INNIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

NOVEMBER 2024

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ
Table of Contents

1. ECONOMY.................................................................................................................. 2

2. ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT ........................................................................................ 6

3. GEOGRAPHY ............................................................................................................. 32

4. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND PROGRAMMES................................................................... 38

5. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY ......................................................................................... 56

6. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANISATIONS ............................................................ 69

7. POLITY .................................................................................................................... 82

8. HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE......................................................................................... 86

9. STATES .................................................................................................................... 95

10. AGRICULTURE ........................................................................................................ 95

11. DEFENCE AND SECURITY ..........................................................................................101

12. REPORTS AND INDICES ............................................................................................109

13. MAPS / PLACES......................................................................................................113

14. MISCELLANEOUS ...................................................................................................117

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1. Economy
1) With reference to foreign exchange (forex) reserves, consider the following statements:
1. India's forex reserves include foreign currencies, gold, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), and the Reserve
Tranche Position (RTP) with the IMF.
2. Forex reserves help in stabilizing the Indian rupee and managing exchange rates.
3. A robust forex reserve position enhances India's ability to attract foreign investment and trade.
How many of the statements given above are Incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: d)

• Forex reserves consist of foreign currency assets, gold, SDRs, and the RTP with the IMF.
• These reserves are crucial for maintaining currency stability and managing the exchange rate of the rupee.
• A strong forex reserve boosts investor confidence, making India more attractive for foreign investment and
facilitating international trade.
Therefore, all three statements are correct. So, Option D is correct Solution here.

2) Consider the following statements about the Digital Euro:

1. The Digital Euro is a Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) launched by the European Central Bank to
facilitate digital payments without intermediaries.
2. The preparation phase for the Digital Euro began in 2020, with plans to fully replace physical cash.
3. The Digital Euro aims to reduce Europe’s reliance on non-EU financial service providers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: b)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Digital Euro is a CBDC issued by the European Central Bank (ECB) and is
intended to facilitate digital transactions directly, bypassing intermediaries like banks. It also seeks to enhance
European sovereignty by reducing dependence on non-EU financial services.

Statement 2 is incorrect; the preparation phase for the Digital Euro began in November 2023, not 2020, and it is
not intended to replace physical cash but rather to complement cashless systems and enhance digital payment
security within Europe.

3) Consider the following statements regarding the significance of India’s Digital Rupee:
1. It aims to provide a regulated alternative to cryptocurrencies.
2. It is exchangeable 1:1 with physical currency in India.
3. It is intended to replace India’s existing physical currency entirely.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

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Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Digital Rupee provides a regulated alternative to cryptocurrencies and
is exchangeable 1:1 with physical currency in India, enhancing transaction efficiency.

Statement 3 is incorrect; the Digital Rupee is not intended to replace physical currency but to function alongside
it as a secure, digital medium of exchange.

4) Consider the following statements regarding Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs):
1. D-SIBs are subject to additional capital requirements to prevent systemic risks.
2. Banks classified as D-SIBs must have a size greater than 10% of GDP.
3. The classification of D-SIBs in India is based on a framework introduced by the Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. D-SIBs have additional capital requirements to prevent systemic risks, and the RBI
introduced the D-SIB framework in 2014.
Statement 2 is incorrect as banks are assessed for D-SIB classification if their size exceeds 2% of GDP, not 10%.

About Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs):

• The RBI had first announced the framework dealing with D-SIBs in 2014.
• What is D-SIBs?
o Banks classified as “Too Big To Fail (TBTF)” due to their size, interconnectedness, and critical role
in the economy.
o Their failure could disrupt the financial system and economic activity.
• Which Banks are D-SIBs?
o State Bank of India (SBI) (2015)
o ICICI Bank (2016)
o HDFC Bank (2017)
• Need for D-SIBs
o Prevent systemic risk and ensure the uninterrupted availability of essential banking services.
o Reduce moral hazard by imposing additional capital requirements and regulatory oversight.
• Different Buckets under D-SIBs
o Banks are placed in buckets based on systemic importance:
1. SBI: Bucket 4
2. HDFC Bank: Bucket 3
3. ICICI Bank: Bucket 1
• Capital Requirements
o Additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) requirements based on bucket:
1. SBI: 0.80% of Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs).
2. HDFC Bank: 0.40% of RWAs.
3. ICICI Bank: 0.20% of RWAs.
o Higher surcharges applicable from April 1, 2025.
• Selection Criteria
o Banks with size >2% of GDP are assessed.
o A composite score is calculated based on size, cross-jurisdictional activity, complexity,
substitutability, and interconnectedness.
o Banks above a threshold score are classified as D-SIBs.

5) Consider the following statements about Global Systemically Important Banks (G -SIBs):
1. G-SIBs are identified solely by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision.
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2. G-SIBs are subject to higher capital and regulatory requirements than non-G-SIBs.
3. The framework for identifying G-SIBs applies to domestic banks as well.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Global Systemically Important Banks (G-SIBs) are identified by the Financial Stability Board (FSB) in consultation
with the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS), not solely by the BCBS, making Statement 1 incorrect.

These banks are considered "Too Big to Fail" and are subject to higher capital and regulatory requirements,
including additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital buffers, to mitigate risks they pose to the global financial
system, making Statement 2 correct.

However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the G-SIB framework is applied to banks operating globally and is not
specific to domestic banks. Domestic banks in India are assessed under a different framework, the D-SIB
(Domestic Systemically Important Bank) framework, managed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

G-SIBs like JP Morgan Chase, HSBC, and BNP Paribas are assessed based on size, interconnectedness,
substitutability, and complexity.

6) What is the primary objective of the Central Value Added Tax (CENVAT)?
a) To increase revenue collection for the central government
b) To prevent double taxation and reduce cascading taxes
c) To incentivize foreign investments in India
d) To replace service tax with a single indirect tax

Solution: b)

• The primary objective of the Central Value Added Tax (CENVAT) is to prevent double taxation and reduce
cascading taxes in the production and service supply chain.
• Cascading taxes occur when a tax is levied on top of another tax, increasing the overall cost of goods and
services.
• CENVAT achieves this by allowing manufacturers and service providers to claim tax credits for the excise duty
or service tax paid on inputs, input services, or capital goods used in the production process.

Implemented under the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, the system simplifies the taxation process, ensuring that tax
is levied only on the value addition at each stage. This not only lowers the tax burden on businesses but also
promotes competitiveness by enabling them to reinvest savings in innovation and production. By eliminating tax
redundancies, CENVAT also benefits consumers through lower prices, making it a critical component of India’s
pre-GST taxation framework.

7) Consider the following statements about Central Value Added Tax (CENVAT):
1. It applies only to excise duty and does not cover service tax.
2. CENVAT credit can be claimed on capital goods integral to the manufacturing process.
3. It replaced the Modified Value Added Tax (MODVAT) system.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect because CENVAT applies to both excise duty and service tax.
Statement 2 is correct as capital goods integral to manufacturing are eligible for CENVAT credit.
Statement 3 is correct since CENVAT replaced MODVAT under the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004.

About Central Value Added Tax (CENVAT):

• What is CENVAT:
A tax credit system allowing manufacturers or service providers to claim a set-off on excise duty or service
tax paid on inputs or input services used for manufacturing or providing output services.
• Rules Governing CENVAT:
Implemented under the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, it replaced the Modified Value Added Tax (MODVAT).
These rules define eligible goods, input services, and conditions for availing credit.

Criteria for CENVAT credit:

• Inputs: Goods used directly or indirectly in the production of final products.
• Capital goods: Machinery or equipment integral to the manufacturing process.
• Output services: Taxable services for which input credits can offset the service tax liability.
• Partial processing: Credits are allowed for partially processed goods.

8) Consider the following statements regarding Permanent Account Numbers (PAN) 2.0:
1. PAN 2.0 introduces a centralized data vault for cybersecurity.
2. Grievance redressal will remain decentralized, as in the current system.
3. Existing PAN cards will become invalid with the launch of PAN 2.0.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct: PAN 2.0 introduces a centralized data vault to strengthen data security, ensuring robust
protection of sensitive information related to Permanent Account Numbers (PAN). This feature enhances
cybersecurity measures compared to the current system.

Statement 2 is incorrect: PAN 2.0 aims to streamline grievance redressal through a unified portal, providing a
centralized and efficient mechanism for addressing issues related to PAN services. This marks a significant
improvement over the current decentralized approach.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Existing PAN cards will remain valid, and individuals will have the option to upgrade to
PAN 2.0 for free. The new system is designed to enhance services and security while maintaining continuity for
current PAN holders.

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2. Ecology and Environment

1) The Durgesh Aranya Zoological Park in Himachal Pradesh is set to become India's first zoo to:
a) House all native big cat species under one roof.
b) Be certified by the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) for sustainable infrastructure.
c) Operate entirely on renewable energy sources.
d) Be managed by a community-based conservation group.

Solution: b)

Located in Kangra's Dehra constituency, the Durgesh Aranya Zoological Park will be India's first zoo certified by
the IGBC. This certification recognizes sustainable and eco-friendly infrastructure.
The Park emphasizes eco-friendly design and construction, aligning with global standards of environmental
sustainability. It aims to promote eco-tourism and conservation while providing habitats for various indigenous
species, including Asiatic lions and gharials.

2) With respect to Sambhar Lake in Rajasthan, consider the following statements:

1. Sambhar Lake is India's largest freshwater lake and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
2. It is designated as a Ramsar site and supports a rich diversity of migratory birds.
3. The lake is a significant site for salt production in India.
How many of the statements given above are Incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

• Sambhar Lake is India's largest inland saline (saltwater) lake, not a freshwater lake. It is not a UNESCO World
Heritage Site but is recognized as a Ramsar site.
• It was designated as a Ramsar site in 1990 due to its importance as a wetland that supports a rich diversity of
migratory birds, including flamingos and pelicans.
• Sambhar Lake is significant for salt production, producing about 210,000 tonnes of salt annually, contributing
to Rajasthan's status as one of India's top salt-producing states.
Therefore, Option a) is the correct Solution here.

3) With reference to avian botulism, suspected in the bird deaths at Sambhar Lake, consider the following
statements:
1) Avian botulism is a viral disease that spreads rapidly among bird populations.
2) It is caused by toxins produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum in low-oxygen environments.
3) Outbreaks are often associated with environmental factors like water temperature and organic
matter in wetlands.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

• Avian botulism is not a viral disease; it is a bacterial illness caused by toxins produced by Clostridium
botulinum. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The disease occurs when the bacterium produces toxins in anaerobic (low-oxygen) conditions, which can
affect birds that ingest them. So, statement 2 is correct.
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• Outbreaks are often linked to environmental factors such as warm temperatures, stagnant water, and high
levels of organic matter, which promote bacterial growth. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, two statements are correct.

4) With reference to the report titled "On Track or Off Course? Assessing Progress Toward the 30×30 Target in
the Ocean," consider the following statements:
1. The 30×30 target aims to protect 30% of the world’s oceans by 2030, but only 2.8% of oceans
currently have effective protection.
2. The term "blue-washing" refers to the practice of designating large Marine Protected Areas (MPAs)
on paper without effective management or enforcement.
3. Latin America and the Caribbean are global leaders in meeting the 30×30 target, with extensive
enforcement mechanisms in place.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Solution: B

Statement 1 and 2 is correct

• The 30×30 target is an international goal to protect 30% of the world’s oceans by 2030. Currently, only 2.8%
of oceans are effectively protected, as most Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) lack enforcement.
• "Blue-washing" describes the phenomenon where countries declare MPAs but fail to implement
management plans, rendering these protections ineffective. The term critiques symbolic conservation efforts.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The report highlights that Latin America and the Caribbean have significant gaps
between declared MPAs and their actual management. They are not global leaders in MPA enforcement. So,
option (b) would be correct Solution here as question is asking incorrect statements.

5) Which of the following is correct regarding Sambhar Lake?

a) It is the largest freshwater lake in India.
b) It is the most saline lake in India and is Ramsar-listed.
c) It is the largest artificial lake in India.
d) It is the largest lake in Northeast India.

Solution: b)

Sambhar Lake is the most saline lake in India and is Ramsar-listed, which makes b) the correct answer. Sambhar
Lake is located in Rajasthan, not the Northeast.

Dhebar Lake holds the title of the largest artificial lake in India.

6) Consider the following statements regarding Wular Lake:

1. Wular Lake is located in Rajasthan and is the largest freshwater lake in India.
2. It is Ramsar-listed due to its ecological importance and biodiversity.
3. Wular Lake is primarily a saline Lake.
4. It is situated near the Pir Panjal mountain range in Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 2, and 3 only
b) 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 4 only

Solution: d)

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Statement 1 is incorrect, as Wular Lake is in Jammu and Kashmir, not Rajasthan.

Statement 2 is correct, as Wular Lake is Ramsar-listed, highlighting its ecological significance.

Statement 3 is incorrect as well, as Wular is a freshwater lake, not saline like Sambhar.

Statement 4 is also correct, as it is located near the Pir Panjal range in Jammu and Kashmir.

7) Which of the following best describes the primary significance of Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve?
a) It is a grassland reserve in the Satpura range, focusing solely on herbivore conservation.
b) It is a tiger reserve with the highest density of Royal Bengal Tigers in India and globally.
c) It serves primarily as an archaeological site with no significant biodiversity.
d) It is exclusively a bamboo forest reserve, focused on the conservation of bamboo species.

Solution: b)

Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve is known for its exceptionally high density of Royal Bengal Tigers, making it a crucial
area for tiger conservation in India and worldwide.
Option a) is incorrect as the reserve’s main focus is tiger conservation, not solely herbivores.
Option c) is incorrect because, while it contains the historic Bandhavgarh Fort, the reserve is also rich in
biodiversity.
Option d) is incorrect, as the vegetation includes a mix of tropical moist deciduous forests, grasslands, and
bamboo, but it is not focused solely on bamboo conservation

8) What was the primary mandate of the Sanjay Kumar Committee in relation to the Western Ghats?
a) To expand the Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) boundaries of all Western Ghats villages
b) To designate the entire Western Ghats as ecologically sensitive
c) To enforce conservation measures without field visits
d) To review and validate objections from states regarding Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) demarcations

Solution: d)

The Sanjay Kumar Committee was tasked with reviewing state objections to the Ecologically Sensitive Area
(ESA) demarcations. Its mandate included conducting field visits to assess whether the demands for exclusion of
specific villages from ESA listings were valid, aiming to finalize the ESA status in a way that balances conservation
and local concerns.
Unlike the Gadgil Committee, which proposed the entire Western Ghats as ESA, and the Kasturirangan
Committee, which focused on 37% of the Ghats, the Sanjay Kumar Committee had a narrower, validation -focused
mandate.

9) Consider the following statements regarding the factors contributing to foam formation in the Yamuna River:
1. The winter season enhances oxygen levels in the river, reducing foam formation.
2. Surfactants from detergents lead to foam formation when the river’s natural dilution capacity is
reduced.
3. Industrial effluents upstream of the Yamuna dilute the concentration of pollutants, minimizing foam.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect, as winter actually reduces oxygenation in the river, which exacerbates foam
formation.

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Statement 2 is correct. Surfactants, primarily phosphates from detergents, contribute to foam formation in the
Yamuna River, especially during the winter when the lean river flow reduces the natural dilution capacity.

Statement 3 is incorrect because industrial effluents add more pollutants and chemicals, aggravating the
problem rather than diluting it. Thus, the primary causes of foaming are surfactants, reduced dilution capacity,
and pollutant buildup.

10) Consider the following statements regarding the defoaming process applied to the Yamuna River:
1. The defoamer solution used has been approved by the US FDA for safe application.
2. The defoaming process permanently resolves the foam issue in the river.
3. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) monitors the application to ensure environmental
safety.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

The polyoxypropylene-based defoamer solution used is US FDA-approved, making it safe for environmental
application. Additionally, the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) oversees the defoaming process to ensure
eco-friendly practices.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the defoaming process is a temporary solution, addressing foam accumulation
in specific areas like the Okhla barrage but not eliminating the underlying pollution sources permanently.

11) Consider the following statements about Ranthambore Tiger Reserve (RTR):
1. Ranthambore Tiger Reserve is located at the meeting point of the Western Ghats and Vindhyas.
2. RTR has a tropical moist evergreen forest dominated by sal trees.
3. The Chambal and Banas rivers flow through parts of the reserve.
4. RTR was historically a hunting ground for the rulers of Udaipur.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: a)

Only statement 3 is correct.

The Chambal and Banas rivers are two prominent rivers that flow through parts of the Ranthambore Tiger
Reserve, supporting its biodiversity.

Statement 1 is incorrect as RTR is located at the meeting point of the Aravalli and Vindhya ranges, not the
Western Ghats.

Statement 2 is incorrect because RTR has tropical dry deciduous and thorn forests, dominated by Dhok trees, not
tropical moist evergreen forests.

Statement 4 is incorrect since RTR was a hunting ground for the rulers of Jaipur, not Udaipur.

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12) Which of the following is the primary threat to the survival of the Markhor (the world’s largest wild goat) in its
natural habitat?
a) Predation by large carnivores in mountainous regions
b) Lack of access to water sources in arid regions
c) Loss of fur due to climate changes in high altitudes
d) Habitat encroachment and illegal hunting for its distinctive horns

Solution: d)

The Markhor faces significant threats from habitat encroachment and illegal hunting for its spiral horns. Predation
by large carnivores is not a primary threat to their population.

About Markhor:
• Scientific name: Capra falconeri
• The UN General Assembly proclaimed 24 May the International Day of the Markhor, and it is celebrated for
the first time in 2024.
• Distinctive features: Spiral horns (up to 160 cm in males), thick fur in shades of brown and gray; males weigh
80-110 kg, females weigh 32-50 kg.
• Habitat: Mountainous regions at 600–3,600 meters in Pakistan, Afghanistan, India (J&K), and Tajikistan.
• Diet: Herbivorous; feeds on grasses, leaves, herbs, and woody plants in winter.
• Social behavior: Males often solitary or in small groups, while females and young form larger herds.
• Threats: Illegal hunting for horns, habitat encroachment, livestock competition, and climate change effects.
• Conservation status: Listed as Near Threatened by IUCN; conservation efforts focus on habitat protection,
reducing poaching, and managing livestock competition.

13) Which body was replaced by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) to oversee air quality
improvement in NCR?
a) National Green Tribunal (NGT)
b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
c) Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA)
d) Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC)

Solution: c)

The CAQM was established to replace the EPCA in 2021, with an expanded mandate to coordinate air quality
management in NCR and surrounding states.

About Commission for Air Quality Management:

• Origin:Established under the CAQM Act, 2021 for NCR and adjoining areas, replacing the Environment
Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA).
• Aim:Coordinate and oversee efforts to improve air quality, prevent and control air pollution in Delhi-NCR
and surrounding states (Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh).
• Jurisdiction:Delhi-NCR, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.

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Powers:
• Restrict activities impacting air quality.
• Conduct research on pollution.
• Issue binding directions to authorities and individuals.
• Enforce compliance and take preventive actions.

Composition:
• Chairperson: Secretary/Chief Secretary rank official.
• Five ex officio members from Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and UP.
• Three full-time technical members.
• Members from NGOs and technical bodies like CPCB, ISRO, and NITI Aayog.

14) Consider the following statements regarding the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):
1. CAQM can issue binding directions to authorities in Delhi-NCR and surrounding states to improve air
quality.
2. CAQM has jurisdiction over all states in India.
3. The commission has powers to restrict activities that impact air quality negatively.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: c)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. CAQM has the authority to issue binding directions and restrict harmful activities.
Statement 2 is incorrect because CAQM’s jurisdiction is limited to Delhi-NCR and adjoining states, not the entire
country.

15) Consider the following statements regarding the CO₂-to-methanol conversion process at NTPC’s Vindhyachal
facility:
1. The catalyst used for the reaction requires a high concentration of sulfur to operate efficiently.
2. CO₂ is captured from ambient air to ensure the plant's carbon neutrality.
3. Methanol produced in the plant can only be used in fuel blending due to its chemical composition.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect because the catalyst developed by NTPC for methanol synthesis does not require sulfur;
it is engineered for a clean catalytic reaction to produce high-purity methanol.

Statement 2 is also incorrect, as CO₂ is captured directly from industrial flue gases, not from ambient air,
aligning with NTPC's focus on mitigating emissions from its operations.

Lastly, statement 3 is wrong; the methanol produced in this plant has versatile applications. It can be used in fuel
blending, chemical feedstock, and hydrogen generation, making it a valuable product for various industries and
supporting India’s transition to green energy.

16) Consider the following statements about the Sirpur Wetland:

1. The wetland is primarily fed by underground springs due to its natural hydrological features.

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2. The restoration of Sirpur Wetland transformed it from an urban waste site to an ecologically valuable
wetland.
3. It was designated as a Ramsar site due to its ecological importance.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect as the wetland is not primarily fed by underground springs but relies on surface
channels and connections to other water bodies like Sukhniwas Lake.

Additionally, the restoration efforts have revitalized the wetland from a state of severe degradation to an urban
wetland of international importance, underlining the ecological restoration work done.

The Sirpur Wetland was designated as a Ramsar site in 2022, recognizing its ecological value and international
importance as a wetland.

17) Consider the following statements regarding the types and impacts of carbon offset projects:
1. Carbon offset projects are limited to nature-based solutions, such as afforestation and reforestation.
2. Carbon offsets are primarily aimed at achieving national self-sufficiency in energy rather than emission
reduction.
3. Electric vehicle (EV) adoption can be supported by carbon offset mechanisms to reduce emissions from
transportation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None

Solution: c)

Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Carbon offset projects are not limited to nature-based solutions; they also
include renewable energy installations, energy efficiency improvements, and sustainable agriculture projects.

Additionally, carbon offsets are primarily aimed at reducing or compensating for emissions rather than achieving
energy self-sufficiency.

Electric vehicle (EV) adoption is a category within carbon offset projects, as it helps reduce emissions from
transportation by shifting away from fossil-fuel-based vehicles.

18) Consider the following statements about Dicliptera polymorpha:

1. Dicliptera polymorpha is found exclusively in the forests of the southern Western Ghats.
2. It showcases pyrophytic adaptations, enabling it to thrive in fire -prone grasslands.
3. The species has a single-blooming cycle that occurs only during the post-monsoon season.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect as the plant is specifically found in the grasslands of the northern Western Ghats,
particularly around Talegaon-Dabhade in Maharashtra, not the southern region.

Only statement 2 is correct. Dicliptera polymorpha exhibits unique pyrophytic, or fire-resilient, adaptations,
which allow it to survive and even flourish in fire-prone environments, especially grasslands.

Statement 3 is also incorrect because Dicliptera polymorpha has a dual-blooming cycle, with flowering periods
both post-monsoon (November to April) and post-fire (May and June), showing its adaptability to different
environmental triggers.

19) Consider the following statements regarding the Eurasian Otter:

1. It is listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act in India.
2. The Eurasian Otter prefers tropical forest habitats far from waterways.
3. Its diet consists mainly of fish and crustaceans.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a)

The Eurasian Otter is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act in India, and its diet mainly
includes fish, crustaceans, and occasionally amphibians.
Statement 2 is incorrect; the Eurasian Otter is closely associated with water bodies, including rivers, lakes, and
streams, rather than tropical forests.

20) Consider the following statements regarding African elephants:

1. Both African Bush and Forest Elephants have two-finger-like processes at the trunk's tip.
2. African Forest Elephants are classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
3. Both male and female African Forest Elephants have tusks.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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Solution: c)

African elephants have two-finger-like projections at the tip of their trunks. The African Forest Elephant is
classified as Critically Endangered, and both males and females of this subspecies have tusks.

About African Elephants:

• Classification:
o Largest land animals, native to Sub-Saharan Africa.
o Two subspecies: African Bush Elephant (Loxodonta africana) and African Forest Elephant
(Loxodonta cyclotis).
• Habitat:
o Found in savannas, forests, grasslands, arid regions, rainforests, and woodlands
like mopane and miombo.
• Physical features:
o Distinct two-finger-like processes at the trunk’s tip.
o Both males and females have tusks, with the forest elephant’s tusks being smaller and darker.
• Behavior and Reproduction:
o Live in family units led by adult females, with strong social bonds.
o Have the lowest sleep time among animals (~2 hours per day).
o Long gestation period of up to two years; calves are nurtured by mothers and allomothers.
• Conservation status:
o African Bush Elephant: Endangered (IUCN).
o African Forest Elephant: Critically Endangered (IUCN).
o Listed under CITES Appendix I.

21) Under the recent Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC) notification, which of the
following is correct regarding industries with Environmental Clearance (EC)?
a) They still require a separate Consent to Establish (CTE) from State Pollution Control Boards.
b) They only require a Consent to Establish (CTE) for the first year of operation.
c) They are exempted from all pollution-related approvals.
d) They no longer require a separate Consent to Establish (CTE) but must still comply with environmental
standards.

Solution: d)

Under the recent MoEFCC notification, industries with Environmental Clearance (EC) are exempted from
obtaining a separate Consent to Establish (CTE) from State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs). This exemption
aims to streamline regulatory procedures, reducing duplication and delays in project initiation. However, this
does not mean industries are relieved of their environmental obligations. Compliance with environmental
standards, as outlined in the EC, remains mandatory to ensure that projects operate within permissible limits
for pollution control and environmental protection.

The SPCBs are actively involved during the EC process, ensuring that all aspects previously covered under CTE are
addressed comprehensively. This integrated approach maintains accountability while simplifying administrative
requirements.

By eliminating the need for separate CTEs, the notification reduces redundancy without compromising
environmental oversight. This measure balances the need for industrial growth with environmental conservation,
supporting efficient governance and sustainable development practices.

22) Consider the following statements about the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP):
1. GRAP was approved by the Supreme Court in the Taj Trapezium Zone case.
2. GRAP is implemented across all metropolitan cities in India.
3. The revised GRAP includes additional measures to handle AQI deterioration during winter.

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Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: c)

The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is a framework designed to combat air pollution based on the Air
Quality Index (AQI).
Statement 1 is incorrect because GRAP was approved by the Supreme Court in the M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
case, not the Taj Trapezium Zone case.

Statement 2 is also incorrect as GRAP is not implemented across all metropolitan cities in India but is specifically
applicable to the Delhi-NCR region, which faces severe air quality issues.

Statement 3 is correct as the revised GRAP, effective October 2023, includes enhanced measures to handle AQI
deterioration during winter, addressing pollution hotspots, regulating vehicle emissions, and restricting industrial
activities as AQI worsens.

23) Consider the following statements regarding the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change
(MoEFCC) notification on dual compliance of Environmental Clearance (EC) and Consent to Establish (CTE).
1. Dual approval is mandated under the Air Act, 1981 and Water Act, 1974.
2. The recent exemption applies to all categories of industries.
3. The exemption aims to streamline approvals while maintaining environmental oversight.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct as dual approval requirements are mandated by the Air and Water Acts.
• Statement 2 is incorrect because the exemption applies only to certain categories like white category
industries, not all industries.
• Statement 3 is correct as the exemption seeks to reduce regulatory bottlenecks while ensuring environmental
oversight through integrated EC processes.

The Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has issued a notification addressing a long-
standing industry demand by removing the requirement for dual compliance of Environmental Clearance (EC) and
Consent to Establish (CTE).

Exempts Industries from Dual Approvals: Key Points

• What is Dual Approval?
o Dual approval refers to the mandatory requirement for industries to obtain both Environmental
Clearance (EC) and Consent to Establish (CTE) from State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) under
the Air Act, 1981 and Water Act, 1974 before starting operations.
• Relevant laws governing approvals:
o The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974 mandate dual approvals to prevent pollution from industrial operations.
• Exemption given:
o Non-polluting ‘white category’ industries are exempted from obtaining CTE and Consent to
Operate (CTO).
o Industries with Environmental Clearance (EC) will no longer require a separate CTE.
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• Industries exempted:
o 39 categories of white category industries including:
▪ Solar cell and module manufacturing
▪ Wind and hydel power units
▪ Fly ash brick manufacturing
▪ Leather cutting and stitching
▪ Air-cooler and air-conditioner assembling, repairing, and servicing.
• Process of exemption:
o State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) will be consulted during the EC process to ensure all
aspects covered by CTE are addressed.
o A Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) has been issued for this integrated process.
o Industries will still pay a CTE fee to ensure no revenue loss for States.

24) Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between corals and zooxanthellae?
a) Commensalism, where one benefits, and the other is unaffected.
b) Parasitism, where the zooxanthellae harm the coral.
c) Mutualism, where both benefit.
d) Predation, where zooxanthellae feed on coral tissues.

Solution: c)

Corals and zooxanthellae share a mutualistic relationship, where both organisms benefit. Zooxanthellae are
microscopic algae that reside within the tissues of coral polyps. Through photosynthesis, zooxanthellae produce
nutrients such as oxygen and glucose, which the corals use for their energy needs. This symbiotic relationship
allows corals to thrive in nutrient-poor marine environments, especially in tropical reef ecosystems.

In return, the corals provide the zooxanthellae with a protected environment within their tissues and access to
compounds like carbon dioxide and essential nutrients required for photosynthesis. This relationship is vital for
the coral's growth and the formation of calcium carbonate skeletons, which are essential for building coral reefs.

25) Consider the following statements about the Global Energy Efficiency Alliance (GEEA):
1. It was launched at COP29 with the aim of doubling global renewable energy capacity by 2030.
2. The UAE leads the alliance by fostering knowledge transfer and public-private partnerships.
3. The alliance focuses on promoting energy efficiency technologies and standardization across member
nations.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect because the GEEA’s primary goal is to double global energy efficiency rates, not
renewable energy capacity. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as the UAE leads the alliance by promoting best
practices, public-private partnerships, and standardization across member countries.

About Global Energy Efficiency Alliance:

• Objective: Double annual global energy efficiency rates by 2030 and reduce carbon emissions.
• Vision: Aligns with the UAE Consensus from COP28 to minimize natural resource consumption.
• Leadership: UAE leads by sharing best practices, promoting knowledge transfer, and fostering public-
private partnerships.
• Key Actions:
o Encouraging investments in energy efficiency projects.
o Developing technologies and policies to meet sustainability goals.
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o Promoting standardization across member countries.
• Focus on Africa: Highlights financing and technological solutions for African nations to boost energy
efficiency.
• Collaboration: Invites global governments, organizations, and private sector leaders to unite under the
alliance.

26) What is pathogen spillover in the context of pollinators?

a) The transmission of pathogens from managed honey bees to wild pollinators
b) The transfer of pathogens from wild pollinators to plants
c) A phenomenon where pathogens are eradicated from ecosystems
d) A natural immunization process among wild pollinators

Solution: a)

Research found that pathogen spillover from managed honey bees to wild pollinators poses a serious threat, with
shared habitats facilitating disease transmission and endangering pollinator ecosystems.

Pathogen Spillover: Occurs when pathogens jump from one species (e.g., managed honeybees) to another (e.g.,
wild pollinators) due to shared habitats.

Pathogen Spillback: Happens when pathogens from wild species return to infect the original host species (e.g.,
managed honeybees), often in more virulent forms.

27) Consider the following statements about the Mayong Village conservation initiative:
1. It involves the plantation of fruit-bearing trees to support the hornbill population.
2. The oriental pied hornbill is considered a sacred species in the local culture.
3. Mayong Village has imposed strict hunting bans as part of its conservation efforts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: Fruit-bearing trees such as banana and papaya have been planted to provide food for the
hornbills.
Statement 2 is correct: Hornbills are revered as symbols of peace and prosperity, fostering cultural and ecological
harmony.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While the initiative emphasizes community-driven conservation, hunting bans are not
explicitly mentioned as part of the efforts.

In Mayong village, Morigaon district, Assam, a unique community-driven conservation initiative has established
an ideal habitat for the oriental pied hornbill, showcasing exemplary efforts in biodiversity conservation.
About Mayong Village Initiative:
• Community conservation: Villagers collectively support the nesting and breeding of oriental pied
hornbills, ensuring their safety and well-being.
• Plantation drive: Fruit-bearing trees like banana and papaya have been planted extensively to provide
natural food sources for the hornbills.
• Sacred connection: Hornbills are revered as harbingers of peace and prosperity, fostering a harmonious
relationship with the community.

28) Consider the following statements about pathogen spillover and spillback in pollinator ecosystems:
1. Pathogen spillover only occurs when wild pollinators infect managed honey bees.

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2. Pathogen spillback is the process where pollinators become resistant to all pathogens in a shared
habitat.
3. Shared habitats reduce the chances of pathogen spillover between managed and wild pollinators.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Pathogen spillover refers to the transfer of pathogens from managed honey bees to wild
pollinators, not the other way around.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Pathogen spillback involves pathogens from wild species infecting the original host (e.g.,
managed honey bees), often in more virulent forms, rather than resistance development.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Shared habitats increase the chances of pathogen spillover as they facilitate close
interaction between managed and wild pollinators, promoting disease transmission.

29) Consider the following statements about Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve:
1. It is the first tiger reserve to be notified in Chhattisgarh.
2. It shares landscape connectivity with Sanjay Dubri, Bandhavgarh, and Palamau tiger reserves.
3. Its core habitat is larger than its buffer zone.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla is the fourth tiger reserve in Chhattisgarh, after
Udanti-Sitanadi, Achanakmar, and Indravati.
• Statement 2 is correct. It shares landscape connectivity with Sanjay Dubri (Madhya Pradesh),
Bandhavgarh (Madhya Pradesh), and Palamau (Jharkhand).
• Statement 3 is correct. The core habitat spans 2,049.2 sq. km, which is larger than the buffer zone of
780.15 sq. km.

About Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve:

• Location: Spread over 2,829.38 sq. km in Chhattisgarh, encompassing Guru Ghasidas National Park and
Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary.
• Core and Buffer: Core/critical habitat spans 2,049.2 sq. km, and the buffer covers 780.15 sq. km.
o This makes it the third largest tiger reserve in the country after Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger
Reserve in Andhra Pradesh and Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam.
• Landscape Connectivity: Links with Sanjay Dubri Tiger Reserve (Madhya Pradesh), Bandhavgarh (Madhya
Pradesh), and Palamau (Jharkhand).
• Terrain and Climate: Situated on the Chota Nagpur and Baghelkhand plateaus, characterized by dense
forests and tropical climate.
• Fauna: Tigers, leopards, wolves, sloth bears, hyenas, and various deer species.
• Significance: This will be the fourth Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh, after the Udanti-
Sitanadi, Achanakmar and Indravati Reserves.

30) Which of the following is the largest tiger reserve in India?

a) Manas Tiger Reserve
b) Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve

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c) Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
d) Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve

Solution: c)

The Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh is the largest tiger reserve in India, followed by
Manas in Assam. Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla ranks as the third-largest tiger reserve.

31) What adaptation helps African Penguins regulate their body temperature in hot conditions?
a) Waterproof feathers
b) Large, webbed feet
c) Specialized respiratory systems
d) Pink glands above their eyes

Solution: d)

African Penguins have pink glands above their eyes, which help regulate body temperature. Blood flow increases
to these glands during heat, cooling the blood and aiding thermoregulation.

32) Consider the following statements regarding the habitat and features of African Penguins:
1. They are exclusively found in freshwater ecosystems for breeding.
2. Their streamlined bodies help in swimming efficiently underwater.
3. They use large webbed feet for constructing burrows in sandy shores.
4. The black stripe and chest spots on their bodies are unique to each individual.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2, 3, and 4 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: c)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. African Penguins are found in marine coastal habitats, not freshwater
ecosystems.
• Statement 2 is correct. Their streamlined bodies allow them to swim efficiently, reaching speeds of up to
20 km/h underwater.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. They do not use webbed feet to construct burrows; they utilize guano or
artificial nests.
• Statement 4 is correct. The black stripe and chest spots on their bodies are unique to each individual,
helping in identification.

About African Penguin:

• Scientific Name: Spheniscus demersus.
• Endemic Region: Southern Africa; primarily South Africa and Namibia.
• Habitat: Found within 40 km of the shore; utilizes coastal habitats for breeding, molting, and resting.
• Physical Features: Streamlined body, black stripe with unique black chest spots, pink glands above eyes
for temperature regulation.
• Diet: Primarily feeds on pelagic schooling fishlike sardines and anchovies.
• Breeding: Prefers burrows in guano but adapts well to artificial nests; burrows protect chicks from harsh
weather.
• Conservation Status: Listed as Endangered under the IUCN Red List.
• Threats: Food scarcity, climate change, habitat loss, oil spills, predators, diseases, and human
disturbances.

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33) What is the primary role of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in the notification process of a
tiger reserve?
a) Approval of financial resources for the reserve
b) Direct management of tiger habitats
c) Monitoring poaching activities in the area
d) Assessing ecological and conservation value of proposed areas

Solution: d)

The NTCA primarily assesses the ecological and conservation value of proposed tiger reserves and grants
preliminary approval to state governments for their notification.

Procedure for Notification of Tiger Reserves in India:

• Identification of Area: The state government identifies a potential area based on ecological significance,
tiger population, and habitat quality.
• Recommendation by NTCA: The state government submits the proposal to the National Tiger
Conservation Authority (NTCA), which assesses the ecological and conservation value of the area.
• Approval by NTCA: If NTCA finds the proposal viable, it grants preliminary approval and advises the state
government to proceed.
• State Government Notification: The state government officially notifies the area as a tiger reserve under
Section 38V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
• Core and Buffer Zones: The area is divided into:
1. Core Zone: Critical habitat for tigers, with limited human activity.
2. Buffer Zone: Area surrounding the core to reduce human-tiger conflict.
• Final Approval: The state’s notification is submitted to the NTCA for final approval, completing the
process.
• Implementation: The state government, with NTCA’s technical and financial support, implements
conservation measures in the notified tiger reserve.

34) The Green World Environment Award is presented for contributions in:
a) Renewable energy projects
b) Industrial innovation and energy efficiency
c) Environmental sustainability and CSR initiatives
d) Climate change mitigation research

Solution: c)

About Green World Environment Award:

• Award Significance: Recognizes organizations for outstanding contributions to environmental
sustainability and CSR initiatives globally.
• Recipient: Coal India Limited in 2024 for its Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojna , which supports curative
treatments for Thalassemia through Bone Marrow Transplants (BMT).
• Support: Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojna provide financial assistance of up to ₹10 lakh provided for BMT
operations across 17 partner hospitals.
• Presented by: The Green Organisation at Kensington Palace, London.

About The Green Organisation:

• Founded: 1994.
• Nature: An independent, non-political, and non-profit group.
• Objective: Recognizing, rewarding, and promoting environmental and CSR best practices worldwide.
• Initiatives: Includes global awards like the Green World Awards to encourage sustainability
and CSR excellence.

35) Consider the following statements about Recirculating Aquaculture Systems (RAS):

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1. RAS can be set up in regions without access to natural water sources.
2. It eliminates the need for monitoring water quality and filtration systems.
3. RAS ensures higher production rates compared to traditional aquaculture systems.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: RAS is ideal for areas without natural water sources, as it recycles water within a
controlled setup.
Statement 3 is correct: RAS enables higher production rates by optimizing environmental conditions for fish
growth.
Statement 2 is incorrect: RAS requires continuous monitoring of water quality and proper maintenance of
filtration systems.

About Recirculating Aquaculture Systems (RAS):

• What it is:
A tank-based farming system that recycles water through mechanical and biological filtration.
• How it works:
o Water is filtered to remove waste and pathogens.
o Provides controlled conditions for temperature, oxygen, and water cleanliness.
o Ensures biosecurity with reduced need for antibiotics.

Feature RAS

– Controlled environment for optimal fish growth.

Advantages – High biosecurity with minimal disease risk.

– Can be set up in areas without natural water sources.

– Higher production rates compared to traditional systems.

– Expensive initial investment and operational costs.

Limitations – Constant power supply needed; prone to power outages.

– Requires skilled management and maintenance of advanced systems.

36) El Cajas National Park, recently in news, is located in which of the following regions?
a) Amazon Rainforest, Brazil
b) Andes Highlands, Ecuador
c) Sierra Madre Mountains, Mexico
d) Patagonia Plateau, Argentina

Solution: b)

El Cajas National Park, located in the highlands of Ecuador near Cuenca, has been severely impacted by wildfires
exacerbated by a prolonged and severe drought.

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37) Consider the following statements regarding the Reducing Methane from Organic Waste Declaration:
1. It was launched at COP28 by the UNEP-convened Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC).
2. It commits to preventing organic waste generation and promoting separate waste collection.
3. India is among the signatories to the declaration.
4. It focuses on mobilizing funds for solid waste management projects.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The declaration was launched at COP29, not COP28.

Statement 2 is correct: The declaration emphasizes preventing organic waste generation and promoting separate
collection.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India has not joined the declaration.
Statement 4 is correct: Mobilizing funds for solid waste management is one of the declaration's focus areas.

The COP29 Presidency launched the Reducing Methane from Organic Waste Declaration, with over 30 countries
committing to set sectoral targets for reducing methane emissions from organic waste.

About Reducing Methane from Organic Waste Declaration:

• Launch: COP29, by the Presidency in collaboration with UNEP-convened Climate and Clean Air Coalition
(CCAC).
• Signatories: Over 30 countries, including 8 of the top 10 organic waste methane emitters.
• Goal: To reduce methane emissions from organic waste and meet targets in future Nationally
Determined Contributions ( NDCs).

Focus Areas:
• NDC Integration: Inclusion of waste sector targets in climate action plans.
• Regulation: Development of policies for better waste management.
• Data: Improving data collection on waste generation and methane sources.
• Finance: Mobilizing funds for solid waste management and reduction projects.
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• Partnerships: Promoting cross-country collaboration to share best practices.
• Alignment with GMP: Supports the 2021 Global Methane Pledge to reduce methane emissions by 30%
below 2020 levels by 2030.

Priority Actions:
• Preventing organic waste generation.
• Promoting separate waste collection.
• Improving management of organic waste in landfills and wastewater facilities.

India has not joined the COP29 Declaration on Reducing Methane from Organic Waste.

38) Consider the following statements about the Reducing Methane from Organic Waste Declaration and its
priority actions:
1. It aims to improve methane data collection from waste sources.
2. It promotes banning the use of methane as an energy source.
3. Its focus includes better landfill and wastewater facility management.
4. It calls for setting sector-specific targets for organic waste emissions reduction.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2, 3, and 4
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is correct: The declaration emphasizes enhancing data collection on methane emissions from waste.
Statement 3 is correct: Improving landfill and wastewater facility management is a priority action.
Statement 4 is correct: Setting sectoral targets is a key commitment.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The declaration does not promote banning methane usage; instead, it supports reducing
emissions.

39) Consider the following statements regarding Biofloc Technology (BFT):

1. It relies on heterotrophic bacteria to convert organic waste into microbial biomass.
2. It eliminates the need for aeration in aquaculture systems.
3. BFT heavily depends on antibiotics to maintain water quality.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct: Heterotrophic bacteria in BFT convert organic waste into protein-rich microbial biomass
that fish consume.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Aeration is crucial in BFT to maintain optimal microbial activity and water oxygenation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: BFT reduces reliance on antibiotics, promoting a more natural and sustainable
aquaculture system.

About Biofloc Technology (BFT):

• What it is:
A closed-tank aquaculture method using beneficial bacteria to convert organic waste into microbial
biomass for fish consumption.
How it works:

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• Beneficial heterotrophic bacteria convert waste into biomass.
• Aeration and microbial activity maintain water quality.
• Reduces reliance on antibiotics and chemicals.

40) Consider the following statements regarding Salt Chimneys on the Dead Sea floor:
1. They are formed by the deposition of calcium carbonate due to freshwater mixing with Dead Sea
water.
2. These structures can grow several centimetres per day due to hypersaline brine flow.
3. Salt chimneys are completely stable and do not indicate geological risks.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect because they are formed by halite crystallization, not calcium carbonate deposition.
Statement 2 is correct as the rapid upward flow of hypersaline brine leads to their fast growth.
Statement 3 is incorrect because salt chimneys are indicators of geological risks, including sinkhole formation.

Researchers from the Helmholtz Centre for Environmental Research (UFZ) discovered unique salt chimneys on the
Dead Sea floor, a rare geological phenomenon formed by highly saline groundwater.

About Salt Chimneys:

• Formation: Created by the upward flow of hypersaline brine from aquifers, leading to the crystallization
of halite upon contact with Dead Sea water.
• Characteristics: Structures range from 1-7 meters in height with diameters of 2-3 meters. They grow
rapidly, up to several centimetres per day.
• Significance: Serve as early indicators of sinkhole risks, highlighting areas prone to karstification and
ground collapse.
• Applications: Potential for autonomous mapping to predict regions at risk of sinkhole formation.

41) Which of the following is a unique feature of the Marine Fisheries Census 2025?
a) Exclusive focus on marine fish species diversity.
b) Use of drones for mapping fishing zones.
c) Fully digital data collection using mobile apps and virtual servers.
d) Collection of data limited to the economic status of fisherfolk.

Solution: c)

The Marine Fisheries Census 2025 is distinct for its fully digital process, utilizing mobile apps and virtual servers
to ensure real-time data collection and faster processing. It covers socio-economic aspects and fisherfolk
engagement, rather than solely focusing on marine species or economic data.

Department Involved:

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Conducted by Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) and the Union Ministry of Fisheries, with
support from 3,500 staff for the 2025 census.

Features of 2025 Census:

• Fully digital process using mobile apps and virtual servers for real-time data collection.
• Covers 1.2 million households across India’s coastline, including remote locations like Bitra
Island and Campbell Bay.
• Collects data on household sizes, socio-economic status, and fisherfolk engagement.
• 80% faster data processing compared to previous censuses.

42) What makes the Kenyan lesser mealworm significant in environmental research?
a) It is the first insect species capable of digesting polystyrene.
b) It uses enzymes to convert plastics directly into biofuels.
c) It is primarily found in marine ecosystems.
d) It degrades polystyrene with the help of gut bacteria like Proteobacteria and Firmicutes.

Solution: d)

The Kenyan lesser mealworm, a larval form of the Alphitobius darkling beetle, is significant because it degrades
polystyrene with the assistance of gut bacteria like Proteobacteria and Firmicutes. While not the first insect
species to degrade plastics, it is the first African-native species identified for this purpose.

About Mealworm Larvae:

• Species: The Kenyan lesser mealworm is the larval form of the Alphitobius darkling beetle.
• Habitat: Found in poultry rearing houses; thrives in warm, food-rich environments.
• Plastic Consumption: Capable of degrading polystyrene with assistance from gut bacteria like
Proteobacteria and Firmicutes.
• Significance: Shows potential for scalable solutions to plastic degradation without direct release of insects
into the environment.

Plastic-Decomposing Insects:
• Yellow Mealworms (Tenebrio molitor): Break down polystyrene with gut bacteria.
• Superworms (Zophobas morio): Known to digest synthetic plastics like polystyrene.
• Kenyan Lesser Mealworm: The first African-native species identified to degrade polystyrene.

43) Consider the following statements regarding the actions under National Plan of Action on Sharks (NPOA-
SHARKS):
1. It advocates species cataloging through genetic coding and indicator development.
2. It encourages the unrestricted promotion of shark fishing for export revenue.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct. The plan proposes species cataloging through genetic coding and the development of
species-specific indicators using survey data to bridge research gaps.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The NPOA-Sharks discourages unrestricted shark fishing and instead promotes
sustainable and regulated fishing practices.

Actions:
• Avoid promoting direct shark fishing until sufficient scientific data is available.

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• Implement monitoring, control, and surveillance (MCS) plans promptly.
• Identify shark breeding grounds and seasons; adopt conservation measures like seasonal bans and area
closures.
• Initiate species cataloging through genetic coding and develop species-specific indicators using survey
data.
• Conduct awareness drives for stakeholders, fishermen, and associations to encourage monitoring and
reporting of shark catches.
• Research value addition for sharks and explore eco-tourism opportunities like reef shark diving.
• Enforce the fin-attached policy and review shark export policies to encourage value-added products.
• Introduce logbook systems, develop a national shark identification kit, and build research capacity in
taxonomy and data collection.
• Align with the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, and promote regional cooperation for better shark
conservation.

44) Consider the following statements about the National Plan of Action on Sharks (NPOA -Sharks):
1. It aims to assess shark populations in India’s marine ecosystem.
2. The plan focuses solely on sustainable shark fishing practices.
3. It is implemented under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct. The National Plan of Action on Sharks (NPOA-Sharks) aims to assess and conserve shark
populations within India’s marine ecosystem.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The plan encompasses shark conservation, management, and sustainable utilization, not
just fishing practices.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPOA-Sharks is implemented under the Ministry of Fisheries, not the Ministry of
Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.

45) Consider the following statements about Ashtamudi Lake:

1. It is the largest lake in Kerala.
2. It connects to the Arabian Sea through the Neendakara estuary.
3. It is designated a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: b)

About Ashtamudi Lake:

• Location: Situated in Kollam district, Kerala; named for its eight interconnected arms (“Ashtamudi”).

Significance:
• Second-largest Lake in Kerala.
• Designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in 2002
• Major source of livelihood for local fishers.
• Hydrology: Fed by the Kallada River, connects to the Arabian Sea through the Neendakara estuary.

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• Historical Importance: A key port city during the 14th century; noted in the travel records of Moroccan
explorer Ibn Battuta.
• Biodiversity: Rich in mangrove species, including endangered ones like Syzygium
travancoricum and Calamus rotang.

46) Consider the following statements about the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve:
1. It is located at the confluence of the Satpura and Vindhya ranges.
2. Bengal tigers are the only large carnivores found in the reserve.
3. Marsh crocodiles are among the aquatic species inhabiting the water bodies of the reserve.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Only Statement 3 is correct.

About Ranthambore Tiger Reserve (RTR):

• Location: Situated at the confluence of the Aravallis and Vindhyas, near Sawai Madhopur, Rajasthan.
• Area: Covers 1,411 sq. km, making it one of northern India’s largest tiger reserves.
• History: Former royal hunting grounds of Jaipur’s Maharajas; designated a Project Tiger Reserve in 1973.
• Geography: Includes steep rocky hills, Padam Talab, Raj Bagh Talab, rivers Chambal and Banas, and the
Great Boundary Fault.
• Flora: Tropical dry deciduous forests and thorny landscapes dominated by Dhok trees and grasslands.
• Fauna: Home to Bengal tigers, leopards, sloth bears, striped hyenas, marsh crocodiles, and over 250
bird species.
• Tourism Significance: A popular destination for wildlife enthusiasts, contributing significantly to local
livelihoods.

47) Consider the following statements regarding the Paris Agreement:

1. The agreement mandates legally binding carbon emission targets for all signatories.
2. Countries must submit updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) every five years.
3. The agreement's primary goal is to limit global temperature rise to below 2°C.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

The Paris Agreement does not mandate legally binding emission targets, making statement 1 incorrect. It requires
countries to submit updated and ambitious NDCs every five years and aims to limit global temperature rise to well
below 2°C, ideally 1.5°C, making statements 2 and 3 correct.

48) Consider the following statements about the framework of the Paris Agreement:
1. It operates under the principle of legally binding enforcement for non-compliance.
2. It adopts the principle of "common but differentiated responsibilities."
3. Developed countries are required to provide financial and technological support to developing nations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only

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c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: b)

The Paris Agreement operates on a cooperative and non-binding framework, making statement 1 incorrect. It is
based on the principle of "common but differentiated responsibilities," recognizing varying capacities of nations.
Developed countries are encouraged to support developing nations through financial and technological aid,
making statements 2 and 3 correct.

49) Consider the following statements about the Eastern Imperial Eagle:
1. It is predominantly found in tropical rainforests for nesting and breeding.
2. The eagle exhibits sexual monomorphism, with males and females being identical in size and
appearance.
3. Its range includes breeding in southeastern Europe and migration to South and East Asia during winter.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The eagle prefers old forests, mountain, and riverine habitats, not tropical rainforests.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It exhibits reverse sexual dimorphism, where females are larger than males.
Statement 3 is correct: It breeds in southeastern Europe and West/Central Asia, migrating to South and East Asia
in winter.

About Eastern Imperial Eagle:

• Scientific Classification: Member of the family Accipitridae; subfamily Aquilinae.
• Habitat: Found in old forests, mountain and riverine forests, and isolated tall trees for nesting.
• Range: Breeds in southeastern Europe, West, and Central Asia; migrates to northeastern Africa, Middle
East, and South/East Asia in winter.

Physical Features:
• Large eagle with a wingspan of 1.76 to 2.2 m and length between 68 to 90 cm.
• Reverse sexual dimorphism: females larger than males.
• Golden crown and nape, grey base to the tail, white “braces” on scapulars.
• Keen eyesight, strong legs with curved talons for prey capture.
• Conservation Status: Listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.

50) Which of the following is a key ecological significance of the Thrissur-Ponnani Kole Wetlands?
a) It is a major stopover for birds along the Central Asian Flyway.
b) It provides 40% of Kerala’s fish requirement.
c) It prevents saline intrusion into the Arabian Sea.
d) It is located in the Western Ghats Biosphere Reserve.

Solution: a)

The wetlands are part of the Central Asian Flyway and serve as an important stopover for migratory bird
species.

About Thrissur-Ponnani Kole Wetlands:

• Location: Spreads across Thrissur and Malappuram districts in Kerala, India.

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• Significance:
• Provides 40% of Kerala’s rice requirement.
• Acts as a natural drainage system for Thrissur city, Ponnani city, and surrounding districts.
• Part of the Central Asian Flyway, supporting migratory bird species.
• Boundaries: Lies between Chalakudy River (South) and Bharathappuzha River (North), extending
to Ponnani Taluk.
• Hydrological Network: Connects to Enamavu River, Canoli Canal, Chettuva River, and flows into
the Arabian Sea.
• Soil Fertility: Enriched by alluvium soil deposited by Kechery and Karuvannoor rivers during monsoons.

51) Consider the following statements about the Global Matchmaking Platform for Industrial Decarbonization
(GMP):
1. It was launched at COP28 to facilitate decarbonization in developed economies.
2. GMP involves the participation of international financial institutions like the World Bank.
3. It focuses on high-emission sectors like steel and cement production.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect because while GMP was conceptualized at COP28, it was officially launched at
COP29, and its focus is on developing and emerging economies, not developed ones.
• Statement 2 is correct as international financial institutions like the World Bank and Climate Investment
Funds are delivery partners of GMP.
• Statement 3 is correct as GMP focuses on decarbonizing high-emission industrial sectors like steel and
cement.

At COP29, the Global Matchmaking Platform for Industrial Decarbonization (GMP) was launched by UNIDO and
the Climate Club.
It is a pioneering initiative to decarbonize heavy-emitting industries in developing and emerging economies by
connecting countries with global technical and financial resources.

About Global Matchmaking Platform:

• Origin: Conceptualized at COP28 (December 2023) under the Climate Club framework to drive industrial
decarbonization globally.
• Launch: Officially launched at COP29 with key donor and partner organizations.
• Agencies Involved: UNIDO , Climate Club, German Ministry of Economic Cooperation and Climate Action,
World Bank, GIZ, and other international partners.
• Aim: To provide financial and technical support to decarbonize high-emission industrial sectors in
developing and emerging economies, advancing climate goals.

Key Features:
• Tailored Support: Country-specific guidance for industrial decarbonization.
• Global Partnerships: Involves financiers, technology providers, and experts.
• Delivery Partners: Includes World Bank, Climate Investment Funds, and GIZ.
• Pilot Countries: Includes Argentina, Chile, Egypt, Indonesia, Kenya, and others.
• Technology Transfer: Facilitates adoption of low-carbon industrial technologies.
• Funding: Supported initially by German climate cooperation funds.

52) What makes peatlands significant for climate regulation?

a) High rates of methane emissions due to decomposition
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b) Ability to sequester more carbon than all the world’s forests combined
c) Exclusive role as carbon emitters during degradation
d) Capacity to purify water without affecting carbon cycles

Solution: b)

• Peatlands play a crucial role in climate regulation due to their extraordinary ability to sequester carbon.
Although they cover only about 3% of the Earth's land surface, they store more carbon than all the world’s
forests combined, making them one of the planet's most efficient carbon sinks.
• However, when peatlands are degraded due to activities like drainage, agriculture, or fires, they release vast
amounts of stored carbon dioxide (CO₂) and other greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, exacerbating
global warming.
• While peatlands also emit methane under natural conditions, their overall role as carbon sinks far outweighs
these emissions.
• Additionally, peatlands contribute to water regulation and purification.

53) Consider the following statements about the Siberian Demoiselle Crane:
1. It breeds primarily in South Asia and winters in Central Asia.
2. The species is culturally significant in India, especially in Gujarat and Rajasthan.
3. The Demoiselle Crane is classified as Endangered by the IUCN.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Demoiselle Crane breeds in Central Asia to Mongolia and Northeast China, not South
Asia.
Statement 2 is correct: Known as koonj or kurjaa in Indian culture, the crane is symbolically significant in Gujarat
and Rajasthan.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The species is listed as Least Concern by the IUCN, not Endangered.

About Siberian Demoiselle Crane:

• Scientific Name: Anthropoides virgo (also referred to as Grus virgo).
• Breeding Range: Central Asia to Mongolia, east to Northeast China.
• Wintering Range: Primarily western India, with large congregations in Gujarat and Rajasthan.
• Migration Path: Traditionally via Himalayan valleys, with notable reverse routes like Sukpak’s journey
through Russia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, and Pakistan.
• Cultural Significance: Known as koonj or kurjaa in Indian culture, symbolically important in Gujarat and
Rajasthan.
• IUCN Status: Listed as Least Concern.
• Conservation Efforts: Khichan in Rajasthan is India’s first Demoiselle crane conservation reserve, hosting
20,000 cranes annually during their winter migration.

54) Consider the following Statements:

Statement-I: Peatlands contribute approximately 10% of the total global CO₂ emissions annually due to
degradation.
Statement-II: The Global Peatland Hotspot Atlas identifies human activities as the primary cause of
peatland degradation and CO₂ emissions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I

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b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: d)

Peatlands emit approximately 1,941 Mt CO₂e annually due to degradation, but this constitutes less than 10% of
global CO₂ emissions.
However, Statement-II is correct as the Global Peatland Hotspot Atlas attributes peatland degradation and
resulting emissions primarily to human activities such as agriculture, drainage, and fires.

55) Consider the following statements about microplastics:

1. Primary microplastics are exclusively formed by the degradation of larger plastics.
2. Secondary microplastics are intentionally manufactured for industrial and cosmetic uses.
3. Microplastics are used in drug delivery systems due to their chemical absorption and release
capabilities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Primary microplastics are intentionally manufactured for specific applications, such as
in cosmetics (microbeads), industrial processes, or synthetic textiles. They are not formed by the degradation of
larger plastics. Secondary microplastics, on the other hand, result from the breakdown of larger plastics due to
environmental factors like sunlight, mechanical forces, and ocean waves.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Secondary microplastics are not intentionally manufactured but are formed as a
byproduct of plastic degradation in the environment.

Statement 3 is correct: Microplastics are used in drug delivery systems due to their ability to absorb and release
chemicals in a controlled manner, making them valuable in medical and pharmaceutical applications. This
property is leveraged for targeted drug delivery, enhancing therapeutic outcomes.

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3. Geography
1) Concerning the DANA (Depresión Aislada en Niveles Altos) phenomenon, consider the following statements:
1. DANA is caused by a high-pressure system over the Mediterranean Sea leading to dry conditions.
2. The phenomenon involves the interaction between a pocket of cold air and warm, moist air over the
sea.
3. Climate change has intensified DANA events, making them more severe and widespread.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 & 3

Solution: b)

• DANA is not caused by a high-pressure system leading to dry conditions; rather, it is associated with low-
pressure systems and atmospheric instability causing heavy rainfall.
• DANA occurs when a pocket of cold air descends and interacts with warm, moist air over the Mediterranean
Sea, leading to the formation of storm clouds and intense rainfall.
• Climate change has led to warmer sea temperatures, increasing the amount of moisture in the air and
intensifying DANA events, making them more severe and geographically widespread.
Therefore, two statements are correct.

2) Consider the following statements about Mount Annapurna’s geographical and climbing significance:
1. Mount Annapurna is located in the northern region of Bhutan.
2. It has the highest climbing success rate among the Himalayan peaks.
3. The Annapurna range forms a part of Gandaki Province in Nepal.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: c)

The Annapurna Range, which includes Mount Annapurna, is part of Gandaki Province in north -central Nepal.
Statement 1 is incorrect as Annapurna is located in Nepal, not Bhutan.
Statement 2 is incorrect because Annapurna has one of the lowest success rates among the world’s highest
mountains, partly due to the difficult climbing conditions and high fatality rates.

3) Consider the following statements about the Dhauladhar range:

1. Lam Dal Lake, a notable glacial lake, is located in the Dhauladhar range.
2. The range's highest peak is Indrahar Pass.
3. The Dhauladhar range is primarily composed of limestone and sandstone.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 only
d) None of the above

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct; Lam Dal Lake, a notable glacial lake, is located within the Dhauladhar range.

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Statement 2 is incorrect because the highest peak in the Dhauladhar range is Hanuman Tibba, not Indrahar Pass.

Statement 3 is also incorrect as the Dhauladhar range is primarily composed of granite, with only some deposits
of limestone and sandstone.

4) Which of the following accurately describes Lewotobi Laki-Laki?

a) An extinct volcano located on Bali Island, Indonesia
b) A twin volcano complex situated in central Sumatra, Indonesia
c) An active stratovolcano on Flores Island, Indonesia, part of a twin volcano system
d) A single, isolated dormant volcano in southeastern Indonesia

Solution: c)

Lewotobi Laki-Laki is an active stratovolcano located on Flores Island in southeastern Indonesia. It is part of the
Lewotobi twin volcano complex, along with Lewotobi Perempuan. Known for its geological activity within the
"Ring of Fire," Lewotobi Laki-Laki has recently erupted, releasing lava and ash and causing significant damage in
nearby areas. This volcanic activity emphasizes the region’s susceptibility to tectonic and volcanic events due to
its position along the Ring of Fire.

5) Consider the following statements about the Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC):
1. The EDFC route stretches from Ludhiana in Punjab to Jodhpur in Rajasthan.
2. The corridor primarily transports consumer goods and textiles.
3. The EDFC reduces pressure on existing passenger railway tracks, improving punctuality.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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Solution: a)

Only Statement 3 is correct.

What are Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFCs)?

DFCs are specialized railway tracks designed solely for freight transport. These corridors, utilizing double-stack
container and heavy-haul trains, increase capacity and ensure faster freight transit.

Eastern dedicated freight corridor (EDFC):

• Route: Covers approximately 1,856 km from Ludhiana (Punjab) to Dankuni (West Bengal).
• Key sections: Kanpur-Mughalsarai and Khurja-Bhaupur.
• Operations: Fully commissioned, handling nearly 200 trains daily, primarily transporting coal, steel, and
agricultural products.
• Impact: Relieves congestion on existing tracks, improves passenger train punctuality, and boosts regional
economic activities.

6) Consider the following statements about the Shanan Hydropower Project:

1. It is the first hydropower project in India with a capacity exceeding 100 MW.
2. The project is built directly on the Beas River in Himachal Pradesh.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Shanan was India’s first 100 MW-capacity hydropower project. Statement 2 is incorrect because the project is
built on the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas, not directly on the Beas.

About Shanan Hydropower Project:

• Established: Commissioned in 1932, it is India’s first megawatt-capacity hydroelectric project.
• Location: Joginder Nagar in Mandi district, Himachal Pradesh.
• River: Built on the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas.
• Issue: Leased to Punjab for 99 years in 1925, the agreement ended in March 2024; Himachal Pradesh
seeks ownership now, arguing that the land originally belonged to it.
• Present Status: Under Punjab’s control, Himachal is seeking support from the Centre to secure the
project’s transfer.

7) Consider the following statements regarding Namibia’s geography and neighboring borders:
1. Namibia shares its northeastern border with Zimbabwe.
2. The Kunene and Okavango are major rivers along Namibia’s borders.
3. The Atlantic Ocean lies along Namibia’s eastern border.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect; Namibia’s northeastern neighbor is Zambia, not Zimbabwe. Statement 2 is correct; the
Kunene and Okavango rivers are prominent rivers along Namibia’s borders. Statement 3 is incorrect as the
Atlantic Ocean lies to Namibia’s west, not east.
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About Namibia:
• Location: Situated on the southwestern coast of Africa in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres.
• Borders: Neighboring countries include South Africa, Botswana, Zimbabwe, Zambia, and Angola;
bordered by the Atlantic Ocean to the west.
• Topography:
o Namib Desert: Stretches along the western coast.
o Central Plateau: Located inland, transitioning from the coastal desert.
o Kalahari Desert: Positioned further east.
• Rivers: Permanent rivers include the Kunene, Okavango, Mashi, Zambezi (north), and Orange River
(south).
• Mountain: Brandberg, Namibia’s highest peak, lies on the plateau’s western edge.

8) Consider the following statements about lightning in India:

1. Lightning is a notified disaster in India.
2. Bihar faces high lightning vulnerability due to its population density and frequent thunderstorms.
3. Lake Maracaibo in Venezuela is known to experience the highest frequency of lightning strikes globally.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect because lightning is not a notified disaster in India, although there are growing calls for
it to be recognized as such to improve institutional support for affected individuals.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Bihar experiences high vulnerability to lightning, with frequent fatalities due to
population density and thunderstorms.
Lake Maracaibo in Venezuela has the highest frequency of lightning strikes on Earth.

9) Which of the following best describes the type and purpose of Mattupetty Dam?
a) Earth-fill dam built for flood control
b) Arch dam built for irrigation and water supply
c) Concrete gravity dam built for hydroelectric power and water conservation
d) Steel dam primarily for transportation support

Solution: c)
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Mattupetty Dam is a concrete gravity dam located near Munnar in Kerala’s Idukki district. It was constructed
with the primary purposes of hydroelectric power generation and water conservation. The other options
misrepresent the dam type and its primary functions, as it is neither an earth-fill dam, arch dam, nor a steel dam,
and it is not primarily for irrigation, flood control, or transportation support.

10) The Barak River originates from which geographical feature?

a) Lushai Hills
b) Khasi Hills
c) Barail Range
d) Manipur Hills

Solution: d)

About Barak River:

• Origin and Course:
o Rises in the Manipur Hills, flows into Assam, and later enters Bangladesh as the Surma
and Kushiyara rivers.
o Joins the Meghna River, receiving the combined flow of the Ganga and Brahmaputra.
• Tributaries:
o Major tributaries include the Jiri, Dhaleswari, Singla, Longai, Sonai, and Katakhal.
• Drainage and Sub-basin:
o Covers a drainage area of 41,723 sq. km in India, about 1.38% of the country’s total geographical
area.
o Lies across Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Assam, Tripura, and Nagaland.
• Geographic Boundaries:
o Bounded by the Barail range to the north, the Lushai Hills to the east, and Bangladesh to the
south and west.

11) Consider the following statements about the Barak River:

1. It joins the Brahmaputra River directly in Assam.
2. It forms the Meghna River after joining with the Ganga and Brahmaputra.
3. Its major tributaries include the Jiri, Dhaleswari, and Longai.
4. It flows through the states of Assam, Meghalaya, and Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Barak River does not join the Brahmaputra directly; it flows into Bangladesh and
forms the Surma and Kushiyara rivers.

Statement 2 is correct: The Barak River contributes to forming the Meghna River after joining with the Ganga and
Brahmaputra.

Statement 3 is correct: Major tributaries of the Barak River include the Jiri, Dhaleswari, Singla, Longai, Sonai, and
Katakhal.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The river flows through Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, and Nagaland,
not Arunachal Pradesh.

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12) Panchachuli Mountain Range is located in which Himalayan region?
a) Garhwal Himalayas
b) Pir Panjal Range
c) Kumaon Himalayas
d) Dhauladhar Range

Solution: c)

About Panchachuli Mountain Range:

• Group of Peaks: Comprises five snow-capped peaks, forming a part of the Kumaon
Himalayas in Uttarakhand, India.
• Altitude Range: Peaks rise from 6,334 m (20,781 ft) to 6,904 m (22,651 ft), with Panchchuli II being the
tallest.
• Geographical Significance: Lies at the watershed between the Gori and Darmaganga valleys, near
Munsiyari, and on the Gori Ganga-Lassar Yankti divide.
• Cultural Legend: Named after the Pandavas’ “Five Chulis” (cooking hearths) from Indian mythology.
• First Ascent: Panchchuli II was first scaled by an Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) team led by Mahendra
Singh on May 26, 1973.
• Tourism Impact: Located 138 km from Pithoragarh, the peaks attract trekkers and pilgrims but face
environmental degradation due to human activities.

13) Consider the following statements about the Song River:

1. It originates in the Shivalik Hills.
2. It is a perennial tributary of the Ganga River.
3. It flows through Uttarakhand and serves as a seasonal feeder to the Ganga River system.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None

Solution: c)

The Song River is a seasonal river that originates in the Lesser Himalayas near Mussoorie, Uttarakhand, making
Statement 1 incorrect.

Unlike perennial rivers that flow throughout the year, the Song River relies heavily on monsoonal rainfall, which
classifies it as a seasonal river rather than a perennial one, making Statement 2 incorrect.
The river flows through Uttarakhand and acts as a seasonal feeder to the Ganga River system, contributing water
primarily during the monsoon season. This makes Statement 3 correct.

14) Consider the following statements about the Periyar River:

1. The Periyar River originates in the Sivagiri Hills and empties into the Arabian Sea.
2. It powers the Idukki Dam, which is one of the largest hydroelectric projects in Kerala.
3. The Periyar River flows into the Bay of Bengal after passing through the Vembanad Lake.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct: The Periyar River originates in the Sivagiri Hills of the Western Ghats. It flows through
various regions of Kerala, including Periyar National Park, and finally empties into the Arabian Sea.
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Statement 2 is correct: The Periyar powers the Idukki Dam, which is among the largest hydroelectric projects in
Kerala. This dam, along with the Cheruthoni and Kulamavu dams, forms a reservoir system that provides
significant hydroelectricity to the state.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Periyar River does not flow into the Bay of Bengal. Instead, it empties into the
Arabian Sea, making this statement factually inaccurate.

4. Government Schemes and Programmes

1) Which of the following best describes the primary objective of the Aarambh 6.0 initiative?
a) To provide advanced technological training to senior civil servants.
b) To enhance governance through public participation and improved feedback systems.
c) To promote agricultural innovations in rural development.
d) To streamline financial management in public administration.

Solution: b)

Aarambh 6.0 is an orientation program designed for young civil servants, aiming to equip them with essential
governance skills and foster innovative thinking.
This edition emphasized "Jan Bhagidari" (public participation), highlighting the importance of robust feedback
mechanisms and streamlined grievance redressal systems. The focus is on enhancing governance by actively
involving citizens in the administrative process, improving responsiveness, and accountability in public services.

2) In the context of India's efforts to eliminate tuberculosis, consider the following statements:
1. India aims to eliminate TB by 2025, ahead of the global target set for 2030.
2. The percentage of households in India facing catastrophic health costs due to TB has decreased
significantly.
3. Multi-drug-resistant TB cases in India have been completely eradicated through effective treatment
strategies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2 & 3

Solution: a)

• India has set an ambitious target to eliminate TB by 2025, five years ahead of the global Sustainable
Development Goal (SDG) target of 2030.
• For the first time, the report estimates that many households in India are facing catastrophic health costs due
to TB, spending more than 20% of their income on TB-related healthcare, indicating that the burden has not
decreased significantly.
• India still accounts for 27% of global multi-drug-resistant TB cases, and these cases have not been
eradicated, highlighting the need for improved treatment strategies.
Therefore, only one statement is correct.

3) With reference to the debate on criminalizing marital rape in India, consider the following statements:
1) Exception 2 to Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code decriminalizes marital rape if the wife is above 18
years of age.
2) The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, provides criminal remedies for victims
of marital rape.

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3) The Supreme Court, in the case of Joseph Shine v. Union of India, acknowledged the autonomy of
married women by striking down the doctrine of coverture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Exception 2 to Section 375 of the IPC states that sexual intercourse by a man with his
wife, if she is not under 18 years of age, is not considered rape, decriminalizing marital rape.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, provides civil
remedies like protection orders and monetary compensation but does not offer criminal provisions for
prosecuting marital rape.
• Statement 3 is correct. In Joseph Shine v. Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court dismantled aspects of
the doctrine of coverture, upholding that marriage does not diminish a woman's right to bodily autonomy.

4) With reference to the various initiatives under the IndiaAI Mission, consider the following statements:
1. The IndiaAI Innovation Centre will focus on developing Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and
foundational AI models tailored to sectors such as healthcare and agriculture.
2. The IndiaAI Datasets Platform is designed to provide researchers and startups with access to
anonymized personal data to ensure privacy and facilitate innovation.
3. The Safe & Trusted AI pillar aims to promote ethical AI practices through the development of
indigenous AI tools and frameworks for responsible use.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Solution: A

Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The IndiaAI Innovation Centre is a key component of the mission, focusing on developing Large Multimodal
Models (LMMs) and sector-specific AI models to address challenges in areas like healthcare, agriculture, and
governance.
• The IndiaAI Datasets Platform provides access to high-quality non-personal datasets, not anonymized
personal data. This platform is crucial for ensuring data privacy while enabling AI research and innovation.
• The Safe & Trusted AI pillar emphasizes ethical AI practices, aiming to create indigenous tools and
frameworks that ensure the responsible use of AI. This component addresses concerns related to data
security, algorithmic bias, and transparency.

5) Consider the following statements about the National Green Hydrogen Mission:
1. The mission aims to establish India as a global leader in green hydrogen production, with a target of
producing at least 5 million metric tonnes (MMT) of green hydrogen per year by 2030.
2. The SIGHT (Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition) program focuses exclusively on
incentivizing the import of hydrogen production technology.
3. One of the expected outcomes of the mission is to avert nearly 50 million metric tonnes (MMT) of
annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
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Solution: A

Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 1 is correct. The National Green Hydrogen Mission indeed aims to position India as a global
hub for green hydrogen production, targeting at least 5 MMT per year by 2030.
• The SIGHT program incentivizes the domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and promotes the use of
green hydrogen in various sectors. It does not focus on importing technology.
• Statement 3 is correct. The mission aims to avert almost 50 MMT of greenhouse gas emissions annually
by 2030, contributing significantly to India’s climate goals.

6) Which of the following best describes the primary objective of the First in the World Challenge initiative
launched by Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)?
a) To fund large-scale public health awareness programs in India
b) To encourage incremental advancements in existing medical technologies
c) To foster bold, first-of-its-kind health innovations with global impact potential
d) To promote traditional medicine and Ayurveda exclusively

Solution: c)

The “First in the World Challenge” by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) is focused on fostering
pioneering health innovations that have never been attempted before. Its objective is to encourage
groundbreaking research and novel health solutions, such as new vaccines, drugs, diagnostics, and interventions,
that can have a global impact.
This initiative specifically seeks out high-risk, high-reward projects that go beyond incremental improvements,
making c) the correct answer.

7) Consider the following statements about the administration and funding of the PM E-DRIVE scheme:
1. The scheme is administered by the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
2. A portion of the budget is allocated for information, education, and communication (IEC) activities
related to EV awareness.
3. The scheme offers incentives for various EV types, including e -ambulances and e-trucks.
4. Grants are provided to upgrade EV testing facilities within India
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: d)

About PM E-DRIVE Scheme:

• Launch date: October 1, 2024.
• Ministry: Ministry of Heavy Industries.
• Budget: Financial outlay of Rs. 10,900 crores.
• Duration: Active until March 31, 2026.
• Objective: Encourage EV adoption , reduce environmental impact from transport, and support
domestic EV manufacturing.

Key components:
• Subsidies: Incentives for e-2Ws, e-3Ws, e-ambulances, e-trucks, and other EVs.
• Grants for Capital Assets: Fund e-buses, charging stations, and upgrade MHI testing facilities.
• Administration: Includes IEC activities and project management agency fees.

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Eligibility criteria:
• Electric two-wheelers: Incentives are available for 24.79 lakh e-2Ws with advanced batteries, covering
both private and commercial ownership.
• Electric three-wheelers: Around 3.2 lakh e-3Ws, including registered e-rickshaws and L5 vehicles, qualify if
used commercially and equipped with advanced batteries.
• Electric ambulances: 500 crore supports e-ambulances, with standards set by the Ministry of Health and
other stakeholders.
• Electric trucks: 500 crore is allocated for e-trucks, requiring a scrapping certificate from a MoRTH-
approved center.
• Electric buses: 4,391 crore funds 14,028 e-buses for large cities, prioritizing STUs that retire older buses
under MoRTH guidelines.

8) Which of the following best describes an “intermediary” as per the IT Act?

a) An entity that has full editorial control over content it hosts
b) An organization that creates and directly publishes its own content
c) An entity that receives, stores, or transmits information created by third parties without editorial
control
d) A government body responsible for regulating internet content

Solution: c)

An intermediary, as defined by the IT Act, is an entity that facilitates the transmission, storage, or processing of
information provided by third parties without exercising editorial control over that content. This distinguishes
intermediaries from content creators or publishers, as intermediaries are not liable for third -party content if they
comply with due diligence standards.

9) Consider the following statements regarding the responsibilities of publishers under the IT Act:
1. Publishers are not liable for the content they create if they meet due diligence standards.
2. Publishers exercise editorial control over content on their platforms.
3. Unlike intermediaries, publishers cannot be penalized for defamatory or inaccurate content.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: b)

Statement 2 is correct. Publishers exercise editorial control over the content on their platforms, deciding what
content appears and making them directly responsible for any content violations.

Statement 1 is incorrect because publishers are liable for all content they produce or host, regardless of due
diligence; due diligence does not shield them from liability as it does for intermediaries.

Statement 3 is also incorrect, as publishers are open to penalties for defamatory, inaccurate, or unlawful content
due to their editorial authority.

10) What is the primary reason for designating the Andaman and Nicobar Islands as a Tuna Cluster under the
Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)?
a) The islands are close to Southeast Asia, making them ideal for tuna trade.
b) The region has over-utilized fisheries, needing regulation.
c) It has the largest tuna catch in the world.
d) The region is a popular tourism destination, which supports seafood trade.

Solution: a)
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The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have been designated as a Tuna Cluster because their proximity to Southeast
Asia offers strategic trade advantages and access to rich, under-utilized tuna resources within India’s Exclusive
Economic Zone (EEZ).

Option (b) is incorrect as the EEZ here is under-utilized rather than over-exploited.
Option (c) is incorrect because the region does not have the largest tuna catch globally, and
option (d) is unrelated to the primary objective of developing tuna fisheries.

11) Consider the following statements about the Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF):
1. TTDF primarily focuses on providing affordable telecom services in urban and suburban regions.
2. The fund is managed by the Department of Telecommunications under the Ministry of
Communications.
3. TTDF promotes technology co-innovation between academia, industry, and startups.
4. TTDF provides grants to Indian entities involved in telecom innovation and indigenous manufacturing.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is incorrect as the fund primarily targets rural and remote areas rather than urban or suburban
regions.

Statement 2 is correct. The TTDF is managed by the Department of Telecommunications, Ministry of

Communications.

Statements 3 and 4 are correct. TTDF provides grants to Indian entities to foster telecom innovation and promote
indigenous manufacturing, and it also promotes technology co-innovation among academia, startups, and the
telecom industry.

12) What is the primary objective of the PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme?

a) To provide job placements for students from top HEIs
b) To offer financial assistance to meritorious students for quality higher education
c) To create free hostel accommodations for economically backward students
d) To establish a digital database of all students availing education loans

Solution: b)

The main objective of the PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme is to ensure that meritorious students can access quality
higher education without financial barriers. This is achieved through various loan features and interest
subventions.

Options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect as the scheme does not focus on job placements, hostel accommodations, or
a student database, but rather on providing financial support for education.

13) Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY):
1. PMMSY includes both the Central Sector Scheme (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) as its
main components.
2. The scheme focuses on enhancing the fisheries sector solely through funding for ornamental fisheries.
3. PMMSY has designated Hazaribagh District in Jharkhand as a priority area for pearl culture.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
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b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. PMMSY is structured as an umbrella scheme comprising both Central Sector (CS)
and Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS), which supports holistic growth in fisheries. Additionally, Hazaribagh
District in Jharkhand is a priority location for pearl culture under the scheme.

Statement 2 is incorrect because PMMSY’s focus areas extend beyond ornamental fisheries and include a variety
of fisheries-related activities.

14) Consider the following statements regarding the One Rank One Pension (OROP) scheme:
1. OROP benefits apply uniformly to all ex-service personnel, including those discharged voluntarily after
the scheme’s implementation.
2. The scheme provides for arrears to be paid in four half-yearly installments for most beneficiaries.
3. Family pensioners and Gallantry awardees receive their arrears in a single installment.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect because personnel discharged voluntarily are not eligible for OROP benefits. Statements
2 and 3 are correct, as arrears are paid in installments, with family pensioners and Gallantry awardees receiving
them in a single installment.

About One Rank One Pension (OROP) Scheme:

• Definition: OROP ensures that uniform pensions are paid to personnel retiring in the same rank with
identical service lengths, regardless of when they retired.
• Implementation year: The government approved OROP in 2015, with benefits retroactively effective
from July 1, 2014.
• Pension Re-fixation: Pensions are re-fixed based on the average of the minimum and maximum pensions
of 2013 retirees of the same rank and service length.
• Arrears: Arrears are paid in four half-yearly instalments, except for family pensioners and Gallantry
awardees, who receive it in one instalment.
• Future revisions: Pensions will be re-fixed every five years.
• Nodal agency: Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare, Ministry of Defence.
• Payment: Integrated within the standard pension, not a separate component.
• Exclusions: Personnel discharged voluntarily under specific military rules post-OROP implementation are
not eligible.

15) Dholera is part of which of the following unique development initiatives in India?
a) Brownfield Industrial Park
b) Renewable Energy Cluster
c) Special Agricultural Economic Zone
d) India’s first Greenfield Smart City

Solution: d)

• The Gujarat government has introduced India’s first ‘Gujarat Semiconductor Policy 2022-2027.

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• In Dholera’s emerging ‘Semicon City,’ Tata Electronics Private Limited (TEPL) and Taiwan’s Powerchip
Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation (PSMC) are establishing India’s first AI-enabled semiconductor
fabrication facility with an investment exceeding Rs 91,000 crore.
• Dholera, is being developed as India’s first Greenfield Smart City.

16) Consider the following statements about the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM):
1. ISM was launched with a dedicated budget under the Ministry of Commerce.
2. The mission includes incentives to establish semiconductor fabs, display fabs, and compound
semiconductor facilities.
3. ISM supports the creation of indigenous Intellectual Property (IP) within the semiconductor sector.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect because ISM was launched under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), not the
Ministry of Commerce. Statements 2 and 3 are correct, as ISM includes support for fabs, incentives, and IP
creation.

About India Semiconductor Mission (ISM):

• Launch: Initiated in 2021 under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) with a budget of Rs. 76,000
crores.
• Objective: Develop a robust semiconductor and display manufacturing ecosystem in India.
• Financial support: Provides incentives for companies investing in semiconductor and display
manufacturing, and design capabilities.
• Focus on IP and Technology Transfer: Encourages the creation of indigenous Intellectual Property (IP)
and supports the Transfer of Technologies (ToT).
• Key schemes:
o Semiconductor fabs: Scheme to establish semiconductor fabrication units in India.
o Display fabs: Scheme to support display manufacturing facilities.
o Compound semiconductors & ATMP: Scheme for setting up facilities for compound
semiconductors, silicon photonics, and ATMP/OSAT units.
o Design linked incentive (DLI): Incentives to boost the design ecosystem in semiconductors.

17) Which of the following best represents the primary objective of India’s seaplane project under the RCS -UDAN
scheme?
a) To support water-based freight movement and reduce logistics costs
b) To promote tourism and enhance regional connectivity through water-based aviation
c) To facilitate emergency medical evacuation from isolated regions
d) To develop seaplane manufacturing capabilities domestically

Solution: b)

The seaplane project under the RCS-UDAN (Regional Connectivity Scheme - Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik) aims to
improve regional connectivity by providing affordable air travel options in areas with limited infrastructure .
This project promotes tourism by connecting important tourist destinations through water-based aviation,
leveraging India's extensive network of water bodies for economic and travel benefits.

Option (a) is incorrect as the primary focus is not freight movement but passenger transport.
Option (c) is also incorrect, as emergency medical evacuation is not the main purpose, though seaplanes can
potentially serve this role in emergencies.

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Option (d) is inaccurate because the project currently focuses on deploying and utilizing seaplanes, not
manufacturing them domestically.

18) Consider the following statements regarding the "EV as a Service" program:
1. The program is spearheaded by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy to support India's target of
net-zero emissions by 2050.
2. It mandates the use of a single make/model of E-Car for all government departments to maintain
uniformity.
3. The program facilitates the deployment of 1,00,000 E-Buses across India under the program.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: d)

• The program falls under the Ministry of Power and Housing & Urban Affairs, not the Ministry of New and
Renewable Energy. Additionally, India’s net-zero emissions target is set for 2070, not 2050.
• The program offers a flexible procurement model, allowing departments to select E-Cars from various makes
and models suitable for their specific needs, rather than mandating a single model.
• CESL has facilitated the deployment of 17,000 E-Buses across India, not 1,00,000.

19) Consider the following statements regarding the key features of the "Animal Health Security Strengthening in
India for Pandemic Preparedness and Response" initiative:
1. The initiative includes upgrading laboratory networks and vaccine manufacturing facilities.
2. Its primary objective is to achieve complete eradication of zoonotic diseases in India.
3. The project was developed as part of the G20’s 2022 Pandemic Fund initiative.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

The initiative does include upgrades to laboratory networks and vaccine manufacturing facilities to enhance
India’s animal health infrastructure. Additionally, the project was approved by the Pandemic Fund, created by
the G20 under the Indonesian presidency in 2022, reflecting a coordinated international effort to enhance
pandemic preparedness.

However, statement 2 is incorrect as the initiative’s aim is to prevent, detect, and respond to animal health
threats, and reduce the risk of zoonotic disease transmission rather than the complete eradication of zoonotic
diseases in India.

20) Consider the following statements about the 2019 amendment to CSR regulations in India:
1. Before 2019, companies could carry forward unspent CSR funds to the next fiscal year.
2. Post-2019, unspent CSR funds must be deposited in a government-specified fund if not utilized within
three years.
3. The amendment introduced provisions that restrict CSR spending to certain predefined sectors only.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
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c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Before the 2019 amendment, companies could carry forward unspent CSR funds
to the next fiscal, allowing flexibility in CSR spending. The amendment, however, introduced stricter rules,
requiring unspent funds to be transferred to a Schedule VII fund by the fiscal year’s end and utilized within three
years; otherwise, they must be deposited into a government-specified fund.

Statement 3 is incorrect as the amendment does not restrict CSR activities to specific sectors but instead
encourages broader social, economic, and environmental contributions, as outlined in Schedule VII of the
Companies Act.

21) Which of the following committees recommended integrating the provisions of AFSPA into the Unlawful
Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967?
a) Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC)
b) Justice Verma Committee
c) Santosh Hegde Committee
d) Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy Committee

Solution: d)

The Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy Committee (2004) proposed incorporating AFSPA’s provisions into the UAPA,
1967, while recommending the repeal of AFSPA to balance security and human rights. Other committees made
different suggestions, including periodic reviews or addressing sexual violence cases under ordinary law.

22) Consider the following statements about Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan:
1. It focuses exclusively on employment generation in tribal regions.
2. The program aims to preserve tribal traditions alongside socio-economic development.
3. It is a state-specific initiative limited to the Chotanagpur Plateau.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: b)

The Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan is a comprehensive initiative aimed at improving the socio-
economic well-being of tribal communities across India.

Statement 1 is incorrect because while employment generation is an important focus, the program also
emphasizes education, healthcare, and overall well-being, ensuring a holistic approach to development.

Statement 2 is correct, as the initiative not only addresses socio-economic upliftment but also prioritizes the
preservation of tribal traditions and culture, recognizing their integral role in India’s heritage.

Statement 3 is incorrect because this program is a national campaign implemented across tribal regions in India,
not restricted to the Chotanagpur Plateau or any specific state.

23) The primary objective of the 'PPP plus PPP' model introduced on World Diabetes Day is:
a) To eliminate diabetes entirely
b) To enhance international collaborations for combating diabetes

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c) To address diabetes through collaborative domestic and global partnerships
d) To promote artificial intelligence in healthcare

Solution: c)

On World Diabetes Day, Union Minister for Science and Technology Jitendra Singh introduced the innovative ‘PPP
plus PPP’ model, aimed at addressing India’s diabetes epidemic through collaborative efforts between domestic
and international stakeholders.

About ‘PPP plus PPP’ model:

• Definition: A dual-layered collaboration model combining Public-Private Partnerships (PPP) within India
with international PPP collaborations.
• Objective: To enhance healthcare infrastructure, promote innovation, and make diabetes care accessible
and affordable.
• Domestic Partnerships: Strengthens India’s healthcare system by uniting public and private sectors to
develop cost-effective and scalable solutions.
• International Collaborations: Engages global expertise to bring advanced technologies and AI-driven
solutions for diabetes monitoring and management.
• Focus Areas: Develop affordable non-invasive devices, increase awareness, ensure treatment adherence,
and close healthcare accessibility gaps.

24) Consider the following statements about Operation Dronagiri:

1. The initiative focuses exclusively on urban infrastructure.
2. It operates independently of private sector participation.
3. It is led by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect because Operation Dronagiri covers diverse sectors, including agriculture, livelihoods,
logistics, and transport, not just urban infrastructure.

Statement 2 is incorrect as it involves a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model, engaging startups and private
companies alongside government agencies.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the initiative is led by the Department of Science and Technology (DST), not the
Ministry of Environment.

25) Which feature distinguishes the Know Your Medicine (KYM) App?
a) Real-time performance tracking for athletes
b) Direct interaction with team doctors through the app
c) Integration with wearable fitness devices
d) Customizable search options for medicines based on sport categories

Solution: d)

About Know Your Medicine (KYM) App:

• Developer: National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA), India.
• Purpose: To prevent inadvertent doping by allowing athletes to check if a medicine contains substances
prohibited by WADA.
• Key Features:
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oVerifies medicine or ingredients for prohibited substances.
oIncludes image and audio search for ease of access.
oCustomizable search options based on sport categories for specific information.
• Impact: Supports clean sports by fostering a fair and ethical sporting culture.
• Target Users: Athletes, coaches, and sports professionals.

26) Consider the following statements regarding Operation Dronagiri:

1. The primary objective of Operation Dronagiri is to integrate geospatial technologies into key sectors for
improved quality of life.
2. It relies entirely on government funding with no private sector collaboration.
3. The Geospatial Innovation Cell is an oversight body for the operation.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

Operation Dronagiri is a targeted initiative aimed at applying geospatial technologies in sectors like agriculture,
livelihoods, logistics, and transport to enhance citizens' quality of life and ease of doing business.

Statement 2 is incorrect as the operation employs a Public-Private Partnership model, combining government and
private sector resources.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the Geospatial Innovation Cell drives implementation but does not serve as the
oversight body, which is managed by IIT Tirupati Navavishkar I-Hub Foundation.

27) Consider the following statements regarding the e-Tarang System:

1. It was developed by the Ministry of Communications.
2. It focuses on civilian and defence communication systems equally.
3. It enables interference-free operation of defence equipment during wartime and peacetime.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect because the system was developed by the Integrated Defence Staff and BISAG -N, not the
Ministry of Communications.

Statement 2 is incorrect as e-Tarang is dedicated to defence communication systems, not civilian

communications.

Statement 3 is correct because the system ensures interference -free operation of defence equipment in both
wartime and peacetime scenarios.

28) Consider the following statements about the Know Your Medicine (KYM) App:
1. It was developed by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
2. It uses image and audio search for enhanced accessibility.
3. It allows athletes to verify medicines for prohibited substances.
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4. It is primarily targeted at athletes, coaches, and sports professionals.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is incorrect; the app was developed by NADA, not WADA.

Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct as the app incorporates advanced search options (image/audio), verifies
medicines for prohibited substances, and targets athletes, coaches, and sports professionals.

29) What is the primary aim of the Bhu-Neer Portal?

a) To promote large-scale water extraction projects
b) To provide state-wise groundwater quality data
c) To regulate and manage groundwater resources sustainably
d) To introduce a digital system for surface water distribution

Solution: c)

The Bhu-Neer Portal, developed by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, focuses on regulating and managing groundwater
resources transparently and sustainably.

About the “Bhu-Neer” Portal:

• Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti, developed by Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) in collaboration
with NIC.
• Aim: To regulate, manage, and monitor groundwater resources transparently and efficiently, promoting
sustainability.

Key Features:
• PAN-Based Single ID System: Simplifies user registration for all stakeholders.
• NOC with QR Code: Ensures verifiable and trackable compliance documentation.
• Streamlined Processes: Simplifies permit application for groundwater withdrawal.
• Centralized Database: Offers access to legal frameworks, groundwater policies, and sustainable practices
at state and national levels.
• Ease of Doing Business: Aligns with the Prime Minister’s vision by making groundwater regulation
seamless and faceless.

30) Consider the following statements regarding the Waves OTT Platform:
1. It supports young content creators and National Creator Awardees.
2. It was launched by Prasar Bharati under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
3. It is supported by BharatNet for enhancing rural connectivity.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: c)

About Waves OTT Platform :

• Developer: Prasar Bharati, under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

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• Launch Event: Inaugurated at IFFI 2024.
• Tagline: “Waves – Family Entertainment Ki Nayi Lehar.”
• Languages and Content: Offers content in 12+ languages, including Hindi, English, Tamil, Konkani, and
Assamese. Features infotainment, gaming, education, and shopping.
• Live Channels: Streams 65 live TV channels, including “Mann Ki Baat” and Ayodhya’s Prabhu Shriram Lalla
Aarti.

Unique Features:
• Content Accessibility: Leverages BharatNet for rural connectivity.
• Diverse Content: Includes films, student projects, music shows, animations, and crime thrillers.
• Collaborations: Partnerships with FTII, Annapurna, ONDC, and CDAC for cybersecurity awareness.
• Support for Creators: Open platform for young content creators and National Creator Awardees.

31) Which of the following features distinguishes the PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme?

a) Collateral-free education loans with a 50% government credit guarantee
b) Eligibility for all higher education institutions in India
c) Interest subvention for families with an annual income up to ₹8 lakhs
d) Exclusively supports foreign education for meritorious students

Solution: c)

On November 6, 2024, the Union Cabinet approved PM Vidyalaxmi, a Central Sector Scheme aimed at providing
financial support to meritorious students pursuing higher education.
The scheme offers collateral-free and guarantor-free loans to cover tuition fees and related expenses for students
admitted to select quality institutions ranked by the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF).
About PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme:
• Objective: To provide financial assistance to meritorious students, eliminating financial constraints in
accessing quality higher education.
• Eligibility: Available to students admitted to top 860 HEIs in India, as per NIRF rankings, covering over 22
lakh students annually.
• Loan features: Offers collateral-free, guarantor-free education loans with a user-friendly, digital
application process.
• Credit guarantee: Government provides a 75% credit guarantee on loans up to ₹7.5 lakhs, supporting
banks in loan expansion.
• Interest subvention: For families with an annual income up to ₹8 lakhs, a 3% interest subvention is
provided on loans up to ₹10 lakhs. Full interest subvention is available to students with family incomes up
to ₹4.5 lakhs under the PM-USP scheme.
• Complementary schemes: Supplements existing schemes like CSIS and CGFSEL under PM-USP, offering
comprehensive support for technical and professional courses in approved HEIs.

32) Consider the following statements regarding Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI):
1. It was established under the Ministry of Power.
2. It is responsible for implementing the National Solar Mission (NSM).
3. Its mandate was expanded to include the entire renewable energy sector.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect. SECI was established in 2011 under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(MNRE), not the Ministry of Power.
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Statement 2 is correct. SECI plays a critical role in implementing the National Solar Mission (NSM).
Statement 3 is correct. In 2015, SECI’s mandate was expanded to cover the entire renewable energy sector.

About Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI):

• Establishment: Founded on 20th September 2011 under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(MNRE).
• Purpose: Facilitates implementation of the National Solar Mission (NSM) and other renewable energy
targets.
• CPSU for Renewables: The only Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) dedicated to renewable
energy.

Mission objectives:
• Lead in large-scale solar installations, plants, and parks.
• Promote solar energy use in remote areas.
• Deploy new technologies to harness solar energy.
• Structure: Initially a not-for-profit Section-25 company under the Companies Act, 1956; later
restructured in 2015 into a Section-3 company under the Companies Act, 2013.
• Mandate expansion: Broadened to cover the entire renewable energy sector, including project
development and power trading.
• Power trading role: Trades solar power generated under MNRE schemes.

33) Consider the following statements regarding the STARS Program (Strengthening Teaching-Learning and
Results for States):
1. It is funded by the World Bank and managed by the Ministry of Education.
2. The Program is a part of the Samagra Shiksha scheme.
3. The program emphasizes skill-based education in schools.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: d)

About STARS Program: (Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States)

• Launch and Duration: Approved in October 2020, effective from 2021 for five years, till FY 2024-25.
• Supported by the World Bank, this scheme strengthens teaching, learning, and results for skill-based
education in schools.
• Implementation: Managed by the Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of
Education, with financial assistance from the World Bank.
• Target States: Covers six states—Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh,
and Kerala—to enhance the quality of school education.
• Alignment with NEP 2020: Focuses on improving quality-based learning outcomes in line with the
objectives of the National Education Policy 2020.
• Scope: Carved out from Samagra Shiksha, emphasizing components directly linked to educational quality
enhancement.

34) Consider the following statements about the One Nation One Subscription (ONOS):
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme implemented by the Ministry of Science and Technology.
2. It aims to provide international research journal access to all private universities in India.
3. It benefits students and researchers, especially in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.
4. It is aligned with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and supported by Anusandhan National
Research Foundation (ANRF).

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Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Solution: b)

About One Nation One Subscription (ONOS):

• Ministry: Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education.
• Central Sector Scheme: ₹6,000 crore allocated for 2025–2027.
• Aim: To provide access to top-quality international research journals to government higher education
institutions (HEIs) and central government R&D institutions.

Key Features:
• Coverage of 30 major international publishers and nearly 13,000 e-journals.
• Access for 6,300 government HEIs and R&D institutions benefiting 8 crore students, faculty, and
researchers.
• Entirely digital process coordinated by INFLIBNET under UGC.
• Promotes interdisciplinary and core research, especially in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.
• Aligned with NEP 2020 and supported by Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF).

35) Consider the following statements about the Places of Worship Act, 1991:
1. The Act maintains the religious character of places of worship as they existed on January 26, 1950.
2. It prohibits conversion of religious sites to different denominations or segments.
3. The Ayodhya dispute is specifically excluded from the Act’s provisions.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Act maintains the status quo as of August 15, 1947, not January 26,
1950.
• Statement 2 is correct as Section 3 prohibits conversion of religious sites to other denominations.
• Statement 3 is correct because the Ayodhya dispute was specifically excluded since it was sub-judice.

About Places of Worship Act, 1991:

• Objective: Prohibits the conversion of a place of worship and ensures its religious character as on August
15, 1947.
Key Provisions:
• Section 3: Bars conversion of a place of worship, either wholly or partly, to a different denomination or
segment.
• Maintains the religious status quo of all places of worship as of Independence Day, 1947.
• Prohibits legal suits or claims to alter the status of any place of worship.
Exemptions:
• Ayodhya dispute: Excluded as the case was sub-judice at the time.
• Ancient monuments: Covered under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and
Remains Act , 1958.
• Disputes resolved by mutual consent or settled before the law’s enforcement.
Significance: Aims to maintain communal harmony by preventing religious conflicts over historical claims.

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36) Consider the following:
Statement-I: Atal Innovation Mission 2.0 includes a State Innovation Mission (SIM) to integrate state -level
innovation ecosystems with NITI Aayog’s framework.
Statement-II: SIM focuses on bilateral collaborations with other countries to foster innovation and
entrepreneurship.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: c)

The State Innovation Mission (SIM) under AIM 2.0 aims to strengthen state -level innovation ecosystems in
alignment with NITI Aayog’s State Support Mission. However, bilateral and multilateral collaborations fall under
AIM’s international collaboration initiatives, not SIM.

About Atal Innovation Mission 2.0:

• Ministry/ Department: NITI Aayog.
• Budget: ₹2,750 crore till March 2028.
• Aim: To strengthen India’s innovation and entrepreneurship ecosystem by improving input, throughput,
and output quality in innovation.
Key Features:
• Language Inclusive Program of Innovation (LIPI): Establish 30 Vernacular Innovation Centers in 22
scheduled languages.
• Frontier Program: Develop customized innovation templates for J&K, Ladakh, NE states, and aspirational
districts with 2,500 new ATLs.
• Human Capital Development Program: Train 5,500 professionals to build and sustain innovation
ecosystems.
• Deeptech Reactor: Pilot research sandboxes for deep tech startups requiring long-term investment.
• State Innovation Mission (SIM): Strengthen innovation ecosystems in states/UTs, integrated with NITI
Aayog’s State Support Mission.
• International Innovation Collaborations: Host Global Tinkering Olympiad, engage in 10
bilateral/multilateral collaborations, support WIPO for the Global South, and anchor Startup20
Engagement Group.
• Industrial Accelerator Program: Create 10 PPP-mode accelerators for scaling startups in critical sectors.
• Atal Sectoral Innovation Launchpads (ASIL): Build 10 sector-specific platforms for startup integration and
procurement across key ministries.

37) Which of the following statements about the Indian Chemical Council (ICC) is incorrect?
a) The ICC is the apex body representing India's chemical industry.
b) The ICC promotes the Responsible Care (RC) program to ensure sustainability and safety in the
chemical industry.
c) The ICC exclusively represents the organic chemical industry in India.
d) The ICC has launched initiatives like Nicer Globe for chemical transportation safety.

Solution: c)

Option c is incorrect because the ICC represents a wide range of industries, including organic and inorganic
chemicals, petrochemicals, fertilizers, pesticides, plastics, specialty chemicals, and more. It is not limited to the
organic chemical sector. The ICC also promotes sustainability, safety, and innovation through initiatives like the
Responsible Care (RC) program and Nicer Globe for safe chemical transportation.
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38) Consider the following statements about the features of the Eklavya Platform:
1. The platform focuses on modern warfare concepts and emerging military trends.
2. It replaces all physical training courses for the Indian Army.
3. Registration for the platform is restricted to senior-level officers.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct:

About Eklavya Platform:

• Developed by: Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics ( BISAG-N),
with support from the Directorate General of Information Systems.
• Launched in: 2024 by the Chief of the Army Staff , General Upendra Dwivedi.
• Aim: To facilitate continuous professional military education, decongest physical courses, and encourage
domain specialization.
Features:
• Hosted on the Army Data Network with scalable architecture.
• Includes a “Knowledge Highway” for accessing journals, research papers, and articles.
• Registration delinked from physical nominations; accessible throughout an officer’s career.
• Focuses on contemporary content and emerging concepts aligned with modern warfare.

39) Consider the following statements about the Commissioner of Railway Safety (CRS):
1. The CRS operates directly under the Ministry of Railways.
2. It primarily oversees operational efficiency and infrastructure expansion in the railways.
3. The CRS is headquartered in New Delhi, ensuring better coordination with other railway bodies.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The CRS functions under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, not the Ministry of Railways, to
maintain autonomy in safety-related matters.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The CRS’s primary responsibility is to ensure the safety of rail travel and operations, not
infrastructure or operational efficiency.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The CRS is headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, not New Delhi.

About Commissioner of Railway Safety (CRS):

• Role: Ensures the safety of rail travel and operations as outlined in the Railways Act, 1989.
• Responsibilities: Investigates train accidents and makes safety recommendations to the government.
• Reporting Structure: Under the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) to remain insulated from the Railway
Ministry’s influence.
• Leadership: Headed by the Chief Commissioner of Railway Safety, with headquarters in Lucknow, Uttar
Pradesh.
• Independence: Structured to avoid conflicts of interest within the railway establishment.

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40) Consider the following statements about the Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat Campaign:
1. The campaign targets states with the lowest child marriage rates.
2. It aims to eliminate child marriage by 2025.
3. The campaign includes a public portal for reporting and monitoring child marriage cases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The campaign focuses on high-burden states like West Bengal, Bihar, and Rajasthan,
where child marriage rates are highest.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The goal is to reduce child marriage rates to below 5% by 2029, not 2025.
Statement 3 is correct: The Child Marriage Free Bharat Portal allows public reporting and monitoring, aiding in
tracking progress.

About Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat Campaign :

• Objective: To eliminate child marriage through collective efforts and focus on high-burden states and
districts.
• Target States: West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Tripura, Assam, and Andhra Pradesh, along with
nearly 300 high-burden districts.
• Child Marriage Free Bharat Portal: A platform to raise awareness, report cases, and monitor progress
with real-time tracking by Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPOs).
• Monitoring Mechanism: Central nodal officers and state-level CMPOs will ensure accountability and
support for affected individuals.
• Goal: Reduce child marriage rates to below 5% by 2029; rates have already dropped from 47.4% (2006) to
23.3% (2019-21).
• Awareness Drive: Public access to information and complaint registration via the portal.

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5. Science and Technology

1) With reference to the European Space Agency’s Moonlight Lunar Communications and Navigation Services
(LCNS), consider the following statements:
1. The Moonlight programme will deploy a constellation of around five satellites to provide high-speed
communication and navigation support on the Moon.
2. The initial services of Moonlight are expected to begin by the end of 2028, with full operational
capabilities anticipated by 2030.
3. The programme focuses primarily on the Moon’s equatorial regions, avoiding areas like the South
Pole due to extreme conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Solution: B

Statement 1 and 2 only is correct.

• The Moonlight programme involves launching a constellation of approximately five satellites to facilitate
communication and navigation services for future lunar missions.
• The programme will begin initial services by 2028, with the full system expected to be operational by 2030,
providing critical support for lunar exploration.
• The Moonlight programme focuses on the Moon’s South Pole, an area of interest due to unique lighting
conditions and the potential presence of water ice, rather than avoiding it. So, statement 3 is incorrect here.

2) Consider the following statements about the significance and benefits of ISRO’s analog space mission:
1. The mission will exclusively benefit space missions to the International Space Station (ISS).
2. It is designed to simulate extraterrestrial habitat conditions for future interplanetary missions.
3. The mission involves testing life-support systems and behavior in isolated conditions.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

The analog space mission is designed to simulate extraterrestrial habitat conditions that would be encountered in
future interplanetary missions, such as on Mars or the Moon. It includes testing life -support systems, habitat
feasibility, and behavior in isolated environments to prepare astronauts for future deep-space missions.
Statement 1 is incorrect as the mission is not focused on the ISS but rather on long-term extraterrestrial habitat
feasibility, which is beyond the scope of the ISS.

3) Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) in the
Universal Immunization Programme (UIP)?
a) To act as a booster dose, enhancing immunity when administered with DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, and
Tetanus) vaccine
b) To serve as a primary vaccine given only to infants at birth
c) To provide lifelong immunity from the first dose itself
d) To replace Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) in polio-endemic countries

Solution: a)

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The Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) is used as a booster to strengthen immunity against polio. It is typically
administered in combination with the DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus) vaccine as part of the Universal
Immunization Programme (UIP) in India.

IPV requires multiple doses to establish immunity, and it is not the primary or standalone dose for infants at birth .
IPV is not intended to replace OPV; both vaccines are used complementarily.

4) Which of the following best describes vaccine-derived poliovirus (VDPV)?

a) A type of polio virus that only causes mild symptoms and cannot lead to outbreaks
b) A mutated form of the weakened virus from the oral polio vaccine (OPV), which can cause outbreaks in
under-immunized areas
c) A strain that originates from wild poliovirus in poorly sanitized areas
d) A newly discovered strain of poliovirus resistant to all current vaccines

Solution: b)

Vaccine-derived poliovirus (VDPV) arises when the weakened virus in the OPV mutates back to a form capable
of causing illness and potentially leading to outbreaks. This reversion is more likely in communities with low
immunization coverage, where the virus can circulate and regain strength.

5) Consider the following statements about polio virus transmission and eradication efforts:
1. The polio virus primarily spreads through respiratory droplets.
2. In India, multiple rounds of oral polio vaccine (OPV) immunization are conducted to prevent Circulating
Vaccine-derived Poliovirus (cVDPV) transmission.
3. India was declared polio-free by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2011.
4. High-quality immunization campaigns have no impact on Circulating Vaccine-derived Poliovirus (cVDPV)
transmission rates.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 2 and 4 only

Solution: a)

Statement 2 is correct; India has implemented multiple rounds of Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) immunization to
prevent cVDPV transmission, especially in areas with low coverage.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the polio virus primarily spreads through the fecal-oral route, not respiratory
droplets.

Statement 3 is incorrect as India was declared polio-free by WHO in 2014, with the last wild polio case reported in
2011.

Statement 4 is also incorrect since high-quality immunization campaigns are critical in reducing and eventually
stopping cVDPV transmission.

6) What is the primary purpose of the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) on the ADITYA -L1 mission?
a) To observe the solar corona and investigate Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs)
b) To study the interior structure of the Sun
c) To measure the solar magnetic field at the Sun's core
d) To monitor the Sun's photospheric temperature variations

Solution: a)

The Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) on ADITYA-L1 is specifically designed to observe the solar corona
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and study Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) and the solar wind. The VELC's advanced instrumentation, including a
coronagraph, spectrograph, and polarimetry module, allows for detailed imaging and analysis of the solar corona.
This data is critical for understanding the dynamics of CMEs, which can have significant effe cts on space weather
and can impact satellite and communication systems on Earth. The VELC's capabilities are particularly important
for continuous monitoring during the peak of Solar Cycle 25, aiding in predictive modeling of solar activities.

7) Consider the following statements about the Proba-3 satellite's mission details:
1. Proba-3 will primarily focus on exploring the deep space regions beyond our solar system.
2. The mission involves a single satellite designed to collect solar data.
3. The Proba-3 mission marks the first collaboration between ISRO and the European Union.
4. Proba-3 will launch from a European spaceport.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) None of the above

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect because Proba-3 focuses on the Sun’s corona, not deep space exploration.

Statement 2 is incorrect because Proba-3 is a two-satellite mission designed to conduct precise solar
observations, using formation flying to create a coronagraph effect.

Statement 3 is incorrect, as ISRO and the European Union have collaborated on previous Proba missions.

Statement 4 is incorrect because Proba-3 is scheduled to launch from Sriharikota, India, not a European
spaceport.

8) Which of the following statements about the Iranian satellite Kowsar is incorrect?
a) Kowsar was launched as part of Iran’s national space expansion for military applications.
b) Kowsar supports environmental monitoring and agricultural activities.
c) Kowsar was developed for Earth observation.
d) Kowsar was launched from the Vostochny Cosmodrome on a Russian Soyuz rocket.

Solution: a)

Kowsar was developed for Earth observation with a focus on environmental monitoring and agriculture, falling
under civilian applications rather than military. It was launched from the Vostochny Cosmodrome on a Russian
Soyuz rocket, contributing to Iran’s peaceful space expansion initiatives.

9) Consider the following statements regarding the working principles of Gravity Energy Storage:
1. Gravity Energy Storage primarily stores energy by converting electrical energy into thermal energy.
2. This technology relies solely on batteries for energy storage and release.
3. The technology is ideal for urban areas with limited space as it requires only minimal infrastructure.
4. It is currently in the early stages of development, facing high initial setup costs and regulatory
challenges.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: a)

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Only statement 4 is correct.

Gravity Energy Storage works by lifting a heavy mass during periods of excess energy generation, creating
potential energy. When energy demand rises, the mass is lowered, converting potential energy back into
electrical energy via a turbine.

Statement 1 is incorrect as the technology does not store energy as thermal energy.

Statement 2 is incorrect as it does not rely on batteries for storage or release.

Statement 3 is incorrect as this technology requires substantial infrastructure, making it less suitable for densely
populated urban areas.

Statement 4 is correct. Gravity Energy Storage is cost-effective for grid-scale applications because of its low
maintenance and long lifespan, but it is still in early development and has high setup costs.

About Gravity Energy Storage:

What it is: A renewable energy storage technology that uses gravitational force to store and release energy,
especially suitable for grid-scale applications.

How It works:
During excess energy generation, a heavy mass (water, concrete, or compressed earth blocks) is lifted, converting
electrical energy into stored potential energy.
When energy demand rises, the mass is released, descending to drive water through a turbine, generating
electricity.

Advantages:
Longevity: Lasts for decades with minimal maintenance compared to battery systems.
Environmentally friendly: No harmful chemicals; reduces disposal and environmental impact.
Cost-effective: Offers lower lifetime energy and storage costs for large-scale applications.
Flexible deployment: Can be used in areas unsuitable for pumped-hydro or large battery systems, such as urban
or constrained environments.

Limitations:
Early Development Stage: High initial setup costs and regulatory challenges.
Geographic limitations: Requires suitable locations for large infrastructure.
Limited energy density: While effective for grid storage, less efficient for compact or smaller-scale applications
compared to batteries.

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10) Consider the following statements regarding allulose:

1. Allulose is 100% as sweet as regular sugar, making it a perfect substitute for sugar in the same
quantities.
2. Allulose can aid in weight management due to its nearly zero-calorie content.
3. It is classified as a "novel food" in the European Union, meaning its approval status is still pending.
4. Allulose is widely approved and recognized as safe for consumption without any reported side effects.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: b)

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Allulose is beneficial for weight management due to its low -calorie content, and it
is classified as a "novel food" in the EU, meaning its regulatory approval is still limited in certain regions.

Statement 1 is incorrect as allulose is only 70% as sweet as regular sugar.

Statement 4 is incorrect as high consumption of allulose can lead to gastrointestinal issues.

11) Consider the following statements regarding the applications of Python with Processing-In-Memory (PIM)
technology:
1. It is used exclusively for memory-intensive graphical applications.
2. Python with PIM can reduce data transfer bottlenecks, especially in mathematical computations.
3. This technology offers substantial energy savings for high-performance computing needs.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: c)

Python with PIM is effective in reducing data transfer bottlenecks, particularly in computational tasks, and offers

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energy savings in high-performance applications. Statement 1 is incorrect as it is not limited to graphical
applications but can benefit various computational fields.

About Python Programming Language with Digital Processing-In-Memory (PIM) Technology:

• What it is: Combines Python with processing-in-memory (PIM) technology, enabling computations to take
place directly in memory, bypassing the CPU.
• Need: Tackles the “memory wall” problem, where data transfer rates fall behind advancements in
processor speeds and memory capacity.
• How it works:
o PyPIM platform introduces new instructions for in-memory operations.
o Allows developers to use Python to create software for PIM systems.
o Includes a simulation tool to estimate performance gains from in-memory processing.
• Significance:
o Reduces data transfer bottlenecks.
o Accelerates processing for mathematical and algorithmic tasks.
o Saves energy, making it efficient for high-performance computing needs.

12) Which of the following principles allows airships to achieve lift?

a) Lighter-than-air principle using gases like helium or hydrogen
b) Thrust-based propulsion like jet engines
c) Magnetic levitation similar to Maglev trains
d) Vacuum-filled compartments to reduce weight

Solution: a)

Airships operate on the lighter-than-air principle, where gases such as helium or hydrogen, which are less dense
than atmospheric air, provide lift. Unlike jet engines or Maglev trains (options b and c), airships use buoyancy
instead of thrust or magnetism.

About Airships:
• Origin and History:
o Developed as the first aircraft capable of powered, controlled flight in the early 20th century.
o Initially seen as the future of travel until airplanes took precedence; notable incidents like
the Hindenburg disaster (1937) further diminished public trust in airships.
• How they work:
o Operate on the “lighter-than-air” principle, utilizing gases like helium (non-combustible) or,
earlier, hydrogen (flammable) for lift.
o Lift occurs as the gas inside the airship is less dense than atmospheric air.
• Buoyancy challenge:
o Variations in buoyancy needed for cargo handling complicate airship operations; previously,
releasing and refilling helium was unfeasible due to cost.
o Innovative solutions involve water ballast or compressed gas systems to adjust buoyancy without
excessive helium usage.

13) Which of the following best represents the significance of Zhurong’s discovery of an ancient ocean on Mars?
a) It conclusively proves that Mars once supported microbial life.
b) It indicates that Mars had a stable atmosphere similar to Earth’s.
c) It strengthens the theory of Mars' transition from a warm, wet planet to a cold, dry one.
d) It suggests that liquid water still exists on the surface of Mars.

Solution: c)

The discovery of geological features suggesting a past ocean on Mars adds weight to the theory that Mars
underwent significant climate changes. Evidence points to a shift from a warm, wet environment capable of
supporting water bodies to the current cold and arid conditions.
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Option (a) is incorrect because finding water-related geological features alone does not prove the existence of
past life; additional biosignatures are required.

Option (b) is also incorrect, as there is no indication that Mars’ atmosphere was similar to Earth’s.

Option (d) is incorrect because while there may be subsurface water, there is no evidence of stable liquid water
on Mars' surface today.

14) Consider the following statements about seaplanes and their characteristics:
1. All Seaplanes are capable of operating on both water and land, making them highly versatile for
regional connectivity.
2. Floatplanes are designed to operate on both fresh and salt water due to their specialized hull structure.
3. Flying boats are primarily used for cargo transport in regional water-based operations.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect because not all seaplanes are designed to operate on both water and land. While
amphibious planes can operate on both, floatplanes and flying boats (specific types of seaplanes) are designed
exclusively for water operations.

Statement 2 is incorrect because floatplanes, unlike flying boats, do not have specialized hull structures but
instead use pontoons (floats) attached beneath the fuselage. This design allows them to land on water, but they
require extra precautions or modifications for use in saltwater due to corrosion risks.

Statement 3 is also inaccurate as flying boats are generally used for passenger transport, tourism, and specialized
operations rather than routine cargo transport in regional water operations.

15) Consider the following statements about China’s Zhurong rover:

1. Zhurong is part of the Tianwen-1 mission, aimed at conducting geological and atmospheric analysis on
Mars.
2. The primary landing site for Zhurong is Gale Crater in Mars’ southern hemisphere.
3. The rover is equipped to analyze potential signs of life through chemical analysis of Martian soil.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct. Zhurong, as part of the Tianwen-1 mission, was designed to study both the Martian
surface and atmosphere to provide insights into Mars’ geological history and environmental changes.

Statement 3 is also accurate, as Zhurong is equipped with scientific instruments capable of analyzing the chemical
composition of Martian soil, including the detection of potential biosignatures.

Statement 2 is incorrect; Zhurong’s primary landing site is Utopia Planitia, located in Mars’ northern hemisphere,
not Gale Crater. Utopia Planitia has geological formations that suggest ancient water activity, supporting the
study of Mars’ past habitability.
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16) What unique contribution did Satyendra Nath Bose make to quantum mechanics?
a) Development of the Schrödinger equation
b) Discovery of the neutron
c) Formulation of Bose-Einstein Statistics
d) Introduction of the uncertainty principle

Solution: c)

Satyendra Nath Bose developed the Bose-Einstein Statistics by treating light as a photon gas and creating a new
method for counting photon states, which Albert Einstein later extended to atoms. This work laid the foundation
for quantum statistics, distinct from options (a), (b), and (d), which were contributions by other physicists.

His Work:
• Planck’s Law and Photon Gas:
o Derived Planck’s law using a novel statistical method treating light as a photon gas.
o Developed new techniques for counting photon states, forming the basis of Bose-Einstein
statistics.
• Collaboration with Einstein:
o Sent his paper on radiation to Albert Einstein, who translated it into German and published it.
o Einstein extended Bose’s work to atoms, leading to the theory of Bose-Einstein condensates and
the ideal quantum gas.
• Bosons:
o Bose-Einstein statistics apply to particles with integer spins, named bosons (by Paul Dirac) in his
honor.
o Bosons do not obey the Pauli Exclusion Principle.
• Bose-Einstein Condensates (BECs):
o Predicted a new state of matter where bosons condense into the lowest quantum state at near
absolute zero temperatures.
o Experimentally confirmed in 1995 using rubidium and sodium atoms, earning a Nobel Prize
for Eric Cornell, Carl Wieman, and Wolfgang Ketterle in 2001.

17) Consider the following statements about the objectives of "One Day One Genome":
1. The initiative aims to map the human genome in collaboration with international agencies.
2. It is designed to support advancements in artificial intelligence and robotics.
3. The initiative focuses on sequencing viral genomes to combat emerging infectious diseases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) None

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The initiative does not focus on mapping the human genome; its primary goal is
to sequence bacterial genomes for research in microbial diversity.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It is not aimed at advancements in artificial intelligence or robotics but at
environmental, agricultural, and health-related research.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The initiative focuses on bacterial genomes, not viral genomes.

About One Day One Genome Initiative:

• Ministry: Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
• Launch: November 9, 2024, by Shri Amitabh Kant at the National Institute of Immunology, New Delhi.
• Aim: To highlight India’s microbial diversity and showcase its importance in environment, agriculture, and
human health.
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• Coordinating Agency: Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council (BRIC) in collaboration with the
National Institute of Biomedical Genomics (NIBMG).
• Features:
o Sequencing one bacterial genome daily to uncover microbial potential.
o Provides freely accessible, annotated bacterial genome data.
o Includes graphical summaries, infographics, and genome assembly/annotation details.
o Supports research in environment management, agricultural development, and human health
improvement.
o Promotes public and scientific engagement to stimulate innovation and community benefits.

18) Consider the following statements about the AI Data Bank’s applications:
1. It is exclusively designed for governance and public administration.
2. It aims to replace all manual disaster management techniques with AI.
3. It was launched during the NITI Aayog AI Leadership Meet 2024.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: d)

About India’s First Artificial Intelligence (AI) Data Bank:

• Launched By: Minister of Science and Technology.
• Event: Unveiled during the ASSOCHAM AI Leadership Meet 2024.
Purpose:
• To provide high-quality, diverse datasets for researchers, startups, and developers.
• To enable scalable and inclusive AI solutions.
• To enhance national security through real-time analytics of satellite, drone, and IoT data.

Applications:
• National Security: Strengthens real-time surveillance and cyber defense.
• Disaster Management: Facilitates predictive analytics for risk mitigation.
• Public Service Delivery: Optimizes governance and citizen services.
• Sectoral Impact: Governance, healthcare, business, education, and space exploration.
• Ethical Use: Frameworks to address algorithmic bias, data privacy, and equitable access.
• Vision: To ensure AI bridges societal divides, empowers citizens, and drives economic growth.

19) Which of the following statements about the centrifugal process for uranium enrichment is correct?
a) It enriches uranium by using high temperatures to separate isotopes.
b) The process increases the concentration of the isotope U-238.
c) Highly enriched uranium (HEU) produced through this process is exclusively used for nuclear reactors.
d) The process involves spinning uranium gas at high speeds to increase U -235 concentration.

Solution: d)

About Centrifugal Process:

• Definition: Centrifuges spin uranium gas at high speeds to enrich uranium by increasing the
concentration of the fissile isotope U-235.
• Uses: Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is used for nuclear reactors, while highly enriched uranium (HEU) can
be used for nuclear weapons.
• Efficiency: Advanced centrifuges enrich uranium faster and require fewer machines compared to older
designs.

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• Origins: Iran’s centrifuge program began in the 1980s using designs and components acquired from A.Q.
Khan’s proliferation network.
• International Concerns: The process raises fears of nuclear weapons development due to its dual-use
nature.

20) Consider the following statements regarding uranium enrichment:

1. Natural uranium contains a higher percentage of U-235 than U-238.
2. Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is enriched to 3-5% U-235 concentration, suitable for nuclear reactors.
3. The process of uranium enrichment produces plutonium-239 as a byproduct.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Natural uranium contains 0.7% U-235 and 99.3% U-238, making statement 1 incorrect.
Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is enriched to 3-5% U-235 for use in nuclear reactors, making statement 2 correct.
Uranium enrichment does not produce plutonium-239; plutonium is produced in reactors through neutron
absorption in U-238, making statement 3 incorrect.

21) What is the primary cause of High-Altitude Sickness?

a) Increased atmospheric pressure at higher altitudes
b) Excessive hydration at high altitudes
c) Reduced oxygen levels in the air at high elevations
d) Rapid cooling of body temperature due to high winds

Solution: c)

High-Altitude Sickness occurs due to reduced oxygen availability at elevations above 8,000 feet, leading to
hypoxia in body tissues. Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude, but excessive hydration or cooling is not
the primary cause of the condition.

What is High-Altitude Sickness?

• Definition: High-Altitude Sickness, also known as Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS), occurs when the body
struggles to acclimatize to low oxygen levels at elevations above 8,000 feet (2,400 meters).
• Types:
o HAPE: High-Altitude Pulmonary Edema (fluid in lungs).
o HACE: High-Altitude Cerebral Edema (fluid in brain).
• Symptoms: Headache, nausea, fatigue, shortness of breath, confusion, and, in severe cases, coma.

Why Does It Happen?

• Low Oxygen Levels: Reduced oxygen in the air leads to hypoxia in body tissues.
• Physiological Strain:
o Hyperventilation increases breathing rate.
o Thicker blood due to increased red blood cell production strains the heart.
• Rapid Ascent: Climbing too quickly without acclimatizing exacerbates risks.

22) Space junk can lead to which of the following impacts on the atmosphere?
a) Promotion of polar vortex intensification
b) Formation of polar ice caps
c) Accumulation of sulfur in the troposphere
d) Alteration of atmospheric chemistry

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Solution: d)

Space junk releases metals and pollutants like aluminum, copper, and soot, altering atmospheric chemistry and
promoting cloud formation.

23) Consider the following statements about gamma rays:

1. Gamma rays can penetrate Earth’s atmosphere and reach the surface without being blocked.
2. Gamma rays are visible to the naked eye as faint blue light.
3. Gamma rays are produced only during nuclear reactions within stars.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect because gamma rays are blocked by Earth’s atmosphere; they can only be detected
indirectly using instruments like Imaging Atmospheric Cherenkov Telescopes (IACTs).
Statement 2 is incorrect because gamma rays themselves are not visible; Cherenkov radiation, caused by gamma
rays interacting with atmospheric molecules, produces faint blue light, but gamma rays themselves remain
invisible.
Statement 3 is incorrect because gamma rays are produced by various phenomena, including pulsars, black
holes, and gamma-ray bursts, not just during nuclear reactions within stars.

24) Consider the following statements about the MACE (Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment) project:
1. It is the highest imaging Cherenkov telescope in the world, located in Hanle, Ladakh.
2. The MACE telescope is designed to detect low-energy gamma rays.
3. The MACE project is entirely dependent on international collaborations for technical support.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

About the MACE project:

• Location: Hanle, Ladakh, at an altitude of ~4,300 m, making it the highest imaging Cherenkov telescope
in the world.
• Development: Indigenously built by Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) with support from ECIL and
other Indian partners.
• Objective: To study high-energy gamma rays and contribute to the understanding of the universe’s most
energetic phenomena, such as supernovae, black holes, and gamma-ray bursts.
• Technology: Uses Cherenkov imaging technology to detect cosmic rays and observe high-energy
astrophysical events.
• Significance: Enhances India’s cosmic-ray research capabilities and strengthens its position in multi-
messenger astronomy on a global scale.

25) Which Indian satellite series is used to track stubble burning with varying spatial resolutions?
a) INSAT-3DR
b) CARTOSAT

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c) RESOURCESAT Series
d) Megha-Tropiques

Solution: c)

The RESOURCESAT Series, with sensors like LISS-3, LISS-4, and AWiFS, detects fires with different spatial
resolutions. INSAT-3DR also tracks fires but has a coarser resolution, reducing its accuracy. CARTOSAT and
Megha-Tropiques are not designed for fire detection.

26) Consider the following statements regarding space junk and its impact on Earth’s atmosphere:
1. It predominantly consists of natural space materials like asteroids and meteoroids.
2. Burning space debris releases nitrogen oxides, aluminum, and black carbon into the stratosphere.
3. Soot particles from space junk absorption disrupt natural climate patterns by warming the atmosphere.
4. Pollutants from space debris can alter cloud formation and atmospheric chemistry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 2 and 4 only

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Space junk primarily consists of man-made objects like defunct satellites and rocket
parts, not natural materials.
Statement 2 is correct: Space debris releases pollutants like aluminum, nitrogen oxides, and black carbon.
Statement 3 is correct: Soot particles absorb solar energy, warming the atmosphere and disrupting climate
patterns.
Statement 4 is correct: Pollutants like copper promote cloud formation and alter atmospheric chemistry.

27) Which of the following is the primary source of antibiotic contamination in milk?
a) Antibiotic residues from treatments like mastitis control.
b) Improper storage of milk at collection centers.
c) Excessive use of preservatives during milk processing.
d) Contaminated water used for cleaning dairy equipment.

Solution: a)

The primary source of antibiotic contamination in milk is antibiotic residues from veterinary treatments,
especially those used for controlling mastitis in dairy animals. Mastitis is a common infection in lactating animals,
often treated with antibiotics. If the withdrawal period (time required for antibiotics to clear from the animal's
system) is not observed, residues can remain in the milk.

Other contributing factors include improper veterinary drug use and the mixing of milk from treated and
untreated animals during collection, increasing the likelihood of contamination.

28) Which of the following best describes the Sabal-20 Drone's operational environment?
a) It is optimized for urban surveillance in densely populated areas.
b) It is designed for high-altitude and rugged terrains.
c) It specializes in maritime applications and underwater operations.
d) It is used exclusively for recreational and civilian photography.

Solution: b)

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The Sabal-20 Drone's tandem rotor configuration and durability make it ideal for high-altitude, rugged terrains,
and extreme conditions. It supports critical supply delivery in inaccessible areas, not urban, maritime, or
recreational environments.

About Sabal-20 Drone:

• Design: Electric unmanned aerial vehicle ( UAV) with variable pitch technology and large rotors, inspired
by Chinook helicopters.
• Payload: Capable of carrying up to 20 kg, about half its own weight.
• Technology: Features tandem rotor configuration for improved lift and stability in high-altitude and
rugged terrains.
Features of Sabal-20 Drone:
• VTOL (Vertical take-off and landing) Technology: Enables vertical take-off and landing, suitable for
confined and challenging environments.
• Stealth Operations: Low RPM design minimizes noise, ideal for sensitive missions.
• Long-Range and High-Altitude Capability: Supports delivery of critical supplies like ammunition, food, and
medical equipment in inaccessible areas.
• Durability: Designed for tough terrains and extreme operational demands.

29) Consider the following statements about the New Moiré Superconductor:
1. It is formed by twisting two layers of molybdenum disulfide at a small angle.
2. Its superconducting state is achieved at room temperature.
3. It exhibits superconductivity driven by weak electron-electron interactions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The New Moiré Superconductor is formed by twisting two layers of tungsten diselenide
(tWSe₂) at a small angle, creating flat energy bands essential for its superconducting properties. It does not
involve molybdenum disulfide (MoS₂).

Statement 2 is incorrect: Its superconducting state is achieved at –272.93º C, which is close to absolute zero, not
at room temperature. Room-temperature superconductivity remains a distant goal in physics.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The superconducting state in the New Moiré Superconductor is driven by strong
electron-electron interactions, which play a key role in enabling its unique electronic properties. Weak
interactions would not suffice to achieve this state.

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6. International Relations and Organisations

1) With reference to the Kanda Express, consider the following statements:
1. The Kanda Express is a special train service dedicated to transporting onions from Nashik to Delhi.
2. The recent shipment is part of the government's price stabilization strategy for onions.
3. The initiative aims to promote the export of onions to neighbouring countries to boost foreign
exchange earnings.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

• The Kanda Express is a freight train service transporting bulk quantities of onions from Nashik, a major onion -
producing region, to meet the demand in Delhi-NCR and other parts of India.
• The shipments are part of the government's efforts to stabilize onion prices by releasing buffer stocks into
the market.
• The initiative focuses on meeting domestic demand and stabilizing prices within India, not on promoting
exports to neighbouring countries.
Therefore, only 1 and 2 statements are correct.

2) With reference to BRICS and its membership, consider the following statements:
1. BRICS was founded in 2009 as a coalition of emerging economies to enhance their global economic
and political influence.
2. The headquarters of BRICS is located in Shanghai, China.
3. New members can join BRICS only if all current members agree to their inclusion during the annual
BRICS summit.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

• BRICS was founded in 2009 by Brazil, Russia, India, and China (South Africa joined in 2010) to strengthen
economic ties and increase their influence on global affairs. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. BRICS does not have a permanent headquarters. Instead, its activities are
coordinated through annual summits hosted by member nations. The New Development Bank (often
associated with BRICS) is headquartered in Shanghai, China. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
• For a new member to join BRICS, all current members must agree to their inclusion, typically proposed during
the annual BRICS summit. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, only two statements are correct.

3) Regarding the current geopolitical situation on the Korean Peninsula, consider the following statements:
1. North Korea has declared South Korea as its “primary foe” and has ended any prospects for
reunification in 2024.
2. The Korean War officially ended in 1953 with a peace treaty, establishing the Demilitarized Zone
(DMZ) between North and South Korea.
3. North Korea has withdrawn from the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and has conducted multiple
nuclear weapons tests.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Solution: A.

Statement 2 is incorrect.
• In 2024, North Korea declared South Korea as its primary foe, signaling an end to reunification efforts.
• The Korean War ended in 1953 with an armistice, not a peace treaty. The DMZ was established, but the war
has technically never ended.
• North Korea withdrew from the NPT in 2003 and has since developed and tested nuclear weapons, defying
international sanctions.

4) Which of the following best describes the primary role of the Dzaleka Refugee Camp?
a) To serve as a temporary shelter exclusively for Malawian nationals
b) To focus solely on resettlement and relocation efforts for refugees
c) To provide a platform for humanitarian efforts, cultural exchange, and empowerment of refugees
d) To exclusively house refugees from the Middle East

Solution: c)

The Dzaleka Refugee Camp, established in 1994, has evolved beyond a shelter for displaced individuals. It
serves as a hub for humanitarian assistance, cultural exchange, and initiatives aimed at empowering residents
from various African nations, including the DRC, Rwanda, and Burundi.

Option a) is incorrect as the camp is intended for refugees from various African nations, not exclusively for
Malawians.

Option b) is incorrect because, while resettlement may occur, the camp’s role extends to broader humanitarian
and empowerment efforts.

Option d) is incorrect as the camp primarily hosts refugees from African countries rather than the Middle East.

5) Consider the following statements about the International Solar Alliance (ISA):
1. ISA was founded in 2015 and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
2. ISA is focused exclusively on promoting solar energy in developing countries.
3. ISA collaborates only with public sector entities to implement solar projects.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect because ISA is headquartered in India, making it the first intergovernmental organization
headquartered in the country, not Geneva.

Statement 2 is incorrect because ISA’s mission is inclusive, aiming to promote solar energy in both developed
and developing nations, with special emphasis on Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and Small Island
Developing States (SIDS).

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Statement 3 is incorrect because ISA partners with both public and private sectors, along with development
banks and civil society, to effectively mobilize resources for global solar initiatives.

6) Consider the following statements about the Asian Buddhist Summit 2024:
1. The summit will be organized by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India.
2. The theme of the summit is “Buddhism for Global Peace.”
3. The Asian Buddhist Summit was first initiated by the United Nations to promote interfaith harmony.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect because the summit is organized by the Ministry of Culture, not the Ministry of Tourism.

Statement 2 is incorrect as the theme of the 2024 summit is “Role of Buddha Dhamma in Strengthening Asia,” not
“Buddhism for Global Peace.”

Statement 3 is incorrect because the summit was initiated by the Government of India and the International
Buddhist Confederation (IBC), not the United Nations.

7) Which of the following best describes one of the main objectives of CARICOM (Caribbean Community and
Common Market)?
a) Establishing a common currency for Caribbean nations
b) Coordinating foreign policy among member states
c) Facilitating complete immigration among member countries
d) Maintaining a standing military for regional security

Solution: b)

One of CARICOM's primary objectives is to coordinate foreign policy among its member states to present a
unified stance on international issues. This goal is especially important for small Caribbean nations to amplify
their collective voice in global forums.

Option (a) is incorrect because CARICOM does not primarily aim to establish a common currency.

Option (c) is not correct, as free movement of people is limited to specific categories such as skilled labor under
the CARICOM Single Market and Economy (CSME) arrangement.

Option (d) is also incorrect, as CARICOM does not maintain a military; its focus remains on economic and political
cooperation rather than defense.

8) Consider the following statements about CARICOM’s (Caribbean Community and Common Market) economic
initiatives:
1. CARICOM promotes trade among member states through the CARICOM Single Market and Economy
(CSME).
2. CARICOM has achieved complete economic integration, including a customs union among all member
states.
3. CARICOM’s economic initiatives do not include any collaboration with non-member states.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
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d) None

Solution: a)

Only statement 1 is correct.

CARICOM’s economic initiatives include the CARICOM Single Market and Economy (CSME), which aims to
promote trade and economic integration among member states by allowing the free movement of goods,
services, labor, and capital.

Statement 2 is incorrect because CARICOM has not achieved full economic integration; although CSME facilitates
trade, there is no comprehensive customs union or unified economic policy across all members.

Statement 3 is also incorrect, as CARICOM collaborates with non-member states and other regional organizations,
such as the Organisation of Eastern Caribbean States (OECS) and the Latin American and Caribbean regions, to
promote broader economic cooperation and regional development.

9) Which of the following best describes the primary mandate of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)?
a) To regulate international agricultural trade and impose tariffs
b) To monitor and promote global nutrition, agricultural productivity, and rural development
c) To directly fund agricultural projects in developing countries
d) To create and enforce global agricultural production quotas

Solution: b)

The FAO’s primary mandate is to improve global nutrition, enhance agricultural productivity, raise rural living
standards, and stimulate economic growth in agriculture. FAO achieves these goals by offering technical
assistance, conducting research, and facilitating coordination among its member countries.

Options (a), (c), and (d) misrepresent FAO’s role, as it does not regulate trade, directly fund projects, or enforce
production quotas but rather supports and advises governments on best practices and policy.

10) Consider the following statements about the functions and role of the Food and Agriculture Organisation
(FAO):
1. FAO is responsible for setting mandatory international standards for food production.
2. FAO publishes significant global reports on forests, fisheries, and agricultural markets.
3. FAO is partially funded by voluntary contributions from member countries.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Only statement 2 is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect as FAO does not have authority to set mandatory standards; it rather provides
guidelines and recommendations that countries can choose to adopt.

FAO publishes crucial reports that provide data and insights on global agricultural conditions, such as The State of
the World’s Forests, The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture, and The State of Agricultural Commodity
Markets.

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Statement 3 is incorrect because FAO is entirely funded by contributions from its members, which are assessed
and mandatory, not voluntary.

11) Consider the following statements about the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO):
1. WIPO is a specialized agency of the United Nations based in Geneva, Switzerland.
2. Its membership makes it nearly universal in its reach.
3. WIPO primarily functions as a dispute-resolution body for intellectual property issues between
countries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is indeed a specialized UN
agency headquartered in Geneva, and it has a near-universal membership of 193 countries.

However, statement 3 is incorrect; WIPO’s primary role is to foster international cooperation on intellectual
property, not to resolve disputes, although it does provide a platform for policy development and discussions on
IP issues.

12) Which of the following best describes the role of the World Meteorological Organization (WMO)?
a) It primarily focuses on monitoring and managing global greenhouse gas emissions.
b) WMO serves as a specialized UN agency for meteorology, climate, hydrology, and geophysical sciences.
c) WMO functions independently of the United Nations.
d) WMO exclusively provides weather data to developed nations.

Solution: b)

The WMO is a specialized agency of the United Nations focused on meteorology, climate, operational hydrology,
and related geophysical sciences. It evolved from the International Meteorological Organization, established in
1873, and became a specialized UN agency in 1950.

Options (a) and (d) are incorrect as WMO’s scope extends beyond greenhouse gases and weather data,
encompassing international cooperation in meteorology and climate science, and serving all member states.
Option (c) is incorrect as the WMO is affiliated with the UN.

13) Consider the following statements about 25th South Asian Telecommunication Regulators’ Council (SATRC -
25):
1. SATRC facilitates knowledge exchange through seminars, training, and workshops.
2. It is governed by the Ministry of Telecommunications of the host country.
3. It promotes regulatory cooperation among member countries.
4. SATRC functions under the direct supervision of the ITU.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. SATRC promotes knowledge exchange and regulatory cooperation among
members.
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Statement 2 is incorrect as it is governed by member regulatory bodies, not the host country’s ministry.
Statement 4 is also incorrect as SATRC operates under the Asia-Pacific Telecommunity (APT), not directly under
the ITU.

About South Asian Telecommunication Regulators’ Council:

• Formation: Established in 1997 by the Asia-Pacific Telecommunity (APT) in collaboration with the ITU
Regional Office for Asia and the Pacific.
• Member Countries: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Iran, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri
Lanka.
• Governance: Composed of Heads of regulatory bodies of member countries; affiliate members also
actively participate.
• 2024 Theme: “Accelerating Telecommunication and ICT Development for Growth and Inclusiveness”
• Core Functions:
o Discuss and coordinate telecommunication and ICT regulations of mutual interest.
o Address issues like radio frequency coordination, standards, regulatory trends, and
telecommunication strategies.
o Promote potential areas of cooperation among member countries.
o Facilitate knowledge exchange through seminars, training, and workshops.

14) Consider the following statements about the South China Sea Dispute:
1. The nine-dash line claimed by China has been validated by international arbitration.
2. The Paracel Islands are under joint administration by China, Vietnam, and Taiwan.
3. The Second Thomas Shoal is exclusively controlled by the Philippines without contestation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The nine-dash line claimed by China was rejected by the Permanent Court of Arbitration
(PCA) in 2016 in favor of the Philippines.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Paracel Islands are under Chinese control, but Vietnam and Taiwan also claim them;
they are not jointly administered.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Second Thomas Shoal is contested, particularly between the Philippines and China.

15) Consider the following statements about the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):
1. It was established as a specialized agency under the United Nations.
2. It oversees compliance with the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT).
3. It promotes nuclear energy applications for peaceful purposes globally.
4. Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Solution: c)

The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) was established in 1957 as an autonomous body under the
United Nations system, tasked with promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy while ensuring nuclear
materials are not diverted for military purposes. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
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Statement 2 is incorrect because the IAEA oversees compliance with the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of
Nuclear Weapons (NPT), not the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT), which is monitored by the
CTBTO.

Statement 3 is correct as the IAEA actively promotes the peaceful applications of nuclear energy, including in
medicine, agriculture, and energy production, benefiting countries worldwide.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the headquarters of the IAEA is located in Vienna, Austria, not Geneva,
Switzerland.

16) Which of the following countries launched the Student Direct Stream (SDS) visa program in 2018?
a) United States
b) United Kingdom
c) Australia
d) Canada

Solution: d)

The Student Direct Stream (SDS) visa program was launched by Canada in 2018 to provide expedited visa
processing for students from select countries, including India, focusing on streamlining education opportunities
abroad.

17) Consider the following statements regarding the World Anti-Doping Code:
1. It is legally binding for all member nations.
2. It applies to athletes, coaches, and sports administrators.
3. It includes provisions for sanctions against doping violations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The World Anti-Doping Code is not legally binding but is adopted voluntarily by
WADA signatories, including governments and sporting organizations.
• Statement 2 is correct. The Code applies to athletes, coaches, sports administrators, and other
participants in the sporting ecosystem.
• Statement 3 is correct. The Code outlines sanctions for doping violations, ensuring accountability.

18) Consider the following statements about United Nations Relief and Works Agency (UNRWA):
1. Its mandate is renewed every five years by the UN Security Council.
2. It provides microfinance support to Palestinian refugees.
3. UNRWA’s funding is entirely sourced from the UN’s regular budget.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The mandate of UNRWA is renewed by the UN General Assembly, not the
Security Council.
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• Statement 2 is correct. UNRWA provides microfinance support, alongside education, healthcare, and
emergency aid, to Palestinian refugees.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. UNRWA relies on voluntary contributions from UN Member States and receives
limited budgetary support for international staffing from the UN.

About United Nations Relief and Works Agency (UNRWA):

• Establishment: Created by the UN General Assembly in 1949.
• Objective: Provides relief, health, education, and social services to Palestinian refugees who lost homes
and livelihoods after the 1948 Palestine war.
• Headquarters: Initially based in Beirut, moved to Vienna (1978), and later to the Gaza Strip (1996)
following the Oslo Accords.
• Mandate: Continuously renewed by the UN General Assembly; currently extended until June 30, 2026.
• Services: Offers education, healthcare, social relief, infrastructure improvement, microfinance, and
emergency aid during conflicts.
• Operations: Active in Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, Gaza Strip, and West Bank (including East Jerusalem),
serving over 5 million Palestinian refugees and their descendants.
• Funding: Primarily relies on voluntary contributions from UN Member States and receives limited UN
budget support for international staffing.

19) Consider the following statements about the Hague Convention, 1954:
1. It applies exclusively during armed conflicts and not during peacetime.
2. India is not a signatory to the Hague Convention.
3. The Blue Shield emblem is used to identify cultural heritage sites for protection.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Hague Convention applies both during armed conflict and peacetime to
prepare for potential threats to cultural heritage.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. India is a signatory to the Hague Convention and supports its implementation.
• Statement 3 is correct. The Blue Shield emblem is used to mark cultural heritage sites for protection
during conflicts.

About Hague Convention, 1954:

• Background: Adopted under UNESCO after observing the large-scale destruction of cultural heritage
during armed conflicts.
• Objective: To safeguard cultural property such as monuments, archaeological sites, art, manuscripts, and
scientific collections.
• Scope: Applies during armed conflict as well as in peacetime to ensure preparation for potential threats.
• Symbol: Introduced the “Blue Shield” emblem for marking and identifying cultural heritage sites.
• India’s Role: India is a signatory to the convention and actively supports its implementation.

20) Which of the following is a key outcome of the Jeddah Commitments?

a) Elimination of antibiotics in food production
b) Promotion of regional trade in antimicrobials
c) Suspension of the Codex Alimentarius guidelines
d) Establishment of the One Health AMR Learning Hub

Solution: d)

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A significant outcome of the Jeddah Commitments was the establishment of the One Health AMR Learning Hub
for capacity building and knowledge sharing.

Building on the momentum from the United Nations General Assembly High-Level Meeting on AMR in September
2024, the Fourth Global High-Level Ministerial Conference on AMR was held in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.

About Jeddah Commitments:

• Host: Kingdom of Saudi Arabia.
• Theme: From Declaration to Implementation – Accelerating Actions Through Multisectoral Partnerships
for the Containment of AMR.
• Aim: Translate the UNGA Political Declaration on AMR into actionable global steps.

Outcomes:
• Adoption of Jeddah Commitments focusing on:
• Strengthening governance, stewardship, and surveillance.
• Establishing an Independent Panel for Evidence on Action Against AMR by 2025.
• Promoting data sharing via GLASS AMR/AMC, ANIMUSE, and INFARM platforms.
• Adherence to Codex Alimentarius guidelines for prudent antimicrobial use.
• Establishment of the One Health AMR Learning Hub for capacity building.
• Creation of a Regional Antimicrobial Access and Logistics Hub for sustainable procurement.
• Increased emphasis on investments in research, innovation, and manufacturing of antimicrobials and
diagnostics.
• Focus on affordable and equitable access to antimicrobials, diagnostics, and vaccines, especially for
LMICs.
Next Summit: To be hosted by Nigeria in 2026.

21) Consider the following statements regarding the Fourth Global High-Level Ministerial Conference on
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR):
1. The conference was hosted by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA).
2. Its outcomes included adherence to Codex Alimentarius guidelines for prudent antimicrobial use.
3. It proposed the creation of a Regional Antimicrobial Access and Logistics Hub for equitable distribution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: c)

Statement 1: Incorrect. The Fourth Global High-Level Ministerial Conference on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)
was hosted by Saudi Arabia in Jeddah, not the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA). This event aimed to
translate global commitments into actionable measures against AMR.

Statement 2: Correct. The conference outcomes included adherence to Codex Alimentarius guidelines, which
promote the prudent and responsible use of antimicrobials in agriculture and food systems, reducing the risk of
resistance.

Statement 3: Correct. A significant proposal from the conference was the establishment of a Regional
Antimicrobial Access and Logistics Hub, aimed at ensuring equitable access to essential antimicrobials and
facilitating sustainable procurement systems, especially for low- and middle-income countries (LMICs).

22) Consider the following statements about UNICEF:

1. It was established post-World War I to focus on children affected by conflicts.
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2. UNICEF operates in over 190 countries and territories.
3. It relies exclusively on government contributions for funding.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect as UNICEF was established post-World War II, not World War I.
Statement 2 is correct, highlighting its global presence in 190+ countries.
Statement 3 is incorrect because it relies on voluntary contributions, not just government funding.

About UNICEF:
• Established: 1946, post-World War II.
• Mandate: To protect the rights and futures of children worldwide, regardless of country.
• Presence: Active in 190+ countries and territories.
• Funding: Fully funded through voluntary contributions from individuals, governments, and private sector
partners.
• Awards: Nobel Peace Prize (1965), Indira Gandhi Prize (1989), Princess of Asturias Award (2006).
• Reports Published: The State of the World’s Children, among others.

23) Consider the following statements regarding UNICEF’s initiatives and achievements:
1. The Children’s Rights and Business Principles were developed in collaboration with the World Bank.
2. The “Data Must Speak” Initiative aims to improve access to quality education.
3. UNICEF’s headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect; the Children’s Rights and Business Principles were developed with Save the Children, not
the World Bank.
Statement 2 is correct, as the initiative focuses on improving education access.
Statement 3 is incorrect because UNICEF’s headquarters is in New York City.

24) Consider the following:

Statement-I: The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) can refer cases to the ICC even if the crimes
occurred outside the jurisdiction of the ICC.
Statement-II: The ICC is a judicial body under the United Nations and operates within its framework.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: c)

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Statement-I is correct. The UNSC can refer cases to the ICC under Chapter VII of the UN Charter, even if the
crimes occurred outside the ICC's jurisdiction.
Statement-II is incorrect. The ICC is not a UN body. It operates independently but cooperates with the UN under
agreements.

About International Criminal Court (ICC):

• Establishment: Created by the Rome Statute in 1998; began operations in 2003.
• Headquarters: Located in The Hague, Netherlands.
• Purpose: Prosecutes individuals for genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and crimes of
aggression.
• Membership: 123 countries recognize ICC authority; key non-members include the US, China, Russia, and
India.
• Structure:
o Judges: 18 judges elected for non-renewable nine-year terms.
o Presidency: Comprises a President and two Vice-Presidents.
o Registry: Manages administrative and operational support.
• Jurisdiction:
o Covers crimes committed in member states or by nationals of member states.
o Operates only when national courts are unable or unwilling to act.
o Jurisdiction applies only to crimes committed after July 1, 2002.
• Relationship with UN:
o Not a UN body but cooperates through agreements.
o The UN Security Council can refer cases to the ICC if outside its jurisdiction.

25) Consider the following statements about the Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty:
1. It was launched during the Brazil G20 Summit in 2024.
2. Membership includes countries, international organizations, financial institutions, and NGOs.
3. Operational funding is solely provided by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct. The Global Alliance was launched at the Brazil G20 Summit in 2024.
Statement 2 is correct. Membership includes 81 countries, 26 international organizations, 9 financial institutions,
and 31 NGOs.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Operational funding is shared by member countries and institutions like FAO, UNICEF,
and the World Bank, not FAO alone.

• The Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty aims to address the urgent global challenges of hunger and
poverty exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic, economic disparities, conflicts, and climate change.

About Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty:

• Launch: Introduced at Brazil G20 Summit 2024.
• Objective: Connect countries in need with partners offering technical expertise or financial support to
eradicate hunger and poverty.
• Membership: 81 countries (including India), 26 international organizations, 9 financial institutions, and 31
NGOs and philanthropic foundations.
• Function: Acts as a matchmaking platform for sharing proven policies, facilitating technical assistance, and
mobilizing financial aid.

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26) Consider the following statements regarding the International Cooperative Alliance (ICA):
1. It organizes global summits to address cooperative challenges.
2. Its mission includes promoting sustainable development.
3. Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a)

About International Cooperative Alliance :

• Origin: Established in 1895 during the 1st Cooperative Congress in London, England.
• History: One of the oldest NGOs, representing over 1 billion cooperative members globally across 105
countries.
• Aim: To unite cooperatives worldwide, promote sustainable development, and support member
organizations.
• Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.
• Summits: Regular global and regional summits foster collaboration and address cooperative challenges.

27) Which of the following is the primary vision behind the Gelephu Mindfulness City in Bhutan?
a) To promote harmony, sustainability, and the philosophy of Gross National Happiness.
b) To establish Bhutan’s largest industrial hub.
c) To create a city exclusively for economic activities and trade.
d) To attract international tourism for Bhutan’s cultural heritage.

Solution: a)

The Gelephu Mindfulness City embodies Bhutan’s philosophy of Gross National Happiness, prioritizing
sustainability, well-being, and harmony. It integrates eco-friendly development, renewable energy, and modern
urban planning with Bhutanese cultural values, making it a model for global sustainable living.

28) Consider the following statements regarding the Riyadh Design Law Treaty (DLT):
1. The treaty was adopted by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) member states.
2. It requires all industrial designs to be registered separately for each jurisdiction.
3. The treaty encourages electronic systems and the exchange of priority documents.
4. India has signed the treaty to enhance its global competitiveness in design protection.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is correct: The Riyadh Design Law Treaty (DLT) was adopted by the World Intellectual Property
Organization (WIPO) member states. It aims to harmonize procedural requirements for industrial design
registrations globally.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The treaty simplifies the registration process by allowing multiple designs to be filed in
a single application, rather than requiring separate registrations for each jurisdiction.

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Statement 3 is correct: The DLT promotes the use of electronic systems for efficient submission and processing of
applications and supports the exchange of priority documents to ease the procedural burden.

Statement 4 is correct: India signed the treaty to enhance its global competitiveness in design protection,
aligning with its policy emphasis on fostering innovation and strengthening intellectual property frameworks.

29) Consider the following statements regarding the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons
(OPCW):
1. The OPCW was established as part of the United Nations framework.
2. The OPCW's mission is limited to verifying the destruction of declared chemical weapons stockpiles.
3. The Hague Award is presented annually to OPCW member states for achieving chemical weapons
disarmament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) None

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The OPCW was established in 1997 as an independent international organization, not as
part of the United Nations framework. It serves as the implementing body of the Chemical Weapons Convention
(CWC).

Statement 2 is incorrect: The OPCW's mission is not limited to verifying the destruction of declared chemical
weapons stockpiles. Its mandate includes preventing the re -emergence of chemical weapons, providing
assistance and protection to member states, promoting international cooperation for peaceful uses of chemistry,
and ensuring compliance with the CWC.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Hague Award, established in 2014, recognizes individuals and organizations
advancing the goals of the CWC, not member states.

30) What is the primary aim of the International Pathogen Surveillance Network (IPSN)?
a) Strengthening diagnostic laboratories in high-income countries.
b) Supporting open-access pathogen repositories.
c) Improving public health decision-making through pathogen genomic surveillance.
d) Funding clinical trials for new vaccines.

Solution: c)

• The primary aim of IPSN is to improve public health decision-making through pathogen genomic
surveillance. It tracks the evolution, spread, and impact of pathogens, providing critical data to address
outbreaks and pandemics effectively.
• Genomic surveillance enables early detection of mutations in pathogens, helping governments and
organizations develop targeted responses to potential health crises.
• The IPSN focuses on capacity-building in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), ensuring equitable
access to genomic tools and fostering international collaboration.
• While the IPSN contributes to diagnostic enhancements and vaccine research indirectly, its core objective is
improving decision-making by analyzing pathogens' genetic data.

31) Consider the following statements about the International Pathogen Surveillance Network (IPSN):
1. The IPSN is hosted by WHO and funded solely by the UN Foundation.
2. It focuses on tracking pathogen evolution and ensuring equitable access to genomic tools.
3. The network is limited to addressing avian flu-related genomic surveillance.

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Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: While the IPSN was established by the World Health Organization (WHO) through its
Hub for Pandemic and Epidemic Intelligence, its funding is sourced from multiple organizations, including the
Gates Foundation, The Rockefeller Foundation, Wellcome, and the UN Foundation, ensuring a collaborative
approach.

Statement 2 is correct: The IPSN focuses on tracking pathogen evolution, spread, and impact to enhance public
health decision-making. It ensures equitable access to genomic tools, particularly in low- and middle-income
countries (LMICs), to strengthen global health systems.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The IPSN is not limited to addressing avian flu. Its scope includes genomic surveillance
for multiple pathogen priorities, such as avian flu, wastewater surveillance, and regional pathogen-specific
issues, supporting broad public health initiatives.

7. Polity
1) Regarding the "Mummy-Papa, Vote Do" campaign, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative by the Election Commission to increase voter turnout in Jharkhand.
2. The campaign involves children writing letters to their parents, urging them to vote.
3. It focuses exclusively on urban areas with traditionally low voter turnout.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct. The campaign was launched by the Election Commission in Jharkhand to encourage
higher voter participation in upcoming elections.
• Statement 2 is correct. It uniquely engages over 1.7 million schoolchildren to write letters to their parents,
motivating them to exercise their voting rights.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The campaign targets both rural and urban areas, aiming to boost voter turnout
across the state, not exclusively focusing on urban regions.
Therefore, only two statements are correct.

2) Consider the following statements regarding the tenure and functions of the Chief Justice of India (CJI):
1. The Chief Justice of India has the discretion to appoint any High Court judge as an ad hoc judge of the
Supreme Court to handle a backlog of cases.
2. The CJI is responsible for the allocation of cases and the composition of benches in the Supreme
Court.
3. Upon retirement, a former CJI cannot be appointed to any position under the government of India to
avoid conflicts of interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only

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B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the CJI does have administrative authority, the appointment of ad hoc judges
is not at the discretion of the CJI alone. It requires consultation and specific procedures outlined under Article
127 of the Constitution.
• Statement 2 is correct. The CJI plays a crucial role in the functioning of the Supreme Court, including the
allocation of cases and the constitution of benches, which impacts the court’s efficiency and the delivery of
justice.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no constitutional restriction on appointing a retired CJI to a government
position, although such appointments are scrutinized for potential conflicts of interest.

3) Consider the following statements about the Citizenship Act, 1955:

1. The Act does not allow for dual citizenship, maintaining India’s policy of single citizenship.
2. Citizenship can be obtained through birth, descent, registration, or naturalization, and there is a
special provision for those married to Indian citizens.
3. The Act provides for the revocation of citizenship if a person acquires citizenship of another country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Solution: D

All of the above statements are correct.

• The Citizenship Act, 1955, enshrines the principle of single citizenship, meaning Indian citizens cannot
hold dual nationality. This policy is intended to ensure allegiance to India.
• The Act allows citizenship to be acquired through birth, descent, registration, or naturalization. There is a
provision for registration for those married to Indian citizens, provided they meet certain residency and
legal requirements.
• The Act does provide for the revocation of Indian citizenship if a person voluntarily acquires the
citizenship of another country, maintaining the exclusivity of Indian nationality.

4) Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs):

1. EVMs are designed to handle voting for local body elections, state legislatures, and the Parliament.
2. They are manufactured by private firms under the supervision of the Election Commission.
3. EVMs have multilingual options to facilitate voting accessibility.
4. Each EVM can record up to 2,000 votes.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 2, and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Solution: c)

EVMs are used in all major elections, from local bodies to the national level. They support multilingual options to
make the voting process accessible to people from different linguistic backgrounds. Each EVM can handle up to
2,000 votes. However, statement 2 is incorrect because EVMs are manufactured by two Indian PSUs (Bharat
Electronics Limited (BEL) and Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL)), not private firms.

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5) With respect to the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) feature in EVMs, consider the following
statements:
1. VVPAT provides a printed slip with the name of the candidate the voter has selected.
2. The printed slip can be retained by the voter for future reference.
3. VVPAT is used as an audit mechanism to verify the electronic vote.
4. VVPAT was introduced to increase transparency and reduce doubts about EVM accuracy.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: c)

VVPAT provides a printed slip with the candidate’s name, visible to the voter for a few seconds before it drops
into a sealed compartment. It serves as an audit trail to cross-check the accuracy of the electronic vote, enhancing
transparency. Statement 2 is incorrect because the voter cannot retain the slip; it is stored for auditing purposes
by election officials.

6) Regarding the security and functionality of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs), consider the following
statements:
1. EVMs use encrypted memory to securely store vote data.
2. They rely on the internet for vote counting and transmission.
3. Backup power ensures that EVMs function in areas with no electricity supply.
4. EVMs are tamper-proof, and the recorded data cannot be altered.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 3, and 4 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Solution: a)

EVMs store vote data in encrypted memory, providing security and making it tamper-resistant. The backup power
feature ensures EVM functionality even in areas lacking electricity.
However, statement 2 is incorrect, as EVMs are standalone devices and do not connect to the internet, which
prevents unauthorized access and remote tampering.

7) What did the Supreme Court recently rule regarding the interpretation of "material resources of the
community" under Article 39(b) of the Indian Constitution?
a) All private property is automatically classified as material resources of the community.
b) Only publicly owned resources can be considered material resources of the community.
c) Not all private properties can be classified as material resources of the community.
d) The Directive Principles of State Policy mandate that all resources, public or private, be used for state
welfare.

Solution: c)

In its recent decision, the Supreme Court clarified that not all private properties fall under the classification of
"material resources of the community" as per Article 39(b). This judgment restricts the scope of state control
over privately owned assets, implying that only certain resources can be regarded as benefiting the common
good.

8) Consider the following statements regarding constitutional provisions for minority institutions in India:
1. Article 28 allows religious instruction in all educational institutions, including those funded by the state.
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2. Article 30(1) grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their
choice.
3. Minority institutions are exempt from all forms of government regulation to preserve autonomy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: c)

Article 30(1) of the Indian Constitution indeed grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational
institutions of their choice, safeguarding their cultural and educational rights.

Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 28 restricts religious instruction in state-funded institutions but permits
it in minority institutions not maintained by the state.

Statement 3 is also incorrect; minority institutions do enjoy a degree of autonomy, but they are still subject to
national standards for quality and other regulatory frameworks to ensure compliance with the country’s
educational standards.

9) Which of the following is NOT a criterion for an institution to qualify as a minority institution?
a) It must be established and administered primarily by a minority community.
b) It must have a primary purpose of benefiting the minority community.
c) It cannot receive any funding or contributions from the government.
d) It may have been established before the Constitution came into effect.

Solution: c)

Minority institutions are allowed to receive government funding or contributions from other communities
without losing their minority status.

Option (a) is a correct criterion, as the institution must be established and administered by a minority community.
Option (b) is also correct, as the institution’s purpose should primarily benefit the minority community. Option (d)
is valid as well; institutions established before the Constitution’s enactment are still eligible for minority status if
they meet other criteria.

10) Consider the following statements about the Indian Constitution Museum:
1. It features a 360-degree visual display on India’s Pre-Independence history.
2. The museum is exclusively maintained by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
3. It houses a photolithographic copy of the Constitution.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: The museum offers a 360-degree visual experience depicting India’s history and the
drafting of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The museum is maintained by OP Jindal Global University, not the Ministry of Culture.
Statement 3 is correct: It houses one of the original 1,000 photolithographic reproductions of the Constitution.

About Indian Constitution Museum:

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• Location: OP Jindal Global University, Sonipat, Haryana.
• Maintained by: OP Jindal Global University in collaboration with the Centre for Museums.

Features:
• Photolithographic constitution copy: A centerpiece featuring one of 1,000 original reproductions.
• 360-degree visual display: Chronicles pre-Independence India and significant events in drafting the
Constitution.
• Busts of Constituent Assembly Members: Nearly 300 sculptures honoring their contributions.
• Dr. BR Ambedkar section: Hologram and interactive displays featuring his philosophies, speeches, and
writings.
• Multimedia presentations: Interactive insights into the drafting and evolution of the Constitution.

8. History, Art and Culture

1) Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Tumaini Festival?
a) To promote local business and commerce through art and craft sales
b) To provide a competitive platform for regional musicians and artists
c) To organize sports events among African countries
d) To foster cultural exchange and highlight resilience, especially among refugees

Solution: d)

The Tumaini Festival, founded in 2014 by Congolese poet Menes La Plume, was established to create a platform
for cultural exchange. The festival’s primary aim is to showcase resilience and break stereotypes surrounding
refugees through music, art, and crafts.
It highlights shared human experiences and celebrates cultural diversity, especially among refugee communities.

Option a) is incorrect because commerce is not the primary purpose.

Option b) is also incorrect as the focus is not on competition but on cultural exchange.
Option d) misrepresents the nature of the festival.

2) During which period did Emperor Ashoka actively promote Buddha Dhamma across his empire?
a) 6th Century BCE
b) 3rd Century BCE
c) 1st Century BCE
d) 11th Century CE

Solution: b)

Emperor Ashoka’s reign, marked by his dedication to spreading Buddha Dhamma, occurred between 268-232
BCE, placing it in the 3rd century BCE. After converting to Buddhism, Ashoka sent emissaries (dhamma-dutas) to
promote Buddhist teachings within his empire and beyond, including to Sri Lanka, Myanmar, and other regions.
This period was significant for the expansion of Buddhism, establishing it as a major religious and philosophical
tradition in Asia.

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3) Consider the following statements about the Maha Kumbh Mela:

1. The Maha Kumbh Mela is held every 6 years in Prayagraj.
2. The event involves performing sacred rituals aimed at spiritual liberation.
3. The Maha Kumbh Mela only takes place at the Triveni Sangam in Prayagraj.
4. The event’s roots trace back to the Vedic period.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) None of the above

Solution: b)

Statement 2 is correct. The Maha Kumbh Mela involves performing sacred rituals with the goal of attaining
spiritual liberation.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Maha Kumbh Mela is held every 12 years, not every 6 years.

Statement 3 is incorrect as the Maha Kumbh Mela rotates among four locations — Prayagraj, Haridwar, Ujjain,
and Nashik.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the Maha Kumbh Mela is rooted in Hindu mythology with references dating back
to the Maurya and Gupta periods, not specifically the Vedic period.

4) Consider the following statements regarding the historical development of the Kumbh Mela:
1. The Kumbh Mela gained prominence solely during the Gupta period as Hinduism spread.
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2. The Chola dynasty in South India supported the Kumbh Mela, contributing to its growth.
3. British colonial documentation in the 19th century recorded the socio-religious significance of the
Kumbh Mela.
4. Emperor Akbar banned the participation of Hindu religious groups in Kumbh Mela events.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Solution: b)

The Chola dynasty in South India, along with other dynasties, supported the Kumbh Mela, thereby contributing to
its growth. British colonial records, such as those by James Prinsep, documented the socio -religious significance of
the event in the 19th century.

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Kumbh Mela’s origins trace back further, though the Gupta period did elevate its
prominence.

Statement 4 is incorrect because, rather than banning Hindu groups, Emperor Akbar allowed Hindu religious
groups like the Naga Sadhus to lead the royal procession.

5) Which of the following factors primarily triggered the rebellion among the sepoys stationed in Shahjahanpur
in 1857?
a) Rumors of excessive taxation
b) Economic grievances due to salary cuts
c) Discontent over forced religious conversions
d) The issue of greased cartridges and adulterated flour

Solution: d)

The rebellion among the sepoys of the 28th Indian Infantry in Shahjahanpur was significantly fueled by rumors
that the British supplied cartridges greased with cow and pig fat, which was offensive to both Hindu and
Muslim sentiments. Additionally, rumors about adulterated flour added to the distrust towards the British
administration.
These factors stirred a sense of violation of religious beliefs, leading to resentment that escalated into active
rebellion.
Unlike economic grievances or forced conversions, the issue of the greased cartridges sparked immediate
outrage, serving as a critical catalyst for the uprising in Shahjahanpur.

6) Consider the following statements regarding Shahjahanpur’s significance in the 1857 Rebellion:
1. The district was formed by the British administration before the rebellion.
2. Shahjahanpur served as a base for prominent freedom fighters, including Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah and
Nana Sahib.
3. The capture of the Roman Catholic Church in Shahjahanpur marked a symbolic end to British influence
in the area.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All three

Solution: a)

Shahjahanpur district was established by the British in 1813-14, just a few decades before the 1857 Rebellion,
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making it relatively new under British administration. It became a key site in the uprising, harboring
revolutionaries like Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah and Nana Sahib, who played significant roles in the fight against
British rule.

Statement 3 is incorrect; although sepoys attacked a European congregation at the Roman Catholic Church on
May 31, 1857, it was not the final event marking British withdrawal. Instead, it was a significant attack
symbolizing growing local resistance. British influence lingered until their forces suppressed the rebellion.

7) Consider the following statements about Maulana Abul Kalam Azad:

1. He was the youngest President of the Indian National Congress.
2. He was arrested during the Quit India Movement and detained in Yerwada jail.
3. He served as India’s first Minister of Education.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: c)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Maulana Azad became the youngest President of the Indian National Congress
in 1923. He later served as the first Education Minister of independent India (1947-58), where he emphasized
the importance of universal education.

Statement 2 is incorrect; he was arrested during the Salt Satyagraha and detained in Meerut jail, not during the
Quit India Movement.

8) Which of the following works is NOT a part of the Nehru Archive collection?
a) India Wins Freedom
b) Letters from a Father to His Daughter
c) Glimpses of World History
d) The Discovery of India

Solution: a)

The Nehru Archive includes works like "The Discovery of India," "Letters from a Father to His Daughter," and
"Glimpses of World History," all authored by Jawaharlal Nehru. "India Wins Freedom," however, is by Maulana
Abul Kalam Azad, not Nehru.

9) Consider the following statements about the Jawaharlal Nehru Memorial Fund (JNMF):
1. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan served as its chairperson.
2. The JNMF Archive includes many volumes of Nehru’s selected works and letters to Chief Ministers.
3. It is governed by trustees under the leadership of the Prime Minister of India.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The JNMF was founded in 1964, with Dr. S. Radhakrishnan as its chairperson, and
the archive contains extensive collections of Nehru’s works and letters. Statement 3 is incorrect because the
JNMF is currently headed by the Chairperson of the Congress Parliamentary Party, not the Prime Minister of India.

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About Jawaharlal Nehru Memorial Fund:
• Establishment:
o Founded in 1964 under a Deed of Declaration of Trust, following the convening of a National
Committee chaired by Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, then President of India.
• Purpose:
o Preserve and promote the legacy of Jawaharlal Nehru, focusing on his role in the making of
modern India.
• Governance:
o Governed by 14 trustees, currently headed by Chairperson of the Congress Parliamentary Party.
• Archive features:
o Contains 100 volumes of Nehru’s selected works, letters to Chief Ministers (1947-1964), books
authored by Nehru, and global archival materials.
o Includes his iconic works like The Discovery of India, Letters from a Father to His
Daughter, and Glimpses of World History.
• Significance:
o Aims to be the primary source for Nehru-related research, continually updated with new archival
material.

10) Consider the following statements regarding Janjatiya Gaurav Divas:

1. It was launched to honor the 100th birth anniversary of Birsa Munda.
2. The day celebrates the cultural heritage and history of tribal communities across India.
3. It commemorates tribal movements for independence and social justice.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Janjatiya Gaurav Divas was launched in 2021 to commemorate the 150th birth anniversary of Birsa Munda, a
revered tribal leader and freedom fighter. Thus, Statement 1 is incorrect.

The initiative celebrates the rich cultural heritage and history of tribal communities across India, emphasizing
their significant contributions to the nation's diversity and identity. This makes Statement 2 correct.

Additionally, the day recognizes the vital role played by tribal communities in India’s freedom struggle and social
justice movements, such as Birsa Munda's leadership in the Munda Rebellion against British land policies. This
focus on tribal movements for independence and justice makes Statement 3 correct.

11) Consider the following statements about the Māori haka:

1. It is exclusively a war dance performed only by men.
2. Haka is used solely during battles to intimidate opponents.
3. It involves vigorous movements, rhythmic chanting, and body-slapping.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The haka is performed by both men and women and is not limited to war dances.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The haka is performed for various social functions, including welcoming guests,
celebrations, and cultural ceremonies, apart from its use in battles.
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Statement 3 is correct: The haka involves vigorous movements, rhythmic chanting, and body -slapping to convey
emotion and unity.

About Māori Group:

• Origin: Indigenous Polynesian people of New Zealand (Aotearoa) who migrated from East Polynesia
between 1320-1350.
• Cultural Development: Over centuries in isolation, the Māori developed a distinctive culture, including
language, mythology, crafts, and performing arts.
• Treaty of Waitangi: Signed in 1840 with the British, it established coexistence but has been a source of
ongoing political and economic redress.
• Population: Māori are the second-largest ethnic group in New Zealand, following European New
Zealanders (Pākehā), with over 170,000 Māori living in Australia.

About Haka:
• Definition: A ceremonial dance in Māori culture expressing pride, strength, and unity.
• Origin: Traditionally an ancient war dance performed by both men and women.
• Purpose: Used for social functions, celebrations, welcoming guests, or as a war cry/challenge.
• Expression: Involves vigorous movements, rhythmic chanting, foot-stomping, and body-slapping.

12) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Megalithic culture in India?

a) Use of bronze tools for agriculture.
b) Rock shelters exclusively depicting daily life scenes.
c) Absence of iron tools and weapons.
d) Construction of large stone burial monuments.

Solution: d)

Megalithic culture is characterized by the construction of large stone monuments (megaliths), primarily used as
burial or commemorative structures. Iron tools and weapons were also prevalent, distinguishing this culture
from earlier ones like the Chalcolithic.

13) Consider the following statements about the Megalithic period in India:
1. It marks the first extensive use of iron for tools and weapons.
2. Rock art primarily depicted urban settlements and trade routes.
3. Megalithic cultures practiced agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct. The Megalithic period saw widespread use of iron for agriculture and warfare.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Rock art from this period predominantly depicted hunting scenes, cattle raids, and
group dances rather than urban settlements or trade routes.

Statement 3 is correct. Megalithic communities practiced agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry, as
evidenced by tools and rock paintings.

About Megaliths:
• Definition: Megaliths are monuments made of large stones, often serving as burial sites away from
settlements.
• Chronology:
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o Megalithic cultures in South India date from the 3rd B.C. to the 1st A.D. as per Brahmagiri
excavations.
• Geographical spread:
o Found in Deccan (south of Godavari), Punjab Plains, Indo-Gangetic basin, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and
Burzahom in Jammu and Kashmir.
• Iron usage:
o A hallmark of this period, with iron tools for agriculture and weapons discovered across sites like
Junapani (Vidarbha) and Adichanallur (Tamil Nadu).
• Cultural elements:
o Subsistence through agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry; rock paintings depict hunting
scenes, cattle raids, and group dances.

14) Consider the following statements about the Brihadeeswarar Temple:

1. The temple was constructed during the reign of Rajendra Chola I.
2. The temple murals are entirely original to the Chola period, with no additions by later rulers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The temple was built by Raja Raja Chola I, not Rajendra Chola I.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the temple features Chola murals, stucco figures and additional elements were
added later during the Maratha period.

15) Consider the following statements regarding Brihadeeswarar Temple’s architectural features:
1. The stupika on the vimana is square-shaped, reflecting early Chola design principles.
2. The temple lacks any gopuras (gateway towers) in its complex.
3. Its inscriptions primarily document myths and legends, with no references to historical events or
rituals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The stupika (dome) is octagonal, not square -shaped.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The temple has two large gopuras adorned with intricate sculptures.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The inscriptions detail historical events, rituals, gifts, and construction overseen by Raja
Raja Chola I.

About Brihadeeswarar Temple (Rajarajeswaram)

• Location: Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, part of the UNESCO “Great Living Chola Temples.”
• Era: Built in 1009 CE by Raja Raja Chola I, it is the largest and tallest Indian temple.

Design:
• Features a massive 70-meter pyramidal vimana with an octagonal dome-shaped stupika.
• Two large gopuras adorned with intricate sculptures.
• Sanctum houses a two-storey lingam of Lord Shiva.

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• Cultural Significance: Repository of Tamil inscriptions detailing rituals, gifts, and the temple’s construction
overseen by Raja Raja Chola himself.
• Artistry: Painted murals, sculptural narratives, and stucco figures (added later during the Maratha period).

Other Chola Temples:

• Gangaikonda Cholapuram (by Rajendra I).
• Airavatesvara Temple (by Rajaraja Chola II).

16) Kanhaiyalal Maneklal Munshi was associated with which of the following movements?
a) Quit India Movement
b) Civil Disobedience Movement
c) Non-Cooperation Movement
d) Swadeshi Movement

Solution: b)

Munshi actively participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930, 1932) and was jailed for his
involvement.

Kanhaiyalal Maneklal Munshi (Ghanshyam Vyas)

• Birth: Born on 30th December 1887, in Gujarat.
• Freedom Fighter:
o Active in Indian Home Rule Movement as Secretary in 1915.
o Participated in Civil Disobedience Movement (1930, 1932) and Individual Satyagraha (1940);
jailed twice.
• Political Roles:
o Elected to Bombay Legislative Assembly (1927, 1937); resigned during Bardoli Satyagraha.
o Served as Home Minister of Bombay Presidency, managing communal riots.
• Educational Contributions:
o Founded Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan in 1938, a renowned educational trust.
• Literary Achievements:
o Authored over 50 books in Gujarati and English, including Krishnavatara and Saga of Indian
Sculpture.
• Philosophical Influences:
o Influenced by Shri Aurobindo, aligning with revolutionary ideas initially.

17) Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1935:
1. It provided for the establishment of a federal government.
2. It introduced provincial autonomy.
3. It included provisions for an independent judiciary.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: The Act provided for a federal government structure, which aimed to distribute power
between the Centre and provinces. However, the federal provisions were never fully implemented due to
opposition from princely states.

Statement 2 is correct: It introduced provincial autonomy, allowing provinces to govern in certain areas without
interference from the central government. Governors retained discretionary powers, but elected provincial
legislatures were granted control over subjects listed in the Provincial List.
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Statement 3 is incorrect: The Act did not establish an independent judiciary. While it created a Federal Court
(precursor to the Supreme Court), the judiciary remained subject to British oversight, limiting its independence.

18) Consider the following statements about Lothal:

1. Lothal is the northernmost Indus Valley Civilization site.
2. It was known for its bead-making and maritime trade industries.
3. The dockyard at Lothal linked it to ancient trade routes.
4. Lothal is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 4 only
d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Lothal is the southernmost Indus Valley Civilization site.

Statement 2 is correct: Lothal was renowned for its bead-making industry and maritime trade links.
Statement 3 is correct: Its dockyard linked it to ancient trade routes, emphasizing its maritime importance.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Lothal is only on the tentative list for UNESCO World Heritage status.

About Lothal:
• Historical Significance: Southernmost Indus Valley Civilization site, built around 2200 BCE, known for its
advanced trade and bead-making industry.
• Unique Features: Home to the world’s earliest known dockyard, linking it to ancient trade routes.
• Discovery: Excavated between 1955-1960 by SR Rao; marine microfossils confirmed its dockyard purpose.
• Heritage Status: Nominated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2014; remains on the tentative list.
• Modern Development: The National Maritime Heritage Complex (Rs. 3,500 crore project) recreates
Harappan architecture and showcases India’s maritime legacy.

19) Consider the following statements regarding ISKCON:

1. ISKCON was founded in New York City.
2. It follows the Advaita Vedanta philosophy of Shankara.
3. The movement is involved in free food distribution and eco-village initiatives.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct: ISKCON was founded in 1966 in New York City by C. Bhaktivedanta Swami Prabhupada.
Statement 2 is incorrect: ISKCON follows Gaudiya Vaishnavism, not Advaita Vedanta.
Statement 3 is correct: ISKCON is actively involved in social initiatives like free food distribution, education, eco-
villages, and healthcare.

About ISKCON:
• Full form: International Society for Krishna Consciousness.
• Founder:C. Bhaktivedanta Swami Prabhupada.
• Founded In: New York City, USA.
• Year:
• Aim: To promote Krishna Consciousness and devotional service to Krishna as the Supreme Godhead.

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Features:
• Largest branch of Gaudiya Vaishnavism, rooted in 16th-century India.
• Emphasizes chanting the Hare Krishna Mahamantra.
• Engages in public bhakti practices like Sankirtan, yoga seminars, and festivals.
• Runs social initiatives, including free food distribution, schools, eco-villages, and hospitals.

9. States
1) Consider the following statements regarding the Moran community:
1. The Morans are indigenous to Assam and Arunachal Pradesh and belong to the Kachari family of
Tibeto-Burman origin.
2. They predominantly speak the Moran language, which is closely related to Assamese.
3. The Morans are seeking Scheduled Tribe (ST) status for enhanced educational and employment
opportunities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: c)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Morans are indigenous to Assam and Arunachal Pradesh and are part of the
Tibeto-Burman Kachari family. They are currently demanding Scheduled Tribe (ST) status for better access to
educational and employment opportunities.

Statement 2 is incorrect; while the Moran language is historically linked to the community, most members now
predominantly speak Assamese due to cultural assimilation.

10. Agriculture
1) Which ministry administers the Namo Drone Didi Scheme?
a) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare
b) Ministry of Rural Development
c) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
d) Ministry of Women and Child Development

Solution: a)

The scheme is administered by the Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare under the Ministry of
Agriculture, in collaboration with the Ministry of Rural Development. This joint administration aims to bridge rural
empowerment and agricultural enhancement, focusing on utilizing advanced drone technology to boost
productivity in agriculture while empowering women SHGs.

2) Which of the following best describes the primary reason Varagu (Kodo Millet) is considered beneficial?
a) It is highly water-intensive, making it ideal for monsoon-dependent regions.
b) It contains gluten, which supports gluten-tolerant diets.
c) It is rich in fiber and antioxidants, making it a healthy option, especially for economically weaker

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sections.
d) It has low nutritional value but high market demand due to its unique flavor.

Solution: c)

Varagu, or Kodo Millet, is appreciated for its high fiber content, antioxidant properties, and its role as a gluten-
free option, which is particularly beneficial for those with gluten intolerance and for economically weaker
sections that require affordable, nutritious options.

Option a) is incorrect as Varagu is drought-resistant and suited for dry areas, not water-intensive crops. Option b)
is incorrect since Varagu is gluten-free, which makes it suitable for gluten-sensitive individuals. Option d) is
incorrect as Kodo Millet has significant nutritional value, particularly due to its fiber and antioxidant content,
rather than low nutritional content.

3) Consider the following statements about Agrivoltaic farming:

1. Agrivoltaic farming requires panels to be installed very close to the ground to maximize energy output.
2. Shading from solar panels reduces water loss by decreasing evaporation from the soil.
3. Agrivoltaic farming is only possible in arid and semi-arid regions due to the need for high sunlight
exposure.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: c)

Statement 2 is correct. Shading from solar panels in agrivoltaic systems reduces evaporation, conserving soil
moisture and reducing water needs.

Statement 1 is incorrect as agrivoltaic systems require panels to be elevated 2-3 meters to allow for crop growth
underneath, not close to the ground.

Statement 3 is incorrect because agrivoltaics can be implemented in a variety of climates, not just arid regions.

About Agrivoltaic Farming:

• Definition: Agrivoltaic farming is the simultaneous use of land for agriculture and solar energy generation,
allowing crops to grow beneath solar panels.

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Agrivoltaic farming working:

• Elevated panels: Solar panels are raised 2-3 meters, providing space for crops to grow beneath with
adequate light and air.
• Angle and Spacing: Panels are angled and spaced to optimize sunlight for both solar energy and crop
growth.
• Shade and Protection: Panels offer shade, reducing heat stress and protecting crops from harsh weather.
• Water conservation: Shading lowers evaporation, conserving soil moisture and reducing water needs.
• Greenhouse integration: Panels on greenhouse roofs allow light/rain for crops while generating energy.
• Dual harvesting: Utilizes land for both solar power and agriculture, maximizing energy and food
production.

Significance of Agrivoltaic Farming:

• Enhanced Land Use: Maximizes land efficiency by combining agriculture and solar energy production on
the same land.
• Climate resilience: Provides shade to crops, reducing heat stress and water loss, and protecting from
extreme weather.
• Renewable energy generation: Contributes to solar power expansion, supporting climate goals and
energy needs.
• Increased food security: Supports sustainable food production for a growing population without needing
additional land.
• Economic benefits: Enables farmers to diversify income through both crop production and solar energy
revenue.

4) Consider the following statements about the economic benefits of agrivoltaic farming:
1. Agrivoltaic farming allows farmers to earn revenue from both agricultural produce and solar energy
generation.
2. It requires significant reductions in crop production to make space for solar panels, thus lowering
agricultural output.
3. Agrivoltaic systems often come with government incentives or subsidies, further supporting farmers’
incomes.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
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b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) All of the above

Solution: a)

Agrivoltaic farming enables farmers to diversify income by earning from both crop production and solar energy,
and government incentives often support agrivoltaic installations.

Statement 2 is incorrect because agrivoltaic farming is designed to balance crop and solar panel placement
without significant reductions in agricultural output.

5) Consider the following statements about the import and significance of Urad (black gram) in India:
1. Urad is a staple crop only grown in the Rabi season in India.
2. India imports a substantial amount of Urad from Brazil, among other countries, due to
complementary cropping seasons.
3. Urad cultivation has recently spread to tropical regions, including the Caribbean and parts of Africa.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect as Urad is grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons in India. Statements 2 and 3 are correct
because India imports Urad from countries like Brazil due to their complementary cropping seasons, and Urad
cultivation has indeed expanded to tropical regions beyond South Asia.

About Urad:
• Scientific name: Vigna mungo, commonly known as black gram.
• Origins: Native to South Asia; widely cultivated and highly valued in India.
• Culinary use: Essential in Indian cuisine, often used as a dal and paired with rice or curry.
• Season: Grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons in India.
• Global cultivation: Also grown in tropical regions like the Caribbean, Fiji, Myanmar, and Africa, introduced
by Indian immigrants.

6) Consider the following statements regarding the National Gopal Ratna Award:
1. The award recognizes excellence in both the dairy and poultry sectors.
2. It includes special categories for the North Eastern Region (NER).
3. It is conferred in three categories, including Best Dairy Farmer Rearing Indigenous Cattle.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The award focuses on the livestock and dairy sector, not the poultry sector.
Statement 2 is correct: Special categories for North Eastern Region States are introduced.
Statement 3 is correct: Best Dairy Farmer Rearing Indigenous Cattle is one of the categories.

About National Gopal Ratna Award 2024:

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• Department: Presented by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD), Ministry of
Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying.
• Origin: Initiated to promote and recognize excellence in the livestock and dairy sector.
• Aim: To encourage farmers, technicians, and cooperatives working in dairy and indigenous cattle rearing
to achieve excellence and boost development in the sector.

The Award is conferred in three categories, namely,

• Best Dairy Farmer Rearing Indigenous Cattle/buffalo Breeds,
• Best Artificial Insemination Technician (AIT) and
• Best Dairy Cooperative/ Milk Producer Company/ Dairy Farmer Producer Organization.

Special awards introduced for North Eastern Region (NER) States in all categories.

7) Consider the following statements regarding the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF):
1. It aims to promote chemical-free farming practices.
2. The mission involves establishing Bio-input Resource Centres (BRCs) across India.
3. Real-time geo-tagged monitoring of clusters is enabled through an online portal.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: d)

While NMNF focuses on natural farming and includes real-time geo-tagged monitoring via an online portal, it aims
to establish 10,000 Bio-input Resource Centres (BRCs). This distinction highlights the program’s emphasis on
facilitating inputs for natural farming but within a realistic framework of implementation.

About National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF):

• Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
• Central Sponsored Scheme.
• Aim: To promote natural, chemical-free farming practices for sustainability, climate resilience, soil
health rejuvenation, and nutritious food production.
Key Features:
• Implementation in 15,000 clusters across Gram Panchayats, covering 5 lakh Ha and reaching 1 crore
farmers.
• Establishment of 10,000 Bio-input Resource Centres (BRCs) and 2000 NF Model Demonstration Farms at
KVKs, Agricultural Universities, and farmers’ fields.
• Training of 75 lakh farmers and deployment of 30,000 Krishi Sakhis/CRPs for mobilisation and
handholding support.
• Certification system and common branding for marketing NF produce.
• Real-time geo-tagged monitoring via an online portal.

8) Which of the following states contributed the highest share to India’s milk production in 2023-24?
a) Rajasthan
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Madhya Pradesh

Solution: b)

Uttar Pradesh contributed 16.21% to India's total milk production in 2023-24, making it the top milk-producing
state. It was followed by Rajasthan (14.51%), Madhya Pradesh (8.91%), and Gujarat (7.65%).
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9) Consider the following statements about India’s dairy and livestock sector:
1. India accounts for nearly one-fourth of the global milk production.
2. India ranks first globally in both milk and egg production.
3. Per capita milk availability in India in 2022-23 was higher than the global average.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: India accounts for approximately 24% of global milk production, making it the largest
producer of milk globally. This reflects the country’s strong emphasis on the dairy sector, supported by a vast
livestock population.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While India ranks first in milk production, it ranks second in egg production globally,
with countries like China leading in egg production.

Statement 3 is correct: India’s per capita milk availability in 2022-23 was 459 grams/day, significantly higher
than the global average of 323 grams/day, highlighting its robust dairy production and availability.

10) Consider the following statements about Animal Quarantine and Certification Services (AQCS):
1. AQCS provides internationally accepted export certifications for livestock products.
2. It regulates livestock imports under the Livestock Importation Act.
3. AQCS primarily functions under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: AQCS provides certifications for livestock and related products to meet international
standards, boosting exports.
Statement 2 is correct: It regulates imports to prevent exotic livestock diseases under the Livestock Importation
Act.
Statement 3 is incorrect: AQCS operates under the Ministry of Animal Husbandry, not the Ministry of Health.

About Animal Quarantine and Certification Services:

• Established: Initiated during the Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-70) under a central sector scheme by the
Government of India.
• AQCS certification under central animal husbandry department.
Objectives of AQCS:
• Disease Prevention: Prevent the entry of exotic livestock diseases into India via imports, as per the
Livestock Importation Act.
• Defense Against Veterinary Diseases: Implement policies on import regulation, restriction, and
prohibition of livestock, products, and microorganisms.
• Export Certification: Provide internationally accepted certifications to boost exports and increase
national income.
• Inspection and Registration: Inspect and register plants/mills exporting animal by-products to meet
international standards.

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Primary Functions:
• Implementation of the Livestock Importation Act.
• Detention, testing, and observation of imported/exported livestock and products.
• Destruction of infected imports posing health threats.
• Certification for livestock exports to meet international standards.

11. Defence and Security

1) What feature makes Russia’s RS-24 Yars missile distinct among intercontinental ballistic missiles?
a) It uses liquid fuel for longer operational life.
b) It is a stationary missile without mobility.
c) It has a range limited to 5,000 km.
d) It is equipped with multiple independently targetable re -entry vehicles (MIRVs).

Solution: d)

The RS-24 Yars missile is distinct due to its MIRV capability, allowing it to carry multiple warheads, each of which
can strike different targets independently. This feature significantly enhances its strike potential, as it can impact
multiple sites in one launch. It also uses solid fuel, which provides faster launch readiness and high mobility,
making it challenging for adversaries to track and intercept. Unlike liquid-fueled missiles, solid-fueled ICBMs like
the Yars are easier to deploy rapidly.

2) Consider the following statements about Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR:

1. It is an annual exercise held alternatively in India and the USA.
2. The exercise involves participants from all three branches of the Indian and US Armed Forces.
3. Psychological warfare tactics are a training component of VAJRA PRAHAR.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: b)

VAJRA PRAHAR includes training in psychological warfare tactics, which are essential for Special Forces operations
in hostile or isolated environments. Statement 1 is incorrect as the exercise is typically conducted between the
Indian Army Special Forces and the US Army Green Berets, not involving all branches of both armed forces.
Statement 2 is also incorrect since it does not rotate annually between India and the USA.

3) Consider the following statements regarding Exercise GARUD SHAKTI:

1. The exercise is conducted exclusively on Indian soil.
2. It involves training on amphibious assault tactics for naval operations.
3. The exercise aims to improve interoperability between the Special Forces of India and Indonesia.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

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Statement 3 is correct. Exercise GARUD SHAKTI is conducted to enhance interoperability between Indian and
Indonesian Special Forces.
Statement 1 is incorrect, as the exercise is conducted in Indonesia at Cijantung, Jakarta.
Statement 2 is also incorrect because GARUD SHAKTI focuses on jungle warfare and counter-terrorism, not on
amphibious or naval operations.

4) Consider the following statements about the North Korea’s Hwasong-19 missile:
1. It is a short-range ballistic missile designed for regional defense.
2. The use of solid fuel allows for more rapid deployment and launch readiness.
3. Its small size allows it to be transported discreetly, minimizing detection risk.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: b)

The solid fuel in Hwasong-19 enables quicker deployment and launch readiness, as it does not require on-site
fueling. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Hwasong-19 is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM), not a
short-range missile. Statement 3 is also incorrect; due to its large size (over 28 meters), it is challenging to
transport discreetly, making it more susceptible to detection by adversaries.

5) Consider the following statements regarding the MAHASAGAR initiative:

1. MAHASAGAR involves annual in-person meetings of maritime agencies from Indian Ocean Region
nations.
2. The initiative was started by India to address economic challenges in the Indian Ocean Region.
3. The recent edition of MAHASAGAR focused on maritime trade and resource sharing among Indian
Ocean nations.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect because MAHASAGAR is a bi-annual virtual platform rather than an in-person meeting.

Statement 2 is incorrect as the initiative was launched by the Indian Navy in 2023 and focuses on maritime
security, not economic challenges.

Statement 3 is incorrect as the third edition emphasized collaboration on training and capacity -building,
particularly for maritime security, rather than trade or resource sharing.

6) Consider the following statements about Project Shaurya Gatha:

1. It is an initiative exclusively by the Indian Army to promote military tourism.
2. The project focuses on creating an archive of India’s battles since the post-independence period.
3. It includes educational programs aimed specifically at military personnel.
4. The project aims to enhance military tourism through the documentation of historic sites and
battlefields.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
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c) 4 only
d) None of the above

Solution: c)

Project Shaurya Gatha is designed to enhance military tourism by documenting and promoting historical military
sites and battlefields, encouraging public engagement with India’s military heritage.

Statement 1 is incorrect because it is a collaborative initiative between the Department of Military Affairs and
the United Service Institution (USI) of India, not exclusively an Indian Army project.

Statement 2 is incorrect as the project documents India’s military history across all eras, not just post -
independence battles.

Statement 3 is also inaccurate, as the educational programs are aimed at the general public and youth, not solely
military personnel, to broaden understanding of India’s military heritage.

7) Which organization was primarily responsible for the design and development of the Pinaka Rocket Missile
System?
a) Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE)
b) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
c) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)
d) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

Solution: a)

The Pinaka Rocket Missile System was developed by the Armament Research and Development Establishment
(ARDE), a division under the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). ARDE’s role focuses on
designing and developing armament and weapon systems, and the Pinaka MBRL is a significant achievement in
India’s defense capabilities. It was developed to replace imported rocket systems and enhance India’s indigenous
firepower, particularly against enemy positions.

8) Consider the following statements about Antariksha Abhyas – 2024:

1. Antariksha Abhyas – 2024 is conducted by the Defence Space Agency to address space -related threats
and opportunities.
2. The exercise includes participation from key military branches and organizations like ISRO and DRDO.
3. The exercise is conducted in Bengaluru.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2, and 3
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: d)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Antariksha Abhyas – 2024 is an exercise organized by the Defence Space Agency
to simulate and prepare for various space-related threats, showcasing India’s focus on strengthening its defense
capabilities in the space domain.
This exercise includes the participation of multiple military branches—Army, Navy, Air Force—as well as agencies
like ISRO and DRDO, demonstrating a collaborative approach to national space security.

Statement 3 is incorrect because Antariksha Abhyas – 2024 is conducted in New Delhi, not Bengaluru, even
though the Defence Space Agency is headquartered in Bengaluru.

9) Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Space Agency (DSA):
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1. The DSA was formed based on the recommendations of the Naresh Chandra Task Force (2012).
2. Its headquarters are located in New Delhi.
3. The DSA includes personnel from the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: d)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Defence Space Agency (DSA) was formed following recommendations by the
Naresh Chandra Task Force in 2012, which proposed establishing tri-service commands for areas like cyber,
aerospace, and special operations to enhance India’s defense infrastructure.
The DSA is a tri-service agency with personnel from the Army, Navy, and Air Force.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the DSA is headquartered in Bengaluru, Karnataka, not New Delhi.

10) Consider the following statements regarding the Long-Range Land Attack Cruise Missile (LRLACM):
1. The LRLACM has a range of 1,000 km with precision strike capability.
2. It has been developed solely by Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) as the production partner.
3. The missile can be launched from both ground-based mobile launchers and naval platforms.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The LRLACM has a range of 1,000 km and is equipped with precision strike
capability. It can be launched from mobile articulated launchers on the ground as well as naval platforms using
universal vertical launch modules, giving it versatile operational capabilities.

Statement 2 is incorrect because while Bharat Dynamics Limited is a key production partner, the missile has
been developed by the Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE) under DRDO, with Bharat Electronics
Limited also playing a significant role.

11) Which of the following is NOT a role of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)?
a) Providing fire protection services to private entities
b) Security management for Indian airports and Delhi Metro
c) Maritime security at offshore oil rigs
d) All-women battalion for VIP security and public-facing roles

Solution: c)

CISF does not have a mandate for maritime security at offshore oil rigs, as this responsibility primarily falls under
the Indian Navy and the Indian Coast Guard. CISF’s roles include fire protection services, airport and Delhi Metro
security, VIP protection, and public interface roles. Additionally, an all-women battalion has been introduced for
various specialized roles, including VIP security and interactions with the public.

12) Which of the following statements correctly describes the Nirbhay Cruise Missile?
a) It is a supersonic cruise missile with a maximum range of 500 km.
b) It can operate at very low altitudes and has deep penetration capabilities.
c) The missile is exclusively nuclear-capable.
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d) It is a fully imported missile used by India’s defense forces.

Solution: b)

The Nirbhay Cruise Missile is a sub-sonic long-range missile with capabilities for low-altitude flight and deep
penetration to strike high-value targets. It is capable of carrying both conventional and nuclear warheads, making
it versatile in combat scenarios. The other options misrepresent its range, origin, and capabilities, as it is an
indigenous missile with a 1,000 km range developed by DRDO.

13) Consider the following statements regarding the organizational structure of the Central Industrial Security
Force (CISF):
1. CISF is headquartered in Mumbai.
2. CISF operates independently of other Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs).
3. CISF is led by a Director-General, who is typically an IPS officer.
4. CISF’s primary role is to protect only nuclear and airport facilities.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: a)

Only statement 3 is correct.

CISF was initially established in 1969 as a paramilitary force under an Act of Parliament to provide security for
critical infrastructure. It became an armed force of the Republic of India in 1983, expanding its responsibilities and
role as part of the CAPFs.

CISF’s primary mandate extends beyond nuclear and airport facilities to include security for seaports, heritage
sites, and other establishments.

CISF functions as one of the CAPFs under the Ministry of Home Affairs and coordinates with other forces for
national security.

It is led by a Director-General, who is typically an officer from the Indian Police Service (IPS).

CISF is headquartered in New Delhi, not Mumbai.

14) What is the primary objective of Operation Kawach initiated by the Delhi Police?
a) Improve public relations between police and citizens
b) Streamline traffic management in high-crime areas
c) Combat gang violence, drug trafficking, and organized crime
d) Enhance cybercrime investigation capabilities

Solution: c)

The primary objective of Operation Kawach is to combat gang-related violence, drug trafficking, and organized
crime in Delhi.

About Operation Kawach:

• Aim: To combat gang-related violence, drug trafficking, and illegal activities such as possession of
firearms, liquor, and banned substances.
• Agency involved: Delhi Police, including local units, Special Cell, and Crime Branch.

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• Geographical area: Multiple districts across Delhi, including Outer North, Dwarka, Southeast, Southwest,
and North districts.
• Significance:
o Strengthens law enforcement against organized crime.
o Enhances public safety by dismantling networks linked to prominent gangs like Lawrence Bishnoi,
Neeraj Bawana, and others.
o Prevents illegal trade of firearms, liquor, and narcotics.

15) What is the primary objective of the e-Tarang System?

a) To enhance joint electronic warfare operations and spectrum management
b) To monitor civilian communications in real-time
c) To develop AI-enabled weapons for electronic warfare
d) To focus solely on peacetime electromagnetic spectrum optimization

Solution: a)

About e-Tarang System:

• Developer: Integrated Defence Staff and BISAG-N.
• Launch Event: Unveiled during the Joint Electromagnetic Board (JEMB) meeting, chaired by Deputy Chief
of Integrated Defence Staff (Operations) Air Marshal Jeetendra Mishra.
• Features:
o AI-enabled system for automated and efficient defence spectrum planning and management.
o Integrates various defence communication systems for improved operational synergy.
o Enables interference-free operation of defence equipment during wartime and peacetime.
o Supports the development of advanced technologies in higher frequency bands.
• Objective: Enhance joint electronic warfare operations and modernize India’s spectrum warfare
capabilities.
• Significance:
o Part of broader initiatives to modernize military infrastructure.
o Improves interoperability among the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
o Boosts efficiency and coordination in electromagnetic spectrum management.

16) What is the primary objective of Exercise Poorvi Prahar?

a) To strengthen combat effectiveness for integrated joint operations
b) To enhance maritime capabilities of the Indian Navy
c) To demonstrate India’s nuclear deterrence strategy
d) To train paramilitary forces for counter-insurgency operations

Solution: a)

About Exercise Poorvi Prahar:

• Objective: To enhance combat effectiveness and synergy across the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force for
integrated joint operations.
• Location: Forward areas of Arunachal Pradesh, emphasizing operational readiness in mountainous terrain.
• Participation: Cutting-edge military platforms including advanced fighter jets, reconnaissance
aircraft, Chinook helicopters, Advanced Light Helicopters ( Rudra), and M777 Ultra-Light Howitzers.
• Technological Integration: Utilisation of swarm drones, loitering munitions, and advanced situational
awareness systems for precision strikes and enhanced flexibility.
• Strategic Relevance: Reinforces India’s defence posture along the Eastern frontier, reflecting its capability to
execute multi-domain operations across land, air, and sea.

17) Consider the following statements about India’s first hypersonic missile:
1. It has a maximum range of 500 km, suitable for short-range missions.
2. It cannot carry nuclear warheads due to treaty restrictions.

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3. The missile is primarily designed for exclusive naval use against enemy warships.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The missile has a long range of over 1,500 km, making it suitable for deep -strike
missions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The missile has a multi-payload capacity, enabling it to carry both conventional and
nuclear warheads.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While it has a naval version, the missile is designed for multi-domain use, including
land, air, and naval platforms.

About India’s First Hypersonic Missile:

• Features
• Mach 6 Speed: Travels six times the speed of sound, reducing enemy reaction time.
• Long Range: Covers over 1,500 km for deep-strike missions.
• Mid-Flight Manoeuvrability: Combines ballistic missile speed with cruise missile agility to evade defences.
• Multi-Payload Capacity: Can carry conventional or nuclear warheads.
• Advanced Tracking: Precision targeting ensured by cutting-edge multi-domain monitoring systems.
• Indigenous Design: Fully developed by DRDO, showcasing India’s self-reliance in advanced defence
technology.
• Capabilities:
o Strategic Deterrence: Enhances defence readiness and border security.
o Multi-Domain Use: Adaptable for land, air, and naval platforms, including ship-targeting.
o Defence Evasion: Overcomes modern missile defence systems with speed and agility.
o Precision Strikes: Pinpoint targeting of critical enemy assets with minimal collateral damage.
• Applications: Multiple uses across Army, Navy, and Air Force; naval version aimed at destroying enemy
warships with precision at long ranges.
• Developmental Background: Builds upon the Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV)
project initiated in 2019.
• Global Context: Positions India alongside major military powers like China, Russia, and the US in
hypersonic weapon technology.

18) The development of India’s first hypersonic missile is based on which project?
a) Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP)
b) Agni Programme
c) Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV)
d) Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM)

Solution: c)

The missile builds upon the Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV) project, initiated by DRDO in
2019, marking a significant leap in India’s defence capabilities.

19) What is the primary role of the ATACMS (Army Tactical Missile Systems)?
a) Long-range intercontinental ballistic missile targeting
b) Strategic nuclear weapon deployment
c) Short-range ballistic missile targeting high-value enemy facilities
d) Naval warfare and submarine targeting

Solution: c)
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ATACMS is a short-range ballistic missile system designed to strike high-value targets deep within enemy lines,
such as command centers, radar installations, and logistics hubs.

About ATACMS (Army Tactical Missile Systems):

• Manufacturer: Produced by Lockheed Martin, developed in the 1980s.
• Type: Short-range ballistic missile.
• Range: Up to 190 miles (300 km), depending on the model.
• Warhead: Carries approximately 375 pounds of explosives.
• Launch Platforms: Compatible with HIMARS mobile launchers and older M270 systems provided by the
U.S., Britain, and Germany.
• Purpose: Designed to target high-value military and paramilitary facilities deep within enemy lines.
• Flight Characteristics: Travels higher into the atmosphere than artillery rockets and descends at high
speed due to gravity.

20) Consider the following statements about Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs):
1. ICBMs are exclusively designed for nuclear warhead delivery.
2. India’s Agni V is a solid-fuelled ICBM with a range of 7,000–10,000 km.
3. Agni VI will be India’s first ICBM to feature MIRV capability (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-
entry Vehicles).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect. While ICBMs are primarily designed for nuclear warhead delivery, they can also carry
conventional warheads.
Statement 2 is correct. Agni V is a solid-fuelled missile with an estimated range of 7,000–10,000 km.
Statement 3 is correct. Agni VI, which is under development, will feature MIRV capability, enhancing India’s
deterrence capacity.

About Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM):

• Definition: Long-range ballistic missile primarily designed for delivering nuclear weapons.
• Range: Over 5,500 km, maximum ranges between 7,000 and 16,000 km.
• Speed: Exceeds 20,000 km/h.
• Countries with ICBMs: Russia, United States, China, France, India, United Kingdom, Israel, North Korea.
India’s ICBMs:
• Agni V: Solid-fuelled missile with a range of 7,000–10,000 km.
• Agni VI: Upcoming iteration with MIRV capability (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicles).

21) Consider the following statements regarding the significance of SAREX-24:

1. It involved the largest-ever maritime simulations to date.
2. It aimed to strengthen collaborative engagement with regional and friendly nations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

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Statement 1 is correct: SAREX-24 featured the largest-ever maritime simulations, addressing diverse
contingencies.
Statement 2 is correct: The exercise aimed to strengthen collaborative efforts with regional littoral states and
friendly nations, fostering cooperative engagement for maritime safety.

About SAREX-24:
• Location: Kochi, Kerala.
• Theme: “Enhancing Search and Rescue Capabilities through Regional Collaboration.”
• Activities:
• Sea exercise involving contingencies with participation from Coast Guard, Navy, Air Force, Cochin Port
Authority, and Customs.
Objectives:
• Evaluate operational efficiency and coordination.
• Strengthen collaborative efforts among regional and international maritime agencies.

Significance: Largest-ever simulations, enhancing cooperative engagement with littoral states and friendly
nations.

12. Reports and Indices

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2024 and India's performance:
1. The Global Hunger Index uses indicators such as undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and
child mortality to assess hunger levels.
2. India has the highest rate of child stunting in the world, according to GHI 2024.
3. The Ministry of Women and Child Development has raised concerns over GHI data, claiming that the
Poshan Tracker reports a lower child wasting rate than what GHI states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Solution: b)

Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The GHI uses four primary indicators: undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and child mortality to
measure hunger levels.
• India does not have the highest rate of child stunting in the world but does have the highest rate of child
wasting at 18.7%.
• The Ministry of Women and Child Development has criticized the GHI for not using data from India’s Poshan
Tracker, which shows a significantly lower child wasting rate (7.2%).

2) Consider the following statements about the QS World University Rankings’ methodology:
1. The ranking system is published annually by Quacquarelli Symonds, a firm based in London.
2. Research and Employability are key dimensions evaluated by QS.
3. QS employs a survey of employers to gauge the perceived employability of graduates.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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Solution: c)

The QS World University Rankings are published annually by Quacquarelli Symonds, a London -based firm
specializing in higher education analytics.
The rankings evaluate universities across four main dimensions, including Research and Employability, which
reflect an institution’s research quality and graduate job readiness.
QS also surveys employers to assess how well universities prepare graduates for employment.

3) Which of the following statements is true regarding the "State of the Global Climate Report"?
a) It is published bi-annually by the IPCC to track climate goals.
b) It does not include any updates for UN climate summits.
c) It has been published by the WMO since 2016.
d) It is an annual report by the WMO providing updates on key climate indicators.

Solution: d)

The "State of the Global Climate Report" is an annual publication by the World Meteorological Organization
(WMO) that provides updates on climate indicators, including temperature, greenhouse gases, sea level, and
extreme weather events. It complements the IPCC’s more comprehensive but less frequent Assessment Reports.

WMO has published this report annually since 1993, not 2016; however, preliminary findings are presented to the
COP each year since 2016. It provides updates relevant for the UN climate summits.

4) Consider the following statements about the objectives of the World Intellectual Property Indicators (WIPI)
report by WIPO:
1. The report aims to track global trends in intellectual property filings.
2. It primarily highlights countries’ rankings in innovation and competitiveness.
3. WIPI encourages nations to align their IP frameworks with international standards to foster growth.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2, and 3
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: d)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The World Intellectual Property Indicators (WIPI) report published by WIPO aims
to track global trends in intellectual property filings and encourages countries to adopt IP standards that promote
innovation and economic growth.

Statement 2 is incorrect as the report does not rank countries by innovation or competitiveness but rather
focuses on IP filing trends and growth patterns across various sectors.

5) Consider the following statements about the Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI):
1. It is aimed at comparing grievance redressal mechanisms across private and public sectors.
2. GRAI promotes transparency and citizen satisfaction in governance.
3. Data for the GRAI is sourced from the Public Financial Management System (PFMS).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

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• Statement 1 is incorrect. GRAI focuses solely on public sector grievance redressal mechanisms, not
private ones.
• Statement 2 is correct. GRAI aims to promote transparency and improve citizen satisfaction in
governance.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. GRAI uses data from CPGRAMS, not PFMS.

About Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI):

• Ministry: Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG).
• Launch Year: 2022 (First edition released in 2023).
• Aim:
o Present a comparative assessment of grievance redressal mechanisms.
o Enhance transparency and citizen satisfaction in governance.
• Data Source: Centralized Public Grievance Redressal and Management System (CPGRAMS).
• Reference Period: January–December

6) As per State of the World’s Children Report 2024, which region is projected to host the highest proportion of
the global child population by 2050?
a) Asia
b) Latin America
c) Europe
d) Africa

Solution: d)

The State of the World’s Children 2024 report by UNICEF highlights critical challenges and opportunities shaping
the future of childhood globally. By 2050, Africa is projected to have the highest proportion of the global child
population due to demographic shifts.

7) Which of the following organizations is not involved in publishing the Climate Change Performance Index
(CCPI)?
a) Germanwatch
b) NewClimate Institute
c) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
d) Climate Action Network

Solution: c)

The CCPI is published by Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute, and Climate Action Network. UNEP is not directly
involved in publishing this index, although it works on climate-related issues globally.

8) Consider the following statements regarding India’s climate policies as highlighted in Climate Change
Performance Index (CCPI), 2025:
Statement-I: India received a "medium" rating for its climate policies due to delays in implementing
renewable energy targets.
Statement-II: Rapid expansion in solar power projects and energy efficiency standards contributed to India’s
overall high performance.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: d)
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India received a "medium" rating for climate policy due to some challenges in policy implementation but not
due to delays in renewable energy targets. Its progress in large-scale solar projects and efficiency measures
significantly contributed to its high overall performance.

India’s Performance in CCPI 2025:

• Overall Rank: 10th, among the highest performers.
• Overall, only 22 of the 64 surveyed CCPI countries (including the EU) are on track, while 42 are lagging.
India and the United Kingdom are two that are on track.

Category Ratings:
• GHG Emissions: High
• Energy Use: High
• Climate Policy: Medium
• Renewable Energy: Low

Strengths:
• Rapid renewable energy expansion, particularly in large-scale solar power projects.
• Introduction of energy efficiency standards and electric vehicle deployment.
• Low per capita emissions and energy use despite being the most populous country.

9) Consider the following statements about the Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2024:
The NRI evaluates economies across four pillars: Technology, AI, Infrastructure, and Governance.
India ranked 1st among lower-middle-income countries in the 2024 NRI.
The NRI is published annually by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) None

Solution: d)

All three statements are incorrect:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The NRI evaluates economies on four pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and
Impact, not "AI" or "Infrastructure."
Statement 2 is incorrect: India ranked 2nd, not 1st, among lower-middle-income countries, with Vietnam taking
the top position.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The NRI is published by the Portulans Institute, a Washington-based non-profit research
organization, not by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).

About Network Readiness Index 2024:

• Published by: Portulans Institute, a non-profit research institute based in Washington, DC.

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• Scope: Evaluates 133 economies on four pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and Impact, across 54
variables.
• India’s Rank: Improved from 60th (2023) to 49th (2024), with a score increase from 49.93 to 53.63.
• India’s Leadership:
• 1st rank in AI scientific publications, AI talent concentration, and ICT services exports.
• 2nd rank in FTTH/Building Internet subscriptions and Mobile broadband internet traffic.
• 4th rank in investment in telecommunication services.
• Global Grouping: Ranked 2nd among lower-middle-income countries, after Vietnam

13. Maps / Places

1) Consider the following statements regarding the ecological significance of Mattupetty Dam:
1. The reservoir supports a diverse array of wildlife, including elephants and bird species.
2. The dam is situated within the Kanan Devan Hills Reserve Forest, which provides habitat to protected
species.
3. The Anamudi Shola National Park is located directly adjacent to the Mattupetty Dam.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Mattupetty Dam reservoir provides habitat to various wildlife species,
including elephants and birds, and is surrounded by the Kanan Devan Hills Reserve Forest, which supports
protected species.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the Anamudi Shola National Park is located approximately 3.5 km north of
Mattupetty, not directly adjacent to the dam. This dam plays an essential role in sustaining local wildlife and is
surrounded by ecologically significant areas.

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2) What is the significance of the Spratly Islands in the South China Sea?
a) Exclusive site for coral reef research
b) Site of the largest oil reserves in the region
c) Home to international shipping headquarters
d) Known for military bases and rich fishing zones

Solution: d)

The Spratly Islands are significant due to their rich natural resources, fishing zones, and strategic military
installations. Frequent site of China-Philippines clashes, including laser usage and water cannon incidents by
Chinese vessels.
They do not house international shipping headquarters or represent the largest oil reserves in the region.

3) Consider the following statements regarding the strategic importance of the Solomon Islands:
1. The Solomon Islands were a major battleground during World War II.
2. The islands are located in the Indian Ocean, making them critical for trade between Africa and
Southeast Asia.
3. The region has significant biodiversity and marine resources.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is correct: The Solomon Islands were the site of major battles during World War II, including the
Battle of Guadalcanal.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Solomon Islands are located in the Pacific Ocean, not the Indian Ocean.
• Statement 3 is correct: The region is known for its rich biodiversity and marine resources, including coral reefs
and fisheries.

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4) Consider the following statements about Willingdon Island:

1. It is a natural island formed by sedimentation in the backwaters of Kochi.
2. It houses India’s largest naval base and container terminal.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

About Willingdon Island:

• Historical Significance: Constructed in the 1920s, named after Viceroy Lord Willingdon, and served as a vital
port hub for Cochin.
• A man-made marvel built in the 1920s by Sir Robert Bristow, was once the nucleus of port-related
activities in Kochi.
• It is also home to the Kochi Naval Base of the Indian Navy, the Central Institute of Fisheries Technology and
the Port of Kochi.
• Decline: Operations reduced post-2011 when the container terminal shifted to Vallarpadam under a build-
operate-transfer model.
• Potential: Ideal for coastal and defence cargo handling, cold storage, godown networks, and container freight
stations.
• Tourism Appeal: Waterfront location suitable for tourism activities such as cruise operations, luxury yachts,
water sports, and wellness retreats.
• Challenges: Rigid land lease policies and lack of infrastructural upgrades, including transportation and
logistics, hinder development.

5) The Kurram District is named after which of the following geographical features?
a) A mountain range in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
b) A river flowing through the district
c) A pass connecting Pakistan and Afghanistan
d) A valley in Balochistan

Solution: b)

The Kurram District is named after the Kurram River, which flows through the region.

About Kurram District:

• Location:
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o Situated in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa , northwestern Pakistan.
o Borders Afghanistan with multiple crossings along the 192-km Durand Line.
• Key River:
o The district is named after the Kurram River (Pashto: Kwarma), derived from the Sanskrit
word Krumu.
• Geographical Features:
o Lies in the Kurram Valley, a strategically significant and mountainous region.
o Shares borders with Afghan provinces like Logar, Paktia, and Nangarhar.

6) What is the unique feature of the New Pamban Bridge?

a) It is India’s first vertical-lift railway sea bridge.
b) It is India’s first bridge with a double-decker road and rail track.
c) It uses only manual mechanisms for lifting spans.
d) It connects Tamil Nadu’s mainland to Sri Lanka.

Solution: a)

New Pamban Bridge:

• Unique Feature: India’s first vertical-lift railway sea bridge with a span that moves vertically for
navigational clearance.
• Location: Connects Rameswaram Island to Mandapam on Tamil Nadu’s mainland.
• Specifications:
• Total Length: 2.078 km with 99 spans.
• Technology: Features electromechanical control interlocked with the train control system for vertical
lifting.
• Design Innovations: Designed for double railway lines and future electrification, replacing the old Pamban
Bridge built in 1914.

7) The Baltic Sea connects to the Atlantic Ocean through which straits?
a) Strait of Hormuz
b) Danish Straits
c) Strait of Gibraltar
d) Malacca Strait

Solution: b)

The Danish Straits connect the Baltic Sea to the Atlantic Ocean, facilitating global trade and connectivity.

8) Which of the following countries does NOT border the Baltic Sea?
a) Denmark
b) Poland
c) Norway
d) Lithuania

Solution: c)

Norway does not border the Baltic Sea. It borders the North Sea and the Norwegian Sea. Countries surrounding
the Baltic Sea include Denmark, Germany, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Estonia, Russia, Finland, and Sweden.

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14. Miscellaneous
1) With reference to the challenges posed by a declining young population in Southern India, consider the
following statements:
1. A shrinking workforce in Southern states could increase the dependency ratio and lead to higher
social security and healthcare costs.
2. Slower population growth may lead to a reduction in political representation in Parliament for
Southern states after delimitation.
3. Declining fertility rates in Southern states have led to a surplus of young workers, reducing the need
for internal migration from Northern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Solution: A.

Only statement 1 and 2 is correct here.

• A declining young population leads to a higher dependency ratio, as there are fewer working-age people
to support the aging population, increasing the burden on healthcare and social security systems.
• Slower population growth in Southern states could indeed result in reduced political representation in
Parliament, as future delimitation may allocate more seats to populous Northern states.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Declining fertility rates have not resulted in a surplus of young workers. Instead,
Southern states face a labour shortage and increasingly rely on internal migration from the North to
balance their workforce.

2) Which of the following unique engineering features is associated with the Kalka-Shimla Narrow-Gauge
Railway?
a) World’s longest railway tunnel
b) India’s only double-track mountain railway
c) World’s highest multi-arc gallery bridge
d) Longest railway bridge in Asia

Solution: c)

The Kalka-Shimla Narrow-Gauge Railway is known for its remarkable engineering feats, including the world’s
highest multi-arc gallery bridge. This heritage railway route is famous for its scenic beauty and complex

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engineering, featuring numerous tunnels, bridges, and curves that allow it to navigate the rugged terrain between
Kalka and Shimla. This unique bridge construction makes it an engineering marvel among mountain railways.

3) Match the indigenous groups with their characteristics:

Group Characteristics
A. Sami People 1. Indigenous to Arctic Europe; known for reindeer herding and fishing
B. Kvens 2. Finnish descent; seek reparations and cultural revival
C. Forest Finns 3. Practiced slash-and-burn agriculture in Norway and Sweden
a) A-2, B-1, C-3
b) A-1, B-2, C-3
c) A-3, B-2, C-1
d) A-1, B-3, C-2

Solution: b)

About Tribes in News:

1. Sami People:
o Indigenous to Norway, Sweden, Finland, and Russia.
o Traditionally reindeer herders and fishers.
o Suffered loss of language, culture, and land under assimilation policies.
o Advocacy for their land and rights continues today.
2. Kvens:
o Ethnic minority of Finnish descent in northern Norway.
o Historically subjected to forced assimilation and loss of language.
o Continue to seek reparations and cultural revival.
3. Forest Finns:
o Minority group originally from Finland who settled in Norway and Sweden.
o Practiced slash-and-burn agriculture, later marginalized by assimilation policies.
o Struggle to preserve their cultural identity and heritage.

4) Consider the following statements about the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development:
1. It is given exclusively to Indian citizens for their efforts in disarmament and development.
2. It recognizes efforts that address global challenges and promote human welfare.
3. Organizations are ineligible for the prize.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Only Statement 2 is correct.

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About Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development :
• Established: 1986 by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust in honour of former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• Objective: To recognize individuals or organizations for their efforts toward peace, disarmament, and
development.
• Components: Includes a monetary award of ₹25 lakh and a citation.
• Categories: Peace, Disarmament, and Development.
• Criteria: Awardees are selected based on sustained efforts that positively impact global challenges, benefiting
human welfare and international peace.
• Significance: Regarded as one of the highest accolades in the field of peace and development.

5) The Siddi tribe in India primarily traces its ancestry to which group of people?
a) Mongols from Central Asia
b) Indigenous tribes of the Indian subcontinent
c) Nomadic tribes of the Arabian Peninsula
d) Bantu peoples from East Africa

Solution: d)

The Siddi tribe is descended from Bantu peoples of East Africa. They arrived in India through the slave trade and
other historical interactions, including as soldiers and merchants.

About the Siddi Tribe:

• Descendants: Primarily of Bantu peoples from East Africa, brought to the Indian subcontinent through the
slave trade, as well as soldiers, sailors, and merchants.
• History:
o First arrived at Bharuch port in 628 AD with Arab merchants.
o Later brought as slaves by Arab conquerors, Portuguese traders, and Deccan Sultanates.
o Prominent historical figures include Malik Ambar and Jamal-ud-Din Yaqut.
• Distribution in India: Concentrated in Karnataka, Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil
Nadu, often in rural or forested areas.
• Features:
o Diverse religions—Muslims, Hindus, and Christians.
o Unique cultural practices like the use of dammam, duf, and gumte instruments, and shared rituals
like ancestor worship.
o Languages include Konkani, Urdu, Marathi, and regional dialects.

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