TEST 118

PART A. LISTENING (2.0 POINTS)

Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:
- Nội dung phần nghe gồm 03 phần, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy 2 lần.
- Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
- Hướng dẫn làm bài chi tiết cho thí sinh (bằng Tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
I. PART 1: You’ll hear a conversation about eco-holidays. You will hear TWICE. (1.0p)
Questions 1-6. Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for
each answer.
Customer’s name: Igor Petrov
Length of holiday: (1) ____________2___________ weeks
Will pay up to (2) £___________1750____________
Told him about (3) __________discount_____________ for advance payments
Needs to quote for travel (4) _______________________ during holiday
Requires (5) __________coach_____________ on plane
Must check if he needs a (6) _________visa______________
Questions 7-10. Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Eco-holidays
Type of holiday Accommodation Advantage
Dumbarton watching house in a tree close to nature
Tablelands (7)
_____animals__________
Bago Nature live with a village house learn about way of life
Reserve (8) _______________
San Luis Island working in a school (9) holiday location without
____coastal___________ (10) ________cars______

II. PART 2: You will hear part of a lecture about the development of suburbs in the USA. Listen and
circle the correct answer A, B or C. You will hear TWICE. (0.5p)
1. Rich people have been known to live in suburbs _______.
A. at least since the 6th century BC
B. since the 1st century BC
C. only in modern times

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2. In the 19th century, the development of suburbs was encouraged by _______.
A. the high quality of suburban housing
B. improvements in public transport
C. a wish to own weekend homes
3. European suburbs, unlike those in North America, _______.
A. consist largely of low-density housing
B. are well planned
C. have individual characters
4. Suburban sprawl is said to destroy _______.
A. town centers B. business activity C. human relationships
5. A major reason for the development of suburban sprawl in the USA was _______.
A. improvements in car manufacture
B. the availability of money to buy homes
C. people’s unwillingness to live in high density housing

III. PART 3: You will hear part of a talk about the challenges of living in space. Listen and fill in each
blank with ONE WORD ONLY. You will hear TWICE. (0.5p)
Living on the International Space Station (ISS)
• Astronauts spend months in microgravity, so
- their blood moves to the head and (1) ______________.
- they lose (2) ______________ such as calcium.
- they have to exercise 2.5 hours to avoid (3) ______________ loss.
- they may suffer from poor (4) ______________ back on Earth.
• NASA continues to improve ways to recycle water, including (5) ____ư__________.

PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (2.0 POINTS)

I. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions. (1.0p)
1. With more women going out to work, the financial burden of the male breadwinners will be reduced. ______,
they will no longer be the sole decision-makers.
A. Because B. Otherwise C. Although D. However
2. Like ______ other residents of Loma Linda, Marge has always supported healthy living.
A. much B. many C. few D. each
3. Terry is very ______ in his free time – he does a lot of sculpture and painting and things like that.
A. creative B. reliable C. embarrassed D. frustrated
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4. The town council decided to ______ the building, as it was unsafe.
A. put up B. break into C. pull down D. wear out
5. Susan’s kids ______ their great displeasure whenever I came round to see her, which made me feel not
relaxed.
A. forever showed B. were forever showing
C. had forever been showing D. had forever shown
6. It’s time you ______ your own research to explore possible career paths.
A. put B. took C. made D. did
7. We should participate in the movement ______ the natural environment.
A. organized conserving B. organizing to conserve
C. organized to conserve D. which organized to conserve
8. Lisa: “Would you like Matcha ice-cream or Caramel with jam?” Rose: “_______.”
A. Yes, I’d love to B. I like drinking them all
C. You’re welcome D. It doesn’t matter
9. ______, they slept soundly.
A. Hot though was the night air B. Hot though the night air was
C. Hot was the night air though D. Hot so was the night air
10. My cousin really seems to land on his ______ having won the lottery. He’s never bought any lottery tickets
before.
A. finger B. feet C. face D. hand

II. Give the correct form of the capital words. Write your answers in the blanks. (0.5p)
It was not so long ago that we dealt with colleagues through face-to-face interaction and with
counterparts and customers by phone or letter. But the world of communication has (1. GO)
_____gone_____________ a dramatic transformation, not all for the good. Email, while (2. DOUBT)
_______doubting___________ a swift means of communication providing your server is fully functioning and
that the address you have contains no (3. ACCURATE) ________inaccurate_____________ has had a
significant effect on certain people, both at home and in business. For these people, the use of email has become
irresistibly (4. ADDICT) ___________addiction_______ to the extent that it is threatening their mental and
physical health. Addicts spend their day compulsively checking for email and have a (5. TEND)
_______intention__________ to panic if their server goes down. It is estimated that one in six people spend
four hours a day sending and receiving messages the equivalent to more than two working days a week. The
negative effect on productivity is something employers are well aware of.

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III. Each of the following sentences has ONE word that needs correction. Underline that word and
correct it by replacing it with ONE proper word. Write the correction in the provided blank on the right.
There is an example at the beginning (0). (0.5p)
Sentences Corrections
0. He collided with a car because he was driving too fastly. fast
1. A number of small children is educated at home. are
2. All shops were closed, so we couldn’t buy some food. shop
3. It’s worth remember that prices go up on 1 February. To remember
4. It was not until Mary was eight when she began to read. that
5. The steak was really underdone so I sent it back with instructions to cook it for other
five minutes.

PART C. READING (2.5 POINTS)

I. Read the text and circle A, B, C or D that best fits each space. (0.5p)
A volcanic eruption is possibly the most spectacular example of the incredible power of nature – and
few eruptions in history have been (1) _____ as spectacular as that of Krakatoa. Until the summer of 1883 this
volcano, (2) _____ on an island between Java and Sumatra, had been quiet for over two hundred years. In May
that year came the first (3) _____ of renewed activity. Then at 10 am on 27 August, the (4) _____ island began
to explode.
The explosions were heard 3,500 km (5) _____ in Australia. Clouds of ash were blown 80 km into the
sky, blocking out the sun and plunging the surrounding areas into complete darkness for two and a half days.
This ash circled the Earth several times, (6) _____ spectacular red sunsets all over the world (7) _____ the
following year.
The eruption triggered tidal waves which were recorded as far away as South America and Hawaii. The
biggest and most (8) _____ of these waves was 37m high; it wiped out 36,000 people who lived in the coastal
towns of Java and Sumatra.
For the next forty-five years the region remained quiet. Then in 1927 a (9) _____ of eruptions under the
sea led to the appearance of a tiny island (10) _____ Krakatoa once was. This “Child of Krakatoa” now stands
over 200m above sea level.
1. A. quite B. less C. same D. simple
2. A. moved B. placed C. situated D. stationed
3. A. clues B. flags C. notices D. signs
4. A. complete B. whole C. total D. full

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5. A. distant B. away C. long D. far
6. A. caused B. to cause C. causing D. cause
7. A. throughout B. beyond C. without D. entire
8. A. wasteful B. aggressive C. constructive D. destructive
9. A. serial B. series C. line D. bunch
10. A. who B. which C. where D. when

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write the words in the spaces provided. (0.5p)
Thailand offers near perfect conditions for snorkeling and diving among the beautiful coral reefs. There
are many resorts where you can rent equipment or sign (1) ___________ for a diving course. Whether you’re
snorkeling or diving, you should be aware of your effect on the reef structure. Too (2) _____many______
human contact with the reefs damages them in a very real way so if you are really concerned about saving these
delicate systems, you should try not to visit them at (3) ____least_______. However, very few people are that
commited to environmental concerns so the best way to minimize your impact is by not touching the reefs or by
asking your boatman not to anchor in the middle of (4) ___________. Don’t buy coral souvenirs, because
tourist demand only encourages local people to destroy the reefs so as to obtain the coral. As far as snorkeling
equipment goes, the most important thing to do is buy (5) _______for____ rent a mask that fits. Before you pay
for a diving course or expedition you should check that the diving center is authorized.

III. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer to each of
the questions. (0.7p)
Advanced civilization is heavily dependent on energy. Without reliable power sources, we couldn’t
operate machines, use transport, communicate via the Internet, or do many other things. Although everyone
recognizes the importance of energy, deciding what kind of energy the world should use in the future is not a
simple task. The two leading candidates for this role are green energy and nuclear energy.
Currently, most of the energy we use is derived from fossil fuels. Although this energy source has got us
this far, there are several problems with it. For starters, it is a finite resource which is quickly running out.
Some analysts have even estimated that the Earth could run out of coal and oil within the next 50 years.
Burning fossil fuels also creates large amount of pollution, which is harmful to the environment. Although
fossil fuels still provide the majority of our power, governments are seeking better energy sources to use going
forward.
Green energy is one option that is becoming increasingly attractive. It includes technologies such as
solar, wind, and hydro power. These are seen as clean sources of energy because they cause very little pollution.

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In addition, they are completely renewable, so there is no danger that it will run out. The major disadvantage
with green energy sources is that they are expensive.
The other alternative is nuclear power. It can provide enough electricity for the world’s needs for
hundreds of years. In addition, nuclear power is more reliable than green energy, as it doesn’t depend on
sunshine, rain, or wind to operate. The major issues with nuclear power are safety concerns and nuclear waste.
Nuclear power plants create a considerable amount of nuclear waste which is extremely hazardous to people’s
health. If they happen to have a meltdown, this could destroy the surrounding area for years to come.
The recent nuclear disaster in Fukushima, Japan brought this reality into the spotlight once again. In
response, Germany announced it would close down eight of its nuclear plants immediately, and close the rest by
2022. Meanwhile, other nations refuse to give up on nuclear power, stating that these disasters are rare. The
debate of whether to use green or nuclear power will likely continue for some time. In the end, it is believed
that both energy sources will be used to fuel our planet.
1. What is the main focus of the passage?
A. Why energy is important
B. The energy sources used in the past
C. Comparing future energy solutions
D. Discussing how disasters affect power sources
2. The word “finite” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. abundant B. limited C. sufficient D. replaceable
3. According to the passage, what is the main problem with green energy?
A. It creates lots of pollution. B. It costs a lot of money.
C. No one is interested in using it. D. It won’t work at all in many nations.
4. The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. source of power B. alternative power
C. green energy D. nuclear power
5. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Fossil fuels will continue to be the best choice for the future.
B. Nuclear energy will outweigh green energy in the near future.
C. It is easy to decide on the energy solution for the future.
D. A mix of different energy sources will be used in the future.
6. The word “spotlight” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. attention B. usage C. danger D. area of light
7. It can be inferred from the passage that _______.
A. nuclear power is more expensive than other sources
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 B. nuclear energy is renewable because it can be replenished
C. nations have different viewpoints about the utility of nuclear power
D. the nuclear disaster in Fukushima made other countries give up on nuclear power

IV. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (0.8p)
It is believed that the problem of computer security has changed over a period of time as businesses, through an
increased use of information technology, have become more and more dependent on information and the
associated information systems. At the same time, there has been limited change in the implemented security or
safeguards to these information systems.
Paragraph A
The Internet has been roughly doubling in size every year, and the associated security incidents have been
running in parity. Even if the percentage of malicious users is small, the increase in size of the Internet and in
the number of incidents of failed security is significant. The importance of the growth in the Internet can be
highlighted by the fact that in July 1991, 33% of Internet users were from the commercial sector, whereas in
July 1996, this figure had risen to 50%.
Paragraph B
In 1988, the Morris “worm” was introduced on the Internet to invade, attack and replicate itself on the network.
The response was to shut down E-mail and connectivity. However, the “fixes” were to be distributed via E-mail
and so the solution was self-defeating. As a result of this worm virus, Computer Emergency Response Team
was formed, with the Australian version starting in 1992.
Paragraph C
One of the problems with Internet security is the fact that the incidents are increasing in sophistication. One of
the reasons for this has been the increasing availability of toolkits. Although these toolkits are designed to assist
computer systems designers to protect and develop their sites, they also allow relatively ignorant intruders to
carry out increasingly complex incidents with the utilization of many routers and disguises to reach their target.
According to a US Department of Defence report, less than 1% of incidents are identified but 65% of these are
successful. Another thing to bear in mind with intruders and hackers is that they do not respect geographical or
administrative boundaries, or time zones. They may be geographically dislocated from the point of attack and
therefore operating in “off-duty” hours.
Paragraph D
The thing to remember with security is that the system administrators must get it right all the time; the intruder
must get it right just once. Evidence of this is easy to find. In 1997, a teenager hacked into a Bell Atlantic
network. His hacking crashed the computer and resulted in 600 homes, a regional airport and emergency
services being without telephone communications for six hours. And what was the punishment for this offence?
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Two years probation, community service and a fine of US$5,000.
Paragraph E
Governments are getting tough on cyber crimes, especially in the wake of September 11th. These crimes are
being linked to national security, which in the US is now of major concern to government officials and the
general public alike. And the government has been swift to act. In late 2001, the US Patriot Act was introduced.
This Act increased the maximum sentence for breaking into a computer from five to ten years. Then in July
2002, the House of Representatives approved the Cyber Security Enhancement Act. Now if a cyber crime
results in the death of an individual, the offender could face a life sentence. There has been additional fall-out
from the September 11th attacks with the FBI and other government security agencies dramatically escalating
their monitoring of the Internet. This has pushed some hackers further underground, fearful that what they had
previously been doing out of boredom or challenge could now be viewed as an act of terrorism.
Paragraph F
On the other hand, the events of September 11th have led to some ex-hackers using their extensive knowledge
and experience to join forces with security forces to aid the fight against terrorism.
Task 1: Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write your
answers in the space provided.
List of Headings Paragraphs
i. A positive aspect of hacking 0. Paragraph D ____vi____
ii. Tougher punishments for hackers 1. Paragraph A ____1______
iii. Response to Internet security 2. Paragraph B _____3_____
iv. Growth of the Internet 3. Paragraph C ____9______
v. Responsibilities of managers 4. Paragraph E ______5____
vi. Hackers vs administrators 5. Paragraph F ______6____
vii. Difficulty of detection
viii. Government agencies
ix. Common security measure

Task 2: Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage? Write:
True (T) if the statement agrees with the information
False (F) if the statement contradicts the information
Write your answers in the boxes provided.
Statements Answers
6. In July 1996, commercial sector constituted 50% of Internet usage. t

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 7. The teenager who hacked into Bell Atlantic got a prison sentence of 10 years. t
8. Some hackers are scared that government authorities could now consider them to be f
terrorists.

PART D. WRITING (2.5 POINTS)

I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the first sentence,
using the cues at the beginning of each sentence. (0.5p)
1. “I must have made a mistake in the calculations,” Ann said.
→ Ann admitted to having made a…
2. John is exhausted today because he didn’t sleep last night.
→ If John had slept last night, he wouldn’t have been exhauted…
3. Tim was suspected of selling stolen goods. The police have investigated him for days.
→ Suspected to have sold stolen goods, Tim have been investigated by the police for days
4. Immediately after his arrival, things went wrong.
→ Hardly had he arrived when things went wrong
5. Jack doesn’t know all the answers, though he pretends to.
→ Jack acts as though he knew the answers

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given. You must use NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS, including the
word given. (0.5p)
1. Laura’s teacher says she doesn’t have a serious enough attitude to her work. (SERIOUSLY)
→ Laura doesn’t take her work seriously according to her teacher.
2. The collision didn’t damage his car much. (DONE)
→ Not a great damage was done to his car in the collision.
3. Because he was injured, he couldn’t play in the next game. (PREVENTED)
→ His injury prevented him from playing in the next game.
4. He was not given details of the company’s new plans. (DARK)
→ He was kept in the dark about details of the company’s new plans.
5. David tried to remain impartial in the quarrel between his two sisters. (SIDES)
→ David tried not to take sides in the quarrel between his two sisters.

III. Write an essay on the following topic (1.5p)

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Some people believe that advanced technology has made it easier for students to learn English but it also has
had negative impact on English language learning.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
Your writing must be between 200 and 220 words.
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--- THE END ---

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