BRILLIANT EDUCATION CONSULTANTS

Test Paper: NMT 07 / 2025 Date: 02-May-2025

Time: 180 Minutes Marks: 720
NEET MODEL QUESTION PAPER

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
1. The test is of 3.00 hours duration and the Test booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (Four
options with a single correct answer).

2. Subject Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology: You have to attempt all 45 questions

3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidates will get 4 marks. For every
wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

4. Use Blue / Black ball point pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking response on
Answer sheet.

5. Rough work is done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test booklet only.

6. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the answer sheet to the invigilator before
leaving the room / Hall. The Candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

7. The candidates should ensure that the answer sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on
the answer sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet / Answer Sheet. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on Answer Sheet.

8. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admission card to the Invigilator.

9. No candidate, without special permission of the centre superintendent or invigilator, would leave
his/her seat.

10. Use electronic/Manual calculator is prohibited.

11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.

12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

13. The candidates will write the correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer
sheet in the attendance sheet.

14. Use of pencil is not allowed.

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 PHYSICS 8. R and r are the radii of the earth and moon
respectively, ρe and ρm are densities of earth and
1. A body executing linear simple harmonic motion has moon respectively. The ratio of the acceleration due to
a velocity of 3 ms −1 when its displacement is 4 cm and gravity on the surfaces of the moon and earth, is
R ρ r ρ
a velocity of 4 ms −1 when its displacement is 3 cm. (1) ⋅ e (2) ⋅ e
r ρm R ρm
What is the amplitude of oscillation? r ρm R ρm
(3) ⋅ (4) ⋅
(1) 5 cm (2) 7.5 cm R ρe r ρe
(3) 10 cm (4) 12.5 cm
9. Match the following
2. The molecules of a given mass of gas have a root Type of EM wave Wavelength Range
mean square velocity of 200 m s −1 at 27∘ C and (A) Microwave (I) 1 mm to 700 nm
1.0 × 105 N m−2 pressure. When the temperature is (B) IR (II) 400 mm to 1 nm
127∘ C and the pressure is 0.5 × 105 Nm−2 , the root (C) X-ray (III) < 10−3 nm
mean square velocity in ms − 1 , is (D) Ultraviolet (IV) 0.1 m to 1 mm
(1)
400
(2) 100√2 (E) Gamma rays (V) 1 nm to 10−3 nm
√3
100√2 100 The correct match is:
(3) (4) A B C D A B C D
3 3
(1) IV I II V (2) I III II V
3. One mole of an ideal gas with γ = 1.4 is adiabatically (3) V III V II (4) IV I V II
compressed so that, its temperature rises from 27∘ C to
35∘ C. The change in the internal energy of gas is: 10. A 30μF capacitor is connected to a 150 V, 60 HzAC
( R = 8.3J/mol − K) supply the rms value of current is the circuit is
(1) −166 J (2) 166 J (1) 17 A (2) 1.7 A
(3) −168 J (4) 168 J (3) 1.7 mA (4) 1.7μA

4. The surface tension of soap solution is 0.03Nm−1 11. If in a solenoid, a rod of relative permeability μr is
The work done in blowing to form a soap bubble of kept, then find the self inductance of the solenoid
surface area 40 cm2 , (in J), is (where N = number of turns, ℓ = length of solenoid
(1) 1.2 × 10−4 (2) 12 × 10−4 and A = area of solenoid)
(3) 2.4 × 10 −4
(4) 24 × 10−4 (1)
μ0 μr N2 A
(2)
μ0 μr N2 A
ℓ 2ℓ
μ0 μr NA2 μ0 μr NA2
5. The area of cross-section of a wire of length 2.1 m is (3) (4)
ℓ 2ℓ
2 mm2 . Find the increase in its length when it is loaded
with 0.5 kg. The Young's Modulus of material of wire is 12. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown in
11 × 1010 Nm−2 . (g = 10 m s −2 ) the figure.
(1) 0.1 mm (2) 47.73μm
(3) 0.1μm (4) 47.73 mm

6. The mass of the earth is 6.00 × 1024 kg and that of

the moon is 7.40 × 1022 kg. The constant of gravitation
G = 6.67 × 10−T1 N − m2 /kg 2 . The potential energy of
the system is −7.79 × 1028 J. The mean distance
between the earth and moon is
(1) 3.80 × 108 m (2) 7.60 × 104 m
(3) 3.37 × 106 m (4) 1.90 × 102 m
Linear parts of the wire are very long and parallel to X-
7. Suppose in a hypothetical world the angular
axis while semi-circular portion of radius R is lying in
momentum is quantized to be even integral multiples
h
Y − Z plane. Magnetic field at point O is
of . The largest possible wavelength emitted by ⃗ = − μ0 ∣ (πî + 2k̂)
(1) B
2π
4πR
hydrogen atoms in visible mage in a world according μ0 ∣
⃗ =
(2) B (πî − 2k̂)
to Bohr's model will be. (consider the - 1242MeV - fm) 4πR
μ0 ∣
(1) 153 nm (2) 409 nm ⃗ =
(3) B (πî + 2k̂)
4πR
(3) 121 nm (4) 487 nm ⃗ =− μ0 ∣
(4) B (πî − 2k̂)
4πR

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13. Two batteries of emf 4 V and 8 V with internal 19. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge Q 0 is
resistance 1Ω and 2Ω respectively are connected to an connected to a coil of self inductance L at t = 0. The
external resistance R = 9Ω as shown in figure. The time at which the energy is stored equally between the
current in circuit and the potential difference between electric and the magnetic field is
π
P and Q respectively will be (1) √LC (2) 2π√LC
4
(3) √LC (4) π√LC

20. According to Bohr's theory of hydrogen atom, the

angular momentum of an electron in any orbit of
1 1
(1) A, 3 V (2) A, 4 V hydrogen atom is:
3 6
1 1 (1) directly proportional to the radius of the orbit
(3) A, 9 V (4) A, 12 V (2) inversely proportional to the radius of the orbit
9 2
(3) directly proportional to the square of the radius of
14. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is spinned to the orbit
angular velocity ω and then carefully placed on a (4) directly proportional to the square root of the
horizontal surface (coefficient of friction is μ ). Assume radius of the orbit.
that the pressure exerted by disc on the surface is
uniform. What is the net torque acting on disc? 21. The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is
2μgRM μMgR
(1) (2) 5.3 × 10−11 m. What is the radius of third allowed
3 3
3μMgR orbit of hydrogen atom?
(3) (4) None of the above
2 (1) 4.77Å (2) 0.53Å
(3) 1.06Å (4) 1.59Å
15. The dimensional formul free space, μ0 is
(1) [MLT −2 A−2 ] (2) [ML−1 T −2 A2 ] 22. A current of 5 A is passing through a metallic wire
(3) [ML − 1 T −2 A2 ] (4) [MLT −2 A−1 ] of cross-sectional area 4 × 10−6 m2 . If the density of
charge carriers of the wire is 5 × 1026 m−3 , then the
16. A light string passes over a frictionless pulley. To drift velocity of the electrons will be
one of its ends a mass of 8 kg is attached. To its other (1) 1 × 102 m/s (2) 1.56 × 10−2 m/s
end two masses of 7 kg each are attached. The
(3) 1.56 × 10 m/s
−3
(4) 1 × 10−2 m/s
acceleration of the system will be
23. Choose the wrong statement about equipotential
surfaces.
(1) It is a surface over which the potential is constant.
(2) The electric field is parallel to the equipotential
surface.
(3) The electric field is perpendicular to the
equipotential surface.
(4) The electric field is in the direction of steepest
decrease of potential.
17. In a series LCR circuit, if the applied voltage V and
the current in the circuit I at any instant t are given as : 24. An electric dipole is placed in an electric field
V = V0 sin ωt and I = I0 sin (ωt − ϕ) generated by a point charge:
then which of the following holds good: (1) The net electric force on the dipole must be zero
1 1
(1) ωL = (2) ωL > (2) The net electric force on the dipole may be zero
ωC ωC
1 (3) The torque on the dipole due to the field must be
(3) ωL < (4) none of these
ωC zero
(4) The torque on the dipole due to the field may be
18. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working zero
on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the
secondary coil is 6 A, the voltage across the secondary 25. A point mass m is placed inside a spherical shell of
coil and the current in the primary coil respectively R
radius R and mass M at a distance form the centre of
are: 2
(1) 300 V, 15 A (2) 450 V, 15 A the shell. The gravitational force exerted by the shell
(3) 450 V, 13.5 A (4) 600 V, 15 A on the point mass is
GMm 2GMm GMM
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) zero (4) 2
R R R

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26. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around 32. An increase of 0.1% in the length of a wire of cross-
the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small section 10−6 m2 causes tension of 1 × 100 N in the
compared to the mass of the earth. Then, wire. The Young's modulus of the material of the wire
(1) the linear momentum of S remains constant in is:
magnitude (1)1012 N/m2 (2) 1011 N/m2
(2) the accleration of S is always directed towards the (3) 1010 N/m2 (4)109 N/m2
centre of the earth
(3) the angular momentum of S about the centre of the 33. A steel rod 10 m long is at a temperature of 20∘ C.
earth changes in direction, but its magnitude remains The rod is heated to a temperature of 60∘ C. What is the
constant stress-induced in the rod if it is allowed to expand by
(4) the total mechanical energy of S varies periodically 4 mm, when E = 200GPa and α = 12 × 10−6 / ∘ C ?
with time. (1) 64MPa (2) 48MPa
(3) 32MPa (4) 16MPa
27. Two springs with spring constants K1 = 1500 N/m
and K 2 = 3000 N/m are stretched by the same force. 34. The moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and
The ratio of potential energy stored in spring will be radius R about an axis which is tangential to the
(1) 2: 1 (2) 1: 2 (3) 4: 1 (4) 1: 4 circumference of the disc and parallel to its diameter,
is
28. According to kinetic theory of gases, (1) (5/4)MR2 (2) (3/2)MR2
(A) The motion of the gas molecules freezes at 0∘ C (3) (4/5)MR 2
(4) (2/3)MR2
(B) The mean free path of gas molecules decreases, if
the density of molecules is increased. 35. For photoelectric emission from certain metal the
(C) The mean free path of gas molecules increases if cut-off frequency is v If radiation of frequency 2v
temperature is increased keeping pressure constant. impinges on the metal plate. the maximum possible
(D) Average kinetic energy per molecule per degree of velocity of the emitted electron will be ( m is the
3
freedom is k B T (for monoatomic gasses). electron mass)
2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options (1) √
2hv
(2) 2√
hv
(3) √
hv
(4) √
hv
given below: m m (2m) m

(1) A and C only (2) B and C only

(3) A and B only (4) C and D only 36. When a body is projected vertically up from the
ground with certain velocity, its potential energy and
29. Two simple pendulums of length 5 m and 20 m kinetic energy at a point A are in the ratio 2: 3. If the
respectively are given small linear displacement in one same body is projected with double the previous
direction at the same time. They will again be in the velocity, then at the same point A the ratio of its
phase when the pendulum of shorter length has potential energy to kinetic energy is
completed oscillations. (1) 9: 1 (2) 2: 9 (3) 1: 9 (4) 9: 2
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 5 (4) 3
37. In the circuits shown below, the readings of the
30. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 and that of voltmeter and the ammeter will be
given slab of glass immersed in it is 5/3. What is the
critical angle for a ray of light tending to go from glass
to water?
3 3
(1) sin−1 ( ) (2) sin−1 ( )
4 5
4
(3) sin ( )
−1
5
(4) Data given are insufficient to make any calculation
(1) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2 (2) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2
31. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a (3) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2 (4) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2
current of 1 A is replaced by another wire of 1 mm
diameter carrying same current. The strength of 38. μ moles of a gas filled in a container at temperature
magnetic field far away is T is in equilibrium initially. If the gas is compressed
(1) twice the earlier value slowly and is thermally to half its initial volume the
(2) same as the earlier value work done by the atmosphere on the piston is
(3) one-half of the earlier value (1) −{RT/2} (2) {(μRT)/2}
(4) one-quarter of the earlier value (3) μRT/n{2 − (1/2)} (4) −μRT/n2

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39. The displacement y of a wave travelling in the x- 47. Which of the following is an example of
direction is given by y = 10−4 sin (600t − 2x + π/3) carbylamine reaction?
metre, where x is expressed in metre and t in second. (i)KOH
(1) 2PhNHNH2 + CS2 → Ph − NCS
The speed of the wave-motion, in ms − 1, is : ∆
(ii)conc.HCl
(1) 200 (2) 300 0−50 C
(3) 600 (4) 1200 (2) R − NH2 + HNO2 → R − OH + N2 + HCl
∆
(3) Ph − NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH (alc.) → Ph − NC +
40. In Young's double slit experiment intensity at a 3KCl + 3H2 O
point is (1/4) of the maximum intensity. Angular (4) Ph2 − NH + HONO ⟶ Ph2 − N − N = O + H2 O
position of this point is
(1) sin−1 (λ/d) (2) sin−1 (λ/2d) 48. Which of the following are intermediates in the
(3) sin (λ/3d)
−1
(4) sin−1 (λ/4d) reaction of excess of CH3 MgBr with C6 H5 COOC2 H5 to
make 2-phenyl-2-propanol?
41. A double slit arrangement produces fringes for λ = (A) (B) (C)
5890Å that are 0.4∘ apart. What is the angular width if
the entire arrangement is immersed in water?
(μw = 4/3)
(1) 0.3∘ (2) 2.3∘ (3) 0.8∘ (4) 1.3∘
(1) A and B (2) A , B and C
42. The focal length of a concave mirror is 50 cm. (3)A and C (4) B and C
Where an object be placed so that its image is two
times magnified and inverted :- 49. Identify the major product from the following
(1) 75 cm (2) 72 cm reaction sequence
(3) 63 cm (4) 50 cm

43. If in a plano-convex lens, the radius of curvature of

the convex surface is 10 cm and the focal length of the
(1) (2)
lens is 30 cm, then the refractive index of the material
of lens will be
(1) 1.5 (2) 1.66
(3) 1.33 (4) 3
(3) (4)
44. The areal velocity and the angular momentum of
the planet are related by which of the following
relations? (where mp is the mass of the planet)
⃗⃗
ΔA ⃗L ⃗⃗
ΔA ⃗L
(1) = (2) =
Δt 2 mp Δt mp
⃗⃗
ΔA 2L⃗ ⃗⃗
ΔA ⃗L
(3) = (4) =
Δt mp Δt √2 mp 50. In the presence of peroxide, styrene reacts with
HBr to give X. When X reacted with magnesium in dry
45. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the ether followed by CO2 and hydrolysis gave Y.
horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its Treatment of Y with PCl5 and then next with
highest point as seen from the point of projection is H2 , Pd2 BaSO4 gave Z. What is Z ?
1
(1) 600 (2) tan-1( ) (1) (2)
2
√3
(3) tan-1( ) (4) 450
2

CHEMISTRY
46. A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol 1 )
(3) (4)
has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in
1000 g of water. The freezing point of the solution
obtained will be (K f for water = 1.86 Kkmol−1 )
(1) −0.372∘ C (2) −0.520∘ C
(3) +0.372 C∘
(4) −0.570∘ C

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51. The final product (III) obtained in the reaction 58. An alkene A on reaction with O3 and Zn − H2 O
sequence: gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio.
CH3 − CH2 − COOH →
PCl3 C6 H6 /AlCl3
𝐈→
NH2 −NH2
II → III Addition of HCl to alkene A gives B as the major
base/heat product. The structure of product B is
(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

52. The hybridization and magnetic behavior of

complex [Ni(CO)4 ] is:
(1) dsp2 , paramagnetic (2) dsp2 , diamagnetic
(3) sp , paramagnetic
3
(4) sp3 , diamagnetic Pyridine
59. C2 H5 OH + SOCl2 → X + Y + Z, in this
53. When hydrogen peroxide is added acidified reaction X, Y and Z respectively, are
potassium dichromate, a blue colour is produced due (1) C2 H4 Cl2 , SO2 , HCl (2) C2 H5 Cl, SO2 , HCl
to formation of (3) C2 H5 Cl, SOCl, HCl (4) C2 H4 , SO2 , Cl2
(1) CrO3 (2) Cr2 O3
(3) CrO5 (4) CrO2−
4
60. In view of Δr G∘ for the following reactions
PbO2 + Pb ⟶ 2PbO, Δr G∘ < 0
54. For a zero order reaction SnO2 + Sn ⟶ 2SnO, Δr G∘ > 0
(1) t1/2 ∝ R 0 (2) t1/2 ∝ 1/R 0 Which oxidation state is more characteristic for lead
(3) t1/2 ∝ R 0
2
(4) t1/2 ∝ 1/R20 and tin?
(1) For lead +2 , for tin + 2
d[NH3 ] (2) For lead +4 , for tin +4
55. For the reaction, N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 , if = (3) For lead +2 , for tin +4
dt
−d[H2 ]
2 × 10−4 mol L−1 s −1 , the value of would be (4) For lead +4 , for tin +2
dt
(1) 4 × 10−4 mol L−1 s −1
61. The [Ag + ]in a saturated solution of 𝐴𝑔2 CrO4 is
(2) 6 × 10−4 mol L−1 s −1
1.5 × 10−4 M. What is the solubility product of Ag 2 CrO4
(3) 1 × 10−4 mol L−1 s −1
(1) 3.375 × 10−12 M 3 (2) 1.6875 × 10−10 M 3
(4) 3 × 10−4 mol L−1 s −1
(3) 1.6875 × 10 M −11 3
(4) 1.6875 × 10−12 M 3
56. Limiting molar conductivity of NH4 OH [ i.e.,
62. The enthalpy of vaporization of a liquid is 35.2
Λ⋅m(NH4 OH) ] is equal to
kJmol−1 at 110.6∘ C. The entropy change for the
(1) Λ∘m(NH4 Cl) + Λ∘m(Na4 Cl) − Λ′′m(NaOH) process will be
(2) Λ′m(NaOH) + Λ′m(NaCl) − Λ′m(NH4 Cl) (1) 9.18JK −1 mol−1 (2) 31.83JK −1 mol−1
(3) Λ∗m(NH4 OH) + Λ∗m(NH4 Cl) − Λ∗m(HCl) (3) 91.76JK mol
−1 −1
(4) 318.3JK −1 mol−1
(4) Λ∘m(NH4 Cl) + Λ∘m(NaOH) − Λ∘m(NaCl)
63. According to molecular orbital theory, bond order
57. Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions in increasing order will be
are given below: (1) O2+ −
2 < O2 < O2 < O2
2−

F2 ( g) + 2e− → 2 F − (aq); E 0 = +2.85 V (2) O2 < O2 < O2 < O2+

2− −
2
Cl2 ( g) + 2e− → 2Cr − (aq); E 0 = +1.36 V (3) O2 < O2− −
2 < O2 < O2
2+

(4) O2 < O2 < O2 < O2−

2+ −
Br2 (I) + 2e− → 2Br − (aq); E 0 = +1.06 V 2

I2 ( s) + 2e− → 2I − (aq); E 0 = +0.53 V 64. The correct order of C − O bond length among
The strongest oxidising and reducing agents
3 , CO2 is
CO, CO2−
respectively are
(1) CO < CO2 < CO2−3 (2) CO2 < CO2−
3 < 𝐶𝑂
(1) F2 and I (2) Br2 and Cl
(3) CO < CO3 < CO2
2−
(4) CO3 < CO2 < 𝐶𝑂
2−
(3) Cl2 and Br − (4) Cl2 and I2

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65. The correct order for the increasing ionization 71. Given below are two statements:
enthalpies for the following is: Statement I: In an organic compound, when inductive
(i) 1 s 2 2 s 2 2p6 3 s 2 and electromeric effects operate in opposite directions,
(iii) 1 s 2 2 s 2 2p6 the inductive effect predominates.
(ii) 1 s 2 2 s 2 2p6 3 s1 Statement II: Hyperconjugation is observed in o-
(v) 1 s 2 2 s 2 2p1 xylene.
(iv) 1 s 2 2 s 2 2p2 In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
Options: answer from the options given below
(1) (ii) < (iii) < (i) < (v) < (iv) (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (v) < (iv) (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) (ii) < (i) < (v) < (iv) < (iii) (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) (ii) < (i) < (iv) < (v) < (iii) (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

66. The empirical formula of a non-electrolyte is CH2 O. 72. The velocity of particle A is 0.1 ms −1 and that of
A solution containing 6 g of the compound exerts the particle B is 0.05 ms −1 . If the mass of particle B is five
same osmotic pressure as that of 0.05M glucose times that of particle A, then the ratio of deBroglie
solution at the same temperature. The molecular wavelengths associated with the particles A and B is
formula of the compound is (1) 2: 5 (2) 3: 4 (3) 6: 4 (4) 5: 2
(1) C2 H4 O2 (2) C3 H6 O3
(3) C6 H10 O (4) C4 H8 O4 73. Consider following statements:
(a) The absolute value of internal energy cannot be
67. The de- Broglie wavelength of an electron the evaluated.
ground state of hydrogen atoms is: (b) Entropy is a state function and extensive property
(K.E. = 13.6eV; 1ev = 1.602 × 10−19 J) (c) Temperature is an extensive property
(1) 33.28 nm (2) 3.328 nm (d) The standard enthalpy of formation of an element
(3) 0.3328 nm (4) 0.0332 nm (ΔHf ) is always considered to be zero
(e) For an adiabatic process ΔS > 0 wrong statements
68. Match the following are :
List-I List-II (1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (d)
Molecule Dipole moment (D) (3) (c) and (e) (4) (b) and (d)
(A) HBr (i) 1.04
(B) H2 S (ii)0 74. For the redox reaction
(c) NH3 (iii) 0.79 MnO4− + C2 O2− +
4 + H → Mn
2+
+ CO2 + H2 O.
(4) CHCl3 (iv) 0.95 The correct coefficients of the reactions for the
(v) 1.47 balanced equation are
The correct match is MnO4− C2 O2− 4 H+
A B C D A B C D (1) 16 5 2
(1) I V IV III (2) III IV V I (2) 2 5 16
(3) I V II IV (4) IV V I III (3) 2 16 5
(4) 5 16 2
69. The correct order of electron gain enthalpies of
Cl, F, Te and Po is: 75. From the following reactions at 298 K, H 0 (kJ mol-1)
(1) F < 𝐶𝑙 < 𝑇𝑒 < 𝑃𝑜 (2) Po < 𝑇𝑒 < 𝐹 < 𝐶𝑙 (A)
(3) Te < 𝑃𝑜 < 𝐶𝑙 < 𝐹 (4) Cl < 𝐹 < 𝑇𝑒 < Po CaC2 (s) +2H2 O(l) → Ca(OH)2 (s) + C2 H2 (g) − 127.9
1
70. Balance the following redox reactions by ion (B) Ca(s) + O2 ( g) → CaO(s) − 635.1
2
electron method: (C) CaO(s) + H2 O(l) → Ca(OH)2 − 65.2
(1) MnOΘ 4 (aq) + I (aq) → MnO2 (s) + I2 (s) (in basic
Θ
(D) C(s) + O2 ( s) → CO2 ( s) − 393.5
medium) (E)
(2) MnOΘ 4 (aq) + SO2 (g) → Mn (aq) + HSO4 (aq) (in
2+ Θ
5
acidic solution) C2 H2 ( g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 ( g) + H2 O(e) − 1299.58
2
(3) H2 O2 (aq) + Fe2+ (aq) → Fe3+ (aq) + H2 O(l) (in
acidic solution) Calculate the heat of formation of CaC2 ( s) at 298 K.
(4) Cr2 O2−
7 + SO2 (g) → Cr (aq) + SO4 (aq) (in acidic
3+ 2−
(1) −59.82KJmol−1 (2) +59.82KJmol−1
solution) (3) −190.22KJmol −1
(4) +22KJmol−1

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76. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives 81. For a reaction 2 A ⇌ B + C, K c is 2 × 10−3 . At a
(1) (2) given time, the reaction mixture has [A] = [B] = [C] =
3 × 10−4 M. Which of the following options is correct?
(1) The system is at equilibrium
(2) The reaction proceeds to forward
(3) The reaction proceeds to backward
(3) (4) (4) The reaction is complete

82. When n = hexane is heated with anhydrous AICl3

and HCl gas, the major product obtained is
(1) 1-chlorohexane
(2) 2-chlorohexane
77. Which one of the following compounds will be (3) 3-chlorohexane
most readily dehydrated? (4) mixture of 2-methylpentane and 3 methylpentane
(1) (2)
83. The pair in which both species have iron is
(1) Haemocyanin, nitrogenase
(2) Haemoglobin, cytochromes
(3) Nitrogenase, cytochromes
(3) (4) (4) Carboxypeptidase, haemoglobin

84. Which one of the following is the correct order of

interactions?
(1) Covalent < hydrogen bonding < vander Waals <
78. Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions dipole-dipole
re given below : (2) vander Waals < hydrogen bonding < dipole <
F2(g)+2e- → 2F- (aq) ; Eo = +2.85 V covalent
Cl2(g) +2e- → 2Cl- (aq) ; Eo = + 1.36 V (3) vander Waals < dipole-dipole < hydrogen bonding
Br2((I) +2e- → 2Br- (aq) ; Eo = + 1.06 V < covalent
l2(s) +2e- → 2l- (aq) ; Eo = + 0.53 V (4) Dipole-dipole < vander Waals < hydrogen bonding
The strongest oxidising and reducing agents < covalent.
respectively are :
(1) F2 and I- (2) Br2 and Cl- 85. If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60
(3) Cl2 and Br - (4) Cl2 and I2 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be
completed in approximately (log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69)
79. Which is the most suitable reagent among the (1) 45 minutes (2) 60 minutes
following to distinguish compound (3) from rest of the (3) 40 minutes (4) 50 minutes
compounds?
(A) CH3 - C ≡ C - CH3 (B) CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - CH3 86. The Ksp of Ag2CrO4, AgCl, AgBr and Agl are
(C) CH3 - CH2C ≡ CH (D) CH3 - CH = CH2 respectively, 1.1 x 10-12,1.8, 10-10, 5.0 x 10-13, 8.3 x 10-17.
(1) Bromine in carbon tetrachloride which one of the following salts will precipitate last if
(2) Bromine in acetic acid AgNO3 solution is added to the solution containing
(3) Alk. KMnO4 equai moies of NaCl, NaBr, Nal and Na2CrO4?
(4) Ammoniacal silver nitrate (1) AgBr (2) Ag2CrO4
(3) AgI (4) AgCl
80. Which one of the following statements is not true
regarding (+) Lactose? 87. Which of the following lanthanoid ions is
(1) On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal amount of diamagnetic? (At nos. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63,
D(+) glucose and D(+) galactose. Yb = 70)
(2) (+) Lactose is a E-glycoside formed by the union of (1) Sm2+ (2) Eu2+ (3) Yb2+ (4) Ce2+
a molecule of D(+) glucose and a molecule of D(+) ∗ ∗
galactose. 88. If EFe2+ /Fe = -0.44 IV and EFe3+ /Fe2+ = +771V, he

(3) (+) Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit standard EMF of the reaction Fe +2Fe3+ → 3Fe2+ will be
mutarotation. (1) 1.653 V (2) 1.212 V
(4) (+) Lactose, C2H22O11 contains 8- OHgroups.. (3) 0.111 V (4) 0.330 V

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89. Of the following outer electronic configurations of 96. In some members of which of the following pairs of
atoms, the highest oxidation state is achieved by which families, pollen grains retain their viability for months
one of them? after release?
(1) (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 8 𝑛𝑠 2 (2) (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 5 𝑛𝑠 2 (1) Rosaceae; Leguminosae (2) Poaceae ; Rosaceae
(3) (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 𝑛𝑠
3 2
(4) (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 5 𝑛𝑠1 (3) Poaceae; Leguminosae (4) Poaceae; Solanaceae

90. The vapour pressure of two liquids X and Y are 80 97. Cellular organelles with membranes are
and 60 torr respectively. The total vapour pressure of (1) Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria
the ideal solution obtained by mixing 3 moles of X and (2) Nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria
2 moles of Y would be (3) Chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic
(1) 68 Torr (2) 140 Torr reticulum
(3) 48 Torr (4) 72 Torr (4) Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei

BOTANY 98. Among the following pairs of microbes, which pair

has both the microbes that can be used as
91. The transverse section of a plant part showed
biofertilizers?
polyarch, radial and exarch xylem, with endodermis
(1) Aspergillus and Cyanobacteria
and pericycle. The plant part is identified as :
(2) Aspergillus and Rhizopus
(1) Dicot stem (2) Monocot stem
(3) Rhizobium and Rhizopus
(3) Monocot root (4) Dicot root
(4) Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium
92. What would be the number of chromosomes of the
99. Match the terms in Column I with their description
aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its
in Column II and choose the correct option Match the
root tip cells?
terms in Column I with their description in Column II
(1) 42 (2) 63 (3) 84 (4) 21
and choose the correct option
93. Select the correct statement about biodiversity. Column I Column II
(1) The desert area of Rajasthan and Gujarat have very (A) Dominance (i) Many genes govern a
high level of desert animals single character
(2) Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse (B) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous organism
effect on biodiversity only one allele expresses itself
(3) Western Ghats have a very high degree of species (C) Pleiotropy (iii) a heterozygous organism
richness and endemism both alleles express themselves
(4) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued fully
by the developed countries (D) Polygenic (iv) A single gene influences
inheritance many characters
94. In human beings, during oogenesis, Meiosis-I into
(1) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(1) A haploid large-sized secondary oocyte and a
(2) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
haploid smaller polar body.
(3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)
(2) A haploid large-sized primary oocyte and a haploid
(4) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
smaller polar body.
(3) A diploid large-sized primary oosyte and a haploid
100. Select the correct matching.
small-sized polar body
(4) A haploid large-sized secondary oocyte and a
diploid smaller polar body

95. Assertion (A): In all green plants, each cell shows

one chloroplast
Reason (R): The ratio between the number of
chloroplasts and the number of cells in (1) A- Tomato , B – Argemone , C- Dianthus , D -
chlamydomonas is 1: 1 Sunflower
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (2) B - Argemone A – Dianthus, D – Sunflower, C-
explanation of (A) Tomato
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct (3) C – Dianthus, D- Sunflower, A- Argemone , B-
explanation of (A) Tomato
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) B- Sunflower, A- Argemone , A- Tomato, C –
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true Dianthus

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101. Cell that do not divide further due to the following 108. In photosynthesis energy from light reaction to
changes in cell cycle dark reaction is transferred in the form of
(1) Exit 𝐺1 and enter 𝑆 phase of cell cycle (1) ADP (2) ATP
(2) Exit 𝐺0 and enter 𝐺1 phase of cell cycle (3) RuDP (4) Chlorophyll
(3) Exit G1 and enter G0 phase of cell cycle
(4) Exit interphase and enter 𝑀 phase 109. The plant parts which consist of two generations
- one within the other
102. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached (a) Pollen grains inside the anther
to the (b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(1) Thalamus or petal (2) Anther (c) Seed inside the fruit
(3) Connective (4) Placenta (d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
(1) (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
103. Placentation in which ovules develop on the inner (3) (a) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is
(1) Axile (2) Parietal 110. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(3) Free central (4) Basal (1) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(2) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat.
104. With reference to factors affecting the rate of
(3) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins.
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is
(4) Viroids lack a protein coat.
not correct?
(1) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of
111. The enzyme (𝐴) is needed for isolating genetic
full sunlight
material from plant cells and enzyme (B) for isolating
(2) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to
genetic material from fungus. Choose the correct pair
0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
of options from the following:
(3) C3 plants responds to higher temperatures with
(1) (A) Cellulase (B) Protease
enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have much
(2) (A) Cellulase (B) Chitinase
lower temperature optimum
(3) (A) Chitinase (B) Lipase
(4) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown
(4) (A) Cellulase (B) Lipase
in CO2 enriched atmosphere for higher yield
112. Some bacteria are not easily killed by antibiotics
105. Find out the location of the following molecules in
or heat treatment because of their
different compounds of chloroplast :
(1) Chitinous cell wall (2) Capsule
(3) Mucopeptides in cell wall (4) Mesosomes
List-I List-II
(A) NADP reductase (i) Embeded in the
113. Which of the following have equal placement in
membrane of Thylakoid
the five-kingdom classification on the basis of nutrition
(B) Protons produced (ii) Lumen of the by
(1) Monera and Protista (2) Protista and plantae
Thylakoids
(3) Fungi and Animalia (4) Plantae and Animalia
(C) F0 component (iii) Outer surface of ATPase
Of the the Thylakoid membrane
114. Which of the following statements regarding
(D) F1 component (iv) Stroma side of ATPase
universal rules of nomenclature is wrong?
of the the membrane
(1) The first word denoting the genus starts with a
The correct answer is
capital letter
A B C D
(2) The first word in a biological name represents the
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
genus
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(3) Biological names are generally in Greek and
written in italics
106. Necessary conditions for seed germination is
(4) Both the words in a biological name, were hand-
(1) light and O2
written, are separately underlined
(2) light and high temperature
(3) vernalization and scarification
115. Select a suitable name for this process :
(4) water and O2
C6 H12 O6 + 2ADP + 2Pi → 2C2 H5 OH + 2ATP + 2CO2 ↑
(1) Alcoholic fermentation
107. Fixation of one CO2 molecule through Calvin cycle
(2) Photorespiration
requires
(3) Lactate fermentation
(1) 1 ATP and 2NADPH2 (2) 2ATP and 2NADPH2
(4) Aerobic respiration
(3) 3ATP and 2NADPH2 (4) 2ATP and 1NADPH2

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116. With reference to factors affecting the rate of 121. Match List I(compound oxidized during Krebs
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is cycle) with List II(Compound formed on oxidation)
not correct? and select the correct answer.
(1) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to
List-I List-II
0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate.
a. Pyruvic acid 1. AcetylCoA
(2) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown
b. Isocitric acid 2. Succinyl CoA
in CO2 enriched atmosphere for higher yield.
(3) C3 plants respond to higher temperature with c. a-Ketoglutaric acid 3. Oxaloacetic acid
enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have much d. Succinic acid 4. a- keytogutaric acid
lower temperature optimum. E. malic acid 5. Fumaric acid
(4) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of (1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-5
full sunlight. (2) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-5, E-3
(3) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-5, E-4
117. The basic feature of typical C4 plants showing (4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5, E-4
‘Kranz’ anatomy is
(1) the presence of chloroplasts in mesophyll and 122. Match List - I with List - II:
epidermal cells List-I List-II
(2) the presence of chloroplasts in bundle sheath cells A. Carbon dissolved i. 55 billion tons in oceans
(3) the presence of rudimentary chloroplasts in bundle B. Annual fixation of ii. 71%/71% carbon through
sheath cells and typical chloroplasts with well-formed photosynthesis
grana in mesophyll cells C. PAR captured by iii. 4 × 103 kg plants
(4) the presence of typical chloroplasts with well- D. Productivity of iv. 2 to 10% oceans
formed grana in bundle sheath cells and rudimentary Choose the correct answer from the options given
chloroplasts in the mesophyll cells below:
A B C D
118. Which of the following facilitates opening of (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
stomatal aperture ? (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the (4 (iii) (iv) (i) (iv)
cell wall of guard cells
(3) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in 123. Match list I and list II and select the correct
the cell wall of guard cells answer.
(4) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells
List I List II
119. Which of the following statement regarding (Phase of meiosis) (Event that occurs)
mitochondrial membrane is not correct? a. Prophase I Crossing over occurs
(1) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are b. Metaphase II Sister chromatids migrate to
embedded in the outer membrane opposite poles
(2) The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming c. Anaphase I Homologous chromosomes
a series of infoldings line up at equator in pairs
(3) The outer membrane resembles a sieve (1) a, b , c correct (2) a correct
(4) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of (3) b, c correct (4) a, c correct
molecules
124. The transverse section of a plant shows following
120. Which one of the following statements is correct? anatomical features :
(1) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric (a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles
nitrogen in root nodules of plants. surrounded by bundle sheath
(2) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue
important mobilizers of phosphates and for plant (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
nutrition in soil (d) Phloem parenchyma absent
(3) At present it is not possible to grow maize without Identify the category of plant and its part :
chemical fertilizers (1) Dicotyledonous stem
(4) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to (2) Dicotyledonous root
eutrophication of nearby water bodies. (3) Monocotyledonous stem
(4) Monocotyledonous root

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125. According of fluid mosaic model, plasma 130. Which of the following statements concerning the
membrane is composed of regulatory genes (R), associated with the lac operon
(1) phospholipids and oligosaccharides are incorrect?
(2) phospholipids and hemicellulose I. 𝑚 RNA is transcribed from the R gene whether
(3) phospholipids and integral proteins lactose is present or not.
(4) phospholipids, extrinsic proteins and intrinsic II. 𝑚 RNA is transcribed from the R gene only when the
proteins lactose is present.
III. 𝑚 RNA is transcribed from the R gene only when
126. If the distance between two consecutive base the lactose is not present.
pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a IV. Lactose inhibits the translation of R gene 𝑚 RNA.
DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × (1) I and II (2) II and III
109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately (3) III and IV (4) II, III and IV
(1) 2.2 meters (2) 2.7 meters
(3) 2.0 meters (4) 2.5 meters 131. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
127. Consider the following plant tissues:
(A) Axillary buds Gradual change in
(B) Fascicular vascular cambium Hydrarch
(A) (I) the species
(C) Interfascicular cambium succession
composition
(D) Cork cambium
(E) Intercalary meristem Xerarch Faster and climax
(B) (II)
Identify the lateral meristems among the above. succession reached quickly
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (E) only
Ecological Lichens to mesic
(2) (A), (B), (D) and (E) only (C) (III)
succession conditions
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only Secondary Phytoplankton to
(D) (IV)
succession mesic conditions
128. Match the following columns :
Choose the correct answer from the options given
column-I column-II below :
(1) (A)- (I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
A.shoot apical meristem 1.base of grass leaves (2) (A)- (IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)- (IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
B.intercalary meristem 2.Increase in girth (4) (A)- (III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

C.Root apical meritem 3.Primary meristem 132. Which of the following statements is correct for
dinoflagellates flagella?
D. Lateral meritem 4.Cork cambium
(1) A single flagellum lies in the transverse groove
E.Secondary meritem 5.Elongation of roots between the cell plates.
(2) A single flagellum lies in the longitudinal groove
(1) A − 3, B − 1, C − 2, D − 4, E − 5 between the cell plates.
(2) A − 1, B − 2, C − 3, D − 4, E − 5 (3) Two flagella, one lies longitudinally and the other
(3) A − 5, B − 4, C − 3, D − 2, E − 1 transversely in a furrow between the wall plates.
(4) A − 3, B − 1, C − 5, D − 2, E − 4 (4) Flagella are absent.

129. Name and arrange the following in the order of 133. Match List I with List II :
technique and steps for separation and isolation of List I List II
DNA fragments (Interaction) (Species A and B)
I. DNA fragments moved towards anode under electric A. Mutualism I. +(A), O(B)
field. B. Commensalism II. –(A), O(B)
II. Exposure to UV radiation. C. Amensalism III. +(A), –(B)
III. DNA fragments stained with EBr. D. Parasitism IV. +(A), +(B)
IV. Gel electrophoresis. Choose the correct answer from the options given
V. Elution. below:
(1) V II III I IV (2) IV V I III II (1) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III (2) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(3) III II I V IV (4) IV I III UI V (3) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II (4) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III

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134. Match List-I with List-II. 138. People living at sea level have around 5 million
RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those
List 1 List 2 living at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen million. This is because at high altitude-
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin (1) People get pollution-free air to breathe and more
deposition oxygen is available.
(c) Secondary (iii) Exchange of gases (2) Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more RBCs
cortex are needed to absorb the required amount of O2 to
(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm survive.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) There is more UV radiation which enhances RBC
below. production
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) People eat more nutritive food, therefore more
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) RBCs are formed.
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
139. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some
135. Which of the following statements of incorrect? air always remains in the lungs which can never be
(1) Oxidation-reducation reactions produce proton expelled because
gradient in respiration (1) there is a negative pressure in the lungs
(2) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is (2) there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at
limited to the terminal stage the lung walls
(3) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of (3) there is a positive intrapleural pressure
NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one (4) pressure in the lungs in higher than the
FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules atmospheric pressure
(4) ATP is synthesized through complex V
140. Which of the following is an occupational
respiratory disorder?
ZOOLOGY (1) Anthracis (2) Silicosis
(3) Emphysema (4) Botulism
136. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear
white in contrast to blue colonies of nonrecombinant 141. Statement I: Thyroxine regulates the basal
bacteria because of : metabolic rate
(1) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant Statement II: Thyrocalcitonin plays an important role
bacteria in maintaining the calcium and phosphate levels in
(2) Non-recombinant bacteria containing blood.
betagalactosidase The correct option among the following is
(3) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in (1) Statement I and statement II are correct
non-recombinant bacteria (2) Statement I and statement II are false
(4) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in (3) Statement I is true statement II is false
recombinant bacteria. (4) Statement I is false statement II is true
137. Match the following related to cardiac cycle? 142. Identify the incorrectly matched hormone and its
List I List II functions :
(A) Prolactin- Stimulates formation of milk in the
i) Cardia Cycle A) 0.2Sec mammary gland
ii) Atrial systole B) 0.4Sec (B) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) Stimulates the
synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormone from
iii) Ventricular Systole C) 0.1Sec thyroid gland
(C) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) Stimulates
iv) Cardiac Diastole D) 0.8Sec the synthesis and secretion of hormones from adrenal
medulla
E) 0.3Sec
(D) Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) Acts on
the melanocyte (melanin containing cell) Regulates the
(1) (i-D), (ii-C), (iii-B), (iv-E)
pigmentation of the skin
(2) (i-D), (ii-C), (iii-E), (iv-B)
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(3) (i-B), (ii-C), (iii-E), (iv-D)
(4) (i-D), (ii-A), (iii-E), (iv-B)

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143. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation? 148. Select the correct sequence of the transport of
(1) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocyte, sperm cells in the male reproductive system.
spermatid (1) Seminiferous tubules→ Epididymis → Vasa
(2) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, efferentia → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory
spermatozoa duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus
(3). Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, (2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
spermatozoa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory
(4) Spermatogonia,spermatocyte, spermatozoa, duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus
spermatid. (3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia →
Epididymis →Vas deferens →Rete testis →Urethral
144. Crossing over that results in genetic meatus → Urethra
recombination in higher organisms occurs between: (4) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas
(1) Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral
(2) Two daughter nuclei meatus
(3) Two different bivalents
(4) Sister chromatids of a bivalents 149. Identify the correct labellings in the diagram.

145. Match the following parts of a nephron with their

function :
(A) Descending limb (i) Reabsorption of
of Henle's loop salts only
(B) Proximal (ii) Reabsorption of
convoluted tubule water
(C) Ascending limb (iii) Conditional of Henle's
loop reabsorption of sodium
ions and water
(D) Distal convoluted (iv) Reabsorption of ions,
Nutrients water and organic tubule (1) A - Blood vessels, B - Primary follicle, CTertiary
follicle, D - Graafian follicle, E Ovum, F - Corpus luteum
Select the correct option from the following
(2) A - Primary follicle, B - Blood vessels, CTertiary
(1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
follicle, D - Graafian follicle, E-Ovum, F - Corpus luteum
(2) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(3) A - Blood vessels B - Primary follicle, CTertiary
(3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
follicle, D - Ovum, E - Graafian follicle, F - Corpus
(4) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
luteum
(4) A-Ovum, B-Graafian follicle, C- Corpus luteum, D-
146. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually
Blood vessels, E-Primary follicle. F-Tertiary
show symptoms of AIDS?
(1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected
150. Match the following and select correct option
person
(2) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells Column I Column II
(3) When viral DNA is produced by reverse A Accessory duct 𝟏 Seminal vesicles
transcriptase 𝟐 Vas deferens
(4) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper B Accessory glands 𝟑 Uterus
Tlymphocytes and damages larger number of these C Spermatids 𝟒 23 Chromosomes
D Primary Spermatocytes 𝟓 46 Chromosomes
147. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total
gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result (1) A – 4,3 B -5 C-2 D-1
expected was: (2) A -4, 5 B-2 C-1 D-3
(1) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate (3) A -2,1 B–3 C -5 D-4
endometrial thickening (4) A -2,3 B-1 C -4 D -5
(2) High levels of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen
and progesterone synthesis 151. X-chromosomes of female in a sex-linked
(3) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus inheritance case can be passed on to
to stimulate implantation of the embryo (1) Only female progeny
(4) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate (2) Only male progeny
endometrial thickening (3) Only in grand daughter
(4) Male and female progeny

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152. Identify the number of bones present in Axial 157. The stage transferred into the uterus after
skeleton, for each A, B, C, D listed below. induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is
Label Bones (1) Zygote
A Skull (2) Embryo at 4 blastomere stage
B Ribs (3) Embryo at 2 blastomere stage
C Sternum (4) Morula
D Vertebral column
(1) A − 22, B − 24, C − 1, D − 26 158. Which of the following statements are correct?
(2) A − 26, B − 24, C − 1, D − 29 (A) Reproductive health refers to total wellbeing in all
(3) A − 29, B − 26, C − 1, D − 24 aspects of reproduction
(4) A − 39, B − 24, C − 1, D − 28 (B) Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex
determination in India.
153. Identify the correct option (C) "Saheli" -a new oral contraceptive for females was
Statement - I : The contraction of internal intercostals developed in collaboration with ICMR (New Delhi)
muscles and lateral abdominal muscles help in forced (D) Amniocentesis is used to determine genetic
expiration disorders and survivability of foetus.
Statement - II : The contraction of phrenic muscles Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
increases the volume of the thoracic cavity in antero- given below:
posterior axis (1) (A), (B) and (D) only (2) (A) and (C) only
(a) Statement I and II are correct (3) (B) and (C) only (4) (D) and (C) only
(b) Statement I is wrong and II is correct
(c) Statement I is correct and II is wrong 159. In frog chromosome number is reduced to half :
(d) Statement I and II wrong (1) when 2nd polar body is separated
(2) when 2nd polar body is divided
154. Assertion: Transmission of nerve impulse across a (3) when 3rd polar body is separated
synapse is accomplished by neurotransmitters. (4) when 1 st polar body is separated
Reason: Transmission across a synapse usually
required neurotransmitter because there is a small 160. Given below are two statements regarding
space, i.e, synaptic cleft that separates one neuron oogenesis.
from another. Statement I: The primary follicles get surrounded by
(1) If both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is correct more layers of granulosa cells, a theca and shows fluid
explanation of the (A). filled cavity antrum. Now it is called secondary follicle.
(2) If both (A) and (R) are true but the (R) is not Statement II: Graafian follicle ruptures to release the
correct explanation of the (A). secondary oocyte from the ovary by the process called
(3) If the (A) is true but the (R) is false. ovulation.
(4) If (A) is false, but (R) is true. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
155. Choose the wrong statement with reference to (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
smooth muscles (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(1) Myofibrils show alternate dark and light bands (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(2) They are spindle shaped uninucleate cells (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(3) Their contractions are under the control of
autonomous nervous system 161. Brainstem of human brain consists of:
(4) They exhibit prolonged contractions (1) Thalamus, Hypothalamus and Corpora
quadrigemina
156. Which statement best explains why invertebrates (2) Amygdala, Hippocampus and Corpus Callosum
regenerate lost tissue more readily than most (3) Mid-brain, Pons and Medulla Oblongata
vertebrates do? (4) Forebrain, Cerebellum and Pons
(1) Invertebrates contain specialized cells that
produce the hormones necessary for this process. 162. Which of the following hormones can play a
(2) Invertebrate cells exhibit a higher degree of significant role in osteoporosis?
uncontrolled cell division than vertebrate cells do. (1) Aldosterone and Prolactin
(3) Invertebrate animals reproduce asexually, but (2) Progesterone and Aldosterone
vertebrate animals reproduce sexually. (3) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(4) Invertebrate animals have more undifferentiated (4) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
cells than vertebrate animals have.

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163. Given below are two statements : 168. With reference to Hershey and Chase
Statement I : A protein is imagined as a line, the left experiments. Select the correct statements.
end represented by first amino acid (C-terminal) and (A) Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive
the right end represented by last amino acid (N- phosphorus contained radioactive DNA.
terminal). (B) Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained
Statement II : Adult human haemoglobin, consists of 4 radioactive proteins.
subunits (two subunits of  type and two subunits  (C) Viruses grown on radioactive phosphorus
type.) contained radioactive protein.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct (D) Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained
answer from the options given below : radioactive DNA.
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are false. (E) Viruses grown on radioactive protein contained
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. radioactive DNA.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are true. given below :
(1) (A) and (C) only (2) (B) and (D) only
164. Which of the following statements are correct? (3) (D) and (E) only (4) (A) and (B) only
A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body
switches off osmoreceptors. 169. Refer the given structure of adenylic acid. In this
B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent identify A.
diuresis.
C. ANF causes vasodilation.
D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) B, C and D only (2) A, B and E only
(3) C, D and E only (4) A and B only
(1) Glycosidic bond (2) Phosphate bond
165. Simple epithelium is a tissue in which the cells (3) Ester bond (4) Ionic bond
are
(1) hardened and provide support to the organs 170. The unique mammalian characteristics are :
(2) cemented directly to one another to form a single (1) hairs, pinna and mammary glands
layer (2) hairs, pinna and indirect development
(3) continuously dividing to provide form to an organ (3) pinna, monocondylic skull and mammary glands
(4) loosely connected to one another to form an (4) hairs, tympanic membrane and mammary glands
irregular organ
171. Match List - I with List - II:
166. Select the correct statement regarding the specific
disorder of muscular or skeletal system : - List-I List-II
(1) Muscular dystrophy – age related shortening or A. Adenine Pigment
muscular B. Anthocyanin Polysaccharide
(2) Osteoporosis – decrease in bone mass and higher C. Chitin Alkaloid
chance of fractures with advantages eyes. D. Codeine Purine
(3) Mysthenia gravis – Auto immune disorder which Choose the correct answer from the options given
inhibits sliding of myosin filaments. below:
(4) Gout – inflammation of joints due to extra (1) (A) - (iv), (B) - (i), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iii)
deposition of calcium. (2) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)
(3) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)
167. Statement I : Sternum appeared for the first time (4) (A) - (i), (B) - (iv), (C) - (iii), (D) - (ii)
in amphibians.
Statement II : Snakes have 10 pairs of cranial nerves. 172. The faster breathing in high fever is due to the:
The correct option among the following is Options: (1) additional requirement of O2 for the invader germs
(1) Statements I and II are true. (2) high temperature of the body
(2) Statements I and II are false. (3) mental worry of a patient
(3) Statement I is true. But II is false. (4) loss of appetite
(4) Statement I is false. But II is true.

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173. Match List-I with List-II 177. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
List-I List-II (i) Re-absorption of water occurs passively in the
(a) Bronchioles (i) Dense Regular initial segment of nephron
Connective Tissue (ii) Nitrogenous wastes are absorbed by passive
(b) Goblet Cell (ii) Loose Connective Tissue transport
(c) Tendons (iii) Glandular Tissue (iii) Conditional re-absorption of Na+ and water takes
(d) Adipose Tissue (iv) Ciliated Epithelium place in DCT
Choose the correct answer from the options given (iv) DCT re-absorbs HCO3
below: (v) DCT is capable of selective secretion of H + , K + and
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) NH3 to maintain pH and Na+ . K + balance in blood
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) (vi) Substances like glucose, amino acids, Na+ , etc, in
(3) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) the re-absorbed actively
(4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii) (1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
174. 54. Which of the following describes the given (3) (iv) and (v)
graph correctly? (4) All six statements are correct

178. Assertion : Hormone calcitonin has antagonistic

effect to that of parathormone.
Reason : Calcitonin decreases blood calcium level
while parathormone increases blood calcium level.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason
is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason
(1) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
enzyme and B in absence of enzyme (3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(2) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of (4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect
enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of 179. Match the following bacteria with the diseases
enzyme and B in presence of enzyme Column-I Column-II
(4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of A. Treponema pallidum I. Plague
enzyme and B in presence of enzyme B. Yersinia pestis II. Anthrax
C. Bacillus anthracis III. Syphilis
175. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is D. Vibrio IV. Cholera
given. Identify correctly at least two of A-C. (1) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(2) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(3) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(4) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV

180 Assertion: In a DNA molecule, A-T rich parts melt

before G − C rich parts.
Reason: In between 𝐴 and 𝑇 there are three H-bond,
whereas in between G and C there are two H-bonds.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
(1) A- Receptor, C- Synaptic vesicles Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) B- Synaptic connection, C- K+ (3) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) A- Neurotansmitter, B- Synaptic cleft (4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(4) C- Neurotransmitter, B- Ca++

176. Which is NOT the function of lymph?

(1) Transport R.B.C.s
(2) Drain excess tissue fluid
(3) Transport lymphocyte and antibodies
(4) Transport absorbed fat

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