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DPP - Daily Practice Problems

Chapter-wise Sheets
Date : Start Time : End Time :

PHYSICS CP27
SYLLABUS : Nuclei

Max. Marks : 180 Marking Scheme : (+4) for correct & (–1) for incorrect answer Time : 60 min.

INSTRUCTIONS : This Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 45 MCQs. For each question only one option is correct.
Darken the correct circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

1. The mass of a 37 Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of 6. The radioactivity of a sample is R1 at a time T1 and R2 at a
the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy per time T2. If the half-life of the specimen is T, the number of
atoms that have disintegrated in the time (T1 – T2 ) is
nucleon of 37 Li nucleus is nearly proportional to
(a) 46 MeV (b) 5.6 MeV
(c) 3.9 MeV (d) 23 MeV (a) (R1T1 – R2T2) (b) (R1 – R2)
2. In the nuclear decay given below: (c) (R1 – R2)/T (d) (R1 – R2) T
A 4
In the reaction, 12 H  13 H 2 He  0 n
Z X 
o Z  1Y 
o Z1 B  o Z 1B,
A A A– 4 4 1
7. , if the binding

(a) JED (b) EJD

the particles emitted in the sequence are
energies of 12 H , 13 H and 42 He are respectively, a, b and c
(c) DEJ (d) EDJ
(in MeV), then the energy (in MeV) released in this reaction
3. If the nuclear radius of 27Al is 3.6 Fermi, the approximate
nuclear radius of 64Cu in Fermi is : is
(a) 2.4 (b) 1.2 (c) 4.8 (d) 3.6 (a) a + b + c (b) a + b – c
4. Which of the following statements is true for nuclear forces? (c) c – a – b (d) c + a – b
(a) they obey the inverse square law of distance 8. If M (A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus
(b) they obey the inverse third power law of distance A
Z X, proton and neutron respectively in units of u ( 1u =
(c) they are short range forces 931.5 MeV/c2) and BE represents its bonding energy in
(d) they are equal in strength to electromagnetic forces. MeV, then
5. A radioactive sample at any instant has its disintegration (a) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn –BE/c2
rate 5000 disintegrations per minute. After 5 minutes, the (b) M (A, Z) = ZMp+ ( A–Z) Mn + BE
rate is 1250 disintegrations per minute. Then, the decay
constant (per minute) is (c) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn – BE
(a) 0.4 ln 2 (b) 0.2 ln 2 (c) 0.1 ln 2(d) 0.8 ln 2 (d) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z)Mn + BE/c2

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
RESPONSE GRID 6. 7. 8.
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EBD_7156
P-106 DPP/ CP27
9. How does the binding energy per nucleon vary with the 16. Which of the following nuclear reactions is not possible?

6C 6 C 
o 10 Ne  42 He
increase in the number of nucleons? 12 12 20
(a) Increases continuously with mass number (a)

4 Be  1H 
o 63 Li  42 He
(b) Decreases continuously with mass number
(b) 9 1
(c) First decreases and then increases with increase in mass

5 Be  1H 
o 94 Be  42 He
number 11 1
(d) First increases and then decreases with increase in mass (c)

The energy spectrum of E-particles [Number N(E) as a 3 Li  2 He 

o 11H  104 B
number
7 4

function of E-energy E] emitted from a radioactive source is

10. (d)

TA
(a) (b) 17. The ratio of half-life times of two elements A and B is .
TB
OA
N(E) N(E)

OB
E
E The ratio of respective decay constant , is
E0
E0
(a) TB / TA (b) TA / TB
TA  TB TA  TB
(c) (d)
N(E) N(E)
(c) (d)
TA TA
E E

10O and O respectively. If initially they have the same number

E0 E0 18. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants
11. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decay according
to the scheme of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that
E D J
A  o A1  o A 2  o A 3  o A4
a of X2 will be 1/e after a time
(a) 1/10O (b) 1/11O
If the mass number and atomic number of ‘A’ are 180 and 72 (c) 11/10O (d) 1/9O
respectively, then what are these numbers for A4 19. In a radioactive material the activity at time t1 is R1 and at a
(a) 172 and 69 (b) 174 and 70
O, then
later time t2, it is R2. If the decay constant of the material is
(c) 176 and 69 (d) 176 and 70

R2 e O (t1 t2 )
12. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as 9750
counts per minute at t = 0 and as 975 counts per minute at (a) R1 (b) R1 R2 e(t2 / t1 )

R2 e O (t1 t2 )
t = 5 minutes. The decay constant is approximately
(a) 0.922 per minute (b) 0.691 per minute (c) R1 = R2 (d) R1

Actinium 231, 231 AC89, emit in succession two E particles,

(c) 0.461 per minute (d) 0.230 per minute 20. The correct relation between t av = average life and

four D-particles, one Eand one D plus several Jrays. What

13. t 1/2 = half life for a radioactive nuclei.
1
is the resultant isotope? (a) t av = t 1/2 (b) t av = t
2 1/2
(a) 221 Au 79 (b) 211 Au 79 (c) 0.693 t av = t 1/2 (d) t av = 0.693 t 1/2
(c) 221 Pb 82 (d) 211 Pb82 21. If the nuclear force between two protons, two neutrons and
14. Fusion reactions take place at high temperature because between proton and neutron is denoted by Fpp, Fnn and Fpn
(a) atoms are ionised at high temperature respectively, then
(b) molecules break up at high temperature (a) Fpp | Fnn | Fpn (b) Fpp z Fnn and Fpp Fnn
(d) Fpp z Fnn z Fpn
(c) nuclei break up at high temperature
(d) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion (c) Fpp Fnn Fpn
between nuclei 22. Which one is correct about fission?
15. If MO is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8 O17 ,MP and MN (a) Approx. 0.1% mass converts into energy
(b) Most of energy of fission is in the form of heat
are the masses of a proton and a neutron respectively, the (c) In a fission of U 23 5 about 200 eV energy is
nuclear binding energy of the isotope is released
(a) (MO –17MN)c2 (b) (MO – 8MP)c2
(d) On an average, one neutron is released per
(c) (MO– 8MP –9MN)c2 (d) MOc 2
fission of U235

9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

RESPONSE
14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
GRID
19. 20. 21. 22.
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DPP/ CP27 P-107

the fission of a single U235 If the end A of a wire is irradiated with D-rays and the other
end B is irradiated with E-rays. Then
23. If 200 MeV energy is released in 30.
nucleus, the number of fissions required per second to
produce 1 kilowatt power shall be (Given 1eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J) (a) a current will flow from A to B
(a) 3.125 × 1013 (b) 3.125 × 1014 (b) a current will flow from B to A
(c) 3.125 × 10 15 (d) 3.125 × 1016 (c) there will be no current in the wire
24. In any fission process, the ratio of (d) a current will flow from each end to the mid-point of
mass of fission products the wire
is
Q and the nucleus recoils. The recoil energy will be
mass of parent nucleus 31. A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of frequency

(b) h2Q2 / 2Mc2

(a) equal to 1
(b) greater than 1 (a) Mc2 – hQ
(c) less than 1 (c) zero (d) hQ
32. Radioactive element decays to form a stable nuclide. The
In an D-decay the kinetic energy of D-particle is 48 MeV and
(d) depends on the mass of the parent nucleus
25. rate of decay of reactant is correctly depicted by
Q-value of the reaction is 50 MeV. The mass number of the N N N N
mother nucleus is X. Find value of X/25.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(Assume that daughter nucleus is in ground state)
A nucleus of mass M + 'm is at rest and decays into two
t t t t
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
33.
26. A sample of radioactive element has a mass of 10gm at an
instant t=0. The approximate mass of this element in the M
daughter nuclei of equal mass each. Speed of light is c.
sample after two mean lives is 2
(a) 6.30 gm (b) 1.35 gm The speed of daughter nuclei is

'm 'm 'm

(c) 2.50 gm (d) 3.70 gm
2 'm
M  'm M  'm
27. Consider a radioactive material of half-life 1.0 minute. If one (a) c (b) c (c) c (d) c
of the nuclei decays now, the next one will decay M M
(a) after 1 minute 34. Atomic weight of Boron is 10.81 and it has two isotopes
1
(b) after log 2 minute 5B
10 and
5B
11 .Then the ratio 5 B10 :5 B11 in nature would
e
be
1 (a) 19 : 81 (b) 10 : 11 (c) 15 : 16 (d) 81 : 19
(c) after minute, where N is the number of nuclei present
N 35. A nucleus ruptures into two nuclear parts, which have their
at that moment
velocity ratio equal to 2:1. What will be the ratio of their
28. The mass of D-particle is
(d) after any time
nuclear size (nuclear radius)?
(a) less than the sum of masses of two protons and two (a) 21/3 : 1 (b) 1 : 21/3 (c) 31/2 : 1 (d) 1 : 31/2
neutrons 36. A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium
and helium. Then :
(b) equal to mass of four protons (a) the helium nucleus has less momentum than the thorium
(c) equal to mass of four neutrons nucleus.

29. The decay constants of a radioactive substance for D and E

(d) equal to sum of masses of two protons and two neutron (b) the helium nucleus has more momentum than the

emission are OD and OE respectively. If the substance emits

thorium nucleus.

D and E simultaneously, then the average half life of the

(c) the helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the
thorium nucleus.
material will be (d) the helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the
2TD TE
thorium nucleus.

TD  TE (b) TD  TE
27
37. If radius of the 12 Al nucleus is taken to be RAl, then the
(a)
125
radius of 53 Te nucleus is nearly:
TD TE
TD  TE
TD  TE R Al (c) §¨ ·¸ R Al (d) §¨ ·¸ R Al
1 5 3 13
1/3
53
1/3

© 53 ¹ © 13 ¹
(c) (d) (a) R Al (b)
2 3 5

23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

RESPONSE 28. 28. 29. 30. 31.
GRID 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.
37.
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EBD_7156
P-108 DPP/ CP27
38. M n an d M p represent mass of neutron and proton 2 4 56 235
42. If the total binding energies of 1 H, 2 He, 26 Fe & 92 U
respectively. If an element having atomic mass M has N-
neutron and Z-proton, then the correct relation will be nuclei are 2.22, 28.3, 492 and 1786 MeV respectively, identify
(a) M < [NMn + ZMp] (b) M > [NMn + ZMp] the most stable nucleus of the following.
(c) M = [NMn + ZMp] (d) M = N[Mn + Mp] (a) 56 (b) 2
26 Fe 1H
39. After 300 days, the activity of a radioactive sample is 5000
(c) 235 (d) 4
dps (disintegrations per sec). The activity becomes 2500 92 U 2 He
dps after another 150 days. The initial activity of the sample 43. At a specific instant emission of radioactive compound is
in dps is deflected in a magnetic field. The compound cannot emit
(a) 20,000 (b) 10,000 (a) electrons (b) protons
(c) 7,000 (d) 25,000 (c) He2+ (d) neutrons
40. Order of magnitude of density of uranium nucleus is 44. A nuclear reaction is given by

o Z1Y A  1 e 0  Q , represents
(mp = 1.67 × 10–27 kg)
A
(a) 1020 kg / m3 (b) 1017 kg / m3 ZX
(c) 1014 kg / m3 (d) 1011 kg / m3 (b) E-decay
(c) v-decay
(a) fission

45. Radioactive material 'A' has decay constant '8 O' and material
(d) fusion
(a) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in E-
41. The electrons cannot exist inside the nucleus because

'B' has decay constant 'O'. Initially they have same number
(b) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in E-
decay is much less than the size of nucleus
of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of
1
(c) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in E-
decay is much greater than the size of nucleus
material 'B' to that 'A' will be ?
e
decay is equal to the size of nucleus 1 1 1 1
O
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) negative charge cannot exist in the nucleus 7O 8O 9O

RESPONSE 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.

GRID 43. 44. 45.

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM DPP CHAPTERWISE CP27 - PHYSICS

Total Questions 45
Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score
Cut-off Score 50 Qualifying Score 70
Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score
Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)
Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

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DPP - Daily Practice Problems

Chapter-wise Sheets
Date : Start Time : End Time :

PHYSICS CP28
SYLLABUS : Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits

Max. Marks : 180 Marking Scheme : (+4) for correct & (–1) for incorrect answer Time : 60 min.

INSTRUCTIONS : This Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 45 MCQs. For each question only one option is correct.
Darken the correct circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

7.9 mA in the collector current. The values of parameters D

1. A change of 8.0 mA in the emitter current bring a change of A

and E are respectively

B
(a) 0.99, 90 (b) 0.96,79 (c) 0.97,99 (d) 0.99,79
2. A pure semiconductor has equal electron and hole V
concentration of 1016 m–3. Doping by indium increases Lamp
number of hole concentration n h to 5 × 1022 m–3. Then, the
value of number of electron concentration n e in the doped (a) NAND gate (b) OR gate
semiconductor is (c) NOR gate (d) AND gate
(a) 106/m3 (b) 1022/m3 6. In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p-region
(c) 2 × 10 /m6 3 (d) 2 × 109/m3 to n-region because of
3. For LED’s to emit light in visible region of electromagnetic (a) the potential difference across the p-n junction
light, it should have energy band gap in the range of: (b) the attraction of free electrons of n-region
(a) 0.1 eV to 0.4 eV (b) 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV (c) the higher hole concentration in p-region than that in
(c) 0.9 eV to 1.6 eV (d) 1.7 eV to 3.0 eV n-region
(d) the higher concentration of electrons in the n-region
4. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input
than that in the p-region
impedance of 100: and an output impedance of 200:. The 7. A silicon diode has a threshold voltage of 0.7 V. If an input
power gain of the amplifier is voltage given by 2 sin(St) is supplied to a half wave rectifier
(a) 1000 (b) 1250 (c) 100 (d) 500 circuit using this diode, the rectified output has a peak
5. Which logic gate with inputs A and B performs the same value of
operation as that performed by the following circuit? (a) 2 V (b) 1.4 V (c) 1.3 V (d) 0.7 V

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7.
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EBD_7156
P-110 DPP/ CP28
8. The current gain for a transistor working as common-base (a) A B Y (b) A B Y
amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter current is 7.2 mA, then the 0 0 1 0 0 0
base current is 0 1 0 0 1 0
(a) 0.29 mA (b) 0.35 mA (c) 0.39 mA (d) 0.43 mA 1 0 0 1 0 1
9. In a npn transistor 1010 electrons enter the emitter in 1 1 1 1 1 0
10–6 s. 4% of the electrons are lost in the base. The current (c) (d) A B Y
A B Y
transfer ratio will be 0 0 1 0 0 1
(a) 0.98 (b) 0.97 (c) 0.96 (d) 0.94 0 1 0 0 1 1
20 :, the current through the diode is (knee voltage 0.7 V)
10. Assuming that the silicon diode having resistance of 1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 0
R 180: 18. The intrinsic conductivity of germanium at 27° is 2.13 mho
m–1 and mobilities of electrons and holes are 0.38 and 0.18
2V 0V m2V–1s–1 respectively. The density of charge carriers is
(a) 0 mA (b) 10 mA (c) 6.5 mA (d) 13.5 mA (a) 2.37 × 1019 m–3 (b) 3.28 × 1019 m–3
11. Transfer characteristics [output 19
(c) 7.83 × 10 m –3 (d) 8.47 × 1019 m–3
V I II
voltage (V0) vs input voltage (Vi)] 0 III 19. The logic circuit shown below has the input waveforms
for a base biased transistor in CE ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown. Pick out the correct output
configuration is as shown in the waveform
figure. For using transistor as a
A
switch, it is used Vi Y
(a) in region III
(b) both in region (I) and (III) B
(c) in region II Input A
(d) in region (I)
12. A half-wave rectifier is being used to rectify an alternating
voltage of frequency 50 Hz. The number of pulses of rectified Input B
current obtained in one second is
(a) 50 (b) 25 (c) 100 (d) 2000
13. A diode having potential difference 0.5 V across its junction Output is
which does not depend on current, is connected in series
with resistance of 20: across source. If 0.1 A current passes (a)
through resistance then what is the voltage of the source?
(a) 1.5 V (b) 2.0 V (c) 2.5 V (d) 5 V (b)
14. In common emitter amplifier, the current gain is 62. The collector
resistance and input resistance are 5 k: an 500: respectively.
If the input voltage is 0.01V, the output voltage is (c)
(a) 0.62 V (b) 6.2 V (c) 62 V (d) 620 V
15. On doping germanium with donor atoms of density
(d)
[Given Pe = 3800 cm2/V–s and ni = 2.5 × 1013 cm–13]
1017 cm–3 its conductivity in mho/cm will be
20. Pure Si at 500K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (nh)
(a) 30.4 (b) 60.8 (c) 91.2 (d) 121.6 concentrations of 1.5 × 1016 m–3. Doping by indium increases
16. The voltage gain of an amplifier with 9% negative feedback nh to 4.5 × 1022 m–3. The doped semiconductor is of
is 10. The voltage gain without feedback will be (a) n–type with electron concentration n e = 5 × 1022 m–3
(a) 90 (b) 10 (c) 1.25 (d) 100 (b) p–type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 ×1010 m–3
17. A system of four gates is set up as shown. The ‘truth table’ (c) n–type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 × 1023 m–3
corresponding to this system is : (d) p–type having electron concentration n e = 5 × 109 m–3
A
21. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductors decrease
with increase of temperature
Y (b) Doping pure Si with trivalent impurities give p-type
semiconductors
(c) The majority carriers in n-type semiconductors are holes
B (d) A p-n junction can act as a semiconductor diode

8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

RESPONSE 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
GRID 18. 19. 20. 21.
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DPP/ CP28 P-111

22. The relation between number of free electrons (n) in a (c) number of electrons and holes remain same
semiconductor and temperature (T) is given by (d) number of electrons and holes increases equally.
(a) n vT (b) n vT2 (c) n v T (d) n vT3/2 30. The ratio of electron and hole currents in a semiconductor
23. If a PN junction diode of depletion layer width W and barrier is 7/4 and the ratio of drift velocities of electrons and holes
height V0 is forward biased, then is 5/4, then the ratio of concentrations of electrons and holes
(a) W increases, V0 decreases will be
(b) W decreases, V0 increases (a) 5/7 (b) 7/5 (c) 25/49 (d) 49/25
(c) both W and V0 increase 31. C and Si both have same lattice structure, having 4 bonding
(d) both W and V0 decrease electrons in each. However, C is insulator whereas Si is
24. The circuit has two oppositively connected ideal diodes in intrinsic semiconductor. This is because :
parallel. The current flowing in the circuit is (a) In case of C the valence band is not completely filled at
4: absolute zero temperature.
(b) In case of C the conduction band is partly filled even at
D1 D2 absolute zero temperature.
12V
(c) The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the
3: 2: second orbit, whereas in the case of Si they lie in the
third.
(a) 1.71 A (b) 2.00 A (c) 2.31 A (d) 1.33 A (d) The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the
third orbit, whereas for Si they lie in the fourth orbit.
for load impedanceof 1k:(hfe = 50 and h0e = 25) the current
25. For a transistor amplifier in common emitter configuration
32. Which one of the following represents forward bias diode ?
gain is R
(a) –4V –3V
(a) – 24.8 (b) – 15.7 (c) – 5.2 (d) – 48.78
26. A PN-junction has a thickness of the order of –2V R
(b) +2V
(a) 1 cm (b) 1mm (c) 10–6 m (d) 10–12 cm
27. A working transistor with its three legs marked P, Q and R is
3V R 5V
tested using a multimeter. No conduction is found between (c)
P and Q. By connecting the common (negative) terminal of
the multimeter to R and the other (positive) terminal to P or 0V R –2V
(d)
Q, some resistance is seen on the multimeter. Which of the
following is true for the transistor? 33. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifer with
(a) It is an npn transistor with R as base (a) positive feedback (b) negative feedback
(b) It is a pnp transistor with R as base (c) large gain (d) no feedback
(c) It is a pnp transistor with R as emitter 34. The current gain in the common emitter mode of a transistor
(d) It is an npn transistor with R as collector is 10. The input impedance is 20k: and load of resistance is
28. If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10 V is applied 100k:. The power gain is
as shown, then the output across RL will be
(a) 300 (b) 500 (c) 200 (d) 100
+5V 35. The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a voltage
§ S·
gain of 150 is Vi = 2 cos ¨©15t  ¸¹ . The corresponding
RL
3
–5V output signal will be :
2S § 5S ·
(a) 75cos §¨15t  ·¸
10V
(b) 2cos ¨15t  ¸
© ¹ © 6¹
(a) (b)
3
§ 4S · S
(d) 300cos §¨15t  ·¸
–5V

(c) 300cos ¨15t  ¸

© 3¹ © 3¹
5V
(c) (d)
–10V 36. To use a transistor as an amplifier
29. When n-type semiconductor is heated (a) the emitter base junction is forward biased and the
(a) number of electrons increases while that of holes base collector junction is reverse biased
decreases (b) no bias voltage is required
(b) number of holes increases while that of electrons (c) both junctions are forward biased
decreases (d) both junctions are reverse biased.

22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

RESPONSE 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.
GRID 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.
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EBD_7156
P-112 DPP/ CP28
37. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled I (mA)
from room temperature to 77K. The resistance of
(a) copper increases and germanium decreases 800
(b) each of them decreases
(c) each of them increases
(d) copper decreases and germanium increases 400
38. A d.c. battery of V volt is connected to a series combination
of a resistor R and an ideal diode D as shown in the figure 2 2.1 V (volt)
(a) 1 : (b) 0.25 : (c) 0.5 : d) 5 :
below. The potential difference across R will be
R D 42. The circuit diagram shows a logic combination with the
states of outputs X, Y and Z given for inputs P, Q, R and S
all at state 1. When inputs P and R change to state 0 with
inputs Q and S still at 1, the states of outputs X, Y and Z
change to
V P(1)
X(1)
Q(1)
(a) 2V when diode is forward biased
(b) Zero when diode is forward biased Z(0)
(c) 5V when diode is reverse biased R(1)
Y(1)
(d) 6V when diode is forward biased S(1)
39. The current gain for a transistor working as common-base
amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter current is 7.2 mA, then the (a) 1, 0, 0 (b) 1, 1, 1 (c) 0, 1, 0 (d) 0, 0, 1
base current is 43. The following configuration of gate is equivalent to
(a) 0.29 mA (b) 0.35 mA (c) 0.39 mA (d) 0.43 mA A OR
40. In the circuit given below, A and B represent two inputs and B
C represents the output. Y
A AND
NAND
C (a) NAND gate (b) XOR gate
(c) OR gate (d) NOR gate
B 44. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of
2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of the radiation that can be
The circuit represents absorbed by the material is nearly
(a) NOR gate (b) AND gate (a) 10 × 1014 Hz (b) 5 ×1014 Hz
(c) NAND gate (d) OR gate (c) 1 × 1014 Hz (d) 20 × 1014 Hz
41. The I-V characteristic of a P-N junction diode is shown 45. The average value of output direct current in a full wave

(c) S I0/2 (d) 2 I0/S

below. The approximate dynamic resistance of the p-n rectifier is
junction when a forward bias voltage of 2 volt is applied is (a) I0/S (b) I0/2

RESPONSE 37. 38. 39. 40. 41.

GRID 42. 43. 44. 45.

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM DPP CHAPTERWISE CP28 - PHYSICS

Total Questions 45Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score
Cut-off Score 50 Qualifying Score 70
Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score
Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)
Space for Rough Work
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EBD_7156
S-110 DPP/ CP27
DAILY PRACTICE PHYSICS
PROBLEMS SOLUTIONS DPP/CP27
1. (b) B.E. = 0.042 × 931  42 MeV 8. (a) Mass defect = ZMp + (A –Z)Mn–M(A,Z)
Number of nucleons in 37 Li is 7. B.E.
or, = ZMp + (A–Z) Mn–M(A,Z)
c2
?
42
? M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A–Z)Mn–
B.E./ nucleon = = 6 MeV  5.6 MeV B.E.
7
c2
Z X 
o Z+1Y : E, Z  1Y 
o Z 1B :D
A A A A–4
2. (d) 9. (d) BE/A
4
Z 1 B
A–4

oAZ 1 B : J

(E D J) ( ' E = 01 e, D 42 He, mass number and

J decay)
charge number of a nucleus remains unchanged during

cube root of atomic number i.e. R v A1/3

3. (c) The radius of the nuclears is directly proportional to A

Ÿ R = R 0 A 1/3 , where R 0 is a constant of From the graph of BE/A versus mass number A it is
proportionality clear that, BE/A first increases and then decreases with

§ A2 · § 64 · (c) The range of energy of E-particles is from zero to some

increase in mass number.
1/ 3
¨© ¸¹
1/ 3
¨© A ¸¹
R2 4 10.
R1 27 3 maximum value.
D E

o 70 A1176 
o 71 A 2176
1
180
where R 1 = the radius of 27 Al, and 11. (a) 72 A

D J
A1 = Atomic mass number of Al
R2 = the radius of 64Cu and A2 = Atomic mass number 
o69 A3172 o69 A 4172
of C4

3.6 u
dN
4 12. (c) KN
R2 4.8m dt
3
9750 = KN0 .... (1)
4. (c) Nuclear forces are short range attractive forces which
975 = KN ..... (2)
balance the repulsive forces between the protons inside
the nucleus. Dividing (1) by (2)
N 1
O
1 A 1 5000 N0 10
5. (a) log e o log e
t A 5 1250 2.303 N 2.303
K= log 0 log10
2 t N 5
log e 2 0.4 log e 2 = 0.4606 = 0.461 per minute
5
(d) Radioactivity at T1 , R1 = O N1
13. (d)
6.
Radioactivity at T2, R2 = O N2
14. (d) Extremely high temps needed for fusion make K.E. large

? Number of atoms decayed in time

enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei.
15. (c) Binding energy
(T1 – T2) = (N1 –N2) = [ZMP + (A – Z)MN – M]c2

(R 1  R 2 ) (R1  R 2 ) T
= [8MP + (17 – 8)MN – M]c2
v (R1  R 2 ) T
O
= = [8MP + 9MN – M]c2
0.693 = [8MP + 9MN – Mo]c2
7. (c) 2
and 13 H requires a and b amount of energies for
16. (c) In this reaction mass is not conserved.
1H
?O
ln 2 ln 2
O
their nucleons to be separated. 17. (a) T1/ 2
T1/ 2
O
4
Ÿ OA ,OB Ÿ A
2 He
releases c amount of energy in its formation i.e.,
In2 ln 2 TB
OB
in assembling the nucleons as nucleus. .
TA TB TA
Hence, Energy released =c – (a + b) = c – a – b
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DPP/ CP27 S-111

18. (d) N1 N0 e 10Ot , N 2 N 0 e Ot TDTE

TD  TE
29. (c) Tav
e 9Ot e 1 ; 9Ot 1 Ÿ t
N1
If Dand B are emitted simultaneously.
1
9O
(a) Due to irradiation of D-rays on end A will make it
N2

(positive) and irradiation of E-rays on end B will make

19. (d) Let at time t1 & t2, number of particles be N1 & N2. So, 30.

ON1 ; ON 2
dN1 dN 2
R1 R2 it (negative) hence current will flow from A to B (or
dt dt from positive to negative).
ON1
e O ( t2 t1 )
(b) Momentum
E hQ
R1 N1 31.
R2 ON 2 N1e O (t2 t1 ) Mu =
R1 R2 e O (t2 t1 ) R2 e O (t1 t2 )
c c
Recoil energy
1 § hQ ·
2M ¨© c ¸¹
2
20. (c) Average life of the nuclei is 1 1 M2u 2
Mu 2
1 2 2 M
O h 2 Q2
tav = ....(i)
Half life of the nuclei =
2Mc2
0.693
O
t1/2 = ....(ii) 32. (c) No. of nuclide at time t is given by N = Noe–Ot
Where No = initial nuclide
from (i) and (ii) This equation is equivalent to y = ae–kx
t1/2 Thus correct graph is
tav =
0.693 N
21. (d) Nuclear force is not the same between any two
nucleons.
22. (a)
§ E· n u 200 u 106 u 1.6 u 10 19
n ¨ ¸ Ÿ 1000
© t¹
23. (a) P t
t
33. (b) By conservation of energy,
Ÿ 3.125 u 1013.
M  'm c 2 c  .
n
2.M 2 1 2M 2
t v ,
2 2 2
24. (c) Binding energy per nucleon for fission products is
where v is the speed of the daughter nuclei
2 'm
higher relative to Binding energy per nucleon for parent
Ÿ 'mc ?v c
nucleus, i.e., more masses are lost and are obtained as 2 M 2
kinetic energy of fission products. So, the given ratio v
2 M
<1.
34. (a) Suppose that,
my
m y  mD
25. (b) We have K D .Q The number of 10B type atoms = x

A4 A4
and the number of 11B type atoms = y
Ÿ KD .Q Ÿ 48 .50 Ÿ A 100
Weight of 10B type atoms = 10x
A A Weight of 11B type atoms = 11y
26. (b) Using the relation for mean life. Total number of atoms = x + y
§ 1· § 1· 10 x  11y
2W 2¨ ¸ ¨? W
© O¹ © O ¹̧ ?
x y
Given : t 10.81
Atomic weight =

Ÿ 10x + 11y = 10.81x + 10.81 y

 Ou
M 0 e Ot
2
O
Ÿ 0.81x = 0.19 y Ÿ
Then from M 10e x 19

§1·
y 81
10¨
2

© e ¹̧
1.35g 35. (b) Applying law of conservation of momentum,
m1v1 = m2v2
27. (d) Because radioactivity is a spontaneous phenomenon. v1 m2
28. (a) D-particle = 4
. It contains 2 p and 2 n. As some
2 He
v2 m1
mass is converted into B.E., therefore, mass of D particle
S r 3U Ÿ m v r 3
4
is slightly less than the sum of the masses of 2 p and 2 As m =
3
n.
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EBD_7156
S-112 DPP/ CP27
m2 r23 40. (b) The order of density of uranium nucleus is 1017 kg/m2.
Hence, m 41. (b)
1 r13
§ 1· 3
1

? 1 Ÿ ¨© ¸¹
v r23 r2 2.22
42. (a) B.E H 1.11
v2 r13 r1 2 2
36. (d) In an explosion a body breaks up into two pieces of 28.3
B.E He 7.08
unequal masses both part will have numerically equal 4

U o Th + He
momentum and lighter part will have more velocity.
492
B.E Fe 8.78 = maximum
56
P2 P2
KETh = , KEHe = 1786
2m Th 2m He B.E U 7.6
235
since mHe is less so KEHe will be more.
56
37. (a) As we know, R = R0 (A)1/3 26 Fe is most stable as it has maximum binding energy
where A = mass number per nucleon.
RAI = R0 (27)1/3 = 3R0 43. (d) Neutrons can’t be deflected by a magnetic field.
44. (b) –1 e 0 is known as E-particle & Q is known as
antineutrino. Since in this reaction Q is emitted with
5
RTe = R0 (125)1/3 = 5R0 = R

–1e (E-particle or electron), so it is known as E-decay.

3 AI
0

(a) Given, O A 8O, O B O

38. (a) Given : Mass of neutron = Mn
Mass of proton = Mp; Atomic mass of the element = M; 45.
Number of neutrons in the element = N and number of NA
protons in the element = Z. We know that the atomic NB =
e
e O A t
mass (M) of any stable nucleus is always less than the
sum of the masses of the constituent particles. Ÿ N o e O B t No
e
e Ot e 8Ot e1
Therefore, M < [NMn + ZMp].
X is a neutrino, when E-particle is emitted.
39. (a) Activity decreases e Ot e 8Ot 1
Comparing both side powers
Ot 8Ot  1
5000 dps to 2500 dps in 150 days
? Half life period T1/2 = 150 days
? 300 days = 2T1/2
–1 = 7Ot
1
Therefore, initial activity = 5000 × 2T1/2 = 5000 × 2 × 2 t=–
= 20000 dps 7O
1
The best possible answer is t =
7O