27-04-2025

2721CMD303029250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) What does NOT affect the capacitance of a capacitor?

(1) Distance between plates

(2) Area of plates
(3) Type of battery connected
(4) Dielectric material

2)

Two parallel metal plates having charges + Q and – Q face each other with a certain separation
between them. If the plates are now dipped in kerosene oil tank, the electric field between the plates
will :-

(1) increase
(2) decrease
(3) remain same
(4) become zero

3) The distance between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is d. A metal plate of thickness (d/2)
is placed between the plates. Then :-

(1) the capacitance remains the same

(2) the capacitance doubles
(3) the capacitance halves
(4) the capacitance increases by four times.

4) If dielectric is removed from the space between the plates of an isolated charged parallel plate
capacitor, then

(1) Electric field between the plates decreases

(2) Capacity of the capacitor decreases
(3) Charge stored on the capacitor increases
(4) Energy stored in the capacitor decreases

5) What fraction of the energy drawn from the charging battery is stored in a capacitor

(1) 100%
(2) 75%
(3) 50%
(4) 25%
6) Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor does not depend upon:

(1) Medium between the plates

(2) Separation between the plates
(3) Charge on the plates
(4) Area of plates

7) The distance between the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor is halved and the area of each
plate is doubled. If C is its initial capacitance, its final capacitance is equal to:

(1) 2C
(2) C/2
(3) 4C
(4) C/4

8) Consider a capacitor connected with a battery, capacitor is in steady state. Now plates
of capacitor are drawn apart so as to double the separation in two cases.
Case :
(i) Battery remains connected
(ii) Battery is disconnected
Mark the correct statement.

(1) In case (i) energy of capacitor increases

(2) In case (i) work done by battery is positive
(3) In case (ii) energy of capacitor increases
(4) In case (ii) potential difference across capacitor decreases

9) The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is :

(1) 4C
(2) 2C
(3) C/2

(4)
3C/2
10)
Potential difference across C3 is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The distance between plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 5d. The positively charged plate is at
x = 0 and negatively charged plates is at x = 5d. Two slabs one of conductor and the other of a
dielectric of same thickness d are inserted between the plates as shown in figure. Potential (V)
versus distance x graph will be

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A capacitor is made of a flat plate of area A and a second plate having a stair-like structure as

shown in figure. If the area of each stair is and the height is d, the capacitance of the arrangement

is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be:

(1) 3 C, 3 V
(2) C/3, V/3
(3) C/3, 3 V
(4) 3 C, V/3

14) The capacitance of a capacitor with charge q and a potential difference V depends on:

(1) both q and V

(2) the geometry of the capacitor
(3) q only
(4) V only

15) In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal A and terminal B is :

(1) 2μF
(2) 1μF
(3) 0.5μF
(4) 4μF

16) Two spherical conductors A and B of radius a and b (b > a) are placed in air concentrically. B is
given a charge + Q coulombs and A is grounded. The equivalent capacitance of these is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

17) A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric field E (V/m) in the space between the plates. If
the distance between the plates is d (m) and area of each plate is A (m2) the energy (joules) stored in
the condenser is :-

2
(1) E Ad/∈0

(2)

(3) ∈0EAd

(4)

18) Four identical capacitors are connected in series with a battery of emf 10V. The point X is
earthed. Than the potential of point A is –
(1) 10 V
(2) 7.5 V
(3) –7.5 V
(4) 0 V

19) Four plates of same area are connected as shown in figure. If the distance between the plates is

d then effective capacity of combination is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Distance between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 4 mm and potential difference is 60
V. If the distance increases to 12 mm then -

(1) potential difference on capacitor will be 180 volt

(2) potential difference on capacitor will be 20 volt
(3) potential difference on capacitor will not change
(4) charge on capacitor will become one third
21) In the given figure charge on each capacitor in μC is:

(1) 100, 200, 300

(2) 200, 100, 300
(3) 300, 100, 200
(4) 300, 200, 100

22) A capacitor of 2μF capacity is charged by a battery of 100 V then heat loss is:

(1) 20 mJ
(2) 10 mJ
(3) 40 mJ
(4) 30 mJ

23) A parallel plate capacitor is made of two dielectric block in series. One of the blocks has
thickness d1 and dielectric constant K1 and the other has thinness d2 and dielectric constant K2 as
shown in figure. This arrangement can be thought as a dielectric slab of thickness and

effective dielectric constant K. The K is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A capacitor is connected with a cell if distance between plates is halved then force of attraction
between the plates :-

(1) Remains same

(2) Becomes 8 times
(3) Becomes 4 times
(4) Becomes 2 times
25) Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and b (b > a) are placed concentrically in air. A is
given a charge +Q while B is earthed. Then the equivalent capacitance of the system is :–

(1)

(2) 4πε0(a + b)
(3) 4πε0b

(4) 0
4πε

26) The equivalent capacitance of the arrangement shown in figure is :

(1) 30 µF
(2) 15 µF
(3) 25 µF
(4) 20 µF

27) The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is :

(1) 3μF
(2) 6μF
(3) 9μF
(4) 2μF

28) Assertion (A) : If three capacitors of capacitances C1 < C2 < C3 are connected in series and

parallel, then Cparallel > Cseries. Reason (R) : Cseries= C1 + C2 + C3 and

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

29) Three parallel metallic plates, each of area A are kept as shown in the figure and charges Q1,
Q2 and Q3 are given to them. Edge effects are negligible. Calculate the charges on the two outermost

surfaces 'a' and 'f'.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The energy and capacity of a charged parallel plate capacitor are U and C respectively. Now a
dielectric slab of ∈r=6 is inserted in it then energy and capacity becomes : (Assuming charge on
plates remains constant)

(1) 6U, 6C
(2) U, C

(3)
, 6C
(4) U, 6C

31) The earth has Volume 'V' and Surface Area 'A' then capacitance would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Plates of area A are arranged as shown. The distance between each two plates is d, the net
capacitance is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A parallel plate condenser is filled with two dielectrics as shown in figure. Area of each plate is A
metre2 and the separation is d metre. The dielectric constants are K1 and K2 respectively. Its
capacitance in farad will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Equivalent capacitance between A & B is

(1) 2μf
(2) 3μf
(3) 5μf
(4) 0.5μf

35) As shown in the figure, a very thin sheet of aluminium is placed in between the plates of the
condenser. Then the capacity.

(1) Will increase

(2) Will decrease
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) May increase or decrease

36)

A parallel plate capacitor has capacitance C. Half of space between the plates is filled with dielectric
of dielectric constant K as shown in figure. The new capacitance is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Three uncharged capacitors of capacitance C1, C2 and C3 are connected as shown in figure to one
another and to points A, B and D at potentials VA, VB and VD. Then the potential at O will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
38) A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is placed between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor
carrying charge q.The induced charge q' on the surface of slab is given by

(1)
q' = q –
q' = –q +
(2)

q' = q
(3)

q' = –q
(4)

39) In the arrangement shown in figure, dielectric constant K1 = 2 and K2 = 3. If the capacitance
across P and Q are C1 and C2 respectively, then C1/C2 will be (the gaps shown are negligible):

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 9 : 5
(4) 25 : 24

40) A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged
capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system :

(1) increases by a factor of 4

(2) decreases by a factor 2
(3) remains the same
(4) increases by a factor of 2

41) A particle performing uniform circular motion has angular momentum L. If its angular frequency
is doubled and its kinetic energy halved, then the new angular momentum is :

(1) L/4
(2) 2L
(3) 4L
(4) L/2

42) Three rings each of mass m and radius r are so placed that they touch each other. The radius of
gyration of the system about the axis as shown in the figure is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The ratio of radii of gyration of a hollow sphere and a solid sphere of same radii about tangential
axis is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44)

Position of the centre of mass of system is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
45) If the density of material of a square plate and a circular plate shown in is same, the centre of

mass of the composite system will be :

(1) Inside the squre plate

(2) Inside the circular plate
(3) At the point of contact
(4) Outside the system

CHEMISTRY

1)
Major product of above reaction is :-

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
(2) CH3–CH3
(3) CH3–CH2–CH3
(4) CH2=CH2

2) Which is incorrectly written reaction :-

(1) + HBr

(2)
+ NBS →

(3)

(4)

3) products. Which is not obtained in product ?

(1) CH3–CH3

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) B CH3—C≡CH A, A and B are

(1) CH3CH2CHO, CH3COCH3

(2) CH3COCH3, CH3CH2CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 both
(4) CH3COCH3, CH3CH2CH2OH

5) Which of the following alkenes is most reactive towards electrophilic addition reactions ?

(1) CH2 = CH2

(2) CH3CH = CH2
(3) (CH3)2C = CH2
(4) CH2 = CH – Cl

6) What happens when methane reacts with conc. HNO3 at high temperature ?

(1) Nitromethane is formed

(2) Methane is formed
(3) CO2 + H2O is formed
(4) CO and H2O are formed

7)
is an example of :-

(1) Electrophilic addition reaction

(2) Nucleophilic addition reaction
(3) Free radical addition reaction
(4) Free radical substitution reaction

8)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9)
In the above reaction, maximum Saytzeff product will be obtained where X is:

(1) –I
(2) –Cl
(3) –Br
(4) –F

10) Propyl Benzene reacts with bromine in present of light or hear to give.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I (Compound) List-II (Boiling Point in K)

(a) (i) 300.9

(b) (ii) 282.5

 (c) (iii) 309.1

(d) (iv) 341.9

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

12) Maximum Hofmann’s product is obtained when base is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) NaNH2

(4)

13) Wrong statement regarding alkanes :

(1) All alkanes burn in air to give CO2 and H2O

(2) At room temperature, some alkanes are gases, some are liquids and some are solids
(3) What ever the molecular weight of alkane, its density is less than water
(4) Most of the alkanes are soluble in water

14) In the following reaction, the major product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Select the chain propagation step in the free radical chlorination of methane :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Reagent used to carry out following alkyne to alkene is

(1) Pd – C/H2
(2) Na/liq. NH3
(3) LiAlH4
(4) Ni/H2

17) What is mechanism of given reaction:-

(1) Free radical substitution reaction
(2) Free radical addition reaction
(3) Electrophilic addition reaction
(4) Electrophilic substitution reaction

18) In the nitration of propane, the product obtained in maximum yield ?

(1) 1-nitro propane

(2) 2-nitro propane
(3) nitro ethane
(4) nitro methane

19) Statement-I : Bromination of Butane gives two products.

Statement-II : Reactivity order of halogens towards alkane is F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

20) Consider the following reaction

The major product obtained in the reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

21) What is the main product of this reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Following carbocation rearrange to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) No rearrangement
23) B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) What is the final product (B) in the following reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

25) Assertion : 1-Butene on reaction with HBr in the presence of peroxide produces 1-bromo
butane.
Reason : It involves the free redical mechanism.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is a correct explanation for assertion
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

26) Match the column

Column-I Column-II

(P) Corey
(A) RCOONa House
synthesis

Kolbe’s
(B) R–CH2–COONa (Q)
Electrolysis

Decar-
(C) R–X + R1–X (R)
boxylation

Wurtz
(D) R–X+R2CuLi R–R (S)
Reaction
(1) A(Q), B(R), C(S), D(P)
(2) A(R), B(Q), C(P), D(S)
(3) A(P), B(S), C(R), D(Q)
(4) A(Q), B(R), C(P), D(S)

27) In given compound which H is most reactive with Cl2/hν :-

(1) Ha
(2) Hb
(3) Hc
(4) Hd

28) Most reactive for decarboxylation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) , A is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30)

Match list I with list II and then select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists.

List I List II

A Butane → Isobutane (a) Cracking

B Butane → Lower hydrocarbons (b) Isomerisation

C n-Heptane → Toluene (c) Nitration

D Ethane (d) Aromatization

CH3 NO2

(1) A-b, B-a, C-d, D-c

(2) A-b, B-d, C-a, D-c
(3) A-b, B-c, C-d, D-a
(4) A-b, B-d, C-c, D-a

31) Which of the following do not give R–H with R–MgCl :-

(1) NH3
(2) CH3OH
(3) ClNH2
(4) HCOOH

32) During kolbe electrolysis, pH of solution :-

(1) increases due to formation of base

(2) decreases due to formation of base
(3) first increases then decreases
(4) remains constant

33)
Reagent can be:-

(1) Red P/HI

(2) Zn - Hg/HCl
(3)
(4) All

34) The nitrating agent for the nitration of alkanes is :

(1) Conc. HNCO3

(2) Mixture of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4
(3) Acetyl nitrate
(4) HNO3 vapours at high temperature

35) R–Br CH3CH2D,

R – Br by Wurtz reaction forms -

(1) CH3CH2CH2CH3
(2) CH3CH2CH2CH3, CH3CH3
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH3, CH3CH3, CH2 = CH2
(4) CH3CH2CH2CH3, CH2 = CH2

36) Which can give toluene after decarboxylation ?

(a) (b) (c)

(d) (e)

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) a, c
(4) a, b, d

37) can be converted in to by :-

(1) Red P + HI
(2) Wolff Kishner reduction
(3) Clemmensen reaction
(4) All

38) Match the column :-

List - I List - II
(A) Wurtz reaction (I) Zn
(B) Corey House synthesis (II) Li
(C) Frankland reaction (III) Na
Correct Codes matched are :-
A B C
(1) II I III
(2) III II I
(3) III I II
(4) II III I

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) Arrange the halogens F2, Cl2, Br2, I2 in the order of their increasing reactivity with alkanes :

(1) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2

(2) Br2 < Cl2 < F2 < I2
(3) F2 < Cl2 < I2 < Br2
(4) Br2 < I2 < Cl2 < F2

40) CH4 can be prepared by :-

(1) Wurtz Reaction

(2) Kolbe's electrolysis method
(3) Sodalime method
(4) None of the above

41) Major product :-

(1) CH2=CH2
(2) Ph–CH=CH2
(3) CH3–CH=CH2

(4)

42)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None is correct

44) Correct rate of dehydrohalogination with alc. KOH is –

(1) 1 > 2 > 3

(2) 3 > 2 > 1
(3) 2 > 1 > 3
(4) 2 > 3 > 1

45) P, [Major] P is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) both are correct

(4) None
 BIOLOGY

1) Match the parts of gynoceium given in column I with their definition given in column II. Choose
the correct combination from the options given below.

(1) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V

(2) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I
(3) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III; E – V
(4) A – I; B – III; C – V; D – II; E – IV

2) Apomixis is the

(1) Development of plants in darkness.

(2) Development of embryo without fusion of gametes.
(3) Inability to perceive stimulus for flowering.
(4) Effect of low temperature on plant growth.

3) Perisperm is a

(1) Degenerate part of synergids.

(2) Peripheral part of endosperm.
(3) Degenerate part of secondary nucleus.
(4) Remnant of nucellus

4) Assertion : From the genetical point of view geitonogamy is similar to self pollination.
Reason : Here pollen grain came from the same flower.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

5) Wind pollinated flowers are

(1) Small, producing nectar and dry pollen
(2) Small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains
(3) Small, producing large number of dry pollen grains
(4) Large, producing abundant nectar and pollen

6) Which of these is a condition that makes flowers invariably autogamous?

(1) Dioecy
(2) Self incompatibilty
(3) Cleistogamy
(4) Xenogamy

7)

Identify the incorrect statement related to pollination.

(1) Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects
(2) Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
(3) Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination
(4) Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated

8) Self incompatibility refers to

(1) Inhibition of pollen germination on the stigma of flower of another species

(2) Maturation of anther & stigma at different times
(3) Germination of pollen within the anther
(4) Inhibition of pollen germination on the stigma of same flower

9)

The only type of pollination that brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma is:

(1) Chasmogamy
(2) Cleistogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Xenogamy

10) Read the following statements:

(i) Seed is the basis of our agriculture because of its dehydration and dormant nature
(ii) The oldest viable seed reported is of Lupinus arcticus from Artic Tundra
(iii) Orchid fruits contain thousands of tiny seeds, so do the parasitic species of Orabanche and
striga
(iv) Apomixis is common in Asteraceae and Poaceae
(v) Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (ii) only
(4) (v) only

11) Recently excavated seed from arctic region germinated after 10000 year is :-

(1) Lupine
(2) Lilium
(3) Datepalm
(4) Phoenix dactylifera

12) In some fruits parthenocarpy is useless. Because of :-

(1) Edible part is seed

(2) Edible part is endosperm
(3) Edible part is pericarp only
(4) Both 1 and 2

13) Which of the following is not correct for prefertilization and post fertilization condition?

Prefertilization Post fertilization

condition condition

(1) Ovary wall – Fruit wall

(2) Integuments – Seed coat

(3) Endosperm – Perisperm

(4) Synergid – Degenerate

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Match the column-I and column-II and choose the correct combination from the given options :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) PEC (i) Endosperm

(b) Zygote (ii) Embryo

(c) Ovule (iii) Seed

(d) Ovary (iv) Fruit

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
15) Match the column-I with column-II & select the correct option given below :-

Column-I Column-II
A. Anemophily P. Zostera
B. Pollen grain is covered by mucous Q. Grasses
C. Provide safe place for egg laying R. Rafflesia
D Flower with foul odour S. Amorphophallus
(1) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(2) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
(3) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P
(4) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P

16) A tetraploid male plant crossed with a hexaploid female plant, find out the ploidy level of embryo
and endosperm :-

(1) Pentaploid and octaploid

(2) Heptaploid and pentaploid
(3) Diploid and triploid
(4) Haploid and diploid

17) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below-

Column - I Column - II

(a) Cleistogamy (i) Citrus

(b) Hydrophily (ii) Oxalis

(c) Perisperm (iii) Vallisnaria

(d) Polyembryony (iv) Black pepper

Codes :-
a b c d

(1) ii i iv iii

(2) ii iii iv i

(3) iii ii i iv

(4) i ii iii iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Assertion A : The seed germinated and flowered after an estimated record of 10,000 years of
dormancy
Reason R : Phoenix dactylifera excavated from Arctic Tundra oldest yet viable seeds

(1) Only statement A is incorrect

(2) Only statement B is incorrect
(3) Statement A is correct and Statement B is also correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

19) Statement-I : Aquatic plant may show anemophily.

Statement-II : Zostera is fresh water aquatic plant show hydrophily.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-II is correct but Statement-I is incorrect.

20) Common floral rewards provided by plants to pollinators are

(1) Nectar and pollen

(2) Pollen and enzyme
(3) Hormones and nectar
(4) Fragrance and nectar

21) Male gametes are formed by :

(1) Pollen mother cell

(2) Generative cell
(3) Vegetative cell
(4) Microspore mother cell

22) Major pigment found in Fucus is/are

(1) Chlorophyll a, c and Fucoxanthis

(2) Chlorophyll a, d and Phycoerythris
(3) Chlorophyll a, b and Phycocyanis
(4) Fucoxanthis and Phycoerythris

23) Which of the following algae is used as food?

(1) Porphyra
(2) Laminaria
(3) Sargassum
(4) More than one option is correct

24) Match the columns:

Column - I Column - II

A. Psilopsida (i) Dryopteris, Pteris and Adiantum

B. Lycopsida (ii) Equisetum

 C. Sphenopsida (iii) Selaginella and Lycopodium

D. Pteropsida (iv) Psilotum

(1) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (ii)
(2) A = (ii), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (i)
(3) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(4) A = (iv), B = (iii), C = (ii), D = (i)

25) Embryophyta includes :

(A) Thallophyta (B) Bryophyta
(C) Pteriodophyta (D) Angiosperm

(1) Only A
(2) Only D
(3) Only A and D
(4) B, C and D

26) Coralloid roots of Cycas are associated with :-

(1) N2-fixing cyanobacteria

(2) Root hair and root cap
(3) Food and water conduction
(4) Fungi

27) Pollen of anemophilous plants are :

(1) Large, hairy and sticky

(2) Small, light and non sticky
(3) Small and sticky
(4) Large, light and hygroscopic

28) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Most of the plants like water hyacinth is pollinated by water
(b) Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
(c) Vallisneria flowers are pollinated by water under the water surface.
(d) Water lily are pollinated by insects. Option:

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d).

(2) Statements (b) and (d).
(3) Statements (a), (c) and (d).
(4) Statements (a) and (c).

29) Monoecious plant with unisexual flowers prevents :-

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Pollination is not possible

30) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of same plant is called.

(1) Xenogamy
(2) Autogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Chasmogamy

31) Which of the following device prevents self pollination?

(1) Self sterility

(2) Dicliny
(3) Dichogamy
(4) All of the above

32) Match the column I with column II.

Column - I Column - II

A. Vallisneria (i) Insect pollination

B. Water hyacinth (ii) Water pollination

C. Yucca (iii) Tallest flower

D. Amorphophallus (iv) Moth pollination

Correct answer is –
(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
(2) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii
(4) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv

33) If the female parent bears bisexual flowers then in case of artificial hybridisations the step
involved are:-
(I) Bagging (II) Emasculation
(III) Rebagging (IV) Dusting
Their correct sequence is :-

(1) I-II-IV-III
(2) II-I-IV-III
(3) III-IV-II-I
(4) II-I-III-IV

34) Which one of the following is incorrect for animal pollinated plants ?

(1) Nectar and pollen grains are usual floral rewards

(2) To harvest the rewards from the flower, animal come in contact with anther and stigma
(3) Animal carrying pollen when come in contact with stigma, it brings about poolination
(4) Flowers are nectarless, colourless, odourless

35) In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by

(1) Insects or wind

(2) Water currents only
(3) Wind and water
(4) Insects and water

36) Hydrophily occurs in

(1) Nymphaea
(2) Nelumbo
(3) Eichhornia
(4) Vallisneria/Zostera

37) Assertion : In apomixis, plants of new genetic variation are produced

Reason : In apomixis, reduction division taken place

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true and reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

38) Occurance of more than embryo in seed is referred to as

(1) Polyembryony
(2) Polycarpellary
(3) Multi folate
(4) Coenocytic embryosac

39) Syngamy refers to

(1) Fusion of male gamete with egg cell

(2) Fusion of male gamete with diploid secondary nucleus
(3) Formation of endosperm
(4) Formation of triploid tissue

40) Match the following list – I with list – II :

List - I List - II

A Ovary i Outer seed coat

B Ovule ii Inner seed coat

 After fertilization
C Testa iii
mature in to fruit

After fertilization
D Tegmen iv
mature in to seed

A B C D

(1) iii iv ii i

(2) iv iii ii i

(3) iii iv i ii

(4) i ii iv iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41)
Find the correct option for the labels of figure given

(1) A - Epicotyle ; B- Hypocotyle

(2) A- Radicle ; B - Plumule
(3) A - Plumule ; B- Radicle
(4) A- Root cap ; B - Hypocotyle

42) Double fertilisation is

(1) Fusion of one male gamete with the egg and other with synergids
(2) Fusion of one male gamete or nucleus with the egg and other with the secondary nucleus
(3) Fusion of two eggs
(4) Fusion of eggs and polar nucleus of two polar nuclei

43)

Which of the following conditions promote cross pollination?

(1) Homogamy
(2) Cleistogamy
(3) Self-incompatibility
(4) Presence of bisexual flowers

44) Which of the following is correct order of events of embryo development in dicot plants ?

(1) Zygote → proembryo → heart shape embryo →globular embryo → mature embryo
(2) Zygote → proembryo → globular embryo →heart shape embryo → mature embryo
(3) Zygote → globular embryo → heart shape embryo → proembryo → mature embryo
(4) Zygote → heart shape embryo → proembryo →globular embryo → mature embryo

45) Entry of polen tube in embryo sac occurs through:

(1) Chalaza
(2) Funiculum
(3) Integument
(4) Synergid

46) Which is a correct match for the animal and its common name :

(1) Obelia – Jelly fish

(2) Taenia – Tapeworm
(3) Neries – Earthworm
(4) Pila – Pearl oyster

47) Select the correct option :

Animal Common name

(a) Gorgonia (1) Bath sponge

(b) Ctenoplana (2) Sea fan

(c) Taenia (3) Comb jelly

(d) Euspongia (4) Tapeworm

(1) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(2) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
(3) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(4) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

48) Diploblastic and triploblastic are terms that describe

(1) The number of invaginations during embryonic development

(2) The number of heads during embryonic development
(3) The number of germinal layers during embryonic development
(4) The number of cell types during development

49) Statement - I : In open circulation blood is pumped out of heart and the cell and tissues are
directly bathed in it.
Statement - II : In close circulation blood is circulated through series of vessles of varying
diameters.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

50) Identify A, B, C in given diagram :- T.S. of Diploblastic animal

(1) A – Ectoderm, B – Mesoderm, C–Endoderm

(2) A – Ectoderm, B–Mesoglea, C–Endoderm
(3) A – Mesoderm, B–Ectoderm, C–Endoderm
(4) A – Ectoderm, B–Endoderm, C–Mesoglea

51) Which of the following is known as gregarious pest ?

(1) Limulus
(2) Locusta
(3) Anopheles
(4) Apis

52) During fertilization changes in which part of developing egg occur, which prevent polyspermy :

(1) Acrosome of sperm

(2) Corona radiata
(3) Zona pellucida
(4) Centriole of ovum

53) Which of the following chemical is responsible for concentration of testosterone inside the
seminiferous tubules ?

(1) ICSH
(2) ABP
(3) Inhibin
(4) Androgens

54) Read the following statements (A - D) ?

(A) The male germ cells undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to egg formation.
(B) FSH acts on the sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors which help in the process
of spermiogenesis.
(C) The secondary follicle soon transforms into a tertiary follicle which is characterised by a fluid
cavity called antrum.
(D) Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

55) Vas deferens is evolved from :-

(1) Caput part of epididymes

(2) Corpus part of epididymes
(3) Vasa efferentia
(4) Cauda part of epididymes

56) Which of the following is injected by the doctors to induce delivery in pregnant woman?

(1) Estrogen
(2) Cortisol
(3) Relaxin
(4) Oxytocin

57) Seminal fluid has a pH of about:

(1) 6.0
(2) 7.4
(3) 8.5
(4) 9.0

58) Corpus luteum releases

(1) Androgen
(2) Estrogen
(3) Progesterone
(4) Both (2) and (3)

59) 'Antrum' is a cavity present in :-

(1) Primary oocyte

(2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Secondary follicle
(4) Tertiary follicle

60)
How many structure in the list given below are haploid ?

Spermatid, Secondary oocyte, Primary spermatocyte, Ovum, sperm, Oogonia, Spermatogonia, Polar
body
(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

61) The _____________are the first haploid cells during the process of spermatogenesis.

(1) spermatogonia
(2) primary spermatocytes
(3) secondary spermatocytes
(4) spermatids

62) Which of the following follicular layer is fibrous layer ?

(1) Zona pellucida

(2) Theca interna
(3) Membrana granulosa
(4) Theca externa

63) Birth canal is formed by :-

(1) Cervix and uterine cavity

(2) Cervical canal and vagina
(3) Vagina only
(4) Uterine cavity, cervical canal and vagina

64) The milk synthesis in the mammary gland of a female after parturition occurs due to the action
of :-

(1) Estrogen
(2) Prolactin
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

65) Match the columns:

Column-I Column-II
A. Parturition (i) Milk production
(ii) Initial milk with antibodies,
B. Lactation
several proteins and less fats
C. Colostrum (iii) Foetus delivery
D. Oxytocin (iv) Uterine contraction
(1) A= (iv), B = (i), C= (ii), D = (iii)
(2) A = (ii), B = (iv), C= (i), D= (iii)
(3) A= (iii), B (ii), C= (iv), D = (i)
(4) A= (iii), B = (i), C= (ii), D = (iv)

66) In human foetus, the heart begins to beat at development age of :-

(1) 6th week

(2) 3rd week
(3) 4th week
(4) 8th week

67)

Hormone responsible for maintenance of uterine endometrium would be :-

(1) Progesterone
(2) Estrogen
(3) FSH
(4) LH

68) Match the column–A and B about the embryonic development of human :-

Column A Column B

Most of the major organ

i End of first month a
systems developed

Appearance of hair on
ii End of second month b
the head

iii End of third month c Heart formation

iv During fifth month d Eye-lids separated

Limbs and digits are

v End of sixth month e
formed
(1) (i) – e, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(2) (i) – e, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(3) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(4) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – a, (iv) – b, (v) – d

69) Statement - I : Oxytocin acts on myometrium (uterine muscle) and causes strong ovarian
contractions.
Statement - II : Soon before the delivery of infant, the placenta is expelled out of uterus.

(1) Both statement - I and statement - II are correct.

(2) Statement - I is correct but statement II is not correct.
(3) Both statement - I and statement - II are not correct.
(4) Statement - I is not correct but statement - II is correct.

70) Assertion : In human, placenta also act as an endocrine tissue.

Reason : Placenta produces several hormone like hCG, hPL etc.
Find out the correct option from the option given below :-

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

71) Which of the following hormones are produced in women only during pregnancy ?
(a) hPL
(b) Relaxin
(c) Androgen
(d) FSH
(e) hCG
(f) LH

(1) a,b,e
(2) b & e
(3) c,d,e,f
(4) a,b,c,d,e,f

72) Following diagram Shows human foetus within the uterus with certain labelled parts A, B, C, D.

Find out the correct labelling.

(1) A - Yolk sac, B - Umbilical sac, C - Placental villi, D - Plug of mucus in cervix
(2) A - Umbilical cord, B - Yolk sac, C - Placental villi, D - Plug of mucus in cervix
(3) A - Embryo, B - Yolk sac, C - Placental villi, D - Plug of mucus in cercix
(4) A - Umbilical cord, B - Embryo, C - Placental villi, D - Plug of mucus in cervix

73) Amnion is formed of ?

(1) Mesoderm , Endoderm and ectoderm

(2) Mesoderm and endoderm.
(3) Ectoderm and mesoderm
(4) Ectoderm and endoderm.
74) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which include all the correct
ones only
(a) The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a blastula.
(b) Cleavage has mitotic divisions.
(c) Second polar body is formed by second meiotic divisions.
(d) First polar body has haploid chromosome.

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, c, d

75) The layer which attaches with endometrium of uterus during the process of implantation is :

(1) Trophoblast
(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Inner cell mass
(4) Corona radiata

76) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : During pregnancy the level of thyroxine is increased in the maternal blood.
Reason (R) : Pregnancy is characterised by metabolic changes in the mother.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

77) In following structure, identify A & B and their respective functions.

Function of
A B
A B

Inner cell Attachment with Differentiation

(1) Trophoblast
mass endometrium as embryo

Inner cell Differentiation Attachment with

(2) Trophoblast
mass as embryo endometrium

Inner cell Differentiation Attachment with

(3) Mesoderm
mass as embryo endometrium
 Attachment with Differentiation
(4) Ectoderm Mesoderm
endometrium as embryo
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) In human, egg is fertilised in :-

(1) ovary
(2) fallopian tube
(3) uterus
(4) vagina

79) Capacitation of sperm occurs in :-

(1) urethra
(2) vas deferens
(3) vagina
(4) seminal vesicle

80) Fertilisation has following processes :-

(a) Plasmogamy
(b) Karyogamy
(c) Syngamy
(d) Amphimixis
Arrange these in correct sequence :

(1) a → b → c → d
(2) b → a → d → c
(3) c → a → b → d
(4) c → a → d → b

81) The correct chronological order of the following events is :

(1) Gametogenesis → Fertilization → Insemination → Gestation Implantation → Parturition

(2) Gametogenesis → Insemination → Fertilization → Implantation → Parturition → Gestation
(3) Gametogenesis → Insemination → Fertilization → Implantation → Gestation → Parturition
(4) None of these

82) In human beings menstrual cycles ceases around 50 years of age. That is termed as–

(1) Menopause
(2) Menarche
(3) Ovulation
(4) Implantation
83) Menstrual cycle occurs in

(1) Canis
(2) Monkeys
(3) Felis
(4) Rana tigrina

84)

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): Endometrium is necessary for implantation of the fertilised ovum and other events of
pregnancy.
Reason (R): After ovulation, The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is
essential for maintenance of the endometrium

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

85) If duration of menstrual cycle is 33 days, then calculate the duration of follicular phase and day
of ovulation?

(1) Follicular phase – 8 days, Day of ovulation – 14th

(2) Follicular phase – 13 days, Day of ovulation – 14th
(3) Follicular phase – 8 days, Day of ovulation – 15th
(4) Follicular phase – 13 days, Day of ovulation – 19th

86) Find out correct sequence of menstrual cycle phase:-

(1) Ovulation → Bleeding phase → Luteal phase

(2) Bleeding phase → Oestrogenic phase → Ovulation → Secretory phase
(3) Menstrual phase → Oestrogenic phase → Secretory phase → Ovulation
(4) Bleeding phase → Ovulation → Oestrogenic phase

87) 8-16 cell stage of embryo is called

(1) Blastocyst
(2) Morula
(3) Trophoblast
(4) none of these

88)

The following graph of relative concentrations of the four hormones present in the blood plasma of a
woman during her menstrual cycle. Identify the hormones.
 A B C D

(1) FSH Progesterone LH Oestrogen

(2) LH Progesterone FSH Oestrogen

(3) FSH Oestrogen LH Progesterone

(4) LH Oestrogen FSH Progesterone

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

89) It is a digramatic presenation of ovum which surrounded by few sperms, choose the correct

option about A, B, and C :-

A B C

Cells of the
Vitelline Zona
(1) corona
membrane Pellucida
radiata

Cells of the
Zona Vitelline
(2) corona
Pellucida membrane
radiata
 Plasma Vitelline Perivitelline
(3)
membrane membrane space

Cells of
Zona Perivitelline
(4) the corona
Pellucida space
radiata
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) At puberty how many primary follicles are left in each ovary ?

(1) 1,20,000 - 1,60,000

(2) 10,000 - 20,000
(3) 60,000 - 80,000
(4) 50,000 - 1,00,000
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 1 2 2 2 3 2 1 4 4 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 3 3 1 4 4 2 1 3 3 1 2 4 3 2 2 2 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 2 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 4 2 3 1 1 2 1 2 2 4 4 3 4 2 2 2 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 1 4 1 1 4 1 4 1 3 1 3 4 3 1 4 2 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 1 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 4 3 3 3 1 4 4 2 1 4 3 1 2 1 2 3 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 4 4 4 1 2 2 1 3 4 2 2 4 1 4 4 1 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 3 2 4 2 4 3 1 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 2 4 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 2 2 4 3 1 4 3 1 1 2 3 4 1 1 1 2 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 2 1 4 2 2 (3) 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)

3)

there will be no electric field in metal plates

so, d become
this in turn increases the capacitance to double its value.

6) (A) Question Explanation : The problem asks which factor does not affect the capacitance
of a parallel plate capacitor.
(B) Concept : Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor

(C) Formula :
where:
C is capacitance
ε is permittivity of the medium,
A is plate area,
d is plate separation.
(D) Calculation :
Capacitance depends on plate area A, separation d, and medium permittivity ε.
However, it does mot depend on the charge stored on the plates.
(E) Final Answer : (3)

7)

Now,
8)

9)
(one capacitor gets shorted)
Ceq = C1 + C2
= C + 3C
= 4C

10)

12) Capacitance of capacitor with air between plate,

All capacitor are in parallel combination.
∴ Ceq = C1 + C2

14)
Capacitance depends only on
(1) Shape
(2) Size
(3) Medium

15) Balanced wheat stone bridge

Ceq = 2μF

23) The two capacitors are in series combination, the equivalent capacitance is given by

....(i)
But the equivalent capacitance is given by

.....(2)
On comparing Eq. (i) and (ii)

we get,

24)

⇒F∝

25)
E = 0 for r < a
E = 0 for r > b
potential of outer
sphere = 0
potential of inner sphere is V1

V = V1 – V2 = V1 – 0

26) .
Ceq = 5 + 15 = 20µF

27)

28)

Cparallel = C1 + C2 + C3 and

29)

Changes on outer faces =

 30)

Q remains same.

U=
∴ C' = KC = 6C

& U' =

31)

Here,

32) Balanced WSB, hence Ceq = C =

35) Refer to theory notes

36)

C' =

C' = C

41)

Angular momentum
L = Iω ......(i)
Kinetic energy

K = Iω2 = Lω[from equation (i)]

∴ L=

Now, L′ = ∴ L′ =
 42)
I = I1 + I2 + I3

I1 = I2 =

I3 =

∴ I = I1 + I2 + I3 =

Moment of inertia = 3mk2 where k is radius of gyration. 3mk2 = mr2 ⇒

44) Explanation:- COM of four particle system placed at corners of square is asked. visual
aid

Concept:- Com of discrete system

formula:-

calculation:-

so

CHEMISTRY
46) Corey House reaction.

48) Wurtz reaction

49)

53)

55) Asking about : Product of reaction of propyl benzene with bromine in presence of heat or
light

Concept : It is an example of Allylic or Benzylic substitution (FRSR)

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

56)

Boiling point α (I) molecular mass (II) surface area (in case of isomerism)

58) Alkanes are soluble in organic, non-polar solvents

59)

60) Chain Propagation steps in free radical chlorination of methane are :

63)

Major product ∝ stability of R⊖

64)

65)

68) Red P + HI used for reduction.

69)

71) Match the Reaction with name reaction.

74)

A is
 Cis product

75)

A-b, B-a, C-d, D-c

81) Product in d → ; in e →

82)
ϴ
Carbonyl group can be reduce to alkane by HI/P, Zn–Hg|HCl or NH2–NH2|OH |ethylene glycol.

84) Reactivity decreases down the group.

87)

89) Rate to dehydrogenation with alc. KOH ∝ most stable carbocation.

BIOLOGY

97)

NCERT Page no. 14

98)

Ncert Pg No: 31, 2021-22

101) NCERT XII Pg # 38

104)

NCERT XII, Pg # 34,35

105) NCERT XIIth Pg. # 29

107) NCERT Pg. 28, 29, 36, 39

109) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 12

110)

NCERT PG.NO. 14, 15

116) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 38

117) NCERT-XII Pg # 29

118) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 29

119)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 31 (E), 33 (H)

120)

NCERT XII Page # 28

121)

NCERT XII Page # 31

122) NCERT XII, Pg. # 29, 30

123) NCERT-XII Page # 33

125)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 11 (III para)

127) NCERT Pg. 22, 23

128) NCERT Pg 23

130) NCERT Pg 18,19

131) NCERT Pg 19

132) NCERT Pg 16

136) Pg. No. 51 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

137) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50, 51

138)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 50

139)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 38, 40

140)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 47

141)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 53

142)

When sperm comes in contact with Zona pellucida , it initiate changes in it

157)

Progesterone prevents contraction in Myometrium

158) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 36

159) NCERT Pg. # 38

→ Oxytocin acts on myometrium and causes strong uterine contractions.
→ Soon after delivery of infant, the placenta is expelled out of uterus.

160)

NCERT Pg. # 52-53

161)
 Solution/Explanation:
The hormones produced in women only during pregnancy are:
• hPL (Human Placental Lactogen): Produced by the placenta during pregnancy. It helps
regulate maternal metabolism and supports the growth and development of the fetus.
• Relaxin: Produced by the placenta and ovaries during pregnancy. It helps relax the
uterine muscles and the pelvic ligaments in preparation for childbirth.
hCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin): Produced by the placenta during pregnancy. It
helps maintain the corpus luteum, which produces progesterone to support the pregnancy.
The hormones that are not exclusively produced during pregnancy are:
• Androgen (Option c): Androgens are produced in both males and females, though at
different levels. In women, androgens are produced in the ovaries and adrenal glands. but not
specifically during pregnancy.
• FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) (Option d): FSH is produced by the pituitary gland
and regulates the menstrual cycle and reproductive function, but it is not specific to
pregnancy.
• LH (Luteinizing Hormone) (Option f): LH is also produced by the pituitary gland and is
involved in ovulation and the regulation of the menstrual cycle. It is not specific to
pregnancy.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Option 1: a, b, e.
Hence, option (1) is correct.

162)

Diagram showing the Human foetus within Uterus.

163)

Ectoderm and mesoderm

164) NCERT Pg. # 52

165) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 53

166)

NCERT XII Page # 37

167) The correct answer is 1. Trophoblast, Inner cell mass, Attachment with
endometrium, Differentiation as embryo.
A: Trophoblast

A. Function: The trophoblast is the outer layer of cells in the blastocyst. It plays a crucial role in
implantation by attaching to the uterine wall. It also secretes enzymes that help in the
implantation process.

B: Inner cell mass

A. Function: The inner cell mass is a cluster of cells located inside the trophoblast. It is
responsible for the development of the embryo itself. The cells of the inner cell mass
differentiate into various tissues and organs of the developing embryo.

168)

Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to the
ampullary region in fallopian tube.

169) Solution/Explanation/Calculation: Capacitation is the process that sperm undergo to

gain the ability to fertilize an egg. It Occurs in the vagina after Ejaculation during interconrse.
Hence, option (3) is correct.

170)

173) NCERT Pg. # 33

174) NCERT, Pg. # 35

175) NCERT, Pg. # 35

177) Parasympathetic neural signal decrease the rate of heart beat speed of conduction of
action potential and thereby the cardiac output.

180) NCERT Pg.# 48