The Question Bank on Data Interpretation/Logical reasoning prepared for CMAT will help you test your knowledge

on the subject matter thoroughly.

Data Interpretation/Logical reasoning Directions for questions (1 to 4) : Answer these Questions on the basis of the information given below: Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies - A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the-time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs 100. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value ofthe stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or[ the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a halftimes that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies. Which do not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected. 1. (a) (b) (c) (d) Cannot 31 32 be What is the minimum average return Venkat would have earned during the year? 30% Y4% 1/2% determined

2. If Venkat earned a 35% return on average during the year, then which of these statements would necessarily be true? I. II. III. Iv. (a) (b) (c) (d) Company Company Company Company D I II III II A B A did belonged did either not to announce Auto or to Steel good good good Industry. results. results. results. only only only only

extraordinarily extraordinarily extraordinarily II III IV IV

announced not announce and and and and

3. If Venkat earned a 38.75% return on average during the year, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?

I. II. III. IV. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Company Company Company Company

C D

belonged belonged A B did

either either announced not and

to to

Auto Auto

or or

to to

Steel Steel good good only

Industry. Industry. results. results.

extraordinarily extraordinarily II

announce

I II III II

and and and

III IV IV

only only only

4. If Company C belonged to the Cement or the IT industry and did announce extraordinarily good results, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true? I. II. Venkat Venkat earned earned not not more less than than 36.25% 33.75% return return on on average. average.

III. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company A announced extraordinarily good results. Iv. If' Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company B belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry. (a) (b) (c) (d) I II II III and and and and II IV III IV only only only only

Directions for questions (5 to 8) : Answer these Questions on the basis of the information given below: The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A,B,C and D, in no particular order. States Firm A Firm B Firm C Firm D UP Bihar MP 49 69 72 82 72 63 80 70 72 55 65 65

Further, it is known that:

5.

In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share. Aggressive Ltd. 's aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd. 's by Rs. 5 million.

What 1:

can Honest

be Ltd.

said has

regarding the

the highest

following share in

two the UP

statements? market.

Statement

Statement (a) (b) (c) (d) 6. What At At

2:

Aggressive Both least most None can be

Ltd.

has statements

the

highest

share could

in

the be must

Bihar

market. true.

one one

of of

the the of

statements

be is

true. true. above.

statements the

said

regarding Ltd. Ltd. 's then then then of 's

the lowest lowest

following revenues revenues 1 2 2 the is is is

two are are

statements? from from MP. Bihar. false. true. true. above.

Statement Statement (a) (b) (c) (d) 7. What If If If

1 2

: :

Aggressive Honest 2 I I None is is is

Statement Statement Statement

true false true

Statement Statement Statement

necessarily necessarily necessarily

can 1: 2 : Statement Statement

be

said Ltd. Ltd. is is 1 1 revenue 's 's 's definite 's true true

regarding has total then then and nor is from UP, the

the lowest is

following share more 2 2

two in than is is 2 2 MP

statements? market. Ltd. true. false. true. true. is true?

Statement Statement (a) (b) (c) (d) 8. (a) (b) (c) (d) If If "If

Profitable Honest I 1 Statement Statement Ltd. 's Ltd. Ltd. Ltd. No lowest

revenue

Profitable necessarily necessarily are is following MP. from

Statement Statement Statement Statement then

Both Neither Profitable Truthful Truthful Truthful

which are

of

the from

lowest lowest lowest

revenues revenues revenues conclusion

are are from is

Bihar. UP. possible.

Directions for questions (9 to 12) : Answer these Questions on the basis ofthe information given below: In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed # 32) which is designated match No.1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31 st seeded player which is designated match No.2 of the

first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In thesecond round, the winner of match No.1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No.1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No.2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No.2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No.8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No.8 offirst round and the winner of match No.9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well. Seed # Name of Player 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 Maria Sharapova Lindsay Davenport Amelie Mauresmo Kim Cliisters Svetlana Kuznetsova Elena Dementieva Justine Henin Serena Williams Nadia Petrova Venus Williams Patty Schnyder Seed # Name of Player 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 Mary Pierce Anastasia Mvskina Alicia Molik Nathalie Dechv Elena Bovina Jelena Jankovic Ana Ivanovic Vera Zvonareva Elena Likhovtseva Daniela Hantuchova Dinara Safina Seed # Name of Player 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 Silvia Farina Elia Tatiana Golovin Shinobu Asazoe Francesca Schiavone Nicole Vaidisova Gisela Dulko Flavia Pennetta Anna Chakvetadze Ai Sugiyama Anna-lena Groenefeld

9. If Elena Dementieva and Serena Williams lose in the second round, while Justine Henin and Nadia Petro va make it to the semi-finals, then who would play Maria Sharapova in the quarterfinals, in the event Sharapova reaches quarterfinals? (a) Dinara Safina (b) Justine Henin (c) Nadia Petrova (d) Patty Schnyder 10. If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then who, amongst the players listed below, would definitely not play against Maria Sharapova in the final, in case Sharapova reaches the final? (a) Amelie Mauresmo (b) Elena Dementieva (c) Kim Clijsters (d) Lindsay Davenport 11. If there are no upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the first round, and only match Nos. 6, 7, and 8 of the second round result in upsets, then who would meet Lindsay Davenport in quarter finals, in case Davenport reaches quarter finals? (a) Justine Henin (b) Nadia Petrova (c) Patty Schnyder (d) Venus Williams 12. If, in the first round, all even numbered matches (and none of the odd numbered ones) result in upsets, and there are no upsets in the second round, then who could be the lowest seeded player facing Maria Sharapova in

semi-finals? (a) Anastasia Myskina (b) Flavia Pennetta (c) Nadia Petrova (d) Svetlana Kuznetsova Directions for questions (13 to 16) : Answer these Questions on the basis of the information given below: Help Distress (HD) is an NGO involved in providing assistance to people suffering from natural disasters. Currently, it has 37 volunteers. They are involved in three projects: Tsunami Relief(TR) in Tamil Nadu, Flood Relief(FR) in Maharashtra, and Earthquake Relief (ER) in Gujarat. Each volunteer working with Help Distress has to be involved in at least one relief work project.

A Maximum number of volunteers are involved in the FR project. Among them, the number of volunteers involved in FR project alone is equal to the volunteers having additional involvement in the ER project.

The number of volunteers involved in the ER project alone is double the number of volunteers involved in all the three projects.

17 volunteers are involved in the TR project. ,

The number of volunteers involved in the TR project alone is one less than the number of volunteers involved in ER project alone.

Ten volunteers involved in the TR project are also involved in at least one more project.

13. Based on the information given above, the minimum number of volunteers involved in both FR and TR projects, but not in the ER project is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 3 4 5

14. Which of the following additional information would enable to find the exact number of volunteers involved in various projects? (a) (b) (c) (d) Four Twenty No Twenty volunteers three volunteers are volunteers need involved are for are in involved any involved all in the exactly additional in three one FR. projects. project. information.

15. After some time, the volunteers who were involved in all the three projects were asked to withdraw from one project. As a result, one of the volunteers opted out of the TR project, and one opted out ofthe ER project, while the remaining ones involved in all the three projects opted out of the FR project. Which of the following statements, then, necessarily follows?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

The More More

lowest volunteers volunteers

number are are None now now

of in in

volunteers FR TR of project project

is as as

now compared compared the

in to to

TR ER ER

project. project. project. above.

16. After the withdrawal of volunteers, as indicated in Question 85, some new volunteers joined the NGO. Each one ofthem was allotted only one project in a manner such that, the number of volunteers working in one project alone for each of the three projects became identical. At that point, it was also found that the number of volunteers involved in FR and ER projects was the same as the number of volunteers involved in TR and ER projects. Which of the projects now has the highest number of volunteers? (a) (b) (c) (d) Cannot be ER FR TR determined

Directions for questions (17 to 20) : Answer these Questions on the basis of the information given below: The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the lac with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in lac.

In any round of voting; the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.

A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities(s) he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)

A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city(s) he represents is in contention in that round of voting .

As long as the member is eligible,(s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.

The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.

Total Round Votes cast

Maximum votes cast City London

Eliminated No. of votes 30 32 City New York Beijing No. of votes 12 21

1 2 83

Paris

75

It is also known that :

All those who voted for London and Paris in round 1, continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round I, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.

Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beij ing or Paris in round 2.

The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was I.

50% of those who voted for Beijing in round I, voted for Paris in round 3.

17. What percentage of members from among those who voted for New York in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2? (a) (b) (c) (d) 18. (a) (b) (c) (d) What is the number of votes cast for Paris in round 33.33 50 66.67 75 I? 16 18 22 24

19. What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible to vote in round 3, voted for London? (a) (b) (c) (d) 20. (a) (b) (a) IOC IOC Which member member of from the New from Only following York Beijing must statements have voted voted for a for London must Paris in in be round round 33.33 38.10 50 66.67 true? 2. 3.

(b) (c) (d) Both Neither

Only a a and nor

b b b

Directions for questions (21 to 24) : Answer these questions on the basis ofthe information given below. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions: (a) if the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B alone. (b) if the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A alone. (c) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.

(d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone. (e) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

21. In a football match, at the half-time, Mahindra and Mahindra Club was trailing by three goals. Did it win the match? A: B: In The the second-half opponent Mahindra scored and four Mahindra goals Club in scored the four match goals. .

22. In a particular school, sixty students were athletes. Ten among them were also among the top academic performers. How many top academic performers were in the school? A: B: Sixty All per the cent top of'the academic top academic performers performers were not were not athletes. athletes.

necessarily

23. Five students Atul, Bala, Chetan, Dev and Ernesto were the only ones who participated in a quiz contest. They were ranked based on their scores in the contest. Dev got a higher rank as compared to Ernesto, while Bala got a higher rank as compared to Chetan. Chetan's rank was lower than the median. Who among the five got the highest rank? A: B: Bala Atul was was not among the the last top two rank rank holder. holders.

24. Thirty per cent of the employees ofa call centre are males. Ten per cent of the female employees have an engineering background. What is the percentage of male employees with engineering background? A: Twenty five per cent of the employees have engineering background.

B: Number of male employees having an engineering background is 20% more than the number of female employees having an engineering background. Directions for questions (25 to 28) : Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below.

The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below.The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest equally divided between Class 11 and 12. Male (M) Vegetarian (V) Class 12 Class 11 Secondary Section Total 25. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) What 0.475 is the 0.60 0.55 0.50 0.55 0.53 percentage of 40 45 50 55 60 vegetarian students in Class 12?

26. In Class 12, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 27. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) What is the percentage of male 40 45 50 55 60 students in the secondary less than 10 12 14 16 section? 8

28. In the Secondary Section, 50% of the students are vegetarian males. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) (b) Except Except vegetarian non-vegetarian males, males, all all other other groups groups have have same same number number of of students. students.

(c) (d) (e)

Except Except All

vegetarian non-vegetarian of the

females, females, above

all all

other other have

groups groups the

have have same

same same number

number number of of

ofstudents. students. '

groups

students.

Directions for questions (29 to 32) : Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below. The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product: Year 2002 Volume of production and sale (units) 1000 Costs (Rs.) Material Labour Consumables Rent of building Rates and taxes Repair and maintenance expenses Operating cost of machines Selling and marketing expenses 50,000 45,100 55,200 59,900 60,000 20,000 18,000 22,100 24,150 24,000 2,000 1,000 400 800 2,200 1,000 400 820 1,800 1,100 400 780 1,600 1,100 400 790 1,400 1,200 400 800 Year 2003 900 Year 2004 1100 Year 2005 1200 Year 2006 1200

30,000 27,000 33,500 36,020 36,000 5,750 5,800 5,800 5,750 5,800

The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 asthe basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions: 29. What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, ifthe company produces and sells 1400 units in the year 2007? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 104 107 110 115 116

30. What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any loss? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 313 350 384 747 928

31. Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce the price by Rs.5 for all units, if it wants to sell more than 1400 units, what is the maximum profit, in rupees, that the company can earn? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 25,400 24,400 31,400 32,900 32,000

32. If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. How many units the company should produce to maximize its profit? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 1400 1600 1800 1900 2000

Directions for questions (33 to 36) : Answer these questions on the basis ofthe information given below. The Table shows the comparative costs, in US'Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries. Comparative Costs in USA and some Asian countries Procedure USA Heart Bypass Heart Valve Replacement Angioplasty Hip Replacement Hysterectomy Knee Replacement Spinal Fusion 130000 160000 57000 43000 20000 40000 62000 India 10000 9000 11000 9000 3000 8500 5500 (in US Dollars) Thailand 11000 10000 13000 12000 4500 10000 7000 Singapore 18500 12500 13000 12000 6000 13000 9000 Malaysia 9000 9000 11000 10000 3000 8000 6000

The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below: 1 US Dollar equivalent India Malaysia Thailand Singapore 40.928 3.51 32.89 1.53 Rupees Ringits Bahts S Dollars

A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:

Comparative Costs in USA and some Asian countries Procedure Heart Bypass Heart Valve Replacement Angioplasty Hip Replacement Hysterectomy Knee Replacement Spinal Fusion USA 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 India 3 5 5 7 5 9 5 Thailand 3 4 5 5 6 6 6

(in US Dollars) Malaysia 4 5 6 8 4 4 6

Singapore 2 5 4 5 5 4 5

33. The rupee value increases to Rs. 35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including quality, remain the same. What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion, taking this change into account? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) No 2500 4500 8000 difference 700

34. Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her, native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? It costs 7500 Bahts for one-way travel between Thailand and India. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 57500 67500 75000 23500 40500

35. A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and a knee replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the government will take care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package, taking cost of poor quality into account? (a) (b) India Thailand

(c) (d) (e)

Malaysia Singapore USA

36. Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most expensive for knee replacement? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) India and India Thailand Malaysia Singapore Singapore

Directions for questions (37 to 41) : Answer these questions on the basis ofthe information given below. A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports. Sector Airport of No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 Airport of Distance between the Airports (Km) 560 790 850 1245 1345 1350 1950 1650 1750 2100 2300 460 410 910 540 625 640 950 1650 670 1350 1250 1600 1700 2450 1850 2000 1900 2450 2275 450 430 1100 590 700 750 1250 2450 Price (Rs.)

Departure Arrival A A A A A A A B B B B C C C D D D D D B C D E F G H C H I J D F G E F G H J

20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

E E E F F F G G H H I

F G H G I J I J I J J

1250 970 850 900 875 970 510 830 790 400 460

1700 1150 875 1050 950 1150 550 890 970 425 540

37. What is the lowest price, in rupees, a passenger has to pay for travelling by the shortest route from A to J? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 2275 2850 2890 2930 3340

38. The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market research results indicate that all its existing passengers travelling between A and J will use this direct flight ifit is priced 5% below the minimum price that they pay at present. What sllould the company charge approximately, in rupees, for this direct flight? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 2707 2745 2783 1991 2161

39. If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons, what would be the minimum price, in rupees, to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 2275 2615 2850 2945 3190

40. If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the company incurs, what is the minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 0.88 0.99 1.06 1.08 0.77

41. If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs, which among the following is the distance to be covered in flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost per kilometer for the company? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 2170 2180 2315 2350 2390

Directions for questions (42 to 45) : Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below. A health-drink company's R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (0, P, Q, Rand S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition ofthese ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is 0: 150, P:50, Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100. Composition Carbohydrate Protein Fat Minerals % O P Q R S 50 80 10 5 45 % 30 20 30 50 50 % 10 0 50 40 0 % 10 0 10 5 5

Ingredient

42. The company is planning to launch a balanced diet required for growth needs of adolescent children. This diet must contain at least 30% each of carbohydrate and protein, no more than 25% fat and at least 5% minerals. Which one of the following combinations of equally mixed ingredients is feasible? (a) O and P (b) R and S (c) P and S (d) Q and R

(e) O and S 43. For a recuperating patient, the doctor recommended a diet containing 10% minerals and at least 30% protein. In how many different ways can we prepare this diet by mixing at least two ingredients? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) None 44. Which among the following is the formulation having the lowest cost per unit for a diet having 10% fat and at leas410% protein? The diet has to be formed by mixing two ingredients. (a) P and Q (b) P and S (c) P and R (d) Q and S (e) Rand S 45. In what proportion P, Q and S should be mixed to make a diet having at least 60% carbohydrate at the lowest per unit cost? (a) 2:1:3 (b) 4:1:2 (c) 2:1:4 (d) 3:1:2 (e) 4:1:1 Directions 46- 50 : These are based on the following Line Chart: The sales and net profit of XPL Electronics in Rs. crores is given below.

Note: Net profit = Gross Profit - Tax. Gross profit = Sales - Expenses. The figures for sales is given at the bottom of the bar chart and the figures for net profit is given on top of the line chart. 46. What is the net profit percentage ofXPL in 1998?

(a) 4.6% (b) 4.8% (c) 5.1% (d) 6.2% 47. Which year showed the maximum percentage increase in sales? (a) 1999 (b) 1998 (c) 1997 (d) 1996 48. By how much percentage has the net profit dropped in 1996? (a) 1.1% (b) 2.27% (c) 2.53% (d) Cannot be determined 49. If XPL sold 20,000 units in both 1998 and 1999, by what percentage has the price per unit changed? (a) 8.7% (b) 10.96% (c) 9.86% (d) Cannot be determined 50. The year in which the expenses ofXPL Electronic are highest is (a) 1999 (b) 1998 (c) 1997 (d) Cannot be determined Directions (51 to 55) : These are based on the following data. The following chart gives the production of three major crops (in million tons) across five Indian states in the year 1998.

51. If Tamil Nadu registers an annual increase of 22 per cent in rice production, what was the rice production in Tamil Nadu in 1998? (a) 1900 million tons (b) 2300 million tons (c) 2180 million tons (d) 2520 million tons 52. What is the ratio of total wheat production in the five states to total sugar production? (a) 0.6 (b) 1.4 (c) 1.0 (d) 0.75 53. If sugar costs Rs. 700 per ton and wheat costs Rs. 400 per ton, what was the total 'worth of sugar and wheat production in India? (a) 42 million (b) 21 million (c) 10.5 million (d) Data insufficient 54. If the yield per hectare of sugar is 3.86 tons, what is the ratio of area employed to produce sugar in Bihar to Gujarat? (a) 1.15 (b) 1.45 (c) 1.35 (d) Data insufficient 55. If these five states constitute 77 per lent of the country's wheat production and 23 per ent of country's wheat consumption is imported, what is the amount of wheat importedin 1998? (a) 4700 million tons (b) 3900 million tons (c) 3500 million tons

(d) Data insufficient Directions (56 to 60) : Read the following information and answer the quetions that follow: The cars at. a dealership come with a choice-of the following options: air-conditioning, a cassette deck, leather seats, power windows, a sunroof and tinted glass. None of the cars has any other optional equipment. The following conditions apply: If a car has leather seats, it also has a cassette deck. If a car has a cassette deck, it also has power windows; If a car has power windows, it also has a cassette deck. Cars with tinted glass have a sunroof, but no air-conditioning. Cars that have air-conditioning have, at most, two other options. 56. If a car has both tinted glass and leather seats, what is the greatest number of additional options that the car could have? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 57. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of options on a car? (a) air-conditioning, cassette deck, leather seats, power windows (b) air-conditioning , cassette deck, leather seats, sunroof (c) cassette deck, leather seats, sunroof, tinted glass (d) cassette deck, power windows, sunroof, tinted glass 58. If a car has power windows and a sunroof, how many different sets of options, at most, can the car have? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 59. If a car has exactly two options, which one of the following could they be? (a) air-conditioning and cassette deck (b) tinted glass and sunroof (c) cassette deck and leather seats (d) power windows and sunroof 60. If a car has tinted glass, which one of the following CANNOT be true? (a) The car has 3 options. (b) The car has 4 options. (c) The car has power windows and a sunroof. (d) The car does not have both leather seats and a cassette deck. Directions (61 - 65): The data given below pertains to seven different industry sector with respect to income,

expenditure, Profits. Study the data and answer the questions. Particulars 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Sales Other Income Total Income=(1+2) Raw material cost Power & fuel expenses Salaries and wages Depreciation Interest payments Other expenses Total expenses =(4+5+6+7+8+9) 11 Profit before tax =(3-10) 12 Tax paid 13 Profit after tax =(11-12) 7,467 19,861 8,887 2,394 8,501 2,538 5,001 32,698 0 -2,874 11,514 3,814 8,176 50,484 13,791 11,065 11,135 4,412 4,807 2,923 24,706 119,316 6,311 5,756 5,604 58,769 23,570 34,271 80,750 120,557 4,284 20,038 5,026 44,371 22,854 133,619 97,092 385,694 4,361 3,013 5,259 10,368 338,683 18,467 chemical Divers ified Electricity Food 498,476 7,303 130,830 78,237 31,060 4,865 128,125 2,374 82,808 2,887 128,733 48,188 54,994 2,003 1,973 81,600 6,097 Machinery Services Textiles 56,401 1,705 58,106 33,738

61. Which of the following statements is wrong? (a) Depreciation expense is the lowest for food industry (b) Power and fuel expenses are 5th largest item in the expenditure of diversified industries. (c) Electricity industry earns more of other income as a percentage of total income compared to other industries. (d) Raw material cost is the largest item of expense in all industry sectors 62. Depreciation as a percentage of total expenses is maximum in which industry sector? (a) Chemical (b) Diversified (c) Electricity (d) Machinery 63. Which industry sector has 'salaries and wages' as 3rd largest item in its expenses? (a) Food (b) Services (c) Textiles & Food

(d) Food & Machinery 64. If the industry sectors are ranked on the basis of 'Tax paid as a proportion of sales' in the ascending order, then which industry will be placed at rank 3? (a) Machinery (b) Electricity (c) Food (d) Diversified 65. If the ranking is based on Profit Before Tax in the descending order, subject to the condition that 'other expenses' of all the industry sectors equals zero, then which of following statements is wrong? (a) Rank of Chemical industry does not change (b) Rank of electricity industry declines (c) Diversified industry rank changes from 3rd to 4th (d) Rank offood industry changes from 5th to 6th Directions (66 - 70) : Seven companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G are engaged in production of two items I and II. The comparative data about production ofthese items by the seven companies is given in the following Graph and Table. Study them carefully to answer the questions that follow. PERCENTAGE OF THE TOTAL PRODUCTION PRODUCED BY THE SEVEN COMPANIES

Cost

ofthe

total

production

(both

items

together)

by

seven

companies

25

crores

RATION OF PRODUCTION BETWEEN ITEMS I AND II AND THE PERCENT PROFIT EARNED FOR THE TWO ITEMS Ratio of Production Percent Profit Earned Company A B C D E F G Item I 2 3 4 3 5 1 1 Item II Item I Item II 3 2 1 5 3 4 2 25 32 20 15 28 35 30 20 35 22 25 30 25 24

66. Cost of production of item I by companyF is what percent of the cost of production of item Il by company D? (a) (b) 16% 33.33%

(c) (d) 67. (a) (b) (c) (d) What is the total None profit earned

66.67% of by company 0 for items I and II these together?

78lakh 1.62 7.8 16.2 crore crore lakh

68. What is the ratio of the cost of production of item I by company A to the cost of production of item I by company D? (a) (c) (b) (d) 3: 2: I: 2: 5 I 2 3

69. The cost of production of both items together by company E is equal to the total cost of production of both items together by which of the two companies? (a) (b) (c) (d) A C C B and and and and D F D G

70. What is the total of the cost of production of item I by company A and the cost of production of item Il by company B? (a) (b) (c) (d) 33.65 lakh 3.35 2.6 26 crore crore lakh

Answers 1 2 3 4 (a) (b) (c) (b) 36 (a) 37 (d) 38 (b) 39 (c)

5 6 7 8 9

(c) (c) (b) (c) (c)

40 (b) 41 (d) 42 (e) 43 (a) 44 (d) 45 (e) 46 (c) 47 (d) 48 (b) 49 (b) 50 (d) 51 (d) 52 (b) 53 (d) 54 (b) 55 (d) 56 (c) 57 (d) 58 (c) 59 (b) 60 (a) 61 (d) 62 (c) 63 (d) 64 (c) 65 (d) 66 (d) 67 (a) 68 (c) 69 (d) 70 (a)

10 (c) 11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (b) 16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (d) 20 (a) 21 (e) 22 (a) 23 (d) 24 (c) 25 (a) 26 (e) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (b) 30 (c) 31 (a) 32 (e) 33 (b) 34 (d) 35 (c)