modeling
126. A task set is a collection of
a) responsibilities, milestones, documents
b) engineering work tasks, milestones, deliverables
c) milestones, deliverables, metrics
d) task assignments, cost estimates, metrics
127. Resource leveling cannot help with
a) Reduced fluctuations in resource demand
b) Improvement in critical path
c) Reduced resource need over the life of the project
d) Lower peak demand

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128. The level of review formality is not determined by
a) reviewer follow-up
b) structure of review
c) size of project budget
d) amount of preparation
129. While scheduling a project, effort validation is required for
a) Checking size estimates
b) Work load of members
c) Competence of team
d) Timely completion
130. The purpose of earned value analysis is to
a) provide a qualitative means of assessing software project progress
b) set the price point for a software product based on development effort
c) provide a quantitative means of assessing software project progress
d) determine how to compensate developers based on their productivity
131. Which of the following provide useful measures of software quality?
a) reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales
b) correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability
c) correctness, controllability, integrity, usability
d) correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction
132. Three categories of risks in software projects are
a) management risks, technical risks, design risks
b) planning risks, technical risks, personnel risks
c) business risks, personnel risks, budget risks
d) project risks, technical risks, business risks
133. The best indicator of progress on a software project is the completion of
a) successful budget review meeting on time
b) successful review of a defined software work product
c) successful acceptance of project prototype by the customer
d) defined engineering activity task
134. Which of the following is not one of the guiding principles of software project
scheduling:
a) Effort Validation
b) Market assessment
c) Time allocation
d) Compartmentalization
135. A risk table will not contain following information about risk
a) Impact
b) Probability
c) Category
d) Source
136. Which of the following is not one of the attributes of software quality?
a) Useful products satisfy stakeholder requirements

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 b) Adds value for developers and users
c) Effective software process creates infrastructure
d) Removes need to consider performance issues
137. The critical path in a project network is the
a) Shortest path through the network
b) Network path with the most difficult activities
c) Network path using the most resources
d) Longest path through the network
138. Software risk impact assessment should focus on consequences affecting
a) planning, resources, cost, schedule
b) marketability, cost, personnel
c) business, technology, process
d) performance, cost, support, schedule
139. The first step in project planning is to
a) determine the budget
b) determine the project constraints
c) establish the objectives and scope
d) select a team organizational model
140. "To construct a high-quality, custom home within five months at costs not to exceed
Rs15,00,000" is best classified as
a) Deliverable
b) Objective
c) Milestone
d) Exclusion
141. Why is it important to measure the process of software engineering and software it
produces?
a) To determine costs and allow a profit margin to be set
b) To make software engineering more like other engineering processes
c) To determine whether a software group is improving or not
d) It is really not necessary unless the project is extremely complex
142. The prototyping model of software development is
a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined
b) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams
c) A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product
d) A useful approach when customer can not define requirements clearly
143. From among the following activities, which is the best example of a project?
a) Producing automobiles
b) Writing a term paper
c) Developing HIV vaccine
d) Processing insurance claims
144. Which measurement activity is missing from the list below?
Formulation, Collection, Analysis, Interpretation
a) Measurement

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 b) Quantification
c) Feedback
d) Design
145. In agile software development estimation techniques focus on the time required to
complete each
a) use-case
b) scenario
c) increment
d) task
146. Which of the following items are not measured by software project metrics?
a) Outputs
b) Markets
c) Results
d) Inputs
147. Which of the following is NOT a main element of the project management
activities?
a) Estimate
b) Monitor
c) Design
d) Schedule
148. Make/Buy decisions are usually not driven by
a) Support concerns
b) Cost of acquisition
c) Time to market
d) Staff aspirations
149. Which of the following is not one of the commonly heard comments of project
managers?
a) How can all these projects be first priority?
b) Where are we going to get the resources to do this project?
c) Why this project is so strongly linked to the strategic plan?
d) Why are we doing this project?
150. The Process Models differ from one another based on following factors except
a) Manner of Quality Assurance
b) Team Organization and Roles
c) Conformance to quality standards
d) Based on flow of activities
151. Which of the following is not a main project objective?
a) Quality
b) Structure
c) Cost
d) Time
152. One reason to involve everyone on the software team in the planning activity is to
a) Control feature creep

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 b) Get all team members to "sign up" to the plan
c) Understand the problem scope
d) Adjust the granularity of the plan
153. Which of the following is not a weak point of waterfall lifecycle?
a) Difficult to keep entire team busy with work
b) Difficult to prepare a plan early
c) Difficult for the customer to state all requirements
d) Working version of the program is not available soon
154. Which of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a software process?
a) Process allows team to streamline tasks
b) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
c) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
d) Only essential work products are produced
155. The waterfall model of software development is
a) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams
b) A good approach when a working program is required quickly
c) An old fashioned model that is not used any more
d) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined
156. Project selection criteria are typically classified as
a) Short-term and long-term
b) Strategic and tactical
c) Financial and non-financial
d) Required and optional
157. The first reverse engineering activity involves seeking to understand
a) Business trends
b) User interface
c) Processing
d) Data
158. Which of the following is not considered one of the four important elements that
should exist when a configuration management system is developed?
a) Human elements
b) Component elements
c) Process elements
d) Validation elements
159. Which of the following tasks is not part of software configuration management?
a) Version control
b) Statistical quality control
c) Change control
d) Reporting
160. Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that
a) Prevent profitable marketing of the final product
b) Affect the reliability of a software component
c) May result from user input errors

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 d) May cause an entire system to fail
161. A review summary report answers which three questions?
a) What defects were found, what caused defects, who was responsible
b) Terminate project, replace producer, request a time extension
c) Project situation, success story, improvement point
d) What was reviewed, who reviewed it, what were the findings
162. Software reliability problems can almost always be traced to
a) Errors in operation
b) Errors in design
c) Errors in accuracy
d) Errors in requirements
163. Which of these is not a benefit achieved when software is restructured?
a) Higher quality programs
b) Software easier to test
c) Improved performance
d) Reduced maintenance effort
164. When software configuration management is a formal activity the software
configuration audit is conducted by the
a) Senior managers
b) Quality assurance group
c) Test team
d) Development team
165. Software reengineering process model does not include restructuring activities for
a) Code
b) Organizational structure
c) Documentation
d) Data
166. At the end of a formal technical review all attendees can decide to
a) Modify the work product and continue the review
b) Reject the product due to stylistic discrepancies
c) Accept the work product without modification
d) Advise developer about the problem domain
167. Which of these are not valid software configuration items?
a) Test data
b) Email
c) Documentation
d) Utility programs
168. Which of the following are objectives for formal technical reviews?
a) Determining who introduced an error into a program
b) Assess programmer productivity
c) Allow senior staff members to correct errors
d) Uncover errors in software work products

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169. Advantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of the following
except
a) Shortened project completion
b) Reduced costs
c) Higher level of expertise
d) Reduced conflict
170. Which of these is not an example of data restructuring?
a) Data name rationalization
b) Refining entity relationships
c) Data record standardization
d) Data analysis
171. The Process Models differ from one another based on following factors except
a) Manner of Quality Assurance
b) Team Organization and Roles
c) Conformance to quality standards
d) Based on flow of activities
172. Following statement is True or False:
"Prototyping is useful when developer may be unsure of the efficiency of an algorithm
or requirements are not clear"
a) False
b) True
173. A WebApp user has tried to access a page for a long time but the page is taking too
much time to load and then he decides to go some other websites which was giving the
similar services. In this scenario, what do you think which quality parameter is affected
the most:
a) Availability
b) Performance
c) Concurrency
d) None of the above
174. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has
less experience on similar projects?
a) Spiral
b) Waterfall
c) RAD
d) Iterative Enhancement Model
175. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a
project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model
would you select?
a) Waterfall
b) Spiral
c) RAD
d) Incremental

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176. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if
user’s participation is not involved?
a) Waterfall & Spiral
b) RAD & Spiral
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping
177. A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in
the market, what model approach would they prefer ?
a) RAD
b) Iterative Enhancement
c) Both RAD & Iterative Enhancement
d) Spiral
178. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project development schedule is tight.
a) True
b) False
179. Choose the correct option from given below:
a) Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
b) RAD Model facilitates reusability of components
c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
d) None
180. Spiral Model has high reliability requirements.
a) True
b) False
181. RAD Model has high reliability requirements.
a) True
b) False
182. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral
183. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a
specification is available
a) True
184. False
In the classical chief programmer team approach, the team member responsible for
maintaining the detailed design and coding is
a) The chief programmer
b) The programming secretary
c) A specialized function that exists outside ‘the team’
d) The individual coder (i.e. programmer)

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185. The advantage of following the IEEE Standard for drawing up a Software Project
Management Plan (SPMP) – see IEEE Standard 1059.1 1987 – is
a) It is drawn up by representatives from major software development organizations
b) It is designed for all types of software products
c) It is a framework that can be used irrespective of process model or specific techniques
d) It can be tailored for each organisation for a particular application area, development
team or technique.
e) All of the above.
186. The best way to test the Software Project Management Plan (SPMP) is by
a) Prototyping
b) Inspection
c) Simulation
d) Compilation
e) Debugging.
187. The aim of software engineering is to produce software that is
a) Fault-free
b) Delivered on time
c) Delivered within budget
d) Satisfies users’ needs
e) All of these are the aims of software engineering.
188. Work that continues throughout the project and does not relate to any specific
phase of software development is termed a(n)
a) Milestone
b) Project function
c) Activity
d) Task
e) Baseline.
189. Which of the following is a type of abstraction?
a) Data
b) Procedural
c) Iteration
d) All of the above
190. A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is as a waterfall
model with each phase proceeded by
a) Build-and-fix
b) Freezing
c) Synchronization
d) Testing
e) Risk analysis.
191. In the maintenance phase the product must be tested against previous test cases.
This is known as __________ testing.
a) Unit
b) Integration

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 c) Regression
d) Module
e) Beta.
192. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable
components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program
translation tools?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
193. The individual or organisation who wants a product to be developed is known as
the:
a) Developer
b) User
c) Contractor
d) Initiator
e) Client.
194. The final form of testing COTS software is _________ testing.
a) Unit
b) Integration
c) Alpha
d) Module
e) Beta.
195. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some
software metric to the project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
196. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?
a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics
d) None of the mentioned
197. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
a) Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support staff

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198. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a
software development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) Effort costs
c) Travel and training costs
d) All of the mentioned
199. Which of the following is a requirement management activity?
a) Investigation
b) Design
c) Construction and Test
d) All of the mentioned
200. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need
ongoing funding throughout a project.
a) True
b) False

Sign of HOD Sign of Faculty

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