Module Name Customs Brokers Licensing Examination 2025

Exam Date 18-Mar-2025

THE CUSTOMS TARIFF ACT

Question No. 1 / Question ID 59

The Indian Customs Tari has ___ Sections and ___ Chapters.
(A) 20 Sections and 97 Chapters.
(B) 21 Sections and 98 Chapters. (Correct Alternative)
(C) 22 Sections and 99 Chapters.
(D) 23 Sections and 98 Chapters.

Question No. 12 / Question ID 64

As per the principles of Customs Tari classification, a commodity can be classified by ________?
(A) Terms of Heading.
(B) Notes to Sections.
(C) Notes to Chapters.
(D) All of the above. (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 15 / Question ID 72

What is the Customs Tari Heading (CTH) of Tamarind Kernel Powder?
(A) 13022910
(B) 13023910 (Correct Alternative)
(C) 13032910
(D) 13033910

Question No. 36 / Question ID 111

If Assessable Value of an imported article is Rs.15,000/-, Basic Customs Duty is 30%, Social Welfare
Surcharge is 10%, Anti-Dumping Duty is 0%, IGST is 18% and Compensation Cess is 0%, what will
the amount of total duty payable?
(A) Rs.7,200/-
(B) Rs.8,541/- (Correct Alternative)
(C) Rs.5,841/-
(D) Rs.7,650/-
Question No. 37 / Question ID 75
What is the primary purpose of the Additional Duty levied on any item imported into India?
(A) To promote local manufacturing.
(B) To equalize the excise duty on like goods produced in India. (Correct Alternative)
(C) To increase revenue for the government.
(D) To discourage imports.

Question No. 72 / Question ID 71

Emergency power of Central Government to increase import duties comes under which
____________________ Section of The Customs Tari Act, 1975?
(A) Section 8A of The Customs Tari Act, 1975 (Correct Alternative)
(B) Section 8C of The Customs Tari Act, 1975
(C) Section 8 of The Customs Tari Act, 1975
(D) Section 8B of The Customs Tari Act, 1975

Question No. 117 / Question ID 76

What is the Customs Tari Heading (CTH) of Mozzarella Cheese?
(A) 04061011
(B) 04061012
(C) 04061010 (Correct Alternative)
(D) 04061009

Question No. 124 / Question ID 73

Which section of the Customs Tari Act, 1975 specifies the rates at which duties of Customs shall
be levied?
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 13
(C) Section 2 (Correct Alternative)
(D) Section 3

Question No. 135 / Question ID 29

What is the Customs Tari Heading (CTH) of Sandalwood chips and dust?
(A) 12119053
(B) 12119054
(C) 12119048
(D) 12119051 (Correct Alternative)
 THE CUSTOMS ACT, 1962

Question No. 2 / Question ID 49

What will be the amount of penalty for late filing of Bill of Entry if the proper o icer of Customs is
satisfied that there was no su icient cause for such delay?
(A) Penalty of Rs.5,000/- per day for initial two days of the default and at the rate of Rs.8,000/- per day
for each day of default thereafter.
(B) Penalty of Rs.5,000/- per day for initial five days of the default and at the rate of Rs.8,000/- per day
for each day of default thereafter.
(C) Penalty of Rs.5,000/- per day for initial three days of the default and at the rate of
Rs.10,000/- per day for each day of default thereafter. (Correct Alternative)
(D) Penalty of Rs.5,000/- per day for initial two days of the default and at the rate of Rs.10,000/- per
day for each day of default thereafter.

Question No. 3 / Question ID 37

Which section of the Customs Act, 1962 deals with the valuation of imported goods?
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 13
(C) Section 14 (Correct Alternative)
(D) Section 12

Question No. 5 / Question ID 61

Which date of rate of exchange will be valid in a Bill of Entry presented under section 46 of the
Customs Act, 1962?
(A) The date on which duty for the bill of entry will be paid.
(B) The date on which the bill of entry is presented in Customs. (Correct Alternative)
(C) The date on which the bill of entry is prepared.
(D) The date on which Customs will clear the goods.

Question No. 9 / Question ID 40

Which section of the Customs Act, 1962 gives authority for compounding of o ences?
(A) Section 135.
(B) Section 104.
(C) Section 137. (Correct Alternative)
(D) Section 100.
Question No. 11 / Question ID 66
Within how many days of re-assessment of duty done under section 17(4) of the Customs Act, 1962
contrary to the self-assessment done by the importer or exporter and the importer or exporter
confirms his acceptance of the said re-assessment in writing the proper o icer shall pass a speaking
order on the re-assessment of duty on the bill of entry or shipping bill as the case may be?
(A) 15 days. (Correct Alternative)
(B) 20 days.
(C) 45 days.
(D) 30 days.

Question No. 16 / Question ID 44

Who is the authority to issue investigation report for related party import transactions under Customs
Act
1962?
(A) COIN
(B) Jurisdictional Special Valuation Branch (SVB) (Correct Alternative)
(C) Jurisdictional DGFT
(D) Jurisdictional Commissioner

Question No. 20 / Question ID 1

Which rule of the Customs (Compounding of O ences) Rules, 2005 empowers Compounding
Authority to grant immunity from prosecution to the applicant?
(A) Rule 4
(B) Rule 6 (Correct Alternative)
(C) Rule 5
(D) Rule 3

Question No. 21 / Question ID 113

As per Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007, what percentage
of business a person should own to be considered as related party?
(A) 5% (Correct Alternative)
(B) 10%
(C) 3%
(D) 15%
Question No. 22 / Question ID 145
Under which regulation of Sea Cargo Manifest and Transhipment Regulations (SCMTR), 2018 can the
jurisdictional Pr. Commissioner/ Commissioner of Customs suspend the operations or revoke the
registration of an authorized carrier?
(A) Regulation 13
(B) Regulation 10
(C) Regulation 11 (Correct Alternative)
(D) Regulation 12

Question No. 25 / Question ID 137

Within how many days of receipt of application should Principal Commissioner/Commissioner of
Customs dispose of an application for registration of Authorized Courier under Regulation 7(1) of
Courier Imports and Exports (Electronic Declaration and Processing) Regulations, 2010?
(A) 15 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 45 days (Correct Alternative)
(D) 60 days

Question No. 27 / Question ID 50

Which of the following section of the Customs Act,1962 empowers the Board to make regulations
regarding goods imported or to be exported by post or courier?
(A) Section 81
(B) Section 83
(C) Section 84 (Correct Alternative)
(D) Section 86

Question No. 29 / Question ID 32

What will be the warehousing period for goods warehoused under section 60 of Customs Act, 1962?
(A) Six months
(B) Three years
(C) One year (Correct Alternative)
(D) Two years
Question No. 30 / Question ID 12
Within how many days should a licensee apply for a fresh license under provisions of Customs
Brokers Licensing Regulations, 2018 to the Principal Commissioner of Customs or Commissioner of
Customs when there is a change in the PAN?
(A) 60 days (Correct Alternative)
(B) 30 days
(C) 15 days
(D) 45 days

Question No. 34 / Question ID 65

Under the Customs Act, 1962, which of the following o ences are cognizable?
i) Any o ence relating to prohibited goods.
ii) Evasion or attempted evasion of duty of forty-five lakh rupees.
iii) Fraudulently availing of or attempting to avail drawback where the amount of drawback is fifty-two
lakh rupees.
iv) Fraudulently obtaining an instrument for the purposes of this Act or the Foreign Trade
(Development and Regulation) Act, 1992, and such instrument is utilised under this Act, where duty
relatable to such utilisation of instrument is thirty-two lakh rupees.
Select the correct option:
(A) (i) and (iii). (Correct Alternative)
(B) (i) and (ii).
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii).
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv).

Question No. 38 / Question ID 45

In which Customs Houses are Special Valuation Branch (SVB) o ices currently operational?
(A) Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru & Vizag
(B) Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, and Bengaluru (Correct Alternative)
(C) Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru, Vizag & Tughlakabad
(D) Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai & Bengaluru
Question No. 39 / Question ID 53
Fill in the blank with correct option:
If any person intentionally obstructs any o icer of Customs in the exercise of any powers conferred
under the Customs Act, 1962 such person shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which
may extend to …………………… or with fine, or with both?
(A) Six months.
(B) Five years.
(C) One year.
(D) Two years. (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 41 / Question ID 51

From which date has filing of documents relating to regulatory compliance on E-Sanchit been
mandatory for Importers?
(A) 20.05.2018
(B) 30.03.2018
(C) 01.01.2018
(D) 01.04.2018 (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 42 / Question ID 52

When is Arrival Manifest for imported goods required to be delivered by an authorized carrier under
provisions of Customs Act, 1962?
(A) Within 12 hours of the arrival of a vessel or a train or a truck carrying imported goods in the
Customs station. (Correct Alternative)
(B) Within 36 hours of the arrival of a vessel or a train or a truck carrying imported goods in the
Customs station.
(C) After 12 hours of the arrival of a vessel or a train or a truck carrying imported goods in the Customs
station.
(D) Within 24 hours of the arrival of a vessel or a train or a truck carrying imported goods in the
Customs station.

Question No. 43 / Question ID 58

Is the importer liable to pay duty on any imported goods pilfered after unloading from the vessel and
before an order for clearance for home consumption or deposit of the said goods in a warehouse is
made by the proper o icer of Customs?
(A) Yes always
(B) No always
(C) Yes, only when such goods are restored to the importer after pilferage. (Correct Alternative)
(D) None of the above
Question No. 44 / Question ID 110
Under which Rule, Related Party is defined for the purpose of Customs import?
(A) Rule 2 (2) of Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007.
(Correct Alternative)
(B) Section 2 (2) of Customs Act, 1962.
(C) Section 14 of Customs Act, 1962.
(D) Rule 2 (1) of Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007.

Question No. 46 / Question ID 47

Which of the following sections of Customs Act,1962 talks about o ences relating to knowingly
making, signing or using false declarations or documents?
(A) Section 133.
(B) Section 134
(C) Section 132 (Correct Alternative)
(D) Section 130

Question No. 48 / Question ID 34

In the case of a Warehousing Bill of Entry filed by an Importer under section 46 and assessed to duty
under section 17 or section 18 what will be the sum of bond amount?
(A) Sum equal to twice the amount of duty assessed on such goods
(B) Sum equal to the amount of duty assessed on such goods
(C) Sum equal to thrice the amount of duty assessed on such goods (Correct Alternative)
(D) Sum equal to value of the goods plus amount of duty assessed on such goods

Question No. 49 / Question ID 149

How many digits are there in a PCIN (Primary Cargo Identification Number) assigned by Customs to
identify a cargo contained in single Transport Document mentioning Actual Buyer and Seller?
(A) 12 digits
(B) 15 digits
(C) 8 digits
(D) 18 digits (Correct Alternative)
Question No. 50 / Question ID 54
Who is the competent authority to sanction prosecution under section 132, section 133, section 134
or section 135 of the Customs Act, 1962?
(A) Pr. Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner of Customs.
(B) Deputy Commissioner or Assistant Commissioner of Customs.
(C) Principal Commissioner or Commissioner of Customs. (Correct Alternative)
(D) Additional Commissioner or Joint Commissioner of Customs.

Question No. 52 / Question ID 38

Under which section of the Customs Act, 1962 is the prohibition on the import of certain goods
discussed?
(A) Section 13
(B) Section 12
(C) Section 11 (Correct Alternative)
(D) Section 10

Question No. 53 / Question ID 112

As per Rule 10 (1) of Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007, as
amended, cost and services to the extent they are incurred by the buyer but are not included in the
price actually paid or payable, the following shall be added to determine the transaction value?
(A) Cost of loading, unloading and handling charges at the place of importation in the assessable
value at a notional rate of 1% of the sum of FOB.
(B) Commissions and brokerage except buying commissions, cost of containers, the cost of
packing; royalties and license fees. (Correct Alternative)
(C) Both a & b.
(D) None of the above.

Question No. 57 / Question ID 33

Under which Section of the Customs Act, 1962 is amendment of a Bill of Entry done after clearance
of the imported goods on the basis of documentary evidence which was in existence at the time the
imported goods were cleared?
(A) Section 145
(B) Section 41
(C) Section 149 (Correct Alternative)
(D) Section 31
Question No. 58 / Question ID 60
Which section of the Customs Act, 1962 deals with protection of data submitted to Customs by an
importer or exporter under this Act?
(A) Section 135A
(B) Section 135AA (Correct Alternative)
(C) Section 135B.
(D) Section 135

Question No. 59 / Question ID 9

The information sought by proper o icer from the importer relating to origin criteria of the goods to
ascertain the correctness of the claim under CAROTAR, 2020 Customs (Administration of Rules of
Origin under Trade Agreements) Rules, 2020 is to be provided within……………………… from the date
when such information is sought?
(A) 14 working days
(B) 05 working days
(C) 07 working days
(D) 10 working days (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 61 / Question ID 114

As per the Customs (Assistance in Value Declaration of Imported Goods) Rules, 2023, the Screening
Committee consists of __________?
(A) DG, NACIN+ DG, DRI+ Trade Representatives.
(B) DG, Valuation + DG, DRI+ DG, ARM+ Conveners of National Assessment Centre constituted
by the Board, if any, pertaining to the class of goods under consideration. (Correct Alternative)
(C) DG, Valuation + DG, NACIN + DG, ARM+ Conveners of National Assessment Centre constituted
by the Board, if any, pertaining to the class of goods under consideration.
(D) DG, NACIN + DG, DRI + DG, ARM+ Conveners of National Assessment Centre constituted by the
Board, if any, pertaining to the class of goods under consideration.

Question No. 63 / Question ID 109

Place of importation as per Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules,
2007, as amended means?
(A) The place from where the goods are sourced for importation into Customs station in India or for
warehousing in India
(B) The Customs station where the goods are brought for being cleared for home consumption
or for being removed for deposit in a warehouse (Correct Alternative)
(C) The place from where the goods are imported for consumption in India or for warehousing
(D) None of the above
Question No. 67 / Question ID 67
Which section of the Customs Act, 1962 deals with punishment for refusal to be X-rayed in
accordance with an order made by a Magistrate under section 103 of the Act?
(A) Section 108
(B) Section 131
(C) Section 134 (Correct Alternative)
(D) Section 132

Question No. 69 / Question ID 56

Should all related party’s import transaction be subject to Special Valuation Branch (SVB)
investigation?
(A) If the annual turnover of the buyer is above 10 Crores.
(B) Yes.
(C) No. (Correct Alternative)
(D) If the annual turnover of the buyer is above 5 Crores.

Question No. 71 / Question ID 62

What is the basis for selecting cases for verification of duty under Section 17(2) of the Customs Act,
1962?
(A) Importer’s previous records
(B) Risk evaluation through appropriate selection criteria (Correct Alternative)
(C) Total value of the goods
(D) Random selection

Question No. 74 / Question ID 3

Within how many months has Pr. Commissioner/Commissioner of Customs (Appeals) to hear and
decide every appeal made to him under provisions of Customs Act, 1962?
(A) 6 months (Correct Alternative)
(B) 9 months
(C) 3 months
(D) 1 month
Question No. 77 / Question ID 6
Within how many days should a Bill of Entry be presented within expected arrival of the aircraft or
vessel or vehicle by which the goods have been shipped for importation into India?
(A) 30 days (Correct Alternative)
(B) 60 days
(C) 45 days
(D) 15 days

Question No. 79 / Question ID 42

Which section of the Customs Act, 1962 provides for option to pay fine in lieu of confiscation?
(A) Section 100
(B) Section 128
(C) Section 110
(D) Section 125 (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 80 / Question ID 41

Which one of the following o ences punishable under section 135 of the Customs Act, 1962 shall be
nonbailable?
(A) Fraudulently availing of or attempt to avail of any exemption from duty provided under this Act, if
the amount of exemption from duty exceeds twenty lakh rupees.
(B) Fraudulently availing of or attempt to avail of any exemption from duty provided under this
Act, if the amount of exemption from duty exceeds fifty lakh rupees. (Correct Alternative)
(C) Evasion or attempted evasion of duty exceeding twenty lakh rupees.
(D) Import or export of any goods which have not been declared in accordance with the provisions of
this Act and the market price of which exceeds fifty lakh rupees.

Question No. 81 / Question ID 5

With which authority shall the appeal be filed if the Principal Commissioner/Commissioner of
Customs or the other Party is aggrieved by any order passed by the Appellate Tribunal reg.
determination of any question having a relation to the rate of duty of Customs or to the value of goods
for purposes of assessment?
(A) Additional Secretary (Revisionary Authority)
(B) Central Government
(C) Jurisdictional High Court
(D) Supreme Court (Correct Alternative)
Question No. 82 / Question ID 150
Who are the stakeholders obliged to register and operate under Sea Cargo Manifest and
Transhipment Regulations (SCMTR), 2018?
(A) Authorized Sea Carrier (Including Shipping line)
(B) Authorized Sea Agent (Steamer/Shipping Agent)
(C) Authorized Carrier (Other Notified Carrier)
(D) All of the above (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 84 / Question ID 69

What is the amount an applicant has to pay on declaration of the results who has passed the written
as well as oral examination referred to in sub-regulation (2) of regulation 4 of CBLR, 2018 for grant of
CBLR Licence?
(A) Five Thousand Rupees within two months (Correct Alternative)
(B) Two Thousand Rupees within two months
(C) Five Hundred Rupees within two months
(D) Ten Thousand Rupees within two months

Question No. 86 / Question ID 146

As per Sea Cargo Manifest & Transit Regulations, 2018 after how many days will the authorized carrier
demand container detention charges for containers laden with the goods, detained by Customs for
purpose of verifying the entries made under section 46 or section 50 of this Act if the entries are found
to be correct?
(A) 180 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 60 days (Correct Alternative)
(D) 90 days

Question No. 88 / Question ID 147

What is the mechanism or mode for submission of the declarations under provisions of The Sea
Cargo Manifest and Transhipment Regulations, 2018 by various stakeholders?
(A) ICEGATE site. (Correct Alternative)
(B) CBIC site.
(C) India Portal site.
(D) All of the above.
Question No. 91 / Question ID 90
What % of CIF value of authorization will be permitted duty free in the import of mandatory spares
which are required to be exported / supplied with the resultant product?
(A) 12%
(B) 10% (Correct Alternative)
(C) 18%
(D) 15%

Question No. 92 / Question ID 8

Within how many days will the jurisdictional Pr. Commissioner/Commissioner of Customs decide
every application for post export conversion of the Shipping Bill under The Shipping Bill (Post Export
Conversion in Relation to Instrument Based Scheme) Regulations, 2022?
(A) 30 days (Correct Alternative)
(B) 15 days
(C) 45 days
(D) 60 days

Question No. 93 / Question ID 55

Who is the competent authority for compounding of o ences under the Customs Act, 1962?
(A) Deputy / Assistant Commissioner of Customs
(B) Pr. Chief Commissioner / Chief Commissioner of Customs. (Correct Alternative) (Chosen
Option)
(C) Additional /Joint Commissioner of Customs.
(D) Pr. Commissioner / Commissioner of Customs.

Question No. 96 / Question ID 68

Which of the following can be a reason for the prohibition for import or export of goods under the
Customs Act, 1962?
(A) Protection of human health
(B) Prevention of injury to the economy of the Country by the uncontrolled import or export (gold or
silver or any other goods)
(C) Prevention of deceptive practices
(D) All of the above (Correct Alternative)
Question No. 97 / Question ID 13
How many minimum years’ experience in Group “A” Cadre from the Indian Revenue Service
(Customs and Central Excise) is required for a Retired Group “A” O icer to be eligible to apply for a
license to act as a Customs Broker?
(A) 3 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 5 years (Correct Alternative)
(D) 6 years

Question ID 107
As per Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007, as amended
"identical goods means imported goods which?
(A) Have like characteristics and like component materials which enable them to perform the same
functions and to be commercially interchangeable with the goods being valued having regard to the
quality, reputation and the existence of trade mark, although not alike in all respects
(B) Which are same in all respects, including physical characteristics, quality and reputation as
the goods being valued except for minor di erences in appearance that do not a ect the value
of the goods (Correct Alternative)
(C) Where engineering, development work, art work, design work, plan or sketch undertaken in India
were completed directly or indirectly by the buyer on these imported goods free of charge or at a
reduced cost for use in connection with the production and sale for export of these imported goods
(D) None of the above

Question No. 109 / Question ID 39

Fill in the blank with correct option:
If a person obtains an instrument from any authority by fraud and such instrument is utilized by him
where the Customs duty relatable to utilization of the instrument exceeds fifty lakh rupees, he shall
be punishable for such an o ence with imprisonment of maximum term of ……………………. with fine.
(A) Three years.
(B) One year.
(C) Five years.
(D) Seven years. (Correct Alternative)
Question No. 111 / Question ID 138
What is the time limit for filing Courier Bill of Entry for re-import of returned jewellery from the date
of corresponding Let Export Order (LEO) of the Courier Shipping Bill for export through the courier
mode on an
e-commerce platform?
(A) 45 days (Correct Alternative)
(B) 30 days
(C) 60 days
(D) 15 days

Question No. 112 / Question ID 7

Till what period is the authorized Customs Broker required to retain the assessed copy of the Bill of
Entry and its supporting documents in original as per Bill of Entry (Electronic Integrated Declaration
and Paperless Processing) Regulations, 2018?
(A) 5 years (Correct Alternative)
(B) 12 years
(C) 10 years
(D) 15 years

Question No. 113 / Question ID 108

Under which Rule of Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007 can
the declared import value be rejected by the proper o icer?
(A) Rule 12 (Correct Alternative)
(B) Rule 10
(C) Rule 13
(D) Rule 3

Question No. 116 / Question ID 10

As per CAROTAR, 2020 Customs (Administration of Rules of Origin under Trade Agreements) Rules,
2020 what is the minimum period for which an importer is required to keep origin related documents
related to Form 1?
(A) 10 years from the date of filing of bill of entry
(B) 02 years from the date of filing of bill of entry
(C) 05 years from the date of filing of bill of entry (Correct Alternative)
(D) 07 years from the date of filing of bill of entry
Question No. 120 / Question ID 35
Under which section of Customs Act, 1962 are Customs duties levied on imported goods?
(A) Section 12 of the Customs Act, 1962 (Correct Alternative)
(B) Section 17 of the Customs Act, 1962
(C) Section 13 of the Customs Act, 1962
(D) Section 18 of the Customs Act, 1962

Question No. 122 / Question ID 48

What will be the warehousing period for goods warehoused under section 65 of Customs Act, 1962?
(A) One year.
(B) Till their consumption or clearance from warehouse (Correct Alternative)
(C) Two years
(D) Three years

Question No. 123 / Question ID 14

What is the validity of the H-Card issued to an employee of a Customs Broker by Deputy
Commissioner/Assistant Commissioner of Customs?
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years (Correct Alternative)
(C) 10 years
(D) 1 year

Question No. 125 / Question ID 4

An appeal filed against the order of Pr. Commissioner/Commissioner of Customs (Appeals) passed
under Section 128(A) of Customs Act, 1962 in a baggage import case lies with which authority?
(A) Additional Secretary (Revisionary Authority) (Correct Alternative)
(B) Jurisdictional High Court
(C) Customs, Excise and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal
(D) Supreme Court
Question No. 127 / Question ID 63
If the importer fails to provide documents and information required for SVB inquiries, within 60 days
of such requisition, security deposit at a rate of …….% of the declared assessable value shall be
imposed by the Commissioner of Customs for a period not exceeding the next three months?
(A) 5%. (Correct Alternative)
(B) 2%.
(C) 1%.
(D) 3%.

Question No. 132 / Question ID 57

As per section 46 of the Customs Act 1962, when Bill of Entry is not presented within the time
specified therein and no su icient cause is shown for such delay then what is the consequence?
(A) No Bill of Entry can be filed as it is time barred.
(B) Importer shall pay such charges for late presentation for filing the Bill of Entry as may be
prescribed. (Correct Alternative)
(C) The importer/agent can file the Bill of Entry with the permission of the Pr.Commr./Commr. Of
Customs when the non-filing comes to their notice.
(D) No. The importer do not have to pay any charges for late filing of the Bill of Entry.

Question No. 136 / Question ID 106

As per Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007 what is the
correct sequence for deciding the value of imported goods?
(A) Transaction Value of Identical Goods, Transaction Value of Similar Goods, Transaction Value,
Deductive Value
(B) Transaction Value, Transaction Value of Similar Goods, Transaction Value of Identical Goods,
Deductive Value
(C) Transaction Value, Transaction Value of Identical Goods, Transaction Value of Similar
Goods, Deductive Value (Correct Alternative)
(D) Transaction Value of Identical Goods, Transaction Value, Transaction Value of Similar Goods,
Deductive Value

Question No. 142 / Question ID 46

Which section of the Customs Act, 1962 empowers Hon’ble Court to publish name, place of
business, etc., of persons convicted under the Act?
(A) Section 131A.
(B) Section 135A.
(C) Section 133.
(D) Section 135B. (Correct Alternative)
Question No. 143 / Question ID 148
What is the timeline for filing Sea Departure Manifest (SDM) by the Authorized Sea Carrier after the
departure of the vessel under Sea Cargo Manifest and Transhipment Regulations (SCMTR), 2018?
(A) Within 48 hours.
(B) Within 12 hours.
(C) Within 24 hours. (Correct Alternative)
(D) Within 6 hours.

Question No. 145 / Question ID 36

What is the time limit for filing a refund claim for export duty paid under Section 26 of the Customs
Act, 1962?
(A) 3 months from LEO date
(B) 6 months from the date of import
(C) 1 year from the date of payment of export duty
(D) 6 months from LEO date (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 149 / Question ID 70

In case a Custom Broker who has been issued a licence at one Customs Station under provisions of
CBLR, 2018 wish to work at another Customs Station what is the Form for intimation to the Principal
Commissioner / Commissioner of Customs?
(A) FORM B
(B) FORM D
(C) FORM A
(D) FORM C (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 150 / Question ID 43

As per CBIC guidelines, what is the suggested threshold limit to launch prosecution against an
accused involved in unauthorized importation in baggage/cases under Transfer of Residence Rules?
(A) Market value of the goods involved is Rupees Two Crore or more.
(B) Market value of the goods involved is Rupees Fifty Lakh or more. (Correct Alternative)
(C) Market value of the goods involved is Rupees Twenty Lakh or more.
(D) Market value of the goods involved is Rupees One Crore or more.
 Arms Act 1959 (54 of 1959),

Question No. 32 / Question ID 129

According to the Arms Act, 1959, “prohibited arms” includes which of the following?
(A) Small calibre weapons
(B) Hunting rifles
(C) Artillery, anti-aircraft and anti-tank firearms (Correct Alternative)
(D) Antique firearms

Question No. 100 / Question ID 130

Which of the following is NOT covered under the Arms Act, 1959?
(A) Ammunition
(B) Knives (Correct Alternative)
(C) Firearms
(D) Artillery

Question No. 126 / Question ID 128

What is the minimum age prescribed for obtaining a firearms license under the Arms Act, 1959?
(A) 18 years
(B) 25 years
(C) 21 years (Correct Alternative)
(D) 30 years
 Central Goods and Services Act, 2017 (12 of 2017) and

Question No. 8 / Question ID 18

Which of the following is excluded from the computation of aggregate turnover under CGST Act,
2017?
(A) Excluding the value of inward supplies on which tax is payable by a person on reverse
charge basis. (Correct Alternative)
(B) Exports of goods or services.
(C) Exempt supplies.
(D) Inter-State supplies.

Question No. 10 / Question ID 11

How many digits are there in a “GSTIN” issued at the time of issue of Goods and Services Tax
registration certificate?
(A) 18
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 15 (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 28 / Question ID 23

In the absence of a registered place of business or fixed establishment, how is the “location” of the
recipient of services under IGST Act, 2017 determined?
(A) The usual place of residence of the recipient (Correct Alternative)
(B) The location of the establishment most directly concerned
(C) The location of the supplier’s business
(D) The registered address of the supplier

Question No. 19 / Question ID 19

Which of the following does not falls under scope of “Furtherance of Business” under CGST Act,
2017?
(A) Sales by Charitable organizations.
(B) Machinery or o ice equipment purchased to enhance business.
(C) Gifts to employees, if not exceeding Rs. 50,000/- in a year. (Correct Alternative)
(D) Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) expenses, when mandated by law.
Question No. 64 / Question ID 21
In case where a person make supply from multiple states and his aggregate turnover exceeds
threshold limit, he has to get registered under CGST Act, 2017 in __________?
(A) In only one state where turnover is greater than 20 lakhs.
(B) In all those States. (Correct Alternative)
(C) In only one of the States.
(D) In a state where head o ice is located.

Question No. 68 / Question ID 22

The reverse charge mechanism under CGST Act, 2017 is provided under which section?
(A) Sub section 5 of Section 9.
(B) Sub section 3 of Section 9. (Correct Alternative)
(C) Sub section 2 of Section 9.
(D) Sub section 1 of section 9.

Question No. 70 / Question ID 16

Within what period invoice should be issued in case of supply of goods where supply involves
movement of goods under CGST Act, 2017?
(A) On or before removal of goods (Correct Alternative)
(B) Within 30 days of removal of goods
(C) Within a week of removal of goods
(D) Within 14 days of removal of goods

Question No. 95 / Question ID 15

Is the person making supply from territorial waters of India required to take registration under CGST
Act, 2017?
(A) No, supply from territorial waters of India is exempt for supply.
(B) Yes, in the coastal State or Union Territory where nearest point of appropriate baseline is
located. (Correct Alternative)
(C) No, as the place from where supply is initiated is not Indian Land.
(D) Yes, In the state where the person supplies the goods.
Question No. 99 / Question ID 17
Which of the following is included in "online money gaming" under CGST Act, 2017?
(A) Depositing virtual digital assets without expectation of rewards.
(B) Games requiring payment or deposit of money with the expectation of winning monetary
rewards. (Correct Alternative)
(C) It does not include schemes, competitions, or processes involving monetary expectations.
(D) Both (a) and (c)

Question No. 133 / Question ID 24

What is the threshold limit for obtaining the registration under CGST Act, 2017 in case of interstate
supply of goods and /or Services?
(A) Rs. 40 Lakh.
(B) Rs. 10 Lakh.
(C) Mandatory registration irrespective of turnover. (Correct Alternative)
(D) Rs. 20 Lakh.

Question No. 146 / Question ID 20

Input Tax Credit of Central Tax (CGST) cannot be utilized towards payment of?
(A) SGST & UTGST (Correct Alternative)
(B) IGST
(C) IGST & CGST
(D) CGST
 Copy Right Act, 1957 (14 of 1957),

Question No. 7 / Question ID 30

Under which section of The Copyright Act, 1957 can a person file a suit for infringement of copyright?
(A) Section 16
(B) Section 70
(C) Section 63
(D) Section 55 (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 26 / Question ID 27

Which Section of the Copyright Act, 1957 refers to the ‘Performer’s right?
(A) Section 45
(B) Section 68
(C) Section 40
(D) Section 38 (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 40 / Question ID 28

Which section of the Copyright Act, 1957 deals with the revocation with regard to assignment of
copyright?
(A) Section 24
(B) Section 20
(C) Section 21
(D) Section 19(A) (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 47 / Question ID 26

Which of the following rights is NOT a right granted to copyright owners under Section 14 of The
Copyright Act, 1957?
(A) Right to translation
(B) Right to reproduction
(C) Right to perform publicly
(D) Right to destroy copies (Correct Alternative)
Question No. 105 / Question ID 31
Which of the following is NOT protected under The Copyright Act, 1957?
(A) Literary works
(B) Cinematograph films
(C) Musical compositions
(D) Ideas (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 134 / Question ID 29

What is the penalty for infringement of copyright under The Copyright Act, 1957?
(A) Imprisonment only.
(B) Both fine and imprisonment. (Correct Alternative)
(C) Fine only.
(D) No penalty.

Question No. 138 / Question ID 25

What is the term of copyright protection for a literary work under The Copyright Act, 1957?
(A) 10 years
(B) 50 years
(C) Life of the author plus 60 years (Correct Alternative)
(D) 25 years
 Designs Act, 2000 (16 of 2000)

Question No. 89 / Question ID 77

Under what section of The Designs Act, 2000 does the Controller grant a certificate of registration to
the proprietor of design when registered?
(A) Section 8(3) of The Designs Act, 2000
(B) Section 10(b) of The Designs Act, 2000
(C) Section 9(1) of The Designs Act, 2000 (Correct Alternative)
(D) Section 7(1) of The Designs Act, 2000

Question No. 94 / Question ID 78

Under the Designs Act, 2000 till what period from the date of registration will the registered proprietor
of the design have copyright in the design?
(A) Ten years (Correct Alternative)
(B) Five years
(C) Three years
(D) Fifteen years

Question No. 104 / Question ID 79

Piracy of registered design is prohibited under which section of The Designs Act, 2000?
(A) Section 20
(B) Section 23
(C) Section 21
(D) Section 22 (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 144 / Question ID 80

Under which section of The Designs Act, 2000 can a registered design be cancelled by the Controller
General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks?
(A) Section 19 of The Designs Act, 2000 (Correct Alternative)
(B) Section 21 of The Designs Act, 2000
(C) Section 18 of The Designs Act, 2000
(D) Section 20 of The Designs Act, 2000
 Drugs and Cosme cs Act, 1940 (23 of 1940),

Question No. 78 / Question ID 2

As per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, a drug shall be deemed to be adulterated if
______________?
(A) It is not labelled in the prescribed manner.
(B) It is imported under a name which belongs to another drug.
(C) It consists of filthy, putrid or decomposed substance. (Correct Alternative)
(D) It is containing constituents of another drug.
 Environment (Protec on) Act, 1986 (29 of 1986),

Question No. 56 / Question ID 141

Fill in the blank with the correct option:
The import and export of hazardous and other wastes not specified in Schedule III of the Hazardous
and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016, but exhibiting the
hazardous characteristics outlined in Part C of Schedule III of the said rules shall require prior written
permission of the …………………………………. before it is imported to or exported from India, as the
case may be?
(A) Central Pollution Control Board
(B) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
(C) Commissioner of Customs
(D) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 107 / Question ID 140

Under which schedule of the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary
Movement) Rules, 2016, the import of the hazardous and other wastes is prohibited?
(A) Schedule VI (Correct Alternative)
(B) Schedule V
(C) Schedule III
(D) Schedule VII

Question No. 115 / Question ID 139

Fill in the blank with the correct option:
Import of the hazardous and other wastes from any Country to India shall not be permitted for the
purpose of ------------------ ?
(A) Reuse
(B) Recovery
(C) Recycling
(D) Disposal (Correct Alternative)
Question No. 128 / Question ID 142
Which rule of the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules,
2016 deals with illegal export from or import into India of hazardous or other wastes?
(A) Rule 8.
(B) Rule 15. (Correct Alternative)
(C) Rule 9.
(D) Rule 11.

Question No. 141 / Question ID 143

In terms of Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016,
in case of illegal import of the hazardous or other waste, within how many days the importer shall re-
export the waste in question at his cost from the date of its arrival into India?
(A) Within a period of sixty days.
(B) Within a period of thirty days.
(C) Within a period of fifteen days.
(D) Within a period of ninety days. (Correct Alternative)
 Explosives Act, 1884 (4 of 1884),

Question No. 33 / Question ID 125

If an applicant had applied for license for manufacture of explosives under Section 5 of the
Explosives Act, 1884, then under which section of this act does the licensing authority grant license?
(A) Section 6 A of The Explosives Act, 1884
(B) Section 6 of The Explosives Act, 1884
(C) Section 6 B of The Explosives Act, 1884 (Correct Alternative)
(D) Section 6 C of The Explosives Act, 1884

Question No. 98 / Question ID 127

Which persons have been prohibited for manufacturing, possessing, sale or transporting of
explosives under the provisions of The Explosives Act, 1884?
(A) Any person who has not completed the age of eighteen years.
(B) Any person who has been sentenced on conviction of any o ence involving violence or moral
turpitude for a term of not less than six months, at any time during a period of five years after the
expiration of the sentence.
(C) Any person whose license under this Act has been cancelled, whether before or after the
commencement of The Indian Explosives (Amendment) Act, 1978 for contravention of the provisions
of this Act or of the rules made thereunder, at any time during a period of five years from the date of
cancellation of such license.
(D) All of the above. (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 106 / Question ID 126

Under which section of The Explosives Act, 1884 does the Central Government makes rules for
licensing of the manufacture, possession, use, sale, transport, import and export of explosives?
(A) Section 6 A of The Explosives Act, 1884.
(B) Section 6 of The Explosives Act, 1884.
(C) Section 5 of The Explosives Act, 1884. (Correct Alternative)
(D) Section 5 A of The Explosives Act, 1884.
 Food Safety and Standard Act, 2006 (No. 34 of 2006)

Question No. 17 / Question ID 95

As per the Food Safety and Standards (Import) Regulations, 2017 in respect of imported articles of
food having shelf-life less than seven days, the importer shall declare the same in
________________________?
(A) FORM – 10.
(B) FORM – 15.
(C) FORM – 18.
(D) FORM – 13. (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 23 / Question ID 99

In respect of food items available for sale in the market, Shelf life under Food Safety And Standards
Act, 2006 means the period between the ________________________.
(A) Date of manufacture and Best Before 1 Month
(B) Date of manufacture and Date of purchase.
(C) Date of manufacture and Best Before or Date of Expiry whichever is earlier. (Correct
Alternative)
(D) Date of manufacture and Date of Expiry whichever is later.

Question No. 35 / Question ID 94

An appeal against the order of rejection for the grant of license under Food Safety And Standards Act,
2006 lies with which authority?
(A) The Designated O icer of Food Safety And Standards Authority of India
(B) Joint Director, DGFT.
(C) High Court.
(D) Commissioner of Food Safety. (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 66 / Question ID 98

According to the Food Safety and Standards (Labelling and Packaging) Regulations, 2011, for
sampling of imported article of food having a valid balance shelf life the Authorized O icer shall
_________?
(A) Draw two parts of food sample of each description or measures (except for aseptic sealed
packages).
(B) Forward to the food analyst such quantity of sample as specified under the Food Safety and
Standards (Laboratory and Sample Analysis) Regulations, 2011.
(C) Seal the samples.
(D) All of the above. (Correct Alternative)
Question No. 76 / Question ID 97
In case of death of Licensee what is the further period under Food Safety And Standards Act, 2006
the License will subsist from the date of Licensee’s death for the benefit of the deceased’s personal
representative or any other member of his family?
(A) One month.
(B) Two months.
(C) Three months. (Correct Alternative)
(D) Six months.

Question No. 101 / Question ID 93

If a food business operator has been served a “Improvement Notice” under Food Safety And
Standards Act, 2006 within how many days should he comply with the regulations?
(A) Seven days
(B) Fourteen days (Correct Alternative)
(C) Thirty days
(D) Twenty days

Question No. 137 / Question ID 92

All import of food items into India under Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992 is
regulated under which Section of Food Safety And Standards Act, 2006?
(A) Section 20 of Food Safety And Standards Act, 2006
(B) Section 28 of Food Safety And Standards Act, 2006
(C) Section 25 of Food Safety And Standards Act, 2006 (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 139 / Question ID 96

Within how many days should the Food Analyst after receiving the sample from the Food Safety
O icer analyse the sample and send the analysis report to Designated O icer with a copy to
Commissioner of Food Safety?
(A) 21 days.
(B) 7 days.
(C) 14 days. (Correct Alternative)
(D) 30 days.
(D) Section 23 of Food Safety And Standards Act, 2006
 Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (42 of 1999),

Question No. 6 / Question ID 82

Which section of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 deals with realisation and repatriation of
foreign exchange?
(A) Section 7 of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
(B) Section 6 of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
(C) Section 8 of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (Correct Alternative)
(D) Section 9 of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999

Question No. 13 / Question ID 84

Which section of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 prohibits resident Indians from acquiring,
holding, owning, possessing or transferring any foreign exchange, foreign security or any immovable
property situated outside India?
(A) Section 4 of Foreign Exchange Management Act,1999 (Correct Alternative)
(B) Section 5 of Foreign Exchange Management Act,1999
(C) Section 6 of Foreign Exchange Management Act,1999
(D) Section 8 of Foreign Exchange Management Act,1999

Question No. 75 / Question ID 83

Which section of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 empowers o icers of Customs, CGST,
Police or any other o icer of the Central Government or a State Government to exercise such of the
powers and discharge duties of the Director of Enforcement or any other o icer of Enforcement
under this Act?
(A) Section 38 (Correct Alternative)
(B) Section 36
(C) Section 37
(D) Section 40

Question No. 85 / Question ID 81

Within how many days from the date of seizure e ected under Section 37A of Foreign Exchange
Management Act, 1999 should the order of seizure along with relevant material be placed by the
seizing o icer before the competent authority appointed by Central Government?
(A) 45 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 15 days
(D) 30 days (Correct Alternative)
 Foreign Trade (Development and Regula ons) Act, 1992 (22 of 1992),

Question No. 18 / Question ID 88

As per Foreign Trade Policy, 2023, Export of ‘Arms and related material’ to Government of Iraq is
........?
(A) Prohibited but Permitted subject to No Objection Certificate’ from the Department of
Defense Production (Correct Alternative)
(B) Permitted on production of authorization from DGFT
(C) Prohibited
(D) Free

Question No. 103 / Question ID 85

As per the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992 which of the below mentioned
statement is correct?
(A) IEC number is necessary for the Import/Export of services or technology.
(B) IEC number is not necessary for the Import/Export of specified services or specified technology.
(C) IEC number is necessary for the Import/Export of services or technology only if the
provider is taking benefits under the Foreign Trade Policy. (Correct Alternative)
(D) None of the Above

Question No. 108 / Question ID 86

In the Foreign Trade Policy, 2023 how many categories of items are there in the SCOMET List?
(A) 12
(B) 8
(C) 9 (Correct Alternative)
(D) 7

Question No. 114 / Question ID 87

What is the import policy for second hand desktop computer as per Foreign Trade Policy, 2023?
(A) Prohibited, cannot be imported under any Authorization also.
(B) Prohibited, Importable against Authorization.
(C) Open General License, Freely importable.
(D) Restricted, Importable against Authorization. (Correct Alternative)
Question No. 148 / Question ID 91
As per Foreign Trade Policy, 2023, when goods are imported under EPCG scheme what is the
timelimit for submission of Installation Certificate by the importer to the Regional Authority?
(A) 18 months from date of completion of import.
(B) 4 months from date of completion of import.
(C) 6 months from date of completion of import. (Correct Alternative)
(D) 12 months from date of completion of import.

Question No. 119 / Question ID 89

The Authorized Economic Operator Program is based on ___________?
(A) WCO COPES standards
(B) WCO SAFE Framework of Standards (Correct Alternative)
(C) WCO Framework of Standards on Cross-Border
(D) WCO Compliance Framework

Question No. 131 / Question ID 144

What is the amount of Bank Guarantee required to be furnished by entities other than Authorized
Economic Operator (AEO) for operating under Sea Cargo Manifest and Transhipment Regulations
(SCMTR), 2018?
(A) Rs.15,00,000/-
(B) Rs.5,00,000/- (Correct Alternative)
(C) Rs.10,00,000/-
(D) Rs.3,00,000/-
 Narco cs Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (61 of 1985),

Question No. 14 / Question ID 123

What does “production” under Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 means?
(A) Growing of opium, poppy straw, coca leaves or cannabis in fields.
(B) Growing of opium, poppy straw, coca leaves or cannabis in laboratory.
(C) Separation of opium, poppy straw, coca leaves or cannabis from the plants from which
they are obtained. (Correct Alternative)
(D) None of the above.

Question No. 45 / Question ID 117

Under provisions of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 a substance is
declared controlled substance by _________ ?
(A) Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)
(B) Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (CBIC)
(C) Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB)
(D) Central Government (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 54 / Question ID 116

How many copies of the import certificate, for import of narcotic drug or psychotropic substance, is
prepared by the concerned authority under provisions of Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
Substances Rules, 1985?
(A) 7 (Correct Alternative)
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) 3

Question No. 55 / Question ID 118

Who constitutes the “The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Consultative Committee”?
(A) Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB)
(B) Respective State Government
(C) Narcotics Control Bureau in consultation with respective state Government
(D) Central Government (Correct Alternative)
Question No. 65 / Question ID 124
Which section of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 deals with the
punishment for illegal import into India, export from India or transhipment of narcotic drugs and
psychotropic substances?
(A) Section 23 (Correct Alternative)
(B) Section 27
(C) Section 19
(D) Section 21

Question No. 90 / Question ID 115

Under Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, what is the punishment for illegal
import into India of narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances in commercial quantity?
(A) Fine of Rs.20,000/- only.
(B) Rigorous imprisonment of five years.
(C) Rigorous imprisonment of five years with fine of Rs.20,000/- only.
(D) Rigorous imprisonment for a term not less than ten years and fine not less than one lakh
rupees. (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 110 / Question ID 120

As per the Notification specifying Small Quantity and Commercial Quantity of drugs, small quantity
of Heroin under Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 Act, 1985 is ?
(A) 2 gm
(B) 10 gm
(C) 5 gm (Correct Alternative)
(D) 50 gm

Question No. 118 / Question ID 121

Import of opium, under Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Rules, 1985, is governed by ?
(A) Rule 41.
(B) Rule 30.
(C) Rule 54. (Correct Alternative)
(D) Rule 67.
Question No. 129 / Question ID 122
What is controlled delivery under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985?
(A) Delivery of poppy grown by license holder to factories for processing.
(B) Delivery of narco substances under supervision of o icer duly authorized under section
50A of the said Act to identify o enders. (Correct Alternative)
(C) Delivery of narcotics seized by Customs for destruction.
(D) Government control of the delivery of narcotic substances to factories for processing.

Question No. 140 / Question ID 119

As per the Notification specifying Small Quantity and Commercial Quantity of drugs, small quantity
of cocaine under Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 Act, 1985 is?
(A) .5 gm
(B) 2 gm (Correct Alternative)
(C) 8 gm
(D) 5 gm
 Patents Act, 1970 (39 of 1970),

Question No. 60 / Question ID 131

Fill in the blank with the correct option:
The term of a patent granted under the Patents Act, 1970 is generally ……….. from the date of filing of
the application for the patent?
(A) 20 years (Correct Alternative)
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 12 years

Question No. 83 / Question ID 132

Under the Patents Act, 1970, a patent application can be filed by?
(A) The inventor
(B) Any person being the assignee of the inventor
(C) The legal representative of the deceased inventor
(D) All of the above (Correct Alternative)
 Preven on of Corrup on Act, 1988 (49 of 1998);

Question No. 31 / Question ID 136

Under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, an o ence under section 13(2) of the Act related to
criminal
misconduct by a public servant is punishable with?
(A) Imprisonment for a term not less than six months but may extend to two years and shall also be
liable to fine.
(B) Imprisonment for a term not less than one year but may extend to seven years and shall also be
liable to fine.
(C) Imprisonment for a term not less than four years but may extend to ten years and shall also
be liable to fine. (Correct Alternative)
(D) Imprisonment for a term not less than two years but may extend to nine years and shall also be
liable to fine.

Question No. 62 / Question ID 135

Which provision of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 mandates that previous sanction is
necessary for prosecution of a public servant accused of committing o ence punishable under
Sections 7, 11, 13 and 15 of the said Act [save as otherwise provided in the Lokpal and Lokayuktas
Act, 2013 (1 of 2014)]?
(A) Section 17
(B) Section 20
(C) Section 18
(D) Section 19 (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 73 / Question ID 134

Under the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, what is the punishment for any
person who gives or promises to give an undue advantage to another person or persons, with
intention to induce a public servant to perform improperly a public duty?
(A) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years or with fine or with both.
(Correct Alternative)
(B) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to nine years or with fine or with both.
(C) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years or with fine or with both.
(D) Imprisonment for a term of three years or with fine or with both.
Question No. 147 / Question ID 133
Which section of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 deals with o ence relating to bribing of a
public servant by any person?
(A) Section 8 (Correct Alternative)
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 4
(D) Section 12
 Trade and Merchandise Marks Act 1958 (43 of 1958),

Question No. 4 / Question ID 104

What is the time limit for filing an opposition to the registration of trade mark under the Trade Marks
Act, 1999?
(A) Six months maximum
(B) One month maximum
(C) Two months maximum
(D) Four months maximum (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 24 / Question ID 103

What is the validity period of a registered trademark as per the Trade Marks Act, 1999?
(A) 20 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 10 years (Correct Alternative)

Question No. 87 / Question ID 105

In which section of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, is application of the registration of a trade mark
discussed?
(A) Section 18 (Correct Alternative)
(B) Section 23
(C) Section 25
(D) Section 30

Question No. 102 / Question ID 101

What constitutes infringement of a registered trademark under the Trade Marks Act,1999?
(A) Use of identical or deceptively similar mark (Correct Alternative)
(B) Use of a di erent font
(C) Changes in colour
(D) None of the above
Question No. 121 / Question ID 102
Which section under Trade Marks Act, 1999, pertains to the assignment of trademarks?
(A) Section 44
(B) Section 37 (Correct Alternative)
(C) Section 47
(D) Section 41

Question No. 130 / Question ID 100

As per the Trade Marks Act, 1999, what specific requirement is needed for a trade mark to be
registered?
(A) Must have distinctiveness. (Correct Alternative)
(B) Must resemble other registered trademarks.
(C) Must have been used for five years.
(D) Must be tested.