02-03-2025

9610ZMDRANKER100001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Rectilinear propagation of light means :

(1) Light is propagating very fast

(2) Light travels in a straight line
(3) Light is a wave
(4) None of the above

2) A coin is placed at bottom of a filled tank with water at a distance of 40 cm. If a person want to

see the coin from air then what will be the normal shift of a coin :-

(1) 30
(2) 10
(3) 5
(4) None of these

3) A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the
resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark
fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is :-

(1) 1.2 cm
(2) 1.2 mm
(3) 2.4 cm
(4) 2.4 mm

4) If the number of divisions on the circular scale is 100 and number of full rotations given to screw
is 8 and distance moved by the screw is 4mm, then what will be least count of the screw gauge ?

(1) 0.005 mm
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.5 mm
(4) 5 mm

5) Statement-I : A given physical relation may not be correct, even when the dimensions of each
and every term on its either side are the same.
Statement-II : Physical quantities, entirely different in nature, may possess the same dimensional
formula.

(1) Both statements are false.

(2) Both statements are true.
(3) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
(4) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.

6) The circuit diagram shown here corresponds to the logic gate, is :

(1) OR
(2) NAND
(3) NOR
(4) AND

7) The given circuit has an ideal diode connected as shown in the figure below. The current flowing

through the resistance, 3kΩ will be-

(1) Zero
(2) 1 mA
(3) 0.5 mA
(4) 0.3 mA

8) Find work done in increasing the distance by 5m.

(1) –4.5 × 109 J

(2) –9 × 109 J
(3) –7.5 × 109 J
(4) –13.5 × 109 J

9) If V = 4x2 + 5x + 6 volt then find x component of electric field at x = 2m. (here x is in meter)

(1) 13 V/m
(2) 8 V/m
(3) 5 V/m
(4) 21 V/m
10) Find the charge transferred from body to earth after closing the switch : -

(1) –6Q
(2) +6Q
(3) 7Q
(4) –7Q

11) What is the de-Broglie wavelength of the α–particle accelerated through a potential difference V?

(1)
Å

(2)
Å

(3)
Å

(4)
Å

12) Assertion : If light of some frequency (ν > ν0) is incident on a metal then all electron emit with
same kinetic energy.
Reason : Kinetic energy of electrons is directly proportional to frequency of light in photoelectric
emission.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion,
(1)
then mark (1).
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion, then mark (2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (3)
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (4).

13) The average power consumed by the given circuit is

(1) 9.6 W
(2) 4.8 W
(3) 26.66 W
(4) 13.33 W

14) The rms value of the electric field of the light coming from the sun is 720 N/C. The average total
energy density of the electromagnetic wave is-

(1) 4.58 × 10–6 J/m3

(2) 6.37 × 10–9 J/m3
(3) 81.35 × 10–12 J/m3
(4) 3.3 × 10–3 J/m3

15) A point source of electro magnetic radiation has an average power output of 1540 W. Then the
intensity of electro magnetic radiation at a distance of 7 meter will be :-

(1) 250 W/m2

(2) 2.5 W/m2
(3) 0.25 W/m2
(4) 25 W/m2

16) An ac circuit consists of a series combination of circuit elements X and Y. The current is ahead of
voltage in phase π/4. If the element X is a pure resistor of 100 Ω : (a) name the circuit element Y and
(b) calculate the rms value of current, if the rms value of voltage is 141 V.

(1) (a) capacitor (b) 1A

(2) (a) Resistor (b) 2A
(3) (a) Inductor (b) 3A
(4) (a) capacitor (b) 4A

17) Maximum amplitude of SHM so block A will not slip on block B, k = 100 N/m

(1) 2 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 8 cm

18) A body oscillates with SHM according to the equation (in SI unit), . Its
instantaneous displacement at t = 1s :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

19) A wave equation which gives the displacement along the direction is given by y = 0.001 sin (100
t + x) where, x and y are in metre and t in second. This equation represents a wave :

(1) travelling with a velocity of 100 m/s in the negative x-direction

(2) travelling with a velocity of 50/π m/s in the positive x-direction.
(3) of wavelength 1 m

(4)
of frequency

20) Two tuning forks P and Q when set vibrating, give 4 beats per second. If a prong of the fork P is
filed, the beats are reduced to 2 per second. Which is frequency of P, it that of Q is 250 Hz.?

(1) 246 Hz
(2) 250 Hz
(3) 254 Hz
(4) 242 Hz

21) Three masses of 1 kg, 6 kg and 3 kg are connected to each other with threads and are placed on

a table as shown in figure. What is the acceleration

with which the system is moving? (Take g = 10 ms–2)

(1) zero
(2) 1 m s–2
(3) 2 m s–2
(4) 3 m s–2

22) Find the normal force exerted by floor of the stationary lift. (g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 50 N
(2) 115 N
(3) 75 N
(4) 135 N

23) Select the incorrect statement :-

When a bar magnet of dipole moment is placed in a uniform magnetic field the torque on it
(1)
is
(2) Gauss's law for magnetism states that the net magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero

(3) For diamagnetic materials magnetic susceptibility whereas paramagnetic materials

Susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature

(4)
T.

24) Axis of solid cylinder of infinite length and radius R lies along y-axis it carries a uniformly

distributed current 'I' along +y direction. Magnetic field at a point is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A horizontal wire is free to slide on the vertical rails of a conducting frame as shown in figure.
The wire has a mass m and length ℓ and the resistance of the circuit is R. If a uniform magnetic field
B is directed perpendicular to the frame, the terminal speed of the wire as it falls under the force of

gravity is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
26) Figure shows an equilateral triangle ABC of side l carrying currents as shown, and placed in a
uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of triangle. The magnitude of magnetic force on

the triangle is

(1) ilB
(2) 2ilB
(3) 3ilB
(4) zero

27) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The mutual inductance of coil 1 with respect to coil 2 is the same as mutual
inductance of coil 2 with respect to coil 1.
Reason (R) : Mutual inductance between coils is independent of current passing through the coil.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

28) The radius R of the soap bubble is doubled under isothermal condition. If T be the surface
tension of soap bubble, the required surface energy in doing so is given by :

(1) 32 πR2T
(2) 24 πR2T
(3) 8 πR2T
(4) 4 πR2T

29) Water from a tap emerges vertically down with an initial speed of 1.0 ms–1. The cross-sectional
area of tap is 10–4 m2. Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream of water, and that
the flow is steady. The cross-sectional area of the stream 0.15 m below the tap is :-

(1) 5.0 × 10–4 m2

(2) 1.0 × 10–5 m2
(3) 5.0 × 10–5 m2
(4) 2.0 × 10–5 m2

30) A satellite with mass 2000 kg and angular momentum 2 × 1012 kg.m2/s is moving in an elliptical
orbit around a planet. The rate at which area is being swept out by the satellite around the planet, is
equal to :
(1) 1 × 109 m2/s
(2) 5 × 109 m2/s
(3) 5 × 108 m2/s
(4) 4 × 1015 m2/s

31) A body of mass ‘m’ kg starts falling from a distance 3R above earth’s surface. When it reaches a
distance ‘R’ above the surface of the earth of radius ‘R’ and Mass ‘M’, then its kinetic energy is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A projectile is thrown from a point O towards a 15m high wall at a distance 40m from the point
of projection. The projectile just clear the wall while moving horizontally.

The angle of projection θ & The velocity v0 of projection is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A bullet is fired into a fixed target looses one third of its velocity after travelling 4 cm. It
penetrates further D × 10–2 m before coming to rest. The value of D is : -

(1) 2.4
(2) 5.6
(3) 3.2
(4) 4.8

34) The potential energy of an object of mass m moving in xy plane in a conservative field is given by
U = ax + by, where x and y are position coordinates of the object. Find magnitude of its acceleration
:-
(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None

35) A car travelling on a smooth road passes through a curved portion of the road in form of an arc
of circle of radius 10 m. If the mass of car is 500 kg, the reaction on car at lowest point P where its

speed is 20 m/s is

(1) 35 kN
(2) 30 kN
(3) 25 kN
(4) 20 kN

36) Which of the following option is NOT correct :-

(1) Current is 0.5 A from A to B through E

(2) VA – VE = 9V
(3) VE – VB =5.5V
(4) 5W power is being supplied by 10V source

37) Resistance of a wire at 0 °C, 100 °C and temperature ‘t’ is found to be 10 , 10.2 and 10.95
respective. The value of t is __________.

(1) 748°C
(2) 748K
(3) 475K
(4) 475°F

38) A capacitor is made of a flat plate of area A and a second plate having a stair-like structure as

shown in figure. If the area of each stair is> and the height is d, the capacitance of the
arrangement is:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A capacitor has air as dielectric medium and two conducting plates of same area and they are
0.5 cm apart. When a slab of dielectric having identical area and 0.5 cm thickness is inserted
between the plates, one of the conducting plates has to be moved by 0.25 cm to keep the
capacitance same as in previous case. The dielectric constant of the slab is :
(Given )

(1) 1.50
(2) 2
(3) 0.66
(4) 2.5

40) On increasing the temperature of gas by 5°C it's pressure increases by 0.5% from it's initial
value at constant volume then what is initial temperature of gas :-

(1) 1000°C
(2) 1000 K
(3) 500°C
(4) 500 K

41) In an ideal refrigerator, heat from inside at 277K is transferred to a room at 300 K. How many
joules of heat will be delivered to the room for each joule of electric energy consumed?

(1) 12 J
(2) 1 J
(3) 13 J
(4) 25 J

42) On Celsius scale temp of a body increases by 30°C, then the increase in temperature on
Fahrenheit scale (°F) will be :-

(1) 50°
(2) 40°
(3) 30°
(4) 54°

43) Two men support a uniform horizontal beam at its two ends, if one of them suddenly lets go, the
force exerted by the beam on the other man will :-

(1) Remain unaffected

(2) Increase
(3) Decrease
(4) Become unequal to the force exerted by him on the beam

44) For the given uniform square lamina ABCD, whose centre is O :-

(1) IAC =

(2) = IEF
(3) IAC = 3IEF
(4) IAC = IEF

45) Which of the following is true in an inelastic collision (in the absence of any external force)?

Momentum Kinetic energy Total energy

(1) conserved conserved conserved

(2) conserved not conserved conserved

(3) conserved conserved not conserved

(4) not conserved not conserved conserved

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

CHEMISTRY

1) How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?

(1) 0.02
(2) 3.125 × 10–2
(3) 1.25 × 10–2
(4) 2.5 × 10–2

2) For H-atom, the energy required for the removal of electron from various sub-shells is given as
under :

The order of the energies would be :

(1) E1, E2, E3

(2) E3 > E2 > E1
(3) E1 = E2 = E3
(4) None of these

3) The equilibrium, SO2Cl2(s) ⇌ SO2(g) + Cl2(g) is attained at 25° C in a closed container an inert gas,
helium, is introduced. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct ?

(1) Concentrations of SO2, Cl2 and SO2Cl2 are changed

(2) No effect on equilibrium
(3) Concentration of SO2 is reduced
(4) Kp of reaction is increasing

4) Solubility of AgBr will be minimum in :-

(1) Pure water

(2) 0.1 M CaBr2
(3) 0.1 M NaBr
(4) 0.1 M AgNO3

5) Given at 25° C
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ⇌ 6H2O(ℓ) + 4NO(g) ; ΔH° = –1169 kJ mol–1
The value of ΔU° for this reaction at 25° C will be about :

(1) –1181.4 kJ mol

(2) –1194.8 kJ mol–1
(3) –1144.2 kJ mol-1
(4) –1156.6 kJ mol–1

6) If M represent molecular mass of Mn3O4 then what will be its equivalent mass if it undergoes
disproportionation reaction as shown:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The reagent of known concentration which is taken in burette is

(1) Titrand
(2) Titration
(3) Titrant
(4) End point

8) Following structure of tartaric acid represents :

(1) dextrorotatory form

(2) Laevorotatory form
(3) meso form
(4) trans form

9)
A and B are :-

(1) Homomer
(2) Enantiomer
(3) Diastereomer
(4) Not isomer

10)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11)
what will be "C" ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Which of the following reduces Tollen's reagent?

(1) Sucrose
(2) Maltose
(3) Starch
(4) Cellulose

14) Compare the rate of α - β elimination :-

(1) 3 > 1 > 2 > 4

(2) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4
(3) 3 > 2 > 4 > 1
(4) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

15)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The value of molal elevation constant (Kb) depend upon

(1) Solution
(2) Nature of solvent
(3) Nature of solute
(4) Freezing point of solution

17) Which are colligative properties

(1) Boiling point, osmotic pressure

(2) Freezing point and osmosis
(3) Elevation in boiling point and osmotic pressure
(4) Vapour pressure and depression in freezing point

18) For a gaseous reaction r = k[A]2[B]. If volume of container is reduced to 1/3 of initial volume,
then rate of reaction will be :-

(1) 3 times
(2) 27 times
(3) 1/27 times
(4) 1/9 times

19) A reaction is 50 % complete in 2 hours and 75% complete in 4 hours. The order of reaction is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

20) A reaction 2A + 2B → D + E takes place in two steps

(i) A + 2B → 2C + D (slow)
(ii) A + 2C → E (fast)
The rate law of the reaction is :

(1) rate = k[A]2[B]2

(2) rate = k [A]2[B]2[C]
(3) rate = k[A][B]
(4) rate = k[A][B]2

21) What is correct for working Galvanic cell?

(1) Anode is negative electrode

(2) Current flows from anode to cathode in outer circuit
(3) Electrons flow from anode to cathode through solution
(4) Ecell = –ve

0
22) E of Mg2+ | Mg, Zn+2 | Zn and Fe2+ | Fe are –2.37 V, –0.76 V and –0.44 V respectively. Which of
the following is correct?
(1) Mg oxidizes Fe
(2) Zn oxidizes Fe
(3) Zn reduces Mg2+
(4) Zn reduces Fe2+

23) At infinite dilution, the conductances of Ba2+ and Cl– are 127 and 76 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1. The
equivalent conductivity of BaCl2 at infinite dilution is:

(1) 101.5 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1

(2) 203 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1
(3) 139.5 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1
(4) 279 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1

24) In salt analysis, which reaction confirms the presence of Halide ions like chloride, bromide, or
iodide?

(1) Addition of dilute HCl produces white fumes.

(2) Reaction with silver nitrate forms precipitates of different colors.
(3) Treating with NH4OH produces a yellow solution.
(4) Heating the salt with concentrated H2SO4 forms white vapors.

25) Pair of species in which both contains X–X bond (Single or double)?
Where X = S, P

(1) H4P2O7, H4P2O6

(2) H2S4O6, H2S2O3
(3) H2S2O8, H4P2O8
(4) None of the above

26) The formation of is difficult compared to because:

(1) lone pair of phosphorus is optically inert

(2) lone pair of phosphorus resides in almost pure p-orbital
(3) lone pair of phosphorus resides at sp3 orbital
(4) lone pair of phosphorus resides in almost pure s-orbital

27) Ni2+ ion can be estimated by using dimethyl glyoxime and forms a cherry-red precipitate. The
complex is stabilized by :

(1) ionic bond

(2) coordination covalent bond
(3) dative π-bond
(4) hydrogen bond

28) IUPAC name of [Fe(O2)(CN)4Cl]4– is

(1) chlorotetracyano dioxoferrate (II) ion
(2) chlorotetracyano peroxoferrate (II) ion
(3) chlorotetracyano superoxoferrate (II) ion
(4) tetracyanochloro superoxoferrate (II) ion

29) The magnetic moment of [MnX4]2– is 5.9 BM. The geometry of the complex ion is :
(X = monodentate halide ion)

(1) tetrahedral
(2) square planar
(3) both are possible
(4) none of these

30) Statement-I : The manganate & permanganate ions are tetrahedral.

Statement-II : The π-bonding takes place by overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
manganese.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.

31) Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct
electronic configuration of gadolinium?

(1) [Xe] 4f9 5s1

(2) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2
(3) [Xe] 4f6 5d2 6s2
(4) [Xe] 4f8 6d2

32) The first ionization potential of Na, Mg and Si are respectively 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol–1. The
ionization potential of Al will be closer to

(1) 760 kJ mol–1

(2) 575 kJ mol–1
(3) 801 kJ mol–1
(4) 419 kJ mol-1

33) Which of the following electronegativity order is incorrect ?

(1) Al < Mg < B < N

(2) Al < Si < C < N
(3) Mg < Be < B < N
(4) S < Cl < O < F

34) Eka-aluminium and Eka-silicon are known as-

(1) Gallium and germanium
(2) Aluminium and Silicon
(3) Iron and sulphur
(4) Proton & Silicon

35) Assertion (A) :- SF6 is not a stable molecule.

Reason (R) :- A stable molecule must have 8 electrons around the central atom, i.e., octet rule
should be satisfied.

(1) If both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
If both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect.
(4) If both assertion and reason are incorrect.

36) Which is the correct sequence in the following properties ? For the correct order mark (T) and
for the incorrect order mark (F) :
(A) Acidic strength : HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(B) Melting point : PH3 < AsH3 < SiH3 < NH3
(C) Boiling point : NH3 < SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3
(D) acidic nature : NH3 < AsH3 < SbH3

(1) FTFT
(2) TFTF
(3) FFTT
(4) FFTF

37) The possible bond angle and % of d-character in SF6 are

(1) 120°, 20%

(2) 90°, 33%
(3) 109°, 25%
(4) 90°, 25%

38) Assertion: Solid NaCl does not conduct electricity.

Reason: Solid NaCl does not contain ions.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

39) Which is not the resonance structure of aniline ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Assertion (A) : Lassaigne’s method is used to detect nitrogen, halogen, phosphorus and sulphur
in organic compounds.
Reason (R) : Organic compounds being covalent normally do not have ionisable groups, hence,
direct test is not possible.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

41) Which of the following best explains the relative stabilities of the eclipsed and staggered forms
of ethane? The ……… form has the most ……. strain.

(1) eclipsed, staggered

(2) eclipsed, torsional
(3) staggered, steric
(4) staggered, torsional

42) Match the compounds in Column I with their ozonolysis product by O3/H2O/Zn Column II.

Column I Column II
A. But – 1 – ene 1. OHCCH2 – CH2CHO
B. But – 2 – ene 2. CH3CHO
C. 2 – methyl prop – 1 – ene 3. CH3CH2CHO, HCHO
D. Cyclobutene 4. CH3COCH3, HCHO
(1) A → 3, B → 2, C → 4, D → 1
(2) A → 2, B → 3, C → 4, D → 1
(3) A → 3, B → 4, C → 2, D → 1
(4) A → 3, B → 2, C → 1, D → 4

43) Identify the compounds A and B in the following reaction sequence

(1) A is ethylene, B is acetaldehyde

(2) A is acetylene, B is propionaldehyde
(3) A is ethane, B is acetaldehyde
(4) A is acetylene, B is acetaldehyde

44) Consider the following reaction

Choose the correct option :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

45) Which of the following compounds will not undergo Fridel-Crafts’ reaction easily?

(1) Cumene
(2) Xylene
(3) Nitrobenzene
(4) Toluene

BIOLOGY

1)

Read the following statements regarding electrical synapse

(A) At electrical synapses, the membrane of pre & post synaptic neurons are close proximity.
(B) Electrical current can't flow directly from one neuron to another.
(C) Impulse transmission across electrical synapse is very similar to impulse conduction along a
single dendron. (D) Transmission in electrical synapse is always faster than chemical synapse. How
many of above statement are false ?
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

2)

Identify the correct match from column I, II and III

Coloumn I Coloumn II Coloumn III

Sexual
Cerebral
(1) Pons (a) (i) behaviour and
cortex
emotions
Below mid brain
Association and upper side Memory and
(2) (b) (ii)
area of medulla communication
oblongata
Cerebral
Hemisphere and
Limbic Pneumotaxic
(3) (c) deep structure (iii)
system centre
like amygdala &
hippocampus
(1) 1–b–ii, 2–a–i,3–c–iii
(2) 1–a–i, 2–b–ii, 3–c–iii
(3) 1–c–iii, 2–b–ii, 3–a–i
(4) 1–b–iii, 2–a–ii, 3–c–i

3) Tetany is caused by deficiency of :-

(1) Oxytocin
(2) GH
(3) Vasopressin
(4) Parathyroid hormone

4) What will be the effect if adenohypophysis is removed ?

(1) Oxytocin and ADH will not be synthesized

(2) Oxytocin and ADH will be synthesized but could not be stored
(3) Thyroid gland will not be stimulated
(4) Oxytocin and ADH hormone will not be released properly

5)

Deficiency of a hormone causes diabetes insipidus, this hormone is synthesized in ?

(1) Posterior pituitary

(2) Anterior pituitary
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Thyroid gland

6) Assertion (A) :- Parasympathetic neural signal decrease the cardiac output.

Reason (R) :- Parasympathetic neural signal decrease the rate of heart beat, speed of conduction of
action potential.

(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

7) Select the correct pair of blood cells, with their highest percentage and lowest percentage in
blood respectively ?

(1) Neutrophil - Basophil

(2) Neutrophil - Monocyte
(3) Lymphocyte - Eosinophil
(4) RBC - Basophil

8) Choose the correct option for X, Y and Z :-

Blood group Antigen on RBCs Antibody in plasma Donor’s Group

A A Anti-B A, O

B B Anti-A B, O

AB X Nil AB, A, B, O

O Y Anti-A, B Z
(1) X-A, O; Y-A, B; Z-Nil
(2) X-A,B; Y-Nil; Z- O
(3) X-B, O; Y-Nil; Z- A, B
(4) X-A,B; Y-anti A; Z-A,B,AB

9) SA node is called the pace maker of the heart. Why?

(1) It can change contractile activity generated by AV node.

(2) It delays the transmission of impulse between the atria and ventricles.
(3) It gets stimulated when it receives neural signal.
(4) It initiates and maintains the rhythmic contractile activity of heart.

10) The maximum volume of the air a person can breathe in after forced expiration is -

(1) ERV+TV+IRV
(2) Vital capacity
(3) Functional residual capacity
(4) Both (1) and (2)

11) At the tissue level where partial pressure of CO2 is _____ due to _____, CO2 diffuses into blood
and form _____ and _____.

(1) High, Anabolism, H2CO3, H2

(2) High, Catabolism, HCO3- ,H+
- +
(3) Low, Catabolism, HCO3 , H
(4) Low, Anabolism, H2CO3, H2

12) ________ is an active ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for ATP.

(1) Short arm

(2) Globular head
(3) Troponin
(4) Both (2) and (3)

13) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(i) Classification is the providing of standardize names to the organisms such that a particular
organism known by the same all over the world.
(ii) Taxonomy is the correct description of an organism and to recognition in its scientific name.
(iii) Order and other higher taxonomic the categories are identified based on aggregates of
character.
(iv) Zoological names are based on International Code for Zoological Nomenclature (ICZN).

(1) Only (i)

(2) Both (iii) and (iv)
(3) Only (iv)
(4) All of these

14) Identify the (a) & (b) figure and their

(P) and (Q) part.

a - Tobacco Mosaic virus P → Capsid

(1)
b - Bacteriophage Q → Head

P → RNA
(2) a - Bacteriophage b - Tobacco Mosaic virus
Q → Bacteriophage
 a - Potato Mosaic virus P → Head
(3)
b - Cyanophage Q → RNA

a - Smallpox virus
(4) P → RNA Q → Head
b - Influenza virus
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.

(2) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD.
(3) Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously.
(4) Viruses causes diseases like mumps, smallpox, herpes, influenza and gonorrhea.

16) Match the organisms in column-I with habitats in column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Halophiles (i) Hot springs

(b) Thermoacidophiles (ii) Heterocysts

(c) Methanogens (iii) Guts of ruminants

(d) Cyanobacteria (iv) Salty area

Select the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

17) Select the correct statement :-

(1) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous

(2) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
(3) The leaves are small (microphylls) as in selaginella.
(4) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate

18) Which classes of algae possess pigment fucoxanthin and pigment phycoerythrin, respectively ?

(1) Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae

(2) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(3) Chlorophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(4) Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae

19) Examine the figure A, B, C and D. In which one of the four options all the items A, B, C and D are
correct ?

(1) A - Equisetum, B - Ginkgo C - Selaginella, D - Lycopodium

(2) A - Selaginella, B - Equisetum, C - Salvinia, D -Ginkgo
(3) A - Funaria, B - Adiantum, C - Salvinia, D - Riccia
(4) A - Chara, B - Marchantia, C - Fucus, D - Pinus

20) Which of the following equation is for sigmoid growth curve of population ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which of the following is not a feature of population:-

(1) Birth rate

(2) Death rate
(3) Dominance
(4) All of the above

22) Which among these breeds only once in its life time

(1) Pacific salmon fish

(2) Pelagic fish
(3) Bamboo plant
(4) Both (1) and (3)

23) Which of the following is not a favourable factor for increasing the rate of decomposition ?

(1) Oxygen richness of soil.

(2) Detritus rich in lignin
(3) Warm environment
(4) High soil moisture

24) Which of the following ecosystem is most productive ?

(1) Tundra
(2) Coniferous forest
(3) Deciduous forest
(4) Tropical rain forest

25) In ecological pyramids.

(1) The trophic level represents a species as such

(2) A given species always occupy more than one trophic levels
(3) Energy at a lower trophic level is always more than that at a higher level
(4) Decomposers are always kept at bottom trophic level

26) India constitutes _______Per cent of the world’s land area and contributes ______ Percent of the
global Species diversity.

(1) 1.0, 5.5

(2) 5.5, 1.0
(3) 8.1, 2.4
(4) 2.4, 8.1

27) In "rivet popper hypothesis" rivet indicates?

(1) Community
(2) Biosphere
(3) Ecosystem
(4) Species

28) Which one of the following is not a female secondary sex organ?

(1) Vagina
(2) Uterus
(3) Oviduct
(4) Ovary

29) The secretion of which gland helps in the lubrication of penis?

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Prostate
(3) Bulbourethral
(4) Epididymis

30) If A stands for seminal vesicles, B stands for bulbourethral glands, C stands for prostate gland,
then which of the following is true?

(1) A and C occur in pair

(2) A and B occur in pair
(3) B and C occur in pair
(4) None of these

31) Male germ cells are known as :

(1) Sperms
(2) Spermatogonia
(3) Spermatid
(4) Sertoli cells

32) In context of reproductive health, STD stands for

(1) Sexually Terminal Disease

(2) Sexually Transmitted Disease
(3) Sexually Transformed Disease
(4) Sexually Transducted Disease

33) The amniocentesis test is based on ________ to determine the sex of developing foetus.

(1) External genitalia

(2) Secondary sexual characters
(3) Chromosomal pattern
(4) Embryonic enzymes

34) Who proposed the theory of chemical evolution for the first time?

(1) Oparin and Haldane

(2) Miller
(3) Louis Pasteur
(4) Darwin

35) The first non-cellular form of life could have originated ________ billion years back.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) The fitness referred to in Darwin’s theory is :

(1) Physical fitness

(2) Mental fitness
(3) Reproductive fitness
(4) All of these

37) Malarial parasites require two hosts. They are :

(1) Humans, Female Anopheles mosquito

(2) Humans, Aedes egypti
(3) Cattle, Female Anopheles mosquito
(4) Cattle, Aedes egypti

38) In common cold, which part of respiratory system is not infected?

(1) Nose
(2) Respiratory passage
(3) Lungs
(4) All of these

39) Which of the following is not a bacterial disease?

(1) Dysentery
(2) Plague
(3) Polio
(4) Diphtheria

40) A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being is termed as :

(1) Disease
(2) Comfort
(3) Health
(4) Hygiene

41) Restriction enzyme breaks :

(1) Glycosidic linkage

(2) H-bond
(3) Sugar–phosphate linkage
(4) All of these

42) Which of the following is true about EFB definition of biotechnology?

(1) It includes traditional view.

(2) It includes modern molecular biotechnology.
Definition is the integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and
(3)
molecular analogues for products and services.
(4) All the above
43) EcoRI cuts palindrome sequence which produces overhanging stretches called sticky ends on
each strand. These are named sticky because :

(1) They can combine with any DNA.

(2) They form hydrogen bonds with their complementary cut counterpart.
(3) They facilitate the action of the enzyme DNA ligase.
(4) Both (2) and (3)

44) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

A Gene therapy i Separation of DNA fragments

B RNA interference ii Diagnostic test for AIDS

C ELISA iii Cellular defence

D Gel Electrophoresis iv Allows correction of a gene defect

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A → iv; B → i; C → ii; D → iii
(2) A → iv; B → ii; C → iii; D → i
(3) A → iv; B → iii; C → ii; D → i
(4) A → iv; B → iii; C → i; D → ii

45)

Transgenic plants (genetically modified or GM plants) are produced by inserting desired genes in
the plasmid of :

(1) E.Coli
(2) Pseudomonas
(3) Bacillus subtilis
(4) Agrobacterium

46) Golden rice is a :

(1) Hybrid
(2) GM plant
(3) Transgenic plant
(4) Both (2) and (3)

47) To analyse the chemical composition of living tissue we solubilize them in :

(1) HNO3
(2) HCl
(3) CF3COOH
(4) CI3CCOOH
48)
The diagrams represent the nitrogenous bases. Identify the correct combination.

(1) A→Adenine; B→Thymine

(2) A→Guanine; B→Uracil
(3) A→Adenine; B→Uracil
(4) A→Guanine; B→Thymine

49) Select the correct statement:

Increase in substrate concentration, increases the velocity of enzymatic reaction at first then it
(1)
reaches maximum and further increment does not occur.
In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular
(2)
structure.
(3) Competitive inhibition are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens.
(4) All of these

50) Assertion - Malpighian tubules are excretory organs in most of the insects.
Reason - These help in excretion of urea and creatinine.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but reason is true.

51) Which of the following features activates J.G. cell

(I) When Blood pressure increase
(II) When Glomerular blood pressure decrease
(III) When Glomerular blood flow decrease
(IV) When Glomerular blood pressure increase
Choose correct option :

(1) I, IV
(2) I,II,V
(3) II, III, IV
(4) II, III

52) Which one of the following option gives the correct characterisation of layers of anther wall
(A,B,C) according to the their nature or function :
 A B C
Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum

(1) Hygroscopic Long lasting Dehiscence

(2) Protection Ephemeral Dehiscence

(3) Hygroscopic Storage of nutrients Nourishes

(4) Ephemeral Nourishes Storage of food granules

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) Identify the A,B,C in given chart with respect to pollination.

(1) A-Hypohydrophily, B-Epihydrophily, C-By insect

(2) A-Epihydrophily, B-Hypohydrophily, C-By air
(3) A-Hypohydrophily, B-By air, C-Epihydrophily
(4) A-Hypohydrophily, B-Epihydrophily, C-Epihydrophily

54) Identify A, B and C :-

(1) A - False fruit, B-True fruit, C-Parthenocarpic fruit

(2) A - True fruit, B-False fruit, C-Parthenogenesis
(3) A-False fruit, B-Parthenocarpic fruit, C-True fruit
(4) A-False fruit, B-Parthenogenesis, C-True fruit

55) Zygomorphic flowers, odd number of petals, polypetalous and monocarpellary flowers are the
characters present in :-

(1) Liliaceae
(2) Cucurbitaceae
(3) Malvaceae
(4) Fabaceae

56) Given figure represents position of floral parts on thalamus :-

Select correct examples for A, B, C and D :-

(1) A-Mustard, B-Plum, C-Rose, D-Cucumber

(2) A-Plum, B-Brinjal, C-Cucumber, D-Rose
(3) A-Brinjal, B-Cucumber, C-Plum, D-Guava
(4) A-Mustard, B-Plum, C-Cucumber, D-Rose

57) Hypogynous flower, uni or bilocular ovary, false septum, reticulate venation, many seeded fruit,
parietal placenta are the characters of :-

(1) Brassicaceae
(2) Cucurbitaceae
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Liliaceae

58) Starch sheath, heterogenous pericycle, large pith, conjoint vascular bundles and endarch xylem
are characters of :-

(1) Monocot stems

(2) Monocot roots
(3) Dicot stems
(4) Monocot stem

59) Find the incorrect statement from given below :-

(1) Casparian strips are present in both monocot and dicot stem
(2) Heterogenous pericycle is present in both root and stem
(3) Large conspicuous pith is present in both dicot and monocot stem
(4) All are incorrect

60) With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements
is not correct ?

(1) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight
(2) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have
(3)
much lower temperature optimum
(4) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 enriched atmosphere for higher yield

61) In the biosynthetic phase of C4 plants, malic acid or aspartic acid are transported from mesophyll
cells to the bundle sheath cells and are broken down to release :-

(1) CO2 and Phosphoenol Pyruvate

(2) CO2 and oxaloacetic acid
(3) CO2 and 3-Carbon molecule
(4) CO2 and Ribulose 1, 5 bisphosphate

62) Assertion (A) :- Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis is known as dark reaction.

Reason (R) :- It takes place in absence of light.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct
(4) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct

63) At the end of the Krebs cycle, but before the electron transport chain, the oxidation of glucose
has produced a net gain of :-

(1) 3CO2, 5NADH2, 1FADH2, 2ATP

(2) 6CO2, 10NADH2, 2FADH2, 4ATP
(3) 6CO2, 10NADH2, 2FADH2, 38ATP
(4) None of the above is correct

64) The last or terminal cytochrome in respiratory chain is :

(1) Cytochrome a
(2) Cytochrome a3
(3) Cytochrome C
(4) Cytochrome b

65) Glycolysis requires :-

(1) Cytoplasmic enzymes, ADP, ATP, NAD

(2) FAD, Cytochromes, Proteins, NADP
(3) FAD, NAD, Proteins, Cytochromes
(4) Mitochondrial enzymes, ATP, NAD, ADP

66) Match the following :

Column I Column II
 (A) Auxin (i) Derivatives of carotenoids

(B) Gibberellin (ii) Gas

(C) Cytokinin (iii) Adenine derivatives

(D) Ethylene (iv) Terpenes

(E) Abscisic acid (v) Indole compounds

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-v, D-iii, E-iv
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii, E-v

67) Assertion :- Gibberellin induces seed germination & break seed dormancy.
Reason :- Gibberellin induces the synthesis of hydrolysing enzymes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False

68) Identify the correctly matched option.

A sac like structure on the ventral side of

(1) Sinus venosus
the heart.

Hepatic portal Atrial connection between kidney and lower

(2)
system parts of the body.

A triangular structure that joins the right

(3) Conus arteriosus
atrium.

Venous connection between kidney and

(4) renal portal system
lower parts of the body.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) Identify the correct statement among the following with respect to cockroach.

(1) Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal styles which are absent in females.
(2) In both sexes, the 7th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci.
A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic or gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut
(3)
and hindgut.
Respiratory system consists of a network of trachea, that open through 10 small holes called
(4)
spiracles.

70) Find incorrectly matched option.

 (1) Squamous epithelium Found in air sacs of lungs

(2) Cuboidal epithelium tubular parts of nephrons

(3) Columnar epithelium lining of stomach and intestine

(4) Ciliated epithelium found in ducts of glands

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) All of the following are true except.

(1) Connective tissues are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals.
(2) The intercellular material of cartilage is solid and pliable and resists compression.
(3) Bones have a hard and pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
(4) Cartilage, bones and blood are various types of specialised connective tissues.

72) Choose the most appropriate option with marine water fishes.

(1) Scoliodon, Pristis, Clarias

(2) Pristis, Trygon, Catla
(3) Trygon, Exocoetus, Hippocampus
(4) Exocoetus, Hippocampus, Labeo

73) Match the following columns and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

a Ichthyophis i Presence of mammary glands

b Chameleon ii Fully ossified endoskeleton

c Psittacula iii Dual life

d Macropus iv Creeping or crawling locomotion

(1) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
(2) a–i, b–iii, c–iv, d–ii
(3) a–ii, b–iv, c–i, d–iii
(4) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv

74) Economically important insect → ___X___.

Vector → ___Y___.
Hooks and suckers → ___Z___.

(1) X–Bombyx, Y–Culex, Z–Plasmodia

(2) X–Laccifer, Y–Aedes, Z–Taenia
(3) X–Aedes, Y–Bombyx, Z–Planaria
(4) X–Culex, Y–Laccifer, Z–Fasciola

75) When IA and IB genes are present together then both express their own type of sugars, this is
because of :-

(1) Dominance
(2) Co-dominance
(3) Incomplete dominance
(4) Pleiotrophism

76) Which is not always true for genes in diploid organisms ?

(1) They occur in pairs

(2) They segregate at the time of gamete formation
(3) Only one of each pair is transmitted to a gamete
(4) One pair segregates independently of another pair

77) In haplodiploid sex-determination system as seen in honey bee :

(1) Males produce sperms by meiosis

(2) Males do have father and thus can have sons.
(3) Unfertilised egg develops as a male (drone) by means of parthenogenesis
(4) Females are mostly haploid

78) Select correct statement about protein synthesis :-

(1) Translation begins when mRNA attaches to small subunit of ribosome.

(2) Peptidase catalyses formation of peptide bond.
(3) UTRs are present between start and stop codons
(4) At the end of translation, release factor binds to initiation codon

79) Which of the following is true for Lac-operon :-

(i) Inactive repressor is formed (from i-gene)
(ii) Operates an anabolic pathway
(iii) Inducer, inactivates repressor protein
(iv) Three structural genes z,y,a are involved
(v) i-gene synthesizes repressor constitutively

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) ii, iii, iv
(3) ii, iii, v
(4) iii, iv, v

80) Statement-I:- Both strands of DNA are copied during transcription.

Statement-II:- The principle of complementarity governs the process of transcription.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

81) Assertion :- In bacteria transcription & translation can be coupled process.

Reason :- In bacteria transcription & translation take place in the same compartment.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

82) Select the incorrect statement regarding S-phase of interphase.

(1) Occurs between G1 and G2

(2) DNA replicates in the nucleus
(3) Centrioles duplicates in the cytoplasm
(4) As DNA is doubled and number of chromosomes are also double

83) Cytokinesis in plant cells occur by ______ method in ______ direction.

From the following options choose the correct terms for above blanks respectively :-

(1) furrowing, centrifugal

(2) cell plate, centrifugal
(3) furrowing, centripetal
(4) Cell plate, centripetal

84) Read the following terms :-

(a) Crossing over
(b) Synapsis
(c) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(d) Division of centromere
(e) Nuclear membrane disappear
Which term are related to prophase-I ?

(1) a, b, c, d and e
(2) a, b, c and d
(3) a, b, d and e
(4) a, b, c and e

85) Find out the correct statement :

(a) Division of centromeres takes place during anaphase–I of meiosis
(b) Spindle fibres disappear completely in telophase of mitosis
(c) Nucleoli reappears at telophase of mitosis
(d) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes takes place during prophase–I of meiosis

(1) Only b
(2) a, b, c only
(3) a, b, d only
(4) b, c, d, only

86) Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in an ascending order of their
size. Choose the correct option among the followings:

i. Mycoplasma ii. Ostrich eggs

iii. Human RBC iv. Bacteria

(1) i, iv, iii & ii
(2) i, ii, iii & iv
(3) ii. i, iii & iv
(4) iii, ii, i & iv

87) Which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Nuclear matrix or nucleoplasm contains nucleolus and chromatin.
(b) Outer nuclear membrane usually remains continuous with the ER and also bears ribosomes on it.
(c) Small and less number of nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis.
(d) The nucleolus is spherical and membranous structure.

(1) a and b
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) b, c and d

88) Protein which can be easily extracted from plasma membrane is known as :-

(1) Integral protein

(2) Tunnel protein
(3) Peripheral protein
(4) Transmembrane protein

89) Shape of animal cell is provided and maintained by

(1) Cell wall

(2) Cell membrane
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Cytoskeleton

90)

Match the following column correctly :

Column- I Column- II

A Statins i Monascus purpureus

 B Cyclosporin ii Trichoderma

C Acetic acid iii Acetobacter aceti

D Butyric acid iv Lactobacillus

E Lactic acid v Clostridium

(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D-v, E - iv
(2) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D-iv, E - v
(3) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D-iv, E - v
(4) A - v, B - iii, C - ii, D-i, E - iv
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 4 1 2 2 1 3 4 3 3 4 2 1 2 1 3 4 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 3 1 4 1 2 2 3 3 4 2 3 1 3 2 2 2 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 2 2 4 3 3 3 3 2 1 1 2 2 3 2 3 2 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 3 2 2 4 4 3 1 1 2 2 1 1 4 1 2 3 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 4 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 4 3 3 1 4 2 4 4 2 2 2 1 4 1 3 2 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 2 4 3 4 4 4 3 2 2 2 3 1 3 3 1 3 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 2 3 4 4 4 3 4 3 4 3 3 3 4 1 1 3 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 2 2 1 3 1 4 1 4 3 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 2 4 4 1 1 3 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Theory based.

2)

3) Width of central bright fringe

= 2.4 × 10–3 m
= 2.4 mm

4) 8 rotation of circular scale = 4 mm on main scale

1 rotation = ⇒ mm
100 parts on circular scale = 0.5 mm = Pitch
1 part on circular scale = 0.005 mm = L.C. of screw gauge

5) Both statements are true.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

6) True table

A B Y=

0 1 1

1 0 1

1 1 0

0 0 1

It is a NAND gate.

7) ∵ The ideal diode is in forward bias.

∴ It will behave as an connecting wire.
Hence, current across 3kΩ resistance will be zero.

8)
When distance increases by 5m,
Separation between charges becomes 9m

Work done in this process

W = Uf – Ui = 6 × 109 – 13.5 × 109
⇒ W = –7.5 × 109 J

9)
At x = 2m ⇒ Ex = –21 V/m

10)
After closing the switch outer sphere will get earthed so its potential will become zero, Let us
assume Q’ charge appears on it finally after earthing.
⇒ Vout = 0

⇒
⇒ Q’ = –Q

Initially outer sphere was having 6Q

charge and finally it becomes –Q
that means 7Q charged transferred from body to earth. (or –7Q from earth to body)
⇒ QTransfer = 7Q from Body to earth (–7Q from earth to Body.)

11)
On putting

⇒λ= Å

12) 0 ≤ KE ≤ KEmax
KEmax ∝ ν
13)

14) Erms = 720

E0 = × 720 N/C

=
= 4.58 × 10–6 J/m3

15)

intensity

I = 2.5 W/m2

16) As ,

or

17) Let Maximum amplitude of SHM so block A will not skip on B is x0, k = 100 N/m

the,

18) Given, (where, x is a displacement)

⇒ ⇒

19) The standard equation of a wave travelling with amplitude α in the negative x-direction
with angular velocity ω is given by
y = αsin(ωt + kx) ...(i)
where, k is a wave number.
We compare the given equation with the given equation
α = 0.001 ⇒ ω = 100 and k = 1

Velocity,

wavelength,

Frequency,

20) fP – fQ = ±4
If prong of the fork P is filled, fp
Therefore fP – fQ = –4 (as difference decrease)
fQ = 250 Hz
fP = 250 – 4 = 246 Hz

21)

22)

For block

N – 5g = 5a ⇒ N = 5(g+a)
= 5 (10 + 5) = 75 N

23) Theoretical.

24)

Top view
B= = =

25)

Now
Now for terminal velocity
⇒ BIℓ = mg

⇒ ⇒

26) FBA = Bi1ℓ

FBCA = Bi2ℓ
Fnet = Bi1ℓ + Bi2ℓ
= Bℓ(i1 + i2) = Bℓi

27) M1,2 = M2,1

Independent of current.

28) Initial surface energy

U1 = 2 × 4πR2T = 8 πR2T [∵ Soap bubble has 2 free surfaces]
Final surface energy,
U2 = 2 × 4π(2R)2T = 32πR2T
Hence, required energy
= 32 πR2T – 8πR2T = 24πR2T

29) Decrease in potential energy = increase in kinetic energy

∴
or or vf = 2 ms–1
Now, from continuity equation,

Velocity has become two times. Hence, area of cross-section will remain half.

30)

31)

Initial height:
The potential energy of the body initially will be:

At the height R,

Potential energy:

Gain in kinetic energy is equal to loss in potential energy.

32)

∵ R = 40 + 40 = 80 m

∵ ∴ 15 = 40 tan θ

∴ ∴

∴ ⇒ m/s

33) v2 – u2 = 2as

= u2 + 2(–a)(4 × 10–2)

= u2 – 2a(4 × 10–2)

…(1)
 …(2)
(1)/(2)

x = 3.2 × 10–2m

34) U = ax + by

so acceleration =
Hence option (A)

35)

N – 5000 = 500 ×
⇒ N = 25000
⇒ N = 25K

36) = 0.5 A from A to B through E.

VA – VE = -9V
VE – VB = 5.5V
Power supplied by 10V source = 10X0.5 = 5W

37) We know that

Resistance R = R0(1 + T)

Taking temperature 0°C and 100°C at a time

 ...(1)

Taking temperature 0°C and t°C we get

[using (i)]

38) Capacitance of capacitor with air between plate,

All capacitor are in parallel combination.

39) Capacitance if air is used as medium,

Capacitance if slab is used

40)

Pv = mRT

P∝T

ΔT = 5°C = 5 K

41)
 ⇒

42)

ΔF = 54°

43)

R' < R

44) By the theorem of perpendicular axes,

Iz = Ix + Iy or, Iz = 2Iy
(∴ Ix = Iy by symmetry of the figure)

IEF = .....(i)
 Again, by the same theorem,
Iz = IAC + IBD = 2IAC
(∴ IAC = IBD by symmetry of the figure)

∴ IAC = .....(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get IEF = IAC

45) In an inelastic collision (when net external force is zero) momentum and total energy is
conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved.

CHEMISTRY

46) = 0.03125

47)

For H-atom (E1 = E2 = E3)

48) Addition of inert gas at constant volume does not affect the equilibrium.

49)

AgBr in 0.1 M CaBr2

AgBr ⇌ Ag+ + Br–
– s' s'
CaBr2 ⇌ Ca + 2Br–
+2

– 0.1 0.2
–
[Br ] = s' + 0.2 ≈ 0.2
Ksp of AgBr = [Ag+] [Br–]
Ksp = (s') (0.2)

s' =

50) ΔU° = ΔH° – ΔngRT = – 1169 +

51)

2e– + Mn3O4 → 3Mn2+

52) Titrant

53)
This represents meso compound

54)
(A) and (B) are not mirror images, So (A) and (B) are diastereomers.

55)
Remove that hydrogen opposite to halogen.

56)

57)
58) Maltose contains hemiacetal and is reducing sugar.

59) ∴ Rate of β–elimination :

Also, the general order of alkyl halide for β–elimination is : 3°R–X > 2°R–X > 1°R–X

60)

Aldehyde is more reactive towards NAR.

62)

Total 4 colligative properties

(1) Relative lowering in V.P
(2) Elevation in Bpt
(3) Depression in fpt
(4) Osmotic pressure

63) ri = k[A]2[B]
rf = k(3[A])2 3[B] = 27k[A]2[B] = 27 × ri
rf = 27 times of ri

64) For a first order reaction, t75% = 2 × t50%

65)

for complex reaction, rate is determined by the slowest step.

rate = k[A][B]2

66)

Anode is negative electrode

67) > 0 for reduction of Fe2+ by Zn.

68)
 cm2 eq–1

69)

· Group VII anions include Cl–, Br–, and I–, which can be confirmed using silver nitrate (AgNO3)
in acidic medium.
· Reactions and observations:
· Cl– : Forms white precipitate of AgCI.
· Br–: Forms pale yellow precipitate of AgBr.
· I– : Forms yellow precipitate of AgI.
This reaction is specific for halide ions, as the precipitates formed are characteristic of each
halide.

70)

71)
According to Drago’s rule lone pair on phosphorus resides in almost pure s-orbital, hence due
to non-directional nature, its overlapping tendency is greatly reduced in comparison to a lone

pair present in hybrid orbital, which is directional as present in .

72)

This complex is stabilized by hydrogen bonds.

73) [Fe(O2)] (CN)4Cl]4– ion

IUPAC name–chlorotetracyano superoxo ferrate (II) ion.

74) [MnX4]2–, MM → 5.9BM i.e., 5 unpaired electrons, geometry is tetrahedral.

75)

0
76) When the 4f-subshell is completely half-filled at Eu (Z = 63, 4f7 5d 6s2), the next electron
(i.e., 64th) as expected does not go to 4f-subshell but goes to 5d-subshell due to the greater
stability of the exactly half-filled 4f-subshell. By doing so, the stability conferred on the atom
due to exactly half-filled 4f-orbitals more than compensates the slight instability caused by the
addition of one electron to higher energy 5d-orbital instead of the lower energy 4f-orbital.

77) In the third period, Al comes after Mg and before Si. Since in Mg, (1s22s22p63s2), the last
electron is to be lost from a fully filled 3s-orbital while in Al (1s22s22p63s23p1) it is to be lost
from a 3p-orbital, therefore, ΔIEH1 of Al is lower than that of Mg(737 kJ mol–1). Further, since
nuclear charge increases in going from Na to Al, therefore ΔIEH1 of Al is higher than that of Na
(496 kJ mol–1) but lower than that of Mg(737 kJ mol–1). Thus, option (2) is correct.

78)

Li Be B C N O F
(E.N.) 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 4.0

on pauling
scale Na Mg Al Si P S Cl
(E.N.) = 0.9 1.2 1.5 1.8 2.1 2.5 3.0
Correct order :- Mg < Al < B < N

80) Assertion (A). SF6 is a stable molecule.

Reason (R). Some molecules are electron deficient or have expanded octet, yet they are
stable.

81)

(A) (F); As the size of halogen atom increase H—X bond length increase, hence bond
dissociation energy decrease and acid strength increase..
(B) (T); M.P. of NH3 is highest due to intermolecular H-bonding in it.
(C) (F); B.P. increases from PH3 to SbH3 via AsH3 due to increase in mol. wt. NH3 does not
follow this trend due to intermolecular H-bonding.
Increasing B.P. order : PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 < SbH3
(D) (T); Acidic nature increase.

82)

SF6 involves sp3d2 hybridization. The shape is octahedral with each bond angle = 90°.
% of d-character
 = × 100
= 33%.

83) Solid NaCl does not contain free ions.

84)

88)

89)

90)

Nitro group being electron withdrawing, deactivates the benzene nucleus to such an extent so
that it becomes incapable to give Friedel-Crafts’ reaction.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 234

92)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 236

93)
Tetany is caused by deficiency of parathormone.

94) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 241

95) NCERT Pg.# 242

96) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 202

97) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 194

98) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 195

99) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 199

100) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 187

101) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 190

102) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 221

118)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 28

119)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 28

120)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 28

121)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 31

122)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 47

123)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 42

124)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 111

125)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 111

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 113

127)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 131-132

128)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 131

129)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 130-131

130)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 130

131)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 166

132)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 163

133)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 167

137)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 104

138)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 107

139)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 116-117

140)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 206

141)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 212

142)

NCERT XII, Page # 05

143) NCERT 12 Page # 13

144) NCERT 12 Page # 20, 21

158) NCERT XI, Page # 82

159) NCERT XI, Page # 112,113

160)

NCERT XI, Page # 101

161) Old NCERT XI, Page # 102,104

162) NCERT-XI, Page # 48

163) NCERT-XI, Page # 48,49,50,51

164) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 42,44.

165) NCERT XII Pg # 61

166) NCERT-XII, Page # 66

167)

NCERT XII Pg # 87

168) NCERT XII, Pg. # 115 (E), 126 (H)

169) NCERT XII, Pg. # 101

170) NCERT Pg.#107(E)/118(H)

171) NCERT-Page No. # 110

172) NCERT Pg. # 163

173) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 124

174)

NCERT Pg # 186

175)

176) NCERT XI Pg # 131

177) NCERT XI Pg # 138-139

178) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 131, 8.5.1

179) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 98