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FULL TEST 13 (NEET)

Challengers Batch
PHYSICS
1. A charged particle is at rest in a region of 6. At what height from the surface of earth, value
uniform magnetic field. The path of the particle 1
will be of acceleration due to gravity becomes th of its
9
(1) Straight line value at surface of earth? (R is radius of earth)
(2) Circle (1) 3R (2) 2R
(3) Helix R
(4) It will not experience any force (3) R (4)
2. The component of electromagnetic spectrum 3
which has largest wavelength (among the given 7. The bob of a pendulum at rest is given a
options), is horizontal velocity of 7gl , where l is length
(1) Radio waves (2) Ultraviolet waves of string of pendulum. The tension when bob
(3) Visible spectrum (4) X-rays will reach the highest point of its circular motion
3. Consider a water droplet having radius10−2 m. is (m is mass of bob)
It is broken into identical 1000 droplets. If (1) 2 mg (2) mg
surface tension of the water is 0.075 N/m, then (3) 4 mg (4) 7 mg
change in surface energy is 8. A series LCR circuit is connected across a
(1) 27π ×10−5 J (2) 30π ×10−5 J  π
source of emf E= 20sin  50π t −  V. If a
(3) 27π ×10−3 J (4) 30π ×10−3 J  3
4. If the voltage between terminal A and B is 15 V current I = 10sin(50 π t ) ampere flows in the
and Zener breakdown voltage is 10 V, then circuit, then the power dissipated through circuit
potential drop across R is is (t is in s)
(1) 50 2 W (2) 50 W
(3) 50 3 W (4) 100 W
9. For light diverging from a point source
(1) The wavefront is parabolic
(2) The wavefront is hyperbolic
(3) The wavefront is spherical
(4) The intensity increases in proportion to
(1) 5 V (2) 6 V the distance squared
(3) 7 V (4) 10 V  ∆V 
10. The fractional compression   of water at
5. In photoelectric effect experiment, the graph  V 
between stopping potential V0 and frequency ν the depth of 2.5 km below the sea level is
for three different metals X, Y and Z given ____%. Given, the Bulk modulus of water
below, the metal of minimum work function is = 2 ×109 Nm−2 , density of water = 103 kg m−3 ,
−2
acceleration due to gravity g = 10 ms .
(1) 1.0
(2) 1.25
(3) 1.75
(4) 1.5
11. Stopping potential depends on
(1) X (1) Frequency of incident light
(2) Y (2) Intensity of incident light
(3) Z (3) Number of emitted electrons
(4) All have same work function (4) Number of incident photons
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12. A frame is made by joining two uniform rods 17. A conducting rod of mass m and length L is
each of mass m and length l as shown in figure. placed in an uniform magnetic field, is pulled
Coordinates of centre of mass is (from rest) by a constant force F as shown in the
figure. The terminal speed attained by the rod is

l l l l
(1)  ,  (2)  , 
2 2 3 3
FR 2 FR
l l l l (1) (2) 2 2
(3)  ,  (4)  ,  2
mB L BL
 2 3 4 4
F F
13. The following figure represents two biconvex (3) (4) 2
lenses L1 & L 2 having focal length 10 cm and
BL B LR
18. A difference of 2.3 eV separate two energy
25 cm respectively. The distance between levels in an atom. What is the frequency of
L1 & L 2 is radiation emitted when the electron makes a
transition from the upper level to the lower
level?
(1) 2.6 ×1014 Hz (2) 2.3 ×1014 Hz
(3) 4.2 ×1014 Hz (4) 5.6 ×1014 Hz
19. The graph of force (F) versus displacement (x)
for a body of mass 2 kg is shown in figure. If the
(1) 25 cm (2) 35 cm
body has a velocity of 20 m/s at x = 0, then the
(3) 10 cm (4) 15 cm
kinetic energy of body at x = 10m is
14. If 90 Th 234 undergoes successively five α and
two β − - decays, then the residual nucleus is
(1) 82 X 214 (2) 83 X 220
(3) 82 X 218 (4) 83 X 214
15. Sound waves of wavelength λ travelling in a
medium with speed V m/s enter into another
(1) 436 J (2) 460 J
V (3) 484 J (4) 282 J
medium where its speed is m/s . The
3 20. A black body at 227°C radiates heat at the rate
wavelength of the sound in the second medium of 7 cal cm −2s −1 . At a temperature of 727°C,
will be the power radiated in the same units will be
λ λ 3λ (1) 60 (2) 50
(1) (2) (3) 3λ (4)
2 3 2 (3) 112 (4) 80
16. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes an 21. Holes density and electron density are nh & ne
isothermal change at temperature ‘T’ so that its respectively, then in extrinsic semiconductor
volume v is doubled. R is the molar gas constant. (1) nh >> ne for N-type
Work done by the gas during this change is
(2) nh << ne for P-type
(1) RT log e 4 (2) RT log e 2
(3) nh = ne in N-type
(3) RT log e 1 (4) RT log e 3
(4) ne >> nh in N-type
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22. Displacement current through a capacitor 28. In the given figure, a body of mass M is held
connected across a dc source, at steady state is between two massless springs, on a smooth
(symbols have their usual meanings) inclined plane. The free ends of the springs are
µ dφ ε dφ attached to firm supports. If each spring has
(1) 0 E (2) 0 E spring constant k, the frequency of oscillation of
dt dt
µ 0 dφB given body is
(3) (4) Zero
dt
23. For a diamagnetic substance (symbols have their
usual meanings)
(1) χ m > 0, µr > 1
(2) −1 ≤ χ m < 0, µr > 1
(3) −1 ≤ χ m < 0,0 ≤ µr < 1 1 k 1 2k
(1) (2)
(4) χ m > 0, µ r < 1 2π 2M 2π Mg sin a
24. In an adiabatic expansion of a gas of one mole 1 2k 1 k
initial and final temperatures are T1 & T2 (3) (4)
2π M 2π Mg sin a
respectively, then the change in internal energy 29. Which of the following is always equal to 1 in
of the gas is Boolean algebra?
R R (1) A (1 + B) (2) A + (1 + B)
(1) (T2 − T1 ) (2) (T − T )
γ −1 γ −1 1 2 (3) AA (4) A + 1
(3) R (T1 − T2 ) (4) Zero 30. A body of mass m rests on a horizontal floor.
25. A magnetic rod has a magnetic moment M and The coefficient of static friction between floor
length L. If it is bent into a semicircular arc, then and body is µ . The minimum possible force that
its new magnetic moment will be has to be applied to make the body move is
π 2
(1) µ mg (2) ( µ 2 + 1) mg
(1) M (2) M
2 π
(3) M (4) π M
µ mg mg
(3) (4)
26. Which one is incorrect for diffraction pattern µ +12
µ 2 +1
( ∆x is path difference between two edges of slit) 31. An air bubble in glass having refractive index
( λ -wavelength of light) 1.5 is situated at a distance 3 cm from a plane
(1) Intensity of all maxima are equal in surface as shown in figure. At what distance
diffraction from the surface will the bubble appear?
(2) Width of central maxima (fringe) is
nearly double as that of secondary
maxima
(3) For ∆x = λ , minima is found
3λ
(4) For ∆x = , first maxima is found
2
(1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm
27. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards
(3) 2.5 cm (4) 4 cm
with an initial speed of 1 m/s. The cross
−4 2
32. A rigid body has translational as well as
sectional area of tap is 10 m . Assume that the rotational motion. If a force couple is applied on
pressure is constant throughout and that the flow the object, then which of the following quantity
is steady, the cross-sectional area of stream 0.15 remains unchanged due to the force couple?
m below the tap is (1) Rotational kinetic energy
(1) 5 ×10−4 m2 (2) 1×10−4 m2 (2) Translational kinetic energy
(3) 5 ×10−5 m2 (4) 2 ×10−5 m2 (3) Total kinetic energy
(4) Angular momentum about centre of mass
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33. The displacement from mean position of a 37. A steel wire having a radius of 2.0 mm, carrying
particle executing SHM is given by a load of 4 kg, is hanging from a ceiling. Given
 π that g = 3.1π m / s 2 . What will be the tensile
y = 5sin  4t +  cm. If T is time period and
 3 stress that would be developed in the wire?
mass of the particle is 2 g, then kinetic energy (1) 4.8 ×106 N/m2 (2) 3.1×106 N/m2
T (3) 6.2 ×106 N/m2 (4) 5.2 ×106 N/m2
of particle at t = s is
4  R dφE 
38. Dimensions of the quantity   is same
(1) 4 ×10−3 J (2) 5 ×10−5 J
 µ0c dt 
2

(3) 3 ×10−3 J (4) 3 ×10−5 J as [here R is resistance, µ0 → permeability of

34. A planet of mass m revolves around the sun of
free space, c is velocity of light in vacuum and
mass M in a circular orbit of radius r with
angular speed ω . Another planet of mass 2m dφE
is rate of change of electric flux]
revolves around the sun in circular orbit of dt
ω (1) Current (2) Voltage
radius 4r with angular velocity ω ' . Then is (3) Power (4) Magnetic field
ω' 39. If trolley accelerates horizontally with
1 acceleration a, then bob is displaced backward
(1) 4 (2)
4 from its initial vertical position by an angle 30°
1 in equilibrium w.r.t. trolley as shown in figure.
(3) 8 (4)
8 The value of ‘a’ in terms of g is
35. In the given position-time graph, acceleration of
Particle

(1) g (2) 3 g
(1) Is positive throughout
(2) Is negative throughout g g
(3) (4)
(3) Is positive for first half of journey and 3 2
negative for other half 40. In figure C1 = 10 µ F , C 2 = 20 µ F , C3 = 15µ F .
(4) Is negative for first half of journey and The potential difference across C 3 is
positive for other half
36. In the given diagram shown for a projectile,
what is the angle of projection?

(1) 25 V (2) 80V

(3) 35 V (4) 40 V
8 41. The ionization potential of H atoms is 13.6 V.
(1) tan −1 (1) (2) tan −1  
3 The energy difference between n = 2 and n = 3
levels is nearest to
4 5
(3) tan −1   (4) tan −1   (1) 1.9 eV (2) 2.3 eV
3  3 (3) 3.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV
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42. A circular metallic disc of radius R has a small 44. A wire of uniform cross-section A, length l and
circular cavity of radius r as shown in figure. resistance R is bent into a complete circle; the
On heating the system resistance between any two diametrically
opposite points will be
R R
(1) (2)
2 4
R
(3) (4) 4R
8
(1) R increases and r decreases 45. What is the angular momentum of an electron in
(2) R decreases and r increases Bohr’s hydrogen atom where energy is –3.4 eV?
(3) Both R and r increases h 2h
(1) (2)
(4) Both R and r decreases π π
43. When a p-n junction is reversed biased h 1
(1) the width of depletion layer increases (3) (4)
2π 4
(2) it offers a high resistance
(3) a small current flows through it because
of minority charge carriers
(4) All of these

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CHEMISTRY
46. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in 54. In which of the following options the order of
the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio arrangement does not agree with the variation of
of the two gases in the mixture? property indicated against it?
(1) 16: 1 (2) 2: 1 (1) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain
(3) 1: 4 (4) 4: 1 enthalpy)
47. In H-atom spectrum electron jumps from 5th (2) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic
excited state to ground state then total number of radius)
spectral lines (3) Al 3+ < Mg 2+ < Na + < F − (increasing
(1) 10 (2) 4 ionic size)
(3) 12 (4) 15 (4) B < C < N < O (increasing first
48. The angular momentum of electron in ‘d’ orbital ionization enthalpy)
is equal to: 55. Aqueous solution of which of the following
(1) 2 3  (2)  compounds is the best conductor of electric
(3) 6  (4) 2  current?
(1) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
49. Which of the following is correct with respect to
(2) Ammonia, NH 3
–I effect of the substituents? [R = alkyl]
(1) − NH 2 > −OR > − F (2) − NO2 < −OR < − F (3) Fructose, C6 H12O6
(3) − NH 2 < −OR < − F (4) − NR2 > −OR > − F (4) Acetic acid, C2 H 4O2
50. The species, having bond angles of 120° is: 56. The rate of first-order reaction is 0.04 mol L−1s −1
(1) PH 3 (2) ClF3 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol L−1s −1 at 20 seconds
(3) NCl3 (4) BCl3 after initiation of the reaction. The half-life
51. + 2+
The species Ar, K and Ca contain the same period of the reaction is:
number of electrons. In which order do their (1) 44.1 s (2) 54.1 s
radii increase? (3) 24.1 s (4) 34.1 s
(1) Ca 2+ < K + < Ar 57. In acidic medium, H2O2 changes Cr2O72− to CrO5
(2) K + < Ar < Ca 2+ which has two (—O—O—) bonds. Oxidation
(3) Ar < K + < Ca 2+ state of Cr in CrO5 is
(4) Ca 2+ < Ar < K + (1) +5 (2) +3
52. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is (3) +6 (4) –10
2.42 ×10−3 gL−1 at 298K. The value of solubility 58. The reaction of H 2O2 with hydrogen sulphide is
product ( K sp ) will be [Given molar mass of an example of ………… reaction:
(1) addition (2) oxidation
BaSO4 = 233g mol −1 ] (3) reduction (4) redox acidic
(1) 1.08 ×10−10 mol 2 L−2 59. The enthalpy of vaporization of H 2O ( l ) is x
(2) 1.08 ×10−12 mol 2 L−2 kJ/mol and enthalpy of formation of water
(3) 1.08 ×10−14 mol 2 L−2 vapour y kJ/mol. Enthalpy of formation of
(4) 1.08 ×10−8 mol 2 L−2 H 2O ( l ) . would be
53. The rate of a reaction may be expressed as
(1) ( y − x ) kJ mol −1 (2) ( x − y ) kJ mol −1
1 d [C ] 1 d [ D] 1 d [ A] d [ B]
+ = − = + =
− . (3) ( x + y ) kJ mol −1 (4) ( 2x − y ) kJ mol −1
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt dt
The reaction is 60. Equal volumes of four acid solutions having pH
(1) 4A + B → 2C + 3D 1, 2, 3 are mixed in a container. The
(2) B + 3D → 4A + 2C concentration of hydrogen ion in the mixture of
(3) 4A + 2C → B + 3D (1) 4.25 ×10−4 M (2) 3.7 ×10−2 M
(4) 2A + 3B → 4C + D (3) 2.30 ×10−3 M (4) 1.35 ×10−2 M
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61. A button cell used in watches functions as 66. Propionic acid with Br2/P yields a dibromo
following: product. Its structure would be:
Zn ( s ) + Ag 2O ( s ) + H 2O ( l ) → 2 Ag ( s ) + Zn 2+ ( aq ) (1) CH 2 Br − CHBr − COOH
+2OH − ( aq ) Br
If half-cell potentials are: |
Zn 2+ ( aq ) + 2e − → Zn ( s ) E  =
−0.76V
(2) H − C − CH 2COOH
Ag 2O ( s ) + H 2O ( l ) + 2e− → 2 Ag ( s ) + 2OH − ( aq )
|
E  = 0.34V
The cell potential will be: Br
(1) 1.10 V (2) 0.42 V (3) CH 2 Br − CH 2 − COBr
(3) 0.84 V (4) 1.34 V Br
62. The correct order of increasing bond length of |
C—H, C—O, C—C and C=C is:
(1) C—C < C=C < C—O < C—H (4) CH 3 − C − COOH
(2) C—O < C—H < C—C < C=C |
(3) C—H < C—O < C—C < C=C Br
(4) C—H < C=C < C—O < C—C
67. Equilibrium constants for some reactions are
63. Which one of the following orders is correct for
given. In which of the following case does the
the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
reaction go farthest to completion?
molecules?
(1) K = 102 (2) K = 10−2
(1) Br2 > I 2 > F2 > Cl2
(3) K = 10 (4) K = 1
(2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I 2 68. Predict the product C obtained in the following
(3) I 2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 reaction of 1-butyne.
HI
(4) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I 2 CH 3CH 2 − C ≡ CH + HCl → B  →C
64. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. It’s atomic CH 3 − CH − CH 2CH 2 I
number is 64. Which of the following is the
(1) |
correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?
(1) [ Xe] 4 f 8 6 s 2 Cl
(2) [ Xe] 4 f 9 5s1 I
|
(3) [ Xe ] 4 f 7 5d 1 6s 2
(2) CH − CH − CH − C − H
(4) [ Xe] 4 f 6 5d 2 6s 2 3 2 2

|
65. Following compounds are given:
Cl
(i) CH 3CH 3OH
I
(ii) CH 3COCH 3 (3) |
CH 3 − CHOH
CH 3 − CH 2 − CH − CH 2Cl
(iii) | I
CH 3 |
(iv) CH 3OH (4) CH 3CH 2 − C − CH 3
Which of the above compound(s), on being |
warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will
Cl
give iodoform?
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) 69. The total number of lone pair of electron in I 3−
(2) Only (ii) (1) 4 (2) 7
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) 9 (4) None of these
(4) (i) and (ii)
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70. A solution has 1: 4 mole ratio of pentane to 76. Which of the following is an ideal solution?
hexane. The vapour pressure of the pure (1) Ethanol + water
hydrocarbons at 20°C are 440 mm of Hg for (2) Ethanol + benzene
pentane and 120 mm of Hg for hexane. The (3) Nitric acid + water
mole fraction of pentane in the vapour phase (4) Benzene + toluene
would be: 77. Which of the following will not show cis-trans
(1) 0.549 (2) 0.200 isomerism?
(3) 0.786 (4) 0.478 (1) CH 3 − CH = CH − CH 3
3+
71. One mole of Al discharged completely by (2) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH = CH − CH 2CH 3
using charge? CH 3 − C= CH − CH 2 − CH 3
(1) 3F (2) 1F
(3) 0.3F (4) 2F (3) |
72. In which of the following molecules/ions CH 3
BF3 , NO2− , NH 2− and H 2O , the central atom is sp 2 CH 3 − CH − CH = CH − CH 2 − CH 3
hybridized? (4) |
(1) NO2− and NH 2− (2) NH 2− and H 2O CH 3
(3) NO2− and H 2O (4) BF3 and NO2− 78. Among the following compounds, one that is
73. Which one of the following is a free-radical most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is
substitution reaction? (1) benzoic acid (2) Nitrobenzene
(3) Toluene (4) benzene
79. At 25°C, the dissociation constant of a base,
BOH is 1.0 ×10−12 . The concentration of
hydroxyl ions in 0.01 M aqueous solution of the
base would be:
(1) 2.0 ×10−6 mol L−1 (2) 1.0 ×10−5 mol L−1
(3) 1.0 ×10−6 mol L−1 (4) 1.0 ×10−7 mol L−1
80. If the enthalpy change for transition of liquid
water to steam is 30 kJ mol −1 at 27°C. The
entropy change for the process would be:
(1) 1.0J mol −1 K −1 (2) 0.1J mol −1 K −1
(1) (a) (2) (b) (3) 100J mol −1 K −1 (4) 10J mol −1 K −1
(3) (c) (4) (d)
81. Which of the following compound undergoes
74. The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by: fastest electrophilic substitution?
∆G ∆G (1) Chlorobenzene (2) Nitrobenzene
(1) (2)
∆S ∆H (3) Anisole (4) Benzoic acid
∆S ∆H 82. Acetone and ethanol can be chemically
(3) (4)
∆G ∆G distinguished by
75. Consider the following reaction: (1) I 2 / NaOH (2) 2, 4 DNP
Ethanol  PBr3 alc . KOH
→ X  →Y (3) Tollen’s reagent (4) Both (1) and (2)
( i ) H 2 SO4 , roomtemperature
 →Z 83. In which of the following reaction C–C bond
( ii ) H 2O , heat
formation does not take place?
The product Z is: (1) Gattermann–Koch reaction
(1) CH 3CH 2O − CH 2 − CH 3 (2) Etard reaction
(2) CH 3 − CH 2 − O − SO3 H (3) Benzoin condensation
(3) CH 3CH 2OH (4) Swarts reaction
(4) CH 2 = CH 2
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84. The value of ∆H and ∆S for the reaction, 89. Statement I: SF6 exists but SH 6 does not.
C( graphite ) ( s ) + CO2 ( g ) → 2CO ( g ) Statement II: d π − pπ bonding cannot take
are 170 kJ and 170 JK–1, respectively. This place in SH 6
reaction will be spontaneous at: Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) 710 K (2) 910 K given below:
(3) 1110 K (4) 510 K (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
85. How many geometrical isomers are possible for is true
coordination complex  M ( aa )2 b2  (2) Both statement I and Statement II are
true
(1) 6 (2) 2
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) 4 (4) 1
false
86. Toluene by Etard's reaction gives
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(1) ortho-cresol (2) benzoic acid
false
(3) enzylalcohol (4) benzaldehyde
90. The incorrect statements among the following is:
87. What is the correct IUPAC name of the
following coordination compound? (1) Glucose on oxidation with Br2 / H 2O
Cr ( py )3 Cl3  gives gluconic acid
(2) The pentaacetate of glucose does not
(1) Trichlorotripyridinium chromium (III) react with hydroxyl amine
(2) Tripyridiniumtrichloro chromium (III) (3) The six membered cyclic structure of
(3) Trichlorotripyridine chromium (III) glucose is called furanose structure.
(4) Trichlorotripyridine chromium (II) (4) The two cyclic hemiacetal forms of
88. The experimental data for the reaction glucose are ano- mers of each other.
2 A + B2 → 2 AB is:

The rate equation for the above data is:

(1) rate = k [ B2 ] (2) rate = k [ B2 ]
2

(3) rate = k [ A] [ B ] (4) k [ A] [ B ]

2 2 2

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BIOLOGY
91. Calvin cycle occurs in – 98. Match the enzymes given in column -I with its
(1) C3 plants only (2) C4 plants only function given in column -II and select the
(3) CAM plants only (4) In all plants correct option.
92. How many molecules of CO2 are released in Column - I Column - II
Krebs cycle with respect to each glucose A β -galactosidase I Joining of DNA
molecule? fragments
(1) Two (2) Three B Permease II Peptide bond formation
(3) Four (4) Six C Ligase III Hydrolysis of
93. Glycolysis is how many steps of process? lactose
(1) Ten (2) Eight D Ribozyme IV Increase
permeability of
(3) Eleven (4) Five
94. Who described the first action spectrum of β -galactosides
photosynthesis ? (1) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(1) Julius Von Sachs (2) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(2) Cornelius Van Niel (3) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(3) T. W. Engelmann (4) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(4) Jan Ingenhousz 99. Reaction Centre is formed by-
95. Match the plant hormones listed in column-I (1) chlorophyll 'a' molecule
with their major role listed in column-II. Select (2) chlorophyll 'b' molecule
the correct option from the codes given below. (3) chlorophyll 'a' and chlorophyll 'b'
Column-I Column-II (4) accessory pigments.
A. Auxin I. Fruit ripening 100. Out of 64 codons only 61 codes for the 20
B. Cytokinins II. Apical dominance different amino acids.. This character of genetic
C. Abscisic acid III. Antagonistic to GA code is called
D. Ethylene IV. Both Stomatal (1) Degeneracy
opening and closing (2) Non ambiguous nature
V. Growth of lateral buds (3) Universality
(1) A – IV; B – V; C – III; D – I (4) Overlapping
(2) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I 101. Match the following and choose the correct
(3) A – II; B – V; C – III; D – I Combination from the given options.
(4) A – III; IV B – V; C – II; D – I Column - I Column – II
96. Match the following. A. Splicing I. Lac operon
a Watson and i X-ray diffraction B. Okazaki fragments II. Lagging strands
Crick of DNA C. Jacob and Monod III. Lactose
b Chargaff's rule ii Nuclein D. Inducer IV. Removal of intron
c Friedrich iii DNA double (1) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
Meischer helix (2) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
d Wilkins and iv A+G = T+C (3) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
Franklin (4) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 102. The Process of copying genetic information
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii from one strand of DNA into __Y__ is termed as
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i __Z__
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii Y Z
97. Which of the following hormone closes stomata (1) Transcription RNA
in response to water stress? (2) RNA Transcription
(1) IAA (2) ABA (3) DNA Translation
(3) NAA (4) GA 3 (4) Replication RNA

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103. Correct sequence in the experiment of 111. The condition in which stamens are united into
Hershey and Chase- more than two bundles is called
(1) Centrifugation, blending, infection (1) Polycarpellary (2) Syncarpous
(2) Infection, blending, centrifugation (3) Polyadelphous (4) Polyandrous
(3) Blending, infection, centrifugation 112. Given figures (A, B and C) show the position of
(4) Infection, centrifugation and blending floral parts on thalamus. (given as I, II and III)
104. How can one store pollen grains of a large Select the correct combination.
number of species for years in a pollen bank? I. Hypogynous flower
(1) By storing them in dry ice at -196 degree II. Perigynous flower
Celsius III. Epigynous flower
(2) By storing them in liquid nitrogen at
-196 degree Celsius
(3) By storing them in liquid nitrogen at
- 273 degree Celsius
(4) By storing them in dry ice at -273 degree
celsius
105. A free – living fungi that are very common in .
the root ecosystems and are effectively used as
(1) A-I, B-II, C--III (2) A-I, B-III, C-II
Biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens is :
(3) A-III, B-II,
II, C-I
C (4) A-III, B-I, C-II
(1) Trichophyton (2) Microsporum
113. Match column I (Kingdom) with column II
(3) Pencillium (4) Trichoderma
(Group
Group of organisms)
organisms and select the correct
106. Find the odd one w.r.t. taxonomic hierarchy of
options
mango
Column-I Column-II
(1) Sapindaceae (2) Sapindales
A. Plantae I. Archaebacteria
(3) Dicotyledonae (4) Angiospermae
B. Fungi II. Euglenoids
107. All single celled eukaryotes are placed under
C. Protista III. Phycomycetes
(1) Protista (2)) Monera
D. Monera IV. Algae
(3) Parazoa (4)) Fungi
(1) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
108. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(2) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(1) Streptokinase is produced by the
(3) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
bacterium Streptococcus
(4) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
(2) Cyclosporin A is used as an
114. Read the following
owing statements and select the
immunosuppressive agent in organ
organ-
correct option :
transplant patients
Statement-I:: The red thalli of most of the
(3) Cyclosporin A is produced by the fungus
red algae are multicellular and some of them
Trichoderma polysporum
have complex body organisation.
(4) Statins are produced by bacteria
Statement-II:: Food stored in red algae is
109. Which one of the following statements is false
complex carbohydrates
rbohydrates which may be in the
regarding venation?
form of laminarin or mannitol.
(1) It is the arrangement of veins and
Choose the correct option :
veinlets in leaf lamina.
(1) Only statement (I) is correct
(2) In Reticulate venation, the veinlets form
(2) Only statement (II) is correct
a network.
(3) Both statements (I) and (II) are correct
(3) Reticulate venation is seen in
(4) Both statements (I) and (II) are incorrect
monocotyledons.
115. Intercalary meristem
(4) In Parallel venation, the veins run
(1)
1) Occur in grasses
parallel to each other within a lamina.
(2)
2) Occur between mature tissue
110. The end products of sexual reproduction is/are
(3) Both 1 & 2
(1) Fruit (2) Seeds
(4) None
(3) Flower (4) 1& 2 both
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116. Assertion: In dicot stem endodermis is referred 121. The reason for greater biodiversity in tropics are
to as starch sheath. (1) Tropical latitudes have remained
Reason: Cells of endodermis in dicot stem are relatively undisturbed for millions of
rich in starch grains. years and thus, had a long evolutionary
(1) Both the assertion and the reason are true time for species diversification
diversi
and the reason is a correct explanation of (2) Tropical environments are less seasonal
the assertion. (3) There is more solar energy available in
(2) Both the assertion and reason are true but the tropics which contribute to higher
the reason is not a correct explanation of productivity
the assertion . (4) All of these
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is 122. The term 'The Evil Quartet' is related with
false. (1) Four
our major causes of biodiversity
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false. conservation
rvation
117. Nuclear pore is involved in movement of (2) Four major causes of population
(1) RNA explosion
(2) Cell wall carbohydrates (3) Fourr major causes of air pollution
(3) Protein (4) Four major causes of biodiversity losses
(4) Both 1 and 3 123. Which of the following represent a GFC
118. Match the columns and choose the correct option (Grazing Food Chain)?
Column I Column II (1) Grass → Goat → Man
a G1 phase i Quiescent stage of the cell (2) Goat → Grass → Man
cycle. (3) Detritus → Fungi → Man
b G2 phase ii DNA increases from 2C to 4C
(4) Fungi → Detritus → Grass
c Synthesis iii Proteins are synthesized in 124. Which of the following is not an example of
phase preparation for mitosis commensalism?
d G0 phase iv Cell contain 2C amount of (1) Sea anemone and clown fish
DNA
(2) Epiphyte / Orchid on mango branch
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (2) a-iv, b--iii, c-ii, d-i (3) Liver fluke and human
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (4) a-ii, b--iv, c-iii, d-i (4) Cattle egret and grazing cattle.
119. An ovum of an animal has 2.5 pg of DNA in its 125. Which one is not a recessive human trait?
nucleus. The amount of DNA at the end of G 2 (1) Myotonic dystrophy
phase will be (2) Cystic fibrosis
(1) 2.5 pg (2) 5 pg (3) Phenylketonuria
(3) 250 pg (4) 10 pg (4) Thalassemia
120. Below is the diagramatic representation of 126. Given below are two statements:
response of organisms against temperature. Find Statement-II : ABO blood group system provide
out the correct match. a good example of multiple alleles.
Statement-IIII : Multiple Allele can be found
f in
an individual of Human population.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both Statement-I
Statement and Statement-II are
incorrect.
(2) Statement-II is correct but statement-II
statement is
incorrect.
(1) A-plants, B-birds (3) Statement-II is incorrect but Statement-II
Statement
(2) A-birds, B-mammals is correct.
(3) C-mammals, B-plants (4) Both Statement-I
Statement and Statement-II are
(4) A-birds, B-plants correct.
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127. Which one of the following cannot be explained 133. Which of the following is represented by the
on the basis of Mendel's law of dominance? given diagram?
(1) The discrete unit controlling a particular
character is called a factor.
(2) Out of one pair of factors' one is
dominant and the other is recessive.
(3) Alleles do not show any blending and
both the characters recover as such in F2
generation.
(4) Factors occur in pairs
128. DFC starts with:
(1) Dead organic matter (2) Decomposers
(3) Grass (4) Plant
129. Find out the incorrect statement regarding sickle
cell anaemia.
(1) This is an autosome linked recessive
trait.
(2) Heterozygous individuals are unaffected
but are carrier of the disease.
(3) The substitution of amino acid in the
globin protein results due to the single (1) A wind-pollinated plant showing
base substitution at the sixth codon of the compact inflorescence and well-exposed
beta globin gene from GUG to GAG. stamens.
(4) The mutant haemoglobin molecule (2) A water-pollinated plant showing
undergoes polymerisation under low compact inflorescence and well-exposed
oxygen tension. stamens.
130. The possible blood groups of children born to (3) A water-pollinated plant showing female
parents having A and AB groups are flower with long stalk.
(1) O, A (4) A wind-pollinated plant showing
(2) A, B, AB compact inflorescence and tassels.
(3) O, A, B 134. Which of the following ascomycetes is the
(4) O, A, B, AB source of antibiotic
131. A polygenic inheritance in human beings is (1) Neurospora
(1) Skin colour (2) Penicillium
(2) Sickle cell anaemia (3) Claviceps
(3) Colour blindness (4) None
(4) Phenylketonuria 135. The term ‘precipitation’ includes
132. Match Column - I with Column - II and select (1) rain
the correct option (2) snow
Column – I Column – II (3) hails
(a) Coleorrhiza (i) Fruit wall (4) all forms of water that fall to the ground
(b) Scutellum (ii) Covering of radical 136. Which of the following animal has a notochord
(c) Pericarp (iii) Persistent nucellus throughout life
(d) Perisperm (iv) Single cotyledon (1) Shark (2) Frog
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (3) Lancelet (4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) 137. Molecular weight of lipids is
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (1) Less than 800 Da (2) 10,000 Da
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (3) >10,000 Da (4) < 18 Da

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138. Which of the following is not a polysaccharide? 149. In cockroach hepatic caecae are present at the
(1) Cellulose (2) Glycogen junction of
(3) Lactose (4) Starch (1) Foregut and midgut
139. Organ level of organisation is present in the (2) Gizzard and midgut
members of which phylum? (3) Midgut and hindgut
(1) Cnidaria (2) Ctenophora (4) Crop and gizzard
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Porifera 150. Cell junctions in epithelial tissue that perform
140. Which of the following factors can denature an cementing function to keep neighbouring cells
enzyme? together are
(1) Low temperature (1) Tight junctions
(2) Optimal pH (2) Adhering junctions
(3) High temperature (3) Gap junctions
(4) Presence of cofactors (4) Communication junctions
141. Which of the given disorder is not related with 151. Infective stage of Plasmodium for humans
growth hormone? resides in which region in the vector?
(1) Acromegaly (2) Dwarfism (1) Midgut
(3) Gigantism (4) Grave’s disease (2) Salivary glands
142. Which of the following structure act as urino (3) Liver (hepatocytes)
genital duct in male frogs? (4) Erythrocytes
(1) Urethra (2) Ureters 152. Which of the following is true about the oxygen
(3) Urinary bladder (4) Vasa efferentia dissociation curve?
143. The sensory organs of a cockroach include: (1) It shifts to the right in the presence of
(1) Compound eyes, antennae, and anal cerci high pCO2.
(2) Simple eyes, antennae, and tympanum (2) It shifts to the left in the presence of high
(3) Compound eyes, antennae, and pCO2.
tympanum (3) It is unaffected by pH changes.
(4) Tympanum , antennae, and anal cerci (4) It becomes steeper at high temperatures.
144. The main function of the human diaphragm 153. Podocytes are associated with the wall of
during respiration is to ___ the volume of the (1) Glomerular capillaries
thoracic cavity, allowing the lungs to expand. (2) Proximal convoluted tubule
(1) Decrease (2) Increase (3) Bowman’s capsule
(3) Maintain (4) Stabilize (4) Distal convoluted tubule
145. Which among the following does not belong to 154. The _____ is responsible for producing insulin, a
Australian marsupials- hormone that regulates blood glucose levels in
(1) Numbat (2) Spotted cuscus the body.
(3) Flying phalanger (4) Bob cat (1) Thyroid (2) Pancreas
146. The first pair of wings in cockroach arises from (3) Adrenal gland (4) Pituitary gland
(1) Prothorax (2) Pronotum 155. In the process of excretion, the nephron’s ___ is
(3) Mesothorax (4) Metathorax responsible for filtering the blood to form the
147. Glucagon is antagonist to- initial filtrate.
(1) Parathyroid hormone (2) Thyroxine (1) Glomerulus
(3) Insulin (4) Adrenaline (2) Loop of Henle
148. Finger like projections of epithelial cells which (3) Proximal convoluted tubule
increases surface area for absorption are (4) Collecting duct
present in 156. Australopithecines probably lived in -
(1) Stomach (1) East African grassland
(2) Small intestine (2) West African grassland
(3) Bronchioles (3) East Australia
(4) Fallopian tubes (4) West Africa

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157. Presence of a coxal bone formed by the fusion of 166. Which of the following is characteristic of the
three smaller bones is a feature of- primary immune response to an infection?
(1) Pectoral girdle (2) Pelvic girdle (1)) It is faster and more robust than the
(4) Vertebral column (4) Tarsals secondary immune response.
158. The “Saheli” pill, developed in India, is a: (2)) It involves the activation of memory
(1) Non-steroidal
steroidal oral contraceptive cells from previous infections.
(2)) Hormonal injectable contraceptive (3) It is slower and less intense compared to
(3)) Barrier method of contraception the secondary response.
(4)) Surgical method of contraception (4)) It does not involve the activation of
159. Whichh of the following hormones is not helper T cells.
produced by the placenta? 167. In casese of snake bite, the patients is given an
(1)) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) antivenom injection. This is a case of
(2) Progesterone (1) Active immunisation
(3) Estrogen (2) Passive immunisation
(4) Follicle-Stimulating
Stimulating Hormone (FSH) (3) Innate immunity
160. During contraction and relaxation of skeleton (4) Natural immunisation
muscles, size of which band remains unchanged? 168. In vitro fertilization (IVF) is a technique used to
(1) I-band (2) A--band treat infertility.
ertility. In this process, fertilization
(3) H-zone (4) Z-line
line occurs:
161. The presence of similar structural features in (1)) Inside the fallopian tube
organisms of different species, which indicate a (2)) Inside the uterus
common ancestry, is known as: (3) In a laboratory
(1) Analogous structures (4) In the ovary
(2) Homologous structures 169. Refer to the given diagram of cockroach’s
(3) Vestigial structures alimentary canal:
(4) Adaptive radiation
162. According to Darwin, the theory of natural
selection is based on which of the following
principles?
(1)) Inheritance of acquired characteristics
(2) Survival of the fittest
(3) Evolution by mutation
(4) Use and disuse of organs
163. Mosquitoes are not involved in the spread of
disease caused by
(1) Entamoeba histolytica
(2) Chikungunya virus
(3) Wuchereria malayi
(4) Dengue virus Which of the following options represent correct
164. Which region of blastocyst contains stem cells name and characteristic of labelled structures?
that have potency to give rise to all the tissues (1) A – Gizzard – Food grinding structure
and organs? (2) C – Hepatic caeca – Secretes digestive
(1) Trophoblast (2) Blastocoel juices
(3) Inner cell mass (4) Zona pellucida (3) D – Ileum – Food absorption
165. If a foreign gene is ligated at Bam HI site of (4) E – Malpighian tubules – 6–8 blind
vector pBR322,
BR322, then the resistance for ____. tubules
(1) Tetracycline is lost 170. Which of the following is used to cut DNA at
(2) Ampicillin is lost specific sites?
(3) Tetracycline is not lost (1) Ligase (2) Polymerase
(4) More than one option (3) Restriction enzyme (4) Helicase
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171. Refer to the given figure. This plant causes 177. Assertion: The excretory system in humans
eliminates nitrogenous waste in the form of urea.
Reason: Urea is less toxic than ammonia, which
allows it to be safely excreted in the urine.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct,
and the reason is the correct explanation
for the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but
the reason is not the correct explanation
for the assertion.
(3) The assertion is correct, but the reason is
(1) Hallucinations (2) Insomnia incorrect.
(3) Depression (4) All of these (4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
172. Which committee takes decision regarding the 178. Assertion: Human reproduction involves a
validity of GM research and the safety of complex hormonal control system.
introducing GM-organisms for public services? Reason: Hormones like FSH, LH, estrogen, and
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research progesterone regulate the menstrual cycle and
(ICMR) support pregnancy.
(2) Genetic Engineering Approval (1) Both assertion and reason are correct,
committee (GEAC) and the reason is the correct explanation
(3) Indian Institute of Science Education and for the assertion.
Research (IISER) (2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but
(4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal the reason is not the correct explanation
Committee (GEAC) for the assertion.
173. Basmati is unique for its aroma and flavour, (3) The assertion is correct, but the reason is
whose __A__ documented verities cultivated in incorrect.
__B__. (4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
(1) A-37, B-India (2) A-27, B-India 179. Statement 1: Insulin used for the treatment of
(3) A-27, B-USA (4) A-30, B-USA diabetes is produced by recombinant DNA
174. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis produce technology.
____ plants which reduces the amount of ____ Statement 2: The first clinical gene therapy was
used. given in 1985 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine
(1) Disease resistant, weedicide deaminase (ADA) deficiency
(2) Insect resistant, fertilizers (1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are
(3) Disease resistant, industrial enzyme true.
(4) Insect resistant, insecticide (2) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are
175. Exonuclease cuts DNA from false.
(1) Specific position within DNA (3) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is
(2) Ends of DNA false.
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is
(4) None of these true.
176. The embryo which develops from somatic cell is 180. In a population, the frequency of the dominant
called allele (A) is 0.7, and the frequency of the
(1) Somatic embryo recessive allele (a) is 0.3. What is the expected
(2) Reproductive embryo frequency of homozygous recessive individuals?
(3) Sterile embryo (1) 0.09 (2) 0.21
(4) None of the above (3) 0.49 (4) 0.16

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