PROGRESS EXAM: LABORATORY

OPERATIONS
Total points 87/100

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Key *

03-422025

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 School *

LRH Section *

Section A

Section B

Section C1

Section C2

Section D1

Section D2

Section E

Response to this exam: *

First try

Second try

Third try

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 Untitled Section 0 of 0 points

Clarifications: COCO NOTES PART 3

Noted

Untitled Section 36 of 39 points

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 Specimens can be delivered to the laboratory by which of the following 1/1
methods?

Elevators

Internal mail systems

Pneumatic tubes

Phone calls

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 A pneumatic tube is a: 1/1

Pressurized air transportation system.

Temporary computer data storage unit.

Tube connection between two computers.

Type of collection tube for blood gases.

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 Preanalytical (pre-examination) variables in laboratory testing include: 1/1

Result accuracy

Report delivery to the ordering physician

Test turnaround time

Specimen acceptability

A preanalytical error can be introduced by: 1/1

Drawing a coagulation tube before an EDTA tube

Mixing an EDTA tube 8-10 times

Transporting the specimen in a biohazard bag

Vigorously shaking of blood tube to prevent clotting

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 Pre-analytical errors are major contributors to total laboratory errors. Which1/1
of the following is not a common preanalytical error?

Specimen collected in the wrong container

Unlabeled specimen

QNS, hemolyzed or lipemic specimens

Failure to flag a critical value on a laboratory report

Pre-analytical phase: 1/1

Patient identification

Patient identification, test order accuracy

Test order accuracy, blood culture contamination

Test order accuracy, patient identification, blood culture contamination

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 Laboratories should monitor and track preanalytical/preexamination 1/1
indicators of quality to develop strategies to identify root causes of error
and develop counter measures. Examples of preanalytical quality
indicators include:

Dilution errors

Rate of calibration failures

Compliance with PPE in the laboratory

Rate of inaccurate test order entry into the laboratory information system

Which of the following is not a potential source of postanalytical (post- 1/1

examination) errors?

Excessive delay in reporting or retrieving a test result

Interpretation of result

Verbal notification of test result

Labeling the specimen at the nurses' station

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 The most important diagnosis and therapeutic management decision tool 1/1
used to interpret test results is:

Statistical analysis

Reference intervals

Specimen acceptability

The age of a patient

Delta check is a method that: 1/1

Determines the mean and variance of the instrument

Monitors the testing system for precision

Monitors patient samples day to day

Is determined in each laboratory facility

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 Which of the following plots is best for detecting all types of QC errors? 1/1

Levy–Jennings

Tonks–Youden

Cusum

Linear regression

Which of the following plots is best for comparison of precision and 1/1
accuracy among laboratories?

Levy–Jennings

Tonks–Youden

Cusum

Linear regression

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 Which plot will give the earliest indication of a shift or trend? 1/1

Levy–Jennings

Tonks–Youden

Cusum

Histogram

What does the preparation of a Levey-Jennings quality control chart for any 1/1
single constituent of serum require?

Analysis of control serum over a period of 20 consecutive days

20 to 30 analyses of the control serum on 1 day, in one batch

Analyses consistently performed by one person

Weekly analyses of the control serum for 1 month

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 The acceptable limit of error in the chemistry laboratory is 2 standard 1/1
deviations. If you run the normal control 100 times, how many of the values
would be out of the control range due to random error?

10

20

The Z SCORE measures: 1/1

How many standard deviations a particular number is from the right or left of
the mean

The sum of the squared differences from the mean

The square root of the variance from the mean

The expression of the position of each test result to the average

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 Acceptable limits of a control value must fall: 1/1

Within ±1 standard deviation of the mean

Between 1 and 2 standard deviations of the mean

Within ±2 standard deviations of the mean

Within ±3 standard deviations of the mean

The process by which an agency or organization uses predetermined 1/1

standards to evaluate and recognize a program of study in an institution is
called:

Regulation

Licensure

Accreditation

Credentialing

Feedback

ACCREDITATION is the approval of an institution or program based on a review, by one or

more independent examiners, that Ands that speciAc requirements or predetermined
standards are met.

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 General term for the formal recognition of professional or technical 0/1
competence is:

Regulation

Licensure

Accreditation

Credentialing

Correct answer

Credentialing

Feedback

CREDENTIALING OR CERTIFICATION is demonstration of qualiAcation or competence in a

particular area of practice. It recognizes an individual as meeting predetermined criteria
set by the administering organization, usually a professional association.

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 Which of the following terms refers to the closeness with which the 1/1
measured value agrees with the true value?

Random error

Precision

Accuracy

Variance

The precision of an instrument is validated by: 1/1

Running the same sample multiple times

Performing serial dilutions

Processing unknown specimens

Monitoring normal and abnormal controls

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 Test precision is verified by: 1/1

Comparing results from analyzing the same specimens on multiple analyzers

over time

Repeat measurements of samples of multiple concentrations within run and

between runs performed over a period of time

Comparing results to a definitive or reference method for the same analyte

Comparing results of multiple specimens analyzed by multiple individuals and

multiple instruments

Feedback

PRECISION refers to the reproducibility of a result. Precision is veriAed by replicating

measurements on the SAME SPECIMENS, both simultaneously (within run precision) and
consecutively (between run precision).

Which of the following describes the ability of an analytical method to 1/1

maintain both accuracy and precision over an extended period of time?

Reliability

Validity

Probability

Sensitivity

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 The ability of a laboratory assay to produce CONSISTENT RESULTS when 1/1
testing is repeated successively.

Accuracy

Precision

Reliability

Sensitivity

A batch of test results is out of control. What should you do first? 1/1

Report the results to the physician first, and then look for the trouble.

Follow the "out-of-control" procedure specified for the test method.

Repeat the tests with a new lot of standards (calibrators).

Repeat the tests with a new lot of reagents

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 What is the first step that should be taken in response to an out-of-control 1/1
condition?

Repeat testing of patient specimens since the previous in control situation

Periodically review mean, SD and CV to ensure an appropriate target value and SD

are used

Review performance of proficiency testing

Discontinue patient testing/reporting

Feedback

The results of "out-of-control" runs should not generally be reported.

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 Upon completion of a run of cholesterol tests, the technician recognizes 1/1
that the controls are not within the 2 standard deviations confidence range.
What is the appropriate course of action?

Report the results without any other action

Run a new set of controls

Run a new set of controls and repeat specimens

Recalibrate instrument and run controls

Feedback

Repeating a QC measurement on a new sample of QC material may establish that the alert
was caused by a deteriorated QC material rather than a method problem.

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 The first procedure to be followed if the blood gas instrument is out-of- 0/1
control for all parameters is:

Recalibrate, then repeat control

Repeat control on the next shift

Replace electrodes, then repeat control

Report patient results after duplicate testing

Correct answer

Recalibrate, then repeat control

Feedback

If multiple controls are out of range and the instrument and reagents are veriAed,
recalibration or calibration veriAcation is required before subsequent control analysis.

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 In most circumstances, when two controls within a run are both greater 1/1
than ±2s from the mean, what action should be taken first?

Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by selected patient samples if quality

control is acceptable

Repeat the controls before taking any corrective action

Change the reagent lot, then recalibrate

Prepare fresh standards and recalibrate

Which of the following monitoring factors would NOT be included in a 1/1

laboratory's quality assessment program?

Scheduling of staff

Specimen collection and identification

Accuracy and precision of analyses

Preventive maintenance of instruments

Feedback

Scheduling of staff is not involved in quality assessment programs. Quality assessment in

a broad sense includes monitoring every aspect of laboratory work from collection and
identiAcation of specimens to delivery of valid results to the physician.

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 A tech is scheduled to perform a specialized test that she/he is familiar 1/1
with, but is not exactly certain of the steps required. What is the best
course of action to take?

Ask another tech to perform the test.

Consult the procedure manual and notify the supervisor.

Run the test as best as possible, being careful to note control values.

Reject the specimen.

Feedback

Whenever one needs to review the details of a procedure, one should review the procedure
manual and notify the supervisor so that guidance can be received.

The procedure manual is one way in which a laboratory can document

analytical protocols. This leads to consistency in test results regardless of which person is
performing the analysis.

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 A tech has completed the first run of morning specimens. She/he notices 1/1
that the one control being used is outside ±3 s. What course of action
should be taken?

Release the results.

Repeat the control only, and if it comes in, release results.

Check equipment and reagents to determine source of error; repeat the entire
analysis, including the control and patients; if the control value is within ±2 s,
release results.

Repeat the control; if the same thing happens, attribute the cause to random error;
release results

Feedback

When checking control results that fall outside acceptable limits, one can apply the
Westgard multirule procedure, speciAcally 1:3 SD. Anytime only one control is used and it
exceeds the mean ±3 s, you must reject the test run.

You should check out the instrument and reagent system to locate the problem if possible.
A new control along with the patient specimens should be analyzed. No results should be
reported until the control is within the limits of ±2 s from the mean.

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 Which of the following describes the Westgard multirule 2:2s? 1/1

Two control data points are within± 2 s.

One control data point falls outside + 2 s and a second point falls outside -2s.

Two consecutive data points fall outside +2 s or fall outside -2 s.

Two consecutive data points fall.

Which Westgard multirule applies to a situation where one control point 1/1
exceeds the mean by +2 s and a second control point exceeds the mean by
-2 s?

1: 2SD

2: 2SD

4: 1SD

R: 4SD

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 Upon admission to the hospital, a chemistry profile is performed on a 1/1
patient. The patient has a total bilirubin of 2.0 mg/dL. The next day a
second chemistry profile is done, and the patient's total bilirubin is 6.2
mg/dL. What should be done in regard to these results because the normal
and abnormal controls are within acceptable limits?

Immediately call the physician to alert him/her to the second abnormal result.

Immediately send the second result to the patient's floor for charting.

Repeat the entire second run of patient specimens because there must be an error.

Perform a delta check and, if warranted, look for possible sources of error.

Feedback

When the same test is ordered on a patient more than once, a delta check can be
performed to compare consecutive test results.

Bilirubin results obtained on two consecutive days on an adult should not vary by more
than 50%. If the results vary by greater than 50%, it is most likely that an error has occurred
or an acute change has taken place.

One of the Arst things to check is proper identiAcation of the patient's specimen. As part of
a quality assessment program, one should also check patient results based on the clinical
correlation of laboratory test results.

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 When establishing a reference interval for a new test being introduced into 1/1
the laboratory, what is the preferred number of subjects that should
participate?

30

50

75

120

Which of the following must be known in order to determine the sensitivity 0/1
of a test?

True positives and false negatives

True negatives and false positives

True positives and false positives

True negatives and false negatives

Correct answer

True positives and false negatives

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 A laboratory procedure manual should be available to personnel at the 1/1
workbench and must include the following elements:

Clinical significance, frequency of test performance, quality control processes,

calculations, and test interpretation

Step-by-step performance instructions, reference intervals, reagent storage

location, specimen collection requirements

Limitation of test performance (interfering substances), corrective action if QC

fails, critical values, and reagent preparation

Test principle, criteria for specimen rejection, list of individuals authorized to

perform, and calibration procedures

Feedback

The elements of a written laboratory procedure are test principle; patient preparation;
specimen collection, labeling, handling & transport; specimen storage, preservation &
stability; criteria for specimen acceptability; referral instructions; reagents; procedures for
microscopic examinations; step-by-step test procedure; reportable range; test calibration;
quality control (QC) procedures; steps to be taken when calibration or QC fails; limitations
of procedure; reference range; critical values; results reporting & calculations (if any); and
references.

Frequency of test performance, reagent preparation, and list of individuals authorized to

perform are not speciAed in the laboratory procedure manual.

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 The main goal of a quality control (QC) strategy is to reduce the risk of 1/1
harm to a patient if an erroneous result is used for clinical decision
making. A QC strategy should be customized to the test and testing
situation. The core focus of a QC strategy centers around:

Accuracy, precision, and reproducibility of test systems

A measurement procedure's performance capability relative to the quality required,

and validation data

Interlaboratory quality control data

Critical control point quality control

Feedback

A measurement procedure's performance capability relative to the quality required and

validation data, interlaboratory quality control data, and critical control point quality control
are all particular methods used in QC, but measuring accuracy, precision and
reproducibility of tests/test systems are the core foci of QC in the laboratory.

Untitled Section 15 of 19 points

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 The term used to describe reproducibility is: 1/1

Sensitivity

Specificity

Accuracy

Precision

Feedback

Precision is the reproducibility of analytical results, or the degree to which results of

multiple analyses of the same specimen agree.

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 An index of precision is statistically known as the: 1/1

Median

Mean

Standard deviation

Coefficient of variation

Feedback

Precision is the closeness of agreement among replicate measurements, or

reproducibility.

The coebcient of variation, a more useful measure of reproducibility, is the measure of

relative random error expressed as a percentage.

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 The ability of a diagnostic test to accurately measure only the analyte of 1/1
interest in the presence of other substances is the:

Specificity

Sensitivity

Precision

Reproducibility

Feedback

Analytic speciAcity refers to the ability of the assay to accurately measure the analyte in
the presence of other substances. Analytic speciAcity refers to the ability to detect small
quantities of an analyte.

The statistical term for the average value is the: 1/1

Mode

Median

Mean

Coefficient of variation

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 The most frequent value in a collection of data is statistically known as: 1/1

Mode

Median

Mean

Standard deviation

The middle value of a data set is statistically known as the: 1/1

Mean

Median

Mode

Standard deviation

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 Diagnostic specificity is defined as the percentage of individuals: 1/1

With a given disease who have a positive result by a given test

Without a given disease who have a negative result by a given test

With a given disease who have a negative result by a given test

Without a given disease who have a positive result by a given test

Feedback

SpeciAcity (true negative rate) is deAned as negativity in the absence of disease.

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 The reliability of a test to be positive in the presence of the disease it was 0/1
designed to detect is known as:

Accuracy

Sensitivity

Precision

Specificity

Correct answer

Sensitivity

Feedback

A method used for screening must have a high degree of sensitivity to detect everyone
with the disease.

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 Which of the following parameters of a diagnostic test will vary with the 0/1
prevalence of a given disease in a population?

Precision

Sensitivity

Accuracy

Specificity

Correct answer

Accuracy

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 A mean value of 100 and a standard deviation of 1.8 mg/dL are obtained 1/1
from a set of glucose measurements on a control solution. The 95%
confidence interval in mg/dl would be:

94.6 to 105.4

96.4 to 103.6

97.3 to 102.7

98.2 to 101.8

Feedback

The probability of an observation having a value within ±2 standard deviations of the mean
in a normal distribution is 95.5%. Therefore, 100 ± 2 x 1.8 = 95% conAdence interval.

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 The mean value of a series of hemoglobin controls was found to be 15.2 1/1
g/dl, and the standard deviation was calculated at 0.20. Acceptable control
range for the laboratory is ±2 standard deviations. Which of the following
represents the allowable limits for the control?

14.5 to 15.5g/dL

15.0 to 15.4 g/dL

15.2 to 15.6 g/dL

14.8 to 15.6 g/dL

Unequivocal positive identification of each specimen can be achieved with 1/1

analyzers that utilize barcode readers. One advantage of using barcode
labels is:

Elimination of manual specimen labeling

Reduction of the number of lost specimens

Reduction in specimen identification errors

Reduction of specimen aliquoting errors

Feedback

Reduction in identiAcation errors.

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 "To deliver" (TD) pipettes are identified by: 1/1

Two etched bands near the top

Self-draining capacity

Dual-purpose pipette labels

Blue graduation levels

The speed of a centrifuge should be checked at least once every 3 months 1/1
with a(n):

Tachometer

Wiper

Potentiometer

Ergometer

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 Which of the following Westgard rules is indicative of random error? 1/1

1: 3SD

2: 2SD

4: 1SD

10:x

Feedback

1: 3 SD is indicative of random error. The others are indicative of systematic error.

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 In the calculation of the mean, what does “n” represent? 0/1

The sum of the values

The number of values in the set

The average of the values

The middle number of the set

Correct answer

The number of values in the set

Feedback

n equals the number of values in the set

How many liters are in 4 dL? 1/1

400

40

0.4

0.04

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 How many liters are in 3 uL? 1/1

0.003

0.000003

0.0000003

0.000000003

How many micrograms are in 10 mg? 0/1

100

1000

10000

100000

Correct answer

10000

Untitled Section 35 of 40 points

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 The major intended purpose of the laboratory safety manual is to: 1/1

Protect the patient and laboratory personnel

Protect laboratory and other hospital personnel

Comply with local health and state regulatory requirements

Comply with OSHA regulations

To prevent injury, a safe lab work practice is to: 1/1

Secure long hair and jewelry

Store well-wrapped food in the supply refrigerator

Wear contact lenses for eye protection

Wear comfortable, rubber-bottomed, open-weaved shoes

Feedback

Long hair and jewelry should be secured to avoid contamination with biohazards or
physical injury. The other choices are not safe or acceptable work practices: food should
not be stored in supply refrigerators at all, contact lenses should not be worn in
laboratories, and open weaved shoes are a spill hazard.

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 Which of the following is the best choice for decontaminating bench tops 1/1
contaminated by the AIDS virus?

Sodium hypochlorite bleach

Formalin

Quaternary ammonium compound

100% alcohol

The safest method of disposing of hypodermic needles is: 1/1

Recap the needle with its protective sheath prior to discarding

Cut the needle with a special device before disposal

Discard the needle in an impermeable container

Drop the needle in the waste basket immediately after use

Feedback

The simplest method of disposing of needles is to dispose of the entire collection device
into a container reserved for sharps.

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 Contaminated needles and syringes without safety self-sheathing devices 0/1
should be:

Sheared by a needle cutter or bent

Re-capped using a 2-handed technique

Discarded directly into an appropriate sharps container

Removed from the syringe/needle holder

Correct answer

Discarded directly into an appropriate sharps container

Which of the following forms of exposure places a technologist at the 1/1

highest risk for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

Aerosol inhalation (eg, AIDS patient's sneeze)

Ingestion (eg, mouth pipetting of positive serum)

Needlestick (eg, from AIDS contaminated needle)

Splash (eg, infected serum spill onto intact skin)

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 After an accidental needle stick with a contaminated needle, the first 1/1
action should be to:

Apply antiseptic ointment to the wound

Seek immediate medical assistance

Bandage the wound

Thoroughly wash the wound with soap and water

Feedback

The primary action after an accidental needlestick is to thoroughly wash the wound with
soap and water. The other choices are secondary, not primary actions.

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 According to OSHA, what type of warning sign should be posted in an area 0/1
where an immediate hazard exists and where special precautions are
necessary?

Red, black and white "Danger" sign

Yellow and black "Caution" sign

Green and white "Safety Instruction" sign

Orange and black "Biohazard" sign

Correct answer

Red, black and white "Danger" sign

Feedback

A "Danger" sign is required where immediate hazards are present. The other choices are
incorrect and used for the other purposes as listed in the choices. The word immediate is
the key to choosing the correct answer.

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 In the National Fire Protection Association identification system, four color-1/1
coded, diamond-shaped symbols are arranged to form a larger diamond
shape. What type of hazard does the blue diamond identify?

Flammable

Health

Reactivity

Contact

A fire extinguisher used in the event of an electrical fire should include 1/1
which of the following classifications?

Type A

Type B

Type C

Type D

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 A fire occurs in the laboratory. The first course of action is to: 1/1

Evacuate the entire area

Pull the fire alarm box

Remove persons from immediate danger

Contain the fire by closing doors

Feedback

Persons must be removed from immediate danger as the Arst course of action; the other
choices are secondary actions. The sequence of actions after removing persons from
immediate danger is to pull the Are alarm, contain the Are, and evacuate the area, if
required.

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 An electrical equipment fire breaks out in the laboratory. Personnel have 0/1
been removed from immediate danger, the alarm has been activated. What
is the next action to be taken?

Evacuate the facility

Contain the fire by closing doors

Extinguish fire with type A extinguisher

Lock all windows and doors in the immediate area

Correct answer

Contain the fire by closing doors

Feedback

CONTAIN
The next correct step is to contain the Are by closing the doors.

Evacuation of the facility is the last action to be taken and only if indicated.

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 After receiving appropriate training, the first step in using a fire extinguisher1/1
is to:

Sweep the flow of the hose from side to side

Pull the pin

Squeeze the top handle or lever

Aim the hose at the base of the fire

Red diamond or fire hazard, classified according to Flash Point: 1/1

A to C

A to D

1 to 10

0 to 4

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 What is the proper order for putting on protective clothing? 1/1

Gloves first, then gown, mask last

Gown first, then gloves, mask last

Gown first, then mask, gloves last

Mask first, then gown, gloves last

What is the correct order for removing protective clothing? 1/1

Gloves, gown, mask

Gown, gloves, mask

Gown, mask, gloves

Mask, gown, gloves

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 Gloves worn in the laboratory for specimen processing must be removed 1/1
and hands washed when:

Answering the telephone in the technical work area

Carrying a specimen outside the technical work area through "clean" areas

Answering the telephone in a designated "clean" area

After handling specimens from known isolation precaution patients

Feedback

Gloves must be removed before answering the telephone in a designated "clean" area, and
hands washed afterward.

Gloves do not need to be removed in the technical work area.

It is essential to keep gloves on during specimen transportation, even though "clean" areas,
such as the hallways.

Gloves do not need to be changed after handling isolation precaution patient specimens
unless known contamination has occurred, which is the same for any patient specimen
under "standard precautions."

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 Work is being done with Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the microbiology 1/1
laboratory. It is important that you enter this laboratory while work is being
done with positive samples. What is the most important personal
protective equipment you should don before entering this laboratory?

Carbon cartridge respirator

Mask

Gloves

N95 HEPA filter respirator

A laboratorian, properly dressed in white pants, laboratory coat, and shoes, 1/1
prepares to leave the laboratory for lunch. In addition to washing his hands,
he should:

Put on safety goggles

Remove his laboratory coat

Wipe the bench with water

Remove polyvinyl gloves and place them into lab coat pocket for future use

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 Which order of events should be followed at the conclusion of a laboratory 1/1
worker’s shift in order to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens?

Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove lab coat

Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands

Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat

Remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat, disinfect area

A technologist splashed a corrosive chemical in his/her eyes. To prevent 1/1

permanent injury, the first action should be to:

Bandage the eyes and seek immediate emergency medical assistance

Flush eyes with a chemical of opposite pH to neutralize the injury

Use the eyewash station to flush eyes with water for 15 minutes

Seek immediate emergency medical assistance

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 A medical laboratory science student in training accidentally splashed a 1/1
few drops of an extraction reagent from an enzyme immunoassay kit for
group A Streptococcus into her right eye, and felt an immediate burning
sensation. What should she do first?

Locate the MSDS sheet for the EIA test kit

Go directly to the emergency department for treatment

Go to the eye-wash station and rinse the eye thoroughly with water

Report directly to her immediate supervisor

An employee who accidently spills acid on his arm should immediately: 1/1

Neutralize the acid with a base

Hold the arm under running water for 15 minutes

Consult the MSDSs

Wrap the arm in gauze and go to the emergency room

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 A technologist spilled concentrated hydrochloric acid on his/her clothing 1/1
and skin, affecting a large portion of the body. After removing involved
clothing, the next first aid treatment step would be to:

Seek immediate emergency medical assistance

Use emergency safety shower and flush body with water

Apply burn ointment to affected skin

Pour baking soda on the skin and bandage

A laboratorian spills a bottle of concentrated sulfuric acid and slips in the 1/1
fluid, exposing the lower length of her body to the burning fluid. What
would be the most advisable action for a coworker to take?

Call security.

Put the person under the safety shower.

Take the injured person to the nearest hospital emergency department.

Pour concentrated base on the person to neutralize the acid.

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 In case of chemical spill, generally appropriate for acid, alkali, or solvent 1/1
spills:

Buffer

Sand mixture

Water

None of these

Feedback

Frequently, liquids are contained by absorption using a spill compound (absorbent) such
as ground clay or a sodium bicarbonate and sand mixture. The latter is generally
appropriate for acid, alkali, or solvent spills.

Following absorption, the absorbent is swept up and placed into a bag or a sealed
container for appropriate chemical disposal, and the spill area is thoroughly washed.

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 The first step to be taken when attempting to repair a piece of electronic 1/1
equipment is:

Check all the electronic connections

Reset all the printed circuit boards

Turn the instrument off

Replace all the fuses

All of the following are safe to do when removing the source of an electric 1/1
shock EXCEPT:

Pulling the person away from the instrument

Turning off the circuit breaker

Using a glass container to move the instrument

Unplugging the instrument

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 The major job-related disease hazard in clinical laboratories is: 0/1

Tularemia

Salmonella

Tuberculosis

Hepatitis

Correct answer

Hepatitis

Feedback

Viral hepatitis is the major job-related disease hazard in all clinical laboratories. All
laboratorians who handle blood or body guids are at risk. The modes of transmission
include ingestion and injection. Thus, it is crucial that the laboratorian follows proper
safety practices at all times.

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 Infection rate is highest for laboratory professionals exposed to blood and 0/1
body fluids containing:

Hepatitis A

Hepatitis B

CMV

HIV

Correct answer

Hepatitis B

Feedback

Hepatitis B infection is a global public health problem and is one of the most common
infectious diseases in the world.

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 The phrase "Standard Precautions" refers to a concept of bloodborne 1/1
disease control that requires all human blood and other potentially
infectious materials:

Be treated as if known to be infectious for bloodborne pathogens regardless of

the perceived "low risk" of a patient population.

Be treated as if it is not infectious unless it is known to be infectious.

Must be handled using a respirator for aerosol exposure.

Need not be treated with caution unless there is a cut on your hand.

Use of "standard" (universal) precautions minimizes exposure to: 1/1

Bloodborne pathogens

Chemical hazards

Radiation hazards

Environmental hazards

Feedback

"Standard" precautions are designed to minimize exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

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 What is the most likely mode of transmission for bloodborne pathogens in 1/1
laboratory acquired infections?

Parenteral inoculation of blood

Contact with intact skin

Airborne transmission

Fecal-oral transmission

Feedback

Parenteral inoculation of blood is the most likely mode of bloodborne pathogen

transmission. The other choice are unlikely transmission modes for bloodborne
pathogens.

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 Which infectious agent is considered to be the primary occupational health 1/1
hazard regarding transmission of bloodborne pathogens?

Human immunodeficiency virus

Hepatitis B

Tuberculosis

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Feedback

Hepatitis B is the bloodborne pathogen most likely to be transmitted in an occupational

setting.

What is the single most effective method to prevent nosocomial spread of 1/1
infection?

Wear mask, gown and gloves

Require infectious patients to mask

Wear an N95 respirator mask

Perform frequent and appropriate hand hygiene

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 While processing patient specimens, a technologist splashes a few small 1/1
drops of a bronchial wash specimen on his/her gloves. The first action
should be to:

Wash the gloves with antiseptic/soap and water

Continue to wear the gloves until grossly contaminated or leaving the area

Wash the gloves with an appropriate disinfectant

Change gloves and wash hands with antiseptic/soap and water

Feedback

When gloves become contaminated by even a small amount of potentially infective

material, one should change gloves and wash hands with antiseptic soap and water.

Continuing to wear contaminated gloves, or washing the gloves, are inappropriate

practices.

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 What written plan of specific measures must laboratories have in place to 1/1
minimize the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens?

Chemical hygiene plan

Exposure control plan

Material safety data sheets

Infection control plan

Feedback

Each employer having an employee with occupational exposure to human blood or any
other infectious materials including bloodborne pathogens must establish a written
exposure control plan designed to eliminate or minimize employee exposure.

The plan identiAes tasks that are hazardous and promotes employee safety. The plan
incorporates education, proper disposal of hazardous waste, engineering controls, use of
personal protective equipment, and a post-exposure plan.

Staphylococcus aureus: 1/1

BSL-1

BSL-2

BSL-3

BSL-4

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 In the course of isolation, B. anthracis is recovered that may be implicated 1/1
in an act of bioterrorism. Such an organism would fall under which Centers
for Disease Control category of biological agent?

Category A

Category B

Category C

None of these options

Feedback

The CDC groups biological agents that may be used to carry out terrorist threats into one
of three categories: A, B, or C.

Category A agents are those that would cause the most harm because of their highly
infectious nature, mode of transmission, and high mortality. This group includes Bacillus
anthracis, Clostridium botulinum, Francisella tularensis, Yersinia pestis, smallpox virus,
and viruses that cause hemorrhagic fever such as Ebola and Marburg viruses.

Category B includes bacteria and viruses that pose a lesser threat such as the organisms
that produce ricin, gangrene, and Q fever.

Category C includes emergent infectious agents such as hantavirus.

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 Which of the following information is not found on a material safety data 1/1
sheet?

Health hazard data

Fire and explosion hazard data

First aid measures

Cost of chemical

Feedback

Material safety data sheets (MSDSs) will speciAcally include chemical identity as it
appears on the label, chemical name and common name, physical and chemical
characteristics, signs and symptoms of exposure, routes of entry, exposure limits,
carcinogenic potential, safe handling procedures, spill cleanup procedures, and emergency
Arst-aid.

MSDSs are provided by the manufacturers for every chemical. MSDSs contain information
on the nature of the chemical, precautions if spilled, and disposal recommendations.

Untitled Section 1 of 2 points

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 Variation in the normal coloration of RBCs: 1/1

Hypochromia

Hyperchromia

Polychromasia

Anisochromia

Feedback

The general term for a variation in the normal coloration is anisochromia.

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 Which of the following red cell antigens is fully and strongly expressed on 0/1
red blood cells from a term neonate? [from BB Guy]

I antigen

K antigen

A antigen

Lea antigen

P1 antigen

Correct answer

K antigen

Feedback

ABO antigens, while present on fetal and neonatal RBCs, are not fully developed until
between age 2 and 4 (ABO antibodies, by the way, are not reliably present until after age 4
months).

Kell antigens, on the other hand, are well-expressed on newborn RBCs, as well as on RBC
precursors.

RMTs by April 2, 2025!

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 Forms

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