AERODROME DESIGN – GEOMETRIC SPECIFICATIONS (PART 1)

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In order to provide assistance to airport designers and a rea-
sonable amount of uniformity in the design of airport facilities for the FAA and the ICAO
aircraft operations, design guidelines have been prepared by
The FAA presents guidelines for airfield design in a series of Advisory Circulars
There are more than ________ pertaining to different aspects of
200 Advisory Circulars
airport planning and design
is the primary source of most airfield design standards Advisory Circular 150/5300-13 "Airport Design"
For design purposes, airports are classified based on the aircraft they accommodate.
airports are designed based on a series of ______ or ______
"critical"or "design"
aircraft
The FAA defines the term ______ as the aircraft most demanding
on airport design that operates at least 500 annual itinerant op- critical aircraft
erations at a given airport.
it is often the ______ aircraft that is critical to the orientation of
runways, while the _______ aircraft determines most of the other smallest, largest
dimensional specifications of an airfield.
Certain dimensional and performance characteristics of the criti-
airport reference code
cal aircraft determine the airport's ________
is a coding system used to relate the airport design criteria to the
operational and physical characteristics of the aircraft intended to The airport reference code
operate at the airport.
is determined by the aircraft approach speed, which is defined as
1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration of aircraft at aircraft approach category
maximum certified landing weight.
<91 kn Aircraft Approach Category A
91-120 kn Aircraft Approach Category B
121-140 kn Aircraft Approach Category C
141-166 kn Aircraft Approach Category D
>166 kn Aircraft Approach Category E
is a grouping of aircraft based upon wingspan or tail height airplane design group (ADG)
An airplane design group for a particular aircraft is assigned based
on the _______ of that associated with the aircraft's wingspan or greater (higher Roman numeral)
tail height
is a two designator code referring to the aircraft approach category
and the airplane design group for which the airport has been airport reference code
designed.
The ICAO uses a two-element code, _________, to classify the
the aerodrome reference code
geometric design standards at an airport
The aerodrome code numbers __ through __ classify the length
of the runway available, the reference field length, which includes 1 through 4
the runway length and, if present, the stopway and clearway.
The aerodrome code letters A through E classify the ______ and
_________________ for the aircraft for which the airport has been wingspan and outer main gear wheel span
designed.
The ___________ is the approximate required runway takeoff
length converted to an equivalent length at mean sea level, 15°C, reference field length
and zero percent gradient.
A __________ is defined as one which has been designed, con-
structed, and maintained to accommodate approach category A utility airport
and B aircraft.
The specifications for utility airports are grouped for small air-
craft, those of maximum certified takeoff weights of ___________,
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and large aircraft, those with maximum certified takeoff weight in
12,500 lb or less, excess of 12,500 lb
_______
Utility airports for small aircraft are called ______,______, and
basic utility stage I, basic utility stage II, and general utility stage I
______.
Utility airports for large aircraft are called __________. general utility stage II
The visual and nonprecision instrument operation utility airports
basic utility stage I, basic utility stage II, and general utility stage I
are the
The precision instrument operation utility airport is the general utility stage II
A __________ airport has the capability of accommodating about
75 percent of the single engine and small twin engine aircraft used basic utility stage I
for personal and business purposes
This generally means aircraft weighing on the order of 3000 lb or
basic utility stage I
less is given the airport reference code B-I
A __________ airport has the capability of accommodating all
of the airplanes of a basic utility stage I airport plus some small basic utility stage II
business and air taxi-type airplanes.
This generally means aircraft weighing on the order of 8000 lb or
basic utility stage II
less is also given the airport reference code B-I
A __________ airport accommodates all small aircraft. It is as-
general utility stage I
signed the airport reference code of B-II
A __________ airport serves large airplanes in aircraft approach
categories A and B and usually has the capability for precision
general utility stage II
instrument operations. It is assigned the airport reference code of
B-III.
A _________ is defined as an airport which is designed, con-
structed, and maintained to accommodate aircraft in approach transport airport
categories C, D, and E.
is a rectangular area on the airport surface prepared for the takeoff
runway
and landing of aircraft.
"local weather conditions
factors which affect the location, orientation, and number of run- the type and amount of air traffic to be serviced at the airport
ways at an airport aircraft performance requirements
aircraft noise."
refers to the number and relative orientations of one or more
"runway configuration"
runways on an airfield.
"(1) single runways,
(2) parallel runways,
combinations of several basic runway configuration
(3) intersecting runways
(4) open-V runways."
This is the simplest of the runway configurations Single Runway
It has been estimated that the hourly capacity of a single runway in
Visual Flight Rules (VFR) conditions is somewhere between ____ 50 and 100
and _____ operations per hour
in _________ conditions this capacity is reduced to 50 to 70
operations per hour, depending on the composition of the aircraft Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
mix and navigational aids available.
The capacities of parallel runway systems depend on the
number of runways, on the spacing between the runways
___________ and ___________.
the spacing is classified as _____, ________, and _______,
depending on the centerline separation between two parallel run- close, intermediate, and far
ways.
are spaced from a minimum of 700 ft (for air carrier airports) to
Close parallel runways
less than 2500 ft.

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are spaced between 2500 ft to less than 4300 ft. Intermediate parallel runways
Far parallel runways are spaced at least _______ 4300 ft apart
Hourly capacity of a pair of parallel runways in VFR conditions 60 to 200 operations per hour
IFR conditions the hourly capacity of a pair of closely spaced
50 to 60 operations per hour
parallel runways
pair of intermediate parallel runways hourly capacity 60 to 75 operations per hour
pair of far parallel runways hourly capacity 100 to 125 operations per hour
consists of two closely spaced parallel runways with appropriate
dual-lane parallel runway
exit taxiways.
runway farthest from the terminal building (outer) for? Arrival
runway closest to the terminal building (inner) for? Departure
It is estimated that a dual-lane runway can handle at least ____
percent more traffic than a single runway in VFR conditions and
70; 60
about ____percent more traffic than a single runway in IFR con-
ditions.
recommended that the two runways be spaced not less than ____
ft apart (____ ft, where particularly larger wingspan aircraft are 1000; 1200
involved).
The major benefit of a dual-lane runway is to provide an increase
IFR capacity
in _____ with minimal acquisition of land
a runway with two or more runways in different directions crossing
Intersecting runways
each other is referred to as?
Intersecting runways are necessary when ______ occur from
more than one direction, resulting in excessive _____ when only relatively strong winds ; crosswinds
one runway is provided.
Runways in different directions which do not intersect are referred
open-V runways.
to as?
In VFR the hourly capacity for this strategy ranges from _____
60 to 180
operations per hour
IFR the corresponding capacity is from _____ operations per hour. 50 to 80
When operations are toward the V it is referred to as a converging
pattern and the capacity is reduced to ______ operations per hour 50 to 100
in VFR
When operations are toward the V it is referred to as a converging
pattern and the capacity is reduced to ______ operations per hour 50 and 60
in IFR
what it is defined by the direction, relative to magnetic north, of the
Orientation of a Runway/ Runway Orientation
operations performed by aircraft on the runway?
runways are typically oriented based on the area's _____ condi-
wind
tions.
FAA recommends that runways should be oriented so that aircraft
may be landed at least ___ percent of the time with allowable
crosswind components not exceeding specified limits based upon 95
the airport reference code associated with the critical aircraft that
has the shortest wingspan or slowest approach speed.
"When the wind coverage is less than 95 percent a ____ is
recommended. crosswind runway
"
FAA Airport Reference Codes A-I and B-I Allowable Crosswind 10.5 kn (12 mi/h)
FAA Airport Reference Codes A-II and B-II Allowable Crosswind 13 kn (15 mi/h)
FAA Airport Reference Codes A-III, B-III, C-1, C-II, C-III, and C-IV,
16 kn((18.5 mi/h)
Allowable Crosswind
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FAA Airport Reference Codes A-IV through D-VI.Allowable
20 knots (23 mph)
Crosswind
ICAO for runway lengths of 1500 m more 20 kn (23 mph)
ICAO for runway lengths between 1200 and 1500 m 13 kn (15 mi/h)
ICAO for runway lengths less than 1200 m 10 kn (11.5 mi/h)
direction of runways conditions: The entire wind coverage regard-
visibility; cloud ceiling
less of _____ or _____
direction of runways conditions: Wind conditions when the ceiling
1000 ft; 3 mi
is at least _____ and the visibility is at least _____
"direction of runways conditions: Wind conditions when ceiling is
between ______ and/or the visibility is between ______. 200 and 1000 ft½ and 3 mi
"
range of good visibility conditions not requiring the use of instru-
Visual Meteorological Condition (VMC).
ments for landing
various degrees of poor visibility requiring the use of instruments
Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC).
for landing
The appropriate orientation of the runway or runways at an airport
wind rose
can be determined through graphical vector analysis
A standard wind rose consists of a series of ______ cut by radial
concentric circles
lines using polar coordinate graph paper.
The template is placed over the wind rose in such a manner that
the _____ on the template passes through the center of the wind centerline
rose.
By overlaying the template on the wind rose and rotating the
centerline of the template through the origin of the wind rose one
may determine the ____ a runway in the direction of the centerline percentage of time; 15 mi/h
of the template can be used such that the crosswind component
does not exceed ____
It can be determined from this wind rose by the use of the tem-
Optimum runway directions
plate, typically made on a transparent strip of material.
the template is rotated until the sum of the percentages included
maximum
between the outer lines is a _____.
____ and ____ the length of a runway is critical to whether or not a
planning; designing
particular aircraft can safely use the runway for takeoff or landing

Advisory Circular 150/5325-4b Runway Length Requirements for Airport Design

In this publication, procedures are defined for estimating the de-
sign runway length of aircraft, based on their maximum takeoff
Advisory Circular 150/5325-4b
weights (MTOW), certain aircraft performance specifications, and
the airport's field elevation and temperature.
"Designation of a critical aircraft
The maximum takeoff weight of the critical aircraft at the airport
The airport elevation
The FAA's procedure for estimating runway length is based on the
The mean daily maximum temperature for the hottest month at the
following data:
airport
The maximum different in elevation along the runway centerline.
"
For small aircraft, design runway length is based on the aircraft's
Reference approach speed, Vref
_______.
Aircraft with Vref < 30 kn are considered _______ aircraft. Short Takeoff and Landing (STOL)
"Vref < 30 kn (STOL) = 300 ft (92 m)
30 dVref < 50 kn = 800 ft (244 m)
Runway length for small aircrafts
Vref e 50 kn based on no. of passenger seat
"
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For the design aircraft, a _______ of either 60 or 90 percent is
Useful Load
selected.
The _______ at an airport consists of the structural pavement,
the shoulders, the blast pad, the runway safety area, various Runway system
obstruction-free surfaces, and the runway protection zone.
The _______ supports the aircraft with respect to structural load,
maneuverability, control, stability, and other operational and di- Runway structural pavement
mensional criteria.
The _______ adjacent to the edges of the structural pavement
resists jet blast erosion and accommodates maintenance and Shoulder
emergency equipment.
Is an area designed to prevent erosion of the surfaces adjacent to
Blast pad
the ends of runways due to jet blast or propeller wash.
Is an area surrounding the runway prepared or suitable for reduc-
ing the risk of damage to aircraft in the event of an undershoot,
Runway safety area
overshoot, or excursion from the runway. Includes the structural
pavement, shoulders, blast pad, and stopway, if provided.
defined by the FAA as a two-dimensional ground area surrounding
the runway which must be clear of parked aircraft and objects runway object free area (OFA)
other than those whose location is fixed by function
a defined volume of airspace above the runway which supports
runway obstacle-free zone (OFZ)
the transition between ground and airborne operations
the airspace above a surface whose elevation is the same as that
of the neatest point on the runway centerline and extending 200 runway obstacle-free zone (OFZ)
ft beyond each end of the runway
width of inner approach obstacle-free zone same as OFZ: extending 200 ft beyond each end of the runway.
zone that applies only to runways with approach lighting systems inner approach obstacle-free zone
"upward at the rate of 50 horizontal to 1 vertical
slope of inner approach obstacle-free zone
50:1"
an area on the ground used to enhance the protection of people
runway protection zone (rpz)
and objects near the runway approach
zone that applies only to preciision instrument runway, defined as
the volume of airspace along the sides of the runway and the inner inner transitional obstacle-free zone
approach obstacle-free zone
surface slopes of inner transitional obstacle-free zone from the
edge of runway obstacle-free zone and the inner approach obsta-
3:1
cle-free zone until it reaches 150 ft above the established airport
elevation
"runway profile permit any two points
FAA requirement for sight distance on individual runways
5 ft above the runway centerline"
it is recommended that a __ transverse slope be provided for the
5%, 10 ft
first ___ of shoulder adjacent to a pavement edge
the specification for transverse slope is to ensure ____ proper drainage
required by the FAA at the end of runways protection zones
area on the ground beneath the approach surface to a runway
from the end of the primary surface to the point where approach protection zones
surface is 50ft above the primary surface
TERPS terminal instrument approach procedures
where is TERPS defined FAA 8260.3b
"-performance characteristics of a/c
primary basis of TERPS -instrument navigational aids present or around an airport
-currently existing object surrounding the airport"

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TERPS defines ___ required obstacle clearance (roc) value
compilation of criteria used to design published standard proce-
dures for a/c using instrument based navigation to depart and TERPS: terminal instrument approach procedures
approach to airport facilities
ROC value required obstacle clearance (roc) value
ROC value within the airport environment as low as 250 ft above the highest object near the runway
ROC values for a published procedure define ___ TERPS obstacle clearance surface (OCS)
typical slope for obstacle clearance surfaces from aircraft on ap-
318 ft/nmi
proach
typical slope for obstacle clearance surfaces for departures 200 ft/nmi
"series of segments:
-climb
-en route
TERPS prcedure consists of -initial approach
-intemediate approach
-final approach
-missed approach segments"
these are defined paths on the airfield surface which are estab-
lished for the taxiing of aircraft and are intended to provide a Taxiways
linkage between one part of the airfield and another
it refers to two taxiways parallel to each other on which airplanes
dual parallel taxiways
can taxi in opposite directions
a taxiway located usually on the periphery of an apron intended
apron taxiway
to provide a through taxi route across the apron
a portion of the aircraft parking area used for access between the
taxilane
taxiways and the aircraft parking positions
ICAO defines an __________ as a portion of the apron intended
aircraft stand taxilane
to provide access to the aircraft stands only
In order to provide a margin of safety in the airport operating
areas, the trafficways must be ______ sufficiently from each other separated
and from adjacent obstructions
speeds of aircraft on taxiways are considerably ____ than on
less
runways
ower speeds permit the width of the taxiway to be ____ than that
less
of the runway
The separation criteria adopted by the FAA are predicated upon
the _____ of the aircraft for which the taxiway and taxilane system
wingtips; wingtip
have been designed and provide a minimum _______ clearance
on these facilities
The required separation between taxiways, between a taxiway
and a taxilane, or between a taxiway and a fixed or movable object
0.2 times the wingspan; 10 ft
requires a minimum wingtip clearance of _______ of the most
demanding aircraft in the airplane design group plus ___.
The clearance between a taxiway centerline and a fixed or mov-
able object is __ times the wingspan of the most demanding 0.7
aircraft plus 10 ft
It is recommended that a separation of at least ________ of the
most demanding aircraft be provided to accommodate a ___ turn
2.6 times the wheelbase; 180°
when the pavement width is designed for tracking the nose wheel
on the centerline.

The required separation between taxiways or between a taxiway

and a taxilane requires a minimum wingtip clearance, C1, of ___ 3 m; 4.5 m; 7.5 m
for aerodrome code letter A and B runways, ___ for aerodrome

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code letter C runways, and ___ for aerodrome code letter D and
E runways
As in the case of runways, the number of changes in longitudinal
profile for taxiways is limited by sight distance and minimum vertical curves
distance between ________.
the sight distance along a runway from an intersecting taxiway
needs to be _____ to allow a taxiing aircraft to enter or cross the sufficient
runway safely
The FAA specifies that from any point on the taxiway centerline the
difference in elevation between that point and the corresponding
1.5 percent
point on a parallel runway, taxiway, or apron edge is ____of the
shortest distance between the points
The FAA specifies that the minimum distance for both utility and
transport category airports should be not less than the product of
100 ft
____ multiplied by the sum of the absolute percentage values of
change in slope
its function is to minimize runway occupancy by landing aircraft exit taxiways, or runway turnoffs
When the angle is on the order of 30°, the term _____ is often
used to denote that it is designed for higher speeds than other high-speed exit
exit taxiway configurations
mix of aircraft, the approach and touchdown speeds, the point of
The location of exit taxiways depends on touchdown, the exit speed, the rate of deceleration, condition of
the pavement surface, and the number of exits.
The FAA has allowed for the design of taxiways that traverse
beyond runway thresholds. These taxiways, known as______,
end-around taxiways
are designed to both reduce the risk of runway incursions and
increase the overall efficiency operations on the airfield
End-around taxiways must remain outside of the runway safety
ILS critical areas
area, and outside of any ____
the tail height of the critical design aircraft at the airport must not
Part 77 or TERPS surfaces
exceed any critical _______, when on the end-around taxiway
the location of the end-around taxiway should provide for any
aircraft departing on the runway to clear any object on the taxiway 35 ft vertically and 200 ft horizontally
by at least _______________ from the runway centerline.
runways and taxiways must be located and oriented so that a
clear line of sight is maintained to all traffic patterns, the final
air traffic control tower
approaches to all runways, all runway structural pavements, all
apron taxiways, and other operational surfaces controlled by the
Operational surfaces not having a clear unobstructed line of sight
uncontrolled or nonmovement areas
from the tower are designated as
A typical air traffic control tower site requires between 1 and 4 acres of land.

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