Dynamic Practice Sheet.

ClassPe/IAT/ Bio/ L4- Principles of Inheritance & Questions: 30 Time: 00:30 hh:mm
Variation/ Practice Paper

Q1: Well known Indian breed of cow obtained through artificial selection and domes-
tication from ancestral wild cows.

(A) Gir
(B) Desan
(C) Highland
(D) Sahiwal

Q2: Mendel’s investigations into the pattern of inheritance for the first time was due
to.

(A) Statistical analysis

(B) Mathematical logic
(C) A large sample size
(D) All are correct

Q3: A true breeding line means.

(A) The plant has undergone continuous self-pollination

(B) Most of its genes are homozygous
(C) Most of its genes are heterozygous
(D) Both (A) and (B) are correct

Q4: At which stage of meiosis do the alleles of a parental pair segregate from each
other, transmitting only one allele to a gamete?

(A) Prophase-I
(B) Anaphase-I
(C) Anaphase-II
(D) Telophase-II

Q5: Assertion: Test cross is a back cross. Reason: In a test cross, the F1 individual
is crossed with the recessive parent.

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 (A) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) Both the assertion and the reason are false.

Q6: Consider that violet flower is dominant over white flower. To determine the
genotype of a violet-flowered F1 pea plant, it should be crossed with.

(A) A white-flowered pea plant

(B) A homozygous dominant parent
(C) A homozygous recessive parent
(D) Both (A) and (C)

Q7: Assertion: The law of dominance is used to explain the expression of only one
parental character in the F1-generation of a monohybrid cross. Reason: The
law of dominance explains the 3 : 1 ratio obtained in the F2-generation.

(A) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) Both the assertion and the reason are false.

Q8: When a cross is made between pink-flowered and white-flowered snapdragon

plants, what is the percentage of white-flowered plants in the progeny?

(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%

Q9: Multiple alleles mean.

(A) Presence of 3 alleles for a gene (e.g., i, I A , I B )

(B) Presence of 4 alleles of a gene
(C) Presence of 5 or more alleles of a gene
(D) All are correct

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Q10: In Mendel’s dihybrid cross, the probability of obtaining plants heterozygous for
both seed shape and seed colour is.

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(A) 16
2
(B) 9
1
(C) 4
3
(D) 4

Q11: Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by.

(A) Watson and Crick

(B) Sutton and Boveri
(C) Bateson and Punnett
(D) T.H. Morgan

Q12: Mendel’s work remained unrecognised till 1900 due to.

(A) Difficult communication and limited publication

(B) His concept of stable, discrete gene units was not widely accepted
(C) His complex mathematical approach
(D) All are correct

Q13: T.H. Morgan selected Drosophila melanogaster for genetic studies due to several
reasons except.

(A) They can grow on a simple synthetic medium in the laboratory

(B) They complete their life-cycle in 2 weeks
(C) A single mating can produce a large number of progenies
(D) Homomorphic sex-chromosomes in males

Q14: [Linkage and Recombination] - Give the one word for the following:
1. The physical association of two genes is .
2. The generation of non-parental gene combinations is .

(A) A–Linkage, B–Allele

(B) A–Recombination, B–Gene
(C) A–Linkage, B–Recombination
(D) A–Linkage, B–Chromatin

Q15: The map distances between three genes are as follows: between A and B = 3

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 units, between B and C = 10 units, and between A and C = 7 units. The most
likely order of these genes in a linkage map is.

(A) A, B, C
(B) A, C, B
(C) B, C, A
(D) B, A, C

Q16: Which one of the following statements about pleiotropy and pleiotropic genes is
incorrect?

(A) They exhibit multiple phenotypic expressions

(B) They affect metabolic pathways that contribute to different phenotypes
(C) A gene coding for phenylalanine hydroxylase, when mutated, affects various phenotypes
such as mental retardation and reduced pigmentation
(D) The gene causing phenylketonuria is not an example of a pleiotropic gene

Q17: Henking (1891) observed that 50% of sperms received an X-body and 50% did
not. In this context, the X-body represents.

(A) The Y-chromosome

(B) An inactive X-chromosome
(C) The X-chromosome
(D) Autosomes in some insects

Q18: Match the items of Column-I with those of Column-II:

Column-I: 1. XX-XO method of sex determination 2. XX-XY method of sex determi-
nation 3. ZW-ZZ method of sex determination
Column-II: (i) Female heterogametic (ii) Grasshopper (iii) Female homogametic

(A) 1–(ii), 2–(iii), 3–(i)

(B) 1–(i), 2–(ii), 3–(iii)
(C) 1–(iii), 2–(i), 3–(ii)
(D) 1–(ii), 2–(ii), 3–(iii)

Q19: Select the incorrect statement regarding sex determination.

(A) Male fruit fly is heterogametic

(B) In male grasshopper, 50% of sperms have no sex chromosome
(C) In domesticated fowls, the sex of the progeny depends on the type of sperm rather than

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 the egg
(D) Human males have one sex chromosome much shorter than the other

Q20: Which one of the following is incorrect regarding the importance of pedigree
analysis?

(A) It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait

(B) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information
(C) It helps to understand whether the trait is dominant or recessive
(D) It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the autosomes

Q21: Which statement(s) are correct with regard to Mendelian disorders?

(A) (i) Determined by mutation in a single gene, (ii) Their transmission follows Mendelian
inheritance, (iii) They can be traced by pedigree analysis, (iv) They include haemophilia,
sickle cell anaemia, and colour blindness.
(B) (i), (iii), (iv), (v) (where (v) includes disorders like Turner’s syndrome and Down’s
syndrome)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)

Q22: Select the correct statements regarding the genetic disorder, colour blindness.
(i) It is a recessive X-linked disorder, (ii) Either the red or green cone is affected, (iii) It
occurs in about 8% of males and 0.4% of females, (iv) It is easy to discriminate between
red and green colours.

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii)

Q23: The son of a mother who is a carrier for colour blindness (but is not colourblind
herself ) has a.

(A) 100% chance of being colourblind

(B) 0% chance
(C) 50% chance
(D) 25% chance

Q24: Select the correct statements regarding haemophilia:

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 1. It is an X-linked recessive disease.
2. It affects a single protein involved in blood clotting.
3. A simple cut results in non-stop bleeding.
4. The possibility of a female becoming haemophilic is very rare.
5. Queen Victoria’s pedigree shows a number of haemophilic descendants.
6. Queen Victoria was haemophilic.

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
(B) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
(C) 1, 3, 4, 6
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Q25: Select the correct statements for phenylketonuria:

(i) It is an inborn error of metabolism and an autosomal recessive trait, (ii) It is due
to a lack of the enzyme that converts phenylalanine to tyrosine, (iii) It results in the
accumulation of phenylalanine in the body, (iv) Accumulation of phenylalanine in the
brain leads to mental retardation, (v) Phenylalanine or its derivatives are excreted in
urine, (vi) A mutation in a gene on chromosome 15 causes the disorder.

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(D) All are correct

Q26: Select the correct statements for thalassemia:

(i) It is an autosomal recessive disease, (ii) β thalassemia is controlled by the single HBB
gene, (iii) It is a quantitative problem of synthesising fewer globin molecules, (iv) It is a
qualitative problem of synthesising incorrectly functioning globin, (v) It follows the same
inheritance pattern in both males and females.

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

Q27: The failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division results in the loss
or gain of chromosomes. This case is found in all the following except.

(A) Aneuploidy
(B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Turner’s syndrome

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 (D) Cri-du-chat syndrome

Q28: Failure of cytokinesis after telophase results in an increase in a whole set of

chromosomes. This case is found in all the following except.

(A) Euploidy
(B) Polyploidy
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Hyper-Aneuploidy

Q29: The genetic disorder caused by an additional copy of the 21st chromosome (Down
syndrome) does not exhibit.

(A) Retarded physical, psychomotor, and mental development

(B) A big and wrinkled tongue
(C) Broad palms with a characteristic crease
(D) Polydactyly

Q30: [A] syndrome is characterized by a karyotype of 47, XXY and gynaecomastia,

while [B] syndrome is characterized by a karyotype of 45, XO with rudimentary
ovaries and lack of secondary sexual characters. Select the correct pairing.

(A) [A] – Klinefelter’s syndrome, [B] – Down’s syndrome

(B) [A] – Turner’s syndrome, [B] – Down’s syndrome
(C) [A] – Klinefelter’s syndrome, [B] – Turner’s syndrome
(D) [A] – Turner’s syndrome, [B] – Klinefelter’s syndrome