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Unacademy Astra Prelims Test Series 2025: Test-23: Subject: Revision - Economy, S&T + Current Affairs

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
25 views15 pages

Unacademy Astra Prelims Test Series 2025: Test-23: Subject: Revision - Economy, S&T + Current Affairs

Uploaded by

abhi.ranjan0204
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

A
Test Booklet Series
Unacademy Astra
Prelims Test Series 2025 : Test-23
Subject: Revision - Economy, S&T + Current Affairs

Time Allowed : Two Hours PT25GA23 Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test
Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate
places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for
rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the
box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the
Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item
is printed in English and Hindi. Each item comprises four responses (Answers). You will select the
response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one
correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate answer sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN ALL THE
QUESTION.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
11. If student feels that either the question(s) or the answer(s) needs clarification, please connect with us at
testfeedback@unacademy.com

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

è;ku nsa % vuqns”kksa dk fgUnh :ikUrj bl iqfLrdk ds vafRke i`"B ij Nik gSA
1. Which one of the following is raised by Which of the statements given above is/are
state governments from the market and they correct?
are dated securities issued through normal (a) 1 only
auctions? (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Dated government securities (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) State development loans (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Treasury bills
(d) Cash management bills 6. With reference to banking in India, consider
the following statements regarding the term
2. What is the primary purpose of issuing ‘Legal Reserve Ratio’:
Commercial Papers in India?
1. It is the minimum fraction of deposits
(a) Long-term infrastructure financing
which the banks are mandated to keep as
(b) Short-term working capital needs
cash themselves.
(c) Retail banking activities
2. It is fixed by the Financial Services
(d) Foreign exchange transactions
Institutions Bureau (FSIB).
3. With reference to the Indian capital market, 3. Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) is the
which of the following are Not secondary only component of the Legal Reserve
market activities? Ratio.
1. Initial Public Offering (IPO) How many of the above given statements are
2. Rights Issue correct?
3. Trading of shares on stock exchanges (a) Only one
4. Private Placement of shares (b) Only two
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) All three
below: (d) None
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 7. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only Statement-I: Price and yield are inversely
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only related and as the price of a bond goes up, its
yield goes down.
4. Consider the following statements regarding
Statement-II: Bond yield is the return an
e-invoice under the Goods and Services Tax
investor realizes on an investment in a bond.
(GST)?
Which one of the following is correct in respect
1. E-invoices allow interoperability and
of the above statements?
help reduce data entry errors.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. Real-time tracking of invoices prepared
correct and Statement-II is the correct
by the supplier is enabled by e-invoice.
explanation for Statement-I
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct?
(a) 1 only correct and Statement-II is not the correct
(b) 2 only explanation for Statement-I
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
5. With reference to the Gross Domestic Product is correct
(GDP), consider the following statements:
1. It uses net production cost to value the 8. What is the key function of a depository in
goods and services produced. the Indian capital market?
2. It only measures aggregate domestic (a) Acts as a stockbroker
production. (b) Holds securities in electronic form
3. Transfer payments are not counted in (c) Issues mutual fund units
calculating GDP. (d) Provides credit rating services

unacademy IAS 2
9. With reference to the type of floating (a) Only one
exchange rates, consider the following (b) Only two
statements: (c) All three
Statement-I: In a free-floating exchange rates (d) None
system the central bank of a country never
intervenes in the foreign exchange market. 12. Consider the following statements:
Statement-II: In a managed floating exchange Statement-I: Internationalisation involves
rates system the central bank every time promoting the rupee for import and
intervenes in the market to buy and sell export trade.
foreign currencies.
Statement-II: Internationalisation is a process
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements? that involves decreasing the use of the
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are rupee in cross-border transactions.
correct and Statement-II is the correct Which one of the following is correct in respect
explanation for Statement-I of the above statements?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
incorrect
correct and Statement-II is not the correct
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
explanation for Statement-I
is correct
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
10. Consider the following statements: incorrect
Statement-I: The Nominal Effective Exchange (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
Rate (NEER) is the weighted average of the is correct
bilateral nominal exchange rates of the home
currency in terms of foreign currencies. 13. With reference to the External Commercial
Statement-II: The Real Effective Exchange Borrowing (ECB), consider the following
Rate (REER) is the weighted average of statements:
nominal exchange rates adjusted for relative 1. It is an instrument used to facilitate Indian
price differential between the domestic and
government companies only.
foreign countries.
Which one of the following is correct in respect 2. It allows the borrower to diversify the
of the above statements? investor base.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 3. It typically has a one-year minimum
correct and Statement-II is the correct maturity length.
explanation for Statement-I How many of the above statements are
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct?
correct and Statement-II is not the correct (a) Only one
explanation for Statement-I (b) Only two
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(c) All three
incorrect
(d) None
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
is correct 14. Consider the following statements:
11. Consider the following statements: 1. Balance of trade
1. Foreign currency non-resident account 2. Foreign assets
maintained in any freely convertible 3. Balance of invisibles
foreign currency. 4. Special Drawing Rights
2. Non-resident external account maintained Which of the above constitute(s) the current
in rupee. account in the balance of payments?
3. Non-resident ordinary account (a) 1 and 3 only
maintained in both rupee and foreign
(b) 1 and 4 only
currency.
(c) 2 and 3 only
How many of the above statements are
correct? (d) 2 and 4 only

unacademy IAS 3
15. Which of the following is not a characteristic 19. Consider the following statements:
of globalization? 1. Indian payment banks are allowed to
(a) Fragility of national barriers for the flow accept deposits from NRI persons.
of capital and goods 2. Payment banks can provide loan services
(b) Rapid flow of information, capital and to the people.
goods 3. Payment banks are also required to
(c) Network of cultural, economic and maintain Cash Reserve Ratios.
political relations How many of the above statements are
(d) Reduced transfer of capital and correct?
investments in the form of Foreign Direct (a) Only one
Investments (FDIs) (b) Only two
(c) All three
16. Which of the following factors lead to the (d) None
development of the service sector in an
economy? 20. Which one of the following banking
1. Development of agriculture and industry committees recommended reducing the
2. Rise in income Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Cash
3. New technologies Reserve Ratio (CRR) to free up bank
How many of the following given above is/ resources?
are correct? (a) Narasimham Committee
(a) Only one (b) Suma Verma Committee
(b) Only two (c) R. Jilani Committee
(c) All three (d) A C Shah Committee
(d) None
21. Consider the following statements:
17. With reference to the Commission for 1. In order to be listed as a D-SIB, a bank
Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which needs to have assets that exceed 2 percent
among the following is correct? of the national GDP.
(a) It has been set up with a view to evolve 2. Since 2015, the RBI has been releasing the
a balanced and integrated price structure list of all D-SIBs.
and is mandated to advise on the price Which one of the following is correct in respect
policy of agricultural commodities. of the above statements?
(b) It submits its recommendations for five (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
groups of commodities only namely correct and Statement-II is the correct
Kharif crops, Zaid crops, sugarcane, raw explanation for Statement-I
jute and copra. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) It submits its recommendations in the correct and Statement-II is not the correct
form of biennial Price Policy Reports. explanation for Statement-I
(d) It is mandated to advise on the Minimum (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Support Price of 44 commodities. incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
18. Consider the following statements: is correct
1. A copyright is a symbol, word or words
legally registered or established by use as 22. The Preston curve, sometimes seen in the
representing a company or a product. news, represents:
2. A trademark is the exclusive and (a) relationship between economic
assignable legal right given to the development and environment
originator for a fixed number of years. (b) a graphical representation of income
Which of the statements given above is/are inequality or wealth inequality
correct? (c) relationship between life expectancy and
(a) 1 only per capita income in a country
(b) 2 only (d) economic relationship between
(c) Both 1 and 2 unemployment rates and changes in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 money wages

unacademy IAS 4
23. With reference to the History of the Indian 26. Which of the following are part of
banking system, consider the following “Seigniorage”?
1. Interest income on reserves kept with RBI
statements:
for money creation
1. Modern banking in India began in the
2. Interest accruing from bank balances kept
18th Century with the founding of the with central bank as interest-free balances
English agency houses in Calcutta and in order to meet the reserve requirements
Bombay. 3. Inflation tax
2. Bank of Hindustan was established in Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
1770 and it was the first bank at Calcutta
(a) 1 and 3only
under European management. (b) 2 only
3. The Central Bank of India also called (c) 1 and 2 only
India’s First Truly Swadeshi bank was (d) 1, 2 and 3
established in 1895. 27. The export competitiveness of a country with
How many of the above statements are its trading partners can be best measured
correct? through which of the following exchange
(a) Only one rates:
(a) Nominal Exchange Rate
(b) Only two
(b) Real Exchange Rate
(c) All three
(c) Nominal Effective Exchange Rate
(d) None (d) Real Effective Exchange Rate

24. Which of the following best describes 28. If the rupee depreciates, it leads to:
predatory pricing? 1. An increase in the cost of imports in
(a) Setting a high price to maximize short- dollars.
2. Earning more dollars per unit of exports
term profits.
Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) Selling a product below cost to drive below:
competitors out of the market. (a) 1 only
(c) Colluding with competitors to set a fixed (b) 2 only
price for a product. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) A practice of price discrimination among
different consumers. 29. Consider the following statements regarding
the budgetary process in India as mentioned
25. Consider the following statements: in the Constitution:
1. M1 in the money supply includes currency 1. No demand for a grant shall be made
in circulation and demand deposits with except on the recommendation of the
President.
banks.
2. No money shall be withdrawn from the
2. M3 includes current deposits in the
Consolidated Fund of India except under
banking system but does not include appropriation made by law.
certificates of deposits issued by banks. 3. No tax shall be levied or collected except
Which of the statements given above is/are by authority of law.
Not correct? How many of the above statements is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None
unacademy IAS 5
30. Consider the following statements regarding (a) 1 and 2 only
‘Windfall Tax’, which has been recently in (b) 2 and 3 only
the news: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. It is imposed on companies that have (d) 1, 2 and 3
experienced significant increases in
profits as a result of circumstances like 35. Currency is the medium of transaction in
war, commodity shortages, and other every economy. Which of the statements
conditions and events that raise prices, given below is/are correct about currency?
2. Windfall taxes frequently target the oil 1. In India, the Reserve Bank of India and an
and gas industry. institution recommended by Parliament
Which of these statements are correct? can issue currency notes on behalf of the
(a) Only 1 central government.
(b) Only 2
2. In India, the law legalizes the use of
(c) Both 1 and 2
a rupee as a medium of payment that
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
cannot be refused in settling transactions
31. Which one of the following statements is not in India.
correct about the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)? 3. The Indian government is solely
(a) CRR is a part of bank’s deposit with the responsible for minting coins.
RBI Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) Banks cannot lend the CRR money to
below:
corporations.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(c) Banks earn interest on CRR money.
(d) CRR is used to regulate money supply in (b) 1 and 2 only
the economy. (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
32. Which of the following is/are the measures
that can be employed for the purpose of 36. Which of the following statements regarding
expansionary monetary policy? Venture Capital Fund is/are correct?
1. Reduce the reserve requirements. 1. This type of fund invests primarily in
2. Lower the short-term interest rates. start-up businesses with high growth
3. Purchasing government securities potential.
through Open Market Operations. 2. They can be established in the form of
Select the correct answer using the codes
trust and need to be registered with the
given below:
Reserve Bank of India.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only 3. There is no obligation on the company/
(c) 3 only firm for the repayment of the investment
(d) 1, 2 and 3 made by a venture capitalist.
Select the correct answer using the codes
33. The highest share of Regional Rural Banks given below:
(RRBs) are owned by
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) Central government
(b) 1 only
(b) State governments
(c) Public sector banks (c) 2 only
(d) NABARD (d) 1, 2 and 3

34. Investors can make foreign direct investment 37. The purpose of the Standing Deposit Facility
by: (SDF) is to
1. Acquiring or merging with an existing (a) Provide more liquidity in the banking
foreign company system.
2. Making Joint ventures with foreign (b) Reduce excess liquidity in the banking
corporations system.
3. Opening a subsidiary of a domestic firm
(c) Give collateral free loan to banks
in a foreign country
(d) Facilitate smooth transition of government
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: securities.

unacademy IAS 6
38. Which of the following is/are the initiatives Which of the statements given above is/are
taken by the Government of India and the correct?
Reserve Bank of India to promote financial (a) 1 and 2 only
inclusion in the country?
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Giving license to set up Payment banks
2. Grant of credit through Kisan Credit (c) 1 and 3 only
Cards (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Providing banking services under
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana 42. With reference to Trahoma, consider the
4. Establishing financial literacy centres following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. A bacterial infection that results in
below: blindness is called a trachoma.
(a) 2 and 3 only 2. The World Health Organization (WHO)
(b) 3 only aims to eliminate trachoma through the
(c) 1 and 4 only
SAFE strategy.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above is/are
39. Consider the following assets: correct?
1. Balances in current account with banks (a) 1 only
2. Balances with the Reserve Bank of India
(b) 2 only
3. Cash
(c) Both 1 and 2
4. Securities under the ‘held for trading’
category (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the assets mentioned above is/are
43. With reference to genetic editing and its role
examples of liquid assets?
(a) 1 and 3 only in cancer treatment, consider the following
(b) 4 only statements:
(c) 2 and 4 only 1. It can specifically target and correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 mutations that lead to cancer.
40. With reference to Foreign Currency 2. It is mainly used in agriculture and is
Convertible Bond (FCCB), consider the not applicable to studying hereditary
following statements: cancers.
1. It is a hybrid debt instrument issued by 3. These techniques enable scientists to
a resident company to borrow funds in modify DNA at specific locations in the
foreign currencies. genome.
2. It can be partially converted into ordinary
Which of the statements given above is/are
shares of the issuing company.
3. An Indian company that is not eligible to correct?
raise funds from the Indian capital market (a) 1 and 2 only
cannot issue FCCB. (b) 1 and 3 only
How many statements given above is/are (c) 2 and 3 only
correct? (d) 1, 2, and 3
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 44. Consider the following statements about
(c) All three ‘Echolocation’:
(d) None
1. It is the use of sound waves and echoes to
41. With reference to the PSLV-C37 mission, determine the exact location of objects.
consider the following statements: 2. Only birds use echolocation to locate and
1. The PSLV-C37 mission set a world record identify objects.
by launching 104 satellites in a single Which of the statements given above is/are
rocket.
incorrect?
2. The mission’s main payload was Cartosat-
2D, an earth observation satellite from (a) 1 only
India. (b) 2 only
3. All co-passenger satellites on this mission (c) Both 1 and 2
were from India. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

unacademy IAS 7
45. With reference to ‘Bioplastics’, consider the 50. Which type of RNA molecules are involved
following statements: in the regulation of gene expression by
1. They are derived from renewable biomass guiding the assembly of RNA-induced
sources such as vegetable oil, corn starch, silencing complexes (RISCs)?
and peas. (a) Small Nuclear RNAs (snRNAs)
2. All bioplastics universally exhibit the (b) MicroRNAs (miRNAs)
characteristic of being biodegradable.
(c) Small Interfering RNAs (siRNAs)
3. The oil crisis of the mid-1970s led to
(d) Transfer RNAs (tRNAs)
renewed interest in finding alternatives
to petroleum-based products. 51. Consider the following statements:
4. Polyhydroxybutyrate (PHB) was the first 1. Viruses are acellular and cannot replicate
bioplastic to be discovered.
without a host cell.
Which of the statements given above are
2. Bacteria are single-celled organisms that
correct?
(a) 1, 3, and 4 can live independently and can be found
(b) 2 and 4 in various environments.
(c) 1 and 2 3. Protozoa primarily affect animals and are
(d) 1, 2, and 3 not known to cause diseases in humans.
How many of the above given statements are
46. Consider the following statements: correct?
1. E. Rutherford is known as the ‘Father of (a) Only one
Nuclear Physics’.
(b) Only two
2. J. J. Thomson proposed the model of an
(c) All three
atom similar to Christmas pudding.
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) None
correct? 52. Consider the following statements with
(a) 1 only
reference to properties of nanomaterial:
(b) 2 only
1. They are governed by rules of Quantum
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 mechanics.
2. The chemical reactivity of the
47. Which of the following are governed by the substances increases drastically on Nano
law of conservation? transformation.
1. Angular Momentum 3. Reduced melting point and boiling point
2. Inertia is the reason behind its increased strength.
3. Mass How many of the above given statements are
Select the correct answer using the code given
correct?
below:
(a) Only one
(a). 1 and 2 only
(b). 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c). 1 and 3 only (c) All three
(d). 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

48. Sir James Chadwick discovered the presence 53. Consider the following statements related
of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom. to proton therapy, as recently heard in news
Neutrons have: with reference to cancer treatment:
(a) Positive charge 1. Proton therapy uses x-rays to treat cancer.
(b) Negative charge 2. Cyclotron is used for generating high-
(c) Both Positive and Negative charges power energy radiation in proton therapy.
(d) No charges 3. Proton therapy has less chance
49. Which of the following parts of the cell of damaging other healthy tissue
regulates the movement of materials between surrounding malignant tumours.
the ordered interior of the cell and the outer How many of the above given statements are
environment? correct?
(a) Plastids (a) Only one
(b) Large Central Vacuole (b) Only two
(c) Chlorophyll (c) All three
(d) Cell Membrane (d) None

unacademy IAS 8
54. With reference to the messenger RNA 57. In the context of artificial sweeteners, what
(mRNA) vaccine, consider the following describes the best advantage of using
statements: ‘Alitame’?
(a) It enhances flavors in cooked food.
1. It injects mRNA which is derived from
(b) It is 2000 times sweeter than cane sugar.
specific DNA in the laboratory. (c) It is highly stable at cooking temperature.
2. The production of mRNA vaccines is (d) It is excreted from the body in urine
faster than traditional vaccines. unchanged.
3. A large quantity of virus is required to
58. Which of the following vitamins is required
produce mRNA vaccine when compared
for the production of red blood cells?
to the traditional vaccines. (a) Vitamin A
4. mRNA vaccines require a cold storage (b) Vitamin C
supply chain to maintain their stability. (c) Vitamin D
How many of the above given statements are (d) Vitamin B12
correct? 59. With reference to the methods of metal
(a) Only one extraction, consider the following statements:
(b) Only two 1. Roasting is a process used to convert
(c) Only three metal carbonates into metal oxides.
(d) All four 2. Electrolytic refining is a commonly used
method to remove impurities and obtain
55. Which of the following best describes the pure metals.
significance of a CDSCO licensed Good How many of the above given statements are
Manufacturing Practices (GMP) compliant correct?
(a) Only 1
facility in stem cell therapy?
(b) Only 2
(a) It ensures ethical considerations are (c) Both 1 and 2
fulfilled. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) It is mandatory for obtaining informed
60. Consider the following statements about the
consent.
phenomenon of the Rainbow:
(c) It guarantees the quality and safety of 1. A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing
stem cells and their derivatives. in the sky after a rain shower.
(d) It allows commercial use of stem cells. 2. A rainbow is always formed in the same
direction as that of the sun.
56. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the statements given above is/are
the Gagan Enabled Mariner’s Instrument correct?
for Navigation and Information (GEMINI) (a) 1 only
device: (b) 2 only
1. GEMINI is developed by the Indian (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
National Centre for Ocean Information
Services (INCOIS) in collaboration with 61. Consider the following statements regarding
Accord. Standard Essential Patent (SEP):
2. It is based on the GAGAN (GPS-Aided 1. A Standard Essential Patent (SEP) is a
patent granted for technological invention
Geo Augmented Navigation) satellite
which is essential for implementation and
system. working of a standard.
3. It employs Bluetooth communication 2. SEPs are widely used in the
which can decode and display information telecommunications sector.
in nine languages. 3. SEPs can be protected in India only by
How many of the above given statements are registering a patent in India.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only two (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) None (d) 3 only

unacademy IAS 9
62. Consider the following statements regarding 65. Consider the following statements in context
Network-as-a-Service (NaaS): of Infrared waves:
Statement I: It allows customers to operate 1. Near infrared waves have greater
the networks without maintaining their own wavelength than far infrared waves.
networking infrastructure. 2. Visible light has greater ability to
Statement II: It is a cloud-like networking penetrate into the human body without
model where network resources are provided
causing tissue damage than Near-infrared
to customers on demand.
light.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements? 3. Near-infrared light can rupture cancerous
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are cells.
correct and Statement- II is the correct 4. Infrared detectors are used in Earth
explanation for Statement- I satellites to observe growth of crops.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Which of the statements given above are
correct and Statement- II is not the correct correct?
explanation for Statement-I. (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (b) 2 and 3 only
incorrect. (c) 3 and 4 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
is correct.
66. Consider the following with respect to the
63. With reference to the Bacterial Pathogens
Metaverse technology:
Priority List (BPPL) 2024 of the WHO,
1. Virtual Reality
consider the following statements:
1. It seeks to support development of 2. Augmented Reality
strategies to prevent, control and treat 3. Blockchain technology
infections caused by priority pathogens. 4. Virtual economies
2. As per the list Streptococci bacteria are How many of the above given applications
responsible for a high disease rate in and technologies are associated with the
pediatric and elderly populations. Metaverse technology?
3. It categorises antibiotic resistant bacteria (a) Only one
in two categories. (b) Only two
How many of the above statements are (c) Only three
correct? (d) All four
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 67. Consider the following with respect to the
(c) All three Natural Gas Flare:
(d) None 1. Production of excess natural gas to be
64. Consider the following statements regarding transported or used on-site.
‘Foucault Pendulum’: 2. Release nitrogen oxides, volatile organic
1. It works on the principle of Newton’s first compounds, and fine particulate matter
law of motion. leading to increase in pollution levels.
2. The purpose of the Pendulum is to 3. natural gas flaring involves the controlled
demonstrate the rotation of the earth. combustion of natural gas as compared
3. It always rotates counterclockwise in the to the venting process which leads to
northern Hemisphere. the direct release of natural gas into the
4. Its rate of rotation depends on the atmosphere without burning the gas
longitude.
Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the above statements are
Not correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Only three (c) 3 only
(d) All four (d) 1 only

unacademy IAS 10
68. Consider the following statements with 71. Consider the following statements about
respect to Radiowave Frequency and epigenetics:
Microwave Frequency:
1. Epigenetics involves changes in gene
1. Radio Wave has a wider frequency range
as compared to Microwaves. expression without altering the DNA
2. Microwaves can penetrate obstacles like sequence.
walls and buildings more easily than 2. Epigenetic modifications can be inherited
Radio Wave Frequency.
across generations but do not change the
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct? underlying DNA.
(a) 1 only 3. Lifestyle and environmental factors have
(b) 2 only no impact on epigenetic changes.
(c) Both 1 and 2 4. Epigenetic changes can influence the risk
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
of developing certain diseases.
69. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
respect to the Space Debris Charter: Not correct?
1. It is an initiative of the National
Aeronautics and Space Administration (a) 1 and 3 only
(NASA) unveiled at the NASA Space (b) 1 and 4 only
Summit. (c) 3 only
2. The Charter aims at the joint goal by (d) 4 only
multiple countries of creating no more
debris by 2047 and making it possible 72. With reference to the methods of metal
for the long-term sustainability of space
extraction, consider the following statements:
activities.
3. It focuses on post-mission disposal, space 1. Roasting is a process used to convert
traffic coordination, in-orbit servicing metal carbonates into metal oxides.
and active debris removal. 2. Electrolytic refining is a commonly used
How many of the statements given above are
method to remove impurities and obtain
correct?
(a) Only one pure metals.
(b) Only two How many of the above given statements are
(c) All three correct?
(d) None (a) 1 only
70. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 only
Statement 1: In a speed gun, a moving (c) Both 1 and 2
vehicle towards the radar gun will cause (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the reflected radio wave to have a higher
frequency compared to the emitted wave. 73. With reference to Gaseous state, consider the
Statement 2: The Doppler effect states that
following statements:
the frequency of a wave increases as the
source and observer move closer together. 1. The behaviour of gases is governed by
Which one of the following is correct in respect strong forces of interaction between their
of the above statements? molecules.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. Gases mix unevenly and do not form
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I homogeneous mixtures.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct correct?
explanation for Statement-I
(a) 1 only
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is
incorrect (b) 2 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is (c) Both 1 and 2
correct (d) Neither 1 nor 2

unacademy IAS 11
74. Consider the following statements: 78. Consider the following pairs:
1. Ballistic missiles depend on the gravity to Important Function
reach their target. Mineral
2. Subsonic cruise missiles fly at high 1. Sodium :  Proper functioning of the
altitudes to avoid detection. nervous system
3. Ballistic missiles follow a circular 2. Zinc : Digestion
trajectory during most of their flight. 3. Copper : Formation and functioning of
RBC
4. Cruise missiles can carry large payloads
4. Iodine : Metabolism of Body
with high precision.
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly
How many of the statements given above matched?
regarding classification of Missiles are correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) Only three
(c) Only three (d) All four
(d) All four
79. Consider the following statements with
75. LADA (Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in respect to Calcium Carbide:
Adults) best refers to which one of the 1. It is commonly used for ripening fruits
following statements? such as mangoes and when it comes
(a) It Promotes beta cell regeneration. into contact with moisture, it releases
(b) It shares features with both Type 1 and acetylene gas, which accelerates the
Type 2 diabetes. ripening process.
2. For ripening of fruit, it has been permitted
(c) It is not associated with immune factors.
as per the provision in the sub-regulation
(d) It requires insulin therapy from the onset.
of Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition
76. With reference to HIV testing and diagnosis, and Restriction on Sales) Regulation,
consider the following statements: 2011.
1. The “window period” in HIV testing Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
refers to the time when the symptoms of
(a) 1 only
HIV first appear.
(b) 2 only
2. The specific blood test for HIV is (c) Both 1 and 2
conducted only at Integrated Counselling (d) Neither 1 nor 2
and Testing Centres.
3. HIV antibodies appear in the body 80. Consider the following statements:
immediately after acquiring the infection. Statement I: Exposure to asbestos, in any form,
How many of the above given statements are can lead to several serious health problems,
correct? including lung cancer, mesothelioma, cancer
(a) Only one of the larynx and ovaries, and scarring of the
lungs (asbestosis).
(b) Only two
Statement II: If items containing asbestos are
(c) All three
disturbed, they release minuscule asbestos
(d) None fibers into the air. These fibers can be inhaled
77. With reference to the National Stock and remain lodged in the lungs for an
extended period.
Exchange (NSE) of India, consider the
Which one of the following is correct in respect
following statements:
of the above statements?
1. It was set up in 1952 and became
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
operational in 1954. correct and Statement-II is the correct
2. It conducts transactions in the wholesale explanation for Statement-I
debt, equity, and derivative markets. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
correct? explanation for Statement-I
(a) 1 only (c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is
(b) 2 only incorrect
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct

unacademy IAS 12
81. Consider the following statements: 85. Consider the following statements in context
1. Hot Spot technology works on the idea of of Environment Relief Fund (Amendment)
audio waveform pattern. Scheme, 2024:
2. Snickometer technology is based on 1. It vests the Environment Relief Fund
infrared thermal imaging. (ERF) in the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. State Pollution Boards are appointed as
correct? ERF Manager for five years.
(a) 1 only 3. The accounts of the ERF are audited
(b) 2 only by an independent auditor appointed
(c) Both and 2 by the Central Government from the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 panel approved by the Comptroller and
Auditor-General.
82. With reference to the air-to-ground (ATG) How many of the above statements are
technology and satellite-based connectivity, correct?
consider the following statements: (a) Only one
1. In-flight connectivity systems exclusively (b) Only two
rely on satellite-based connectivity to (c) All three
provide Internet services . (d) None
2. Air-to-ground (ATG) technology
86. With reference to the Bharatpol, consider the
requires special antennae while satellite-
following statements:
based connectivity does not require any
1. It is a broadcast hub for assistance and real-
antennae. time action against transnational crimes
3. Satellite-based connectivity is especially via international police cooperation,
handy when the aircraft is flying over developed by the National Investigation
areas lacking ground towers. Agency (NIA).
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. With the help of this portal, only the
correct? central agencies can connect with Interpol
(a) 1 and 2 only and speed up their investigations.
(b) 2 only 3. This portal can help in dealing crimes
(c) 3 only related to internet extremism and human
(d) 1, 2 and 3 trafficking.
Which of the statements given above is/are
83. Ramesh Chand Committee, recently in the
correct?
news, is related to: (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) addressing the issue of farmer suicides in (b) 3 only
India (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) suggesting comprehensive reforms for (d)1, 2 and 3
the Indian Railways
(c) base revision of the current series of 87. Which of the following best describes the
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) term “Pig butchering”, sometimes seen in
(d) raising the legal age of marriage for the news?
women (a) It is a cyber-attack method where hackers
exploit software vulnerabilities to gain
84. Consider the following statements: access to personal data.
1. Flamingo Festival 2025 will be celebrated (b) It is a type of online scam where fraudsters
at Loktak Lake. build a romantic or personal rapport with
2. Loktak Lake which is the largest brackish their victims over time to gain their trust
water lake in India houses the only and access their finances.
floating national park in the world. (c) It refers to a phishing technique where
Which of the statements given above is/are scammers send fraudulent emails to
correct? extract sensitive information from
(a) 1 only unsuspecting victims.
(b) 2 only (d) It is a financial scam involving fake
(c) Both 1 and 2 investment schemes promising high
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 returns with minimal risk.

unacademy IAS 13
88. The words ‘Denisovan’ and ‘Homo 92. With reference to the Mission Mausam,
juluensis’ is sometimes mentioned in media consider the following statements:
in reference to 1. It aims to cover all aspects of weather
(a) fossil of a kind of dinosaurs and forecasting services offered in the
(b) an early human species country.
(c) tribes of Indian subcontinent 2. The mission has been inaugurated to mark
(d) a geological period in the history of Indian the 100 years of the India Meteorological
subcontinent Department (IMD).
Which of the statements given above is/are
89. Consider the following statements : correct?
1. ‘10,000 genome’ project aims to create (a) 1 Only
a reference database of whole-genome (b) 2 Only
sequences out of India. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. All the data of the ‘10,000 genome’ project (d) Neither 1 nor 2
are stored at the Indian Biological Data
93. The Kuka Movement was founded in 1840
Centre (IBDC) set up by the Department
by Bhagat Jawahar Mal in western Punjab.
of Biotechnology at Shimla.
Who was the major leader of the movement
3. The Genome India Project (GIP) aims to
after him?
create a database of Indian genomes.
(a) Syed Ahmed
4. India and USA are the only two countries
(b) Baba Ram Singh
that have programmes to sequence at
(c) Titu Mir
least 1,00,000 of their genomes.
(d) Buddho Bhagat
5. A person’s genome can be edited before
birth at the early embryonic stage. 94. Consider the following factors:
How many of the above statements are 1. Being located on the east coast
correct ? 2. having proximity to the equator
(a) only two 3. Having Uninhabited area
(b) only three How many of the above factors are correct about
(c) only four choosing Sriharikota as India’s spaceport?
(d) All five (a) Only one
(b) Only two
90. Which of the following states has recently (c) All three
announced a $1 million prize for deciphering (d) None
the script of the Indus Valley Civilisation?
(a) Rajasthan 95. Which type of detergent is best known for
(b) Gujarat having germicidal properties and is often
(c) Tamil Nadu used in hair conditioners?
(d) Haryana (a) Anionic detergent
(b) Cationic detergent
91. Consider the following statements about the (c) Non-ionic detergent
QS World Future Skills Index 2025: (d) Emulsifying agent
1. India has been ranked first in terms
96. With reference to enzyme regulation,
of preparedness for jobs of the future
consider the following statements:
including artificial intelligence (AI) and
1. Allosteric inhibitors bind to the active site
green skills.
of an enzyme.
2. This index employs particular measures
2. Feedback inhibition is a form of negative
to assess how well countries are prepared feedback in enzyme regulation.
to handle the changing needs of the global 3. Coenzymes are small organic molecules
labour market that enhance enzyme activity.
Which of the statements given above is/ are How many of the above given statements are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 Only (a) Only one
(b) 2 Only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None
unacademy IAS 14
97. Which of the following is best environmental
friendly option for dry cleaning, instead of
tetrachloroethene:
(a) Utilizing chlorine gas
(b) Employing liquid CO2 with an
appropriate detergent
(c) Using hydrogen peroxide
(d) Opting for a halogenated solvent

98. Which of the following is not a rare-earth


element?
(a) Scandium (Sc)
(b) Yttrium (Y)
(c) lutetium (Lu)
(d) Thorium (Th)

99. Consider the following statements about the


GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat
Assessment):
1. It is jointly established by the Ministry
of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE),
and TERI.
2. GRIHA is a national rating system for
Green buildings in India.
3. GRIHA is a part of the mitigation strategy
for combating climate change in India’s
“Nationally Determined Contributions”
submitted to UNFCCC.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

100. Which of the following statements about the


Atmanirbhar Clean Plant Programme is/are
correct?
1. It aims to improve availability of disease-
free, quality planting material for high-
value horticultural crops.
2. It is implemented by the National
Horticulture Board in collaboration
with the Indian Council of Agricultural
Research (ICAR).
3. It will help in increasing India’s share in
the international fruit trade.
Select the correct answer by using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

unacademy IAS 15

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