CABLE FAILURE DETECTION AND REPAIR AND MAINTENANCE

1) What is the full form of TDR connection with cable testing ?

a) Time domine reflectometry c) Total drop in resistance
b) Time delay realy d) none.

2) What is SIM method of cable testing ?

a) secondary induction method c) Saturation current Method
b) Secondary Impluse method d) none.

3) Name of the instrument used for burning the cable ?

a) Surg Genarator c) low current burner
b) Burnt down unit d) None.

4) Cafe-eta ised for What purpose ?

a) To Prelocate the cable fault. c) To electcronic testing amperes.
b) To presure test the cable. d) None.

5) Surge generator Used for what purpose?

a) To pin point the cable fault c) to destroy joints
b) To presure test the cable fault. d) None.

6) If the voltage of surge genarator is reduced to half the energy dissipated in this will be ?
a) 1/2 c) Twice
b) 1/4 d) None

7) Surge wave Receiver is used for what purpose ?

a) To measure the insulation resistance of the cable.
b) To pin point the cable fault.
c) To recive signal speech.
d) None.

8) Insulation resistance of the cable is measured in ?

a) Megaohms.
b) Mega Watts
c) Volts
d) Ohms

9) While presure testing the cable if the leakage current is fluctuating what will be the
condition of the cable ?
a) The cable is healthy B) The cable is charged.
c) The cable is faulty D) None.

10) While phasing with bank of lamp, the lamp is glowing. It indicates ?
a) The phase is the same c) The phase is reverse.
b) The phase is different d) None.

11) What is the full form of PI test in relation with cable testing ?
a) Polarisation Index Test. b) Potential current Test.
c) Primery injection Test d) None.
12) The joint kit used for connecting PILC cable with XLPE cable is known as ?
a) separation joint kit c) Strength joint kit
b) Transition joint kit d) None.

13) Straight through joint kit is used for ?

a) To connect cable with circuit breaker. c) for T joints
b) To connect one cable to another cable d) None.

14) End termination joint kit is used for ?

a) To connect the cable end with circuit breaker ,Transmission line or
Transformer. b) To terminate cable.
c) To seal the cable. d) None.

15) Sealing cap is used for ?

a) To prevent the entry of moisture / water inside the cable through the cut
point.
b) To seal the joint c) None.
d) To seal the cable entry point in the circuit breaker .

16) Cast iron joint kits are used in _________________ type of Cables.
a) XLPE cables. b) PILC cable.
b) PVC cable. d) None.

17) Cross section of 110 KV Incoming cable----------

A) 400 sq mm. B) 1000 sq mm.
C) 240 sq mm D) None.

18) Ferrule is used for ?

a) connecting the conductors,While making stright through joints
b) Connecting the cable and conductor with ther circuit braker.
c) connecting cable d) None.

19) Lugs are used for ?

a) Connectinhg the two conductors while making straight joints.
b) Connecting the cable end to circuit breaker.
c) Connecting terminal to terminal. d) None.

20) In 22 KV St joints kits the colour of non-traking tube is ?

a) red c) Yellow
b) Black d) None.

21) A switch gear is device for

a) Interrupting an electrical Circuit.
b) Switching an electrical circuit.
c) Switching and controlling an Electrical circuit.
d) Swishing controlling and protecting the electrical circuit and equipment.

22) Out door type Switching gears generally used for voltage beyond.
a) 11 KV c) 33 KV
b) 66 KV d) 132 KV.
 23) A circuit breaker an Equipment which can open or close a circuit under.
a) No load condition c) full load condition
b) Fault condition d) all above condition.

24) An isolator switch to

a) An automatic device for breaking circuit.
b) A relay operated device for breaking circuit.
c) Opens a circuit under no load.
d) Opens a circuit under load.

25) An isolator usually a

a) Manually operated switch
b) Manually operated oil switch
c) Relay operated oil switch
d) Relay controlled air switch.

26) An isolator is installed

a) As substitute for circuit breaker
b) always independent of the position of circuit breaker
c) Generally on both sides of a circuit breaker
d) To operate the relay of Circuit Breaker.
Q.1 Following type of cable is not used on traction system
a) PILC b) XLPE c) Gas filled d) PVC

Q.2 The insulation of the cable is related with

a) Current b) Voltage c) Resistance d) Magnetic flux

Q.3 The current capacity of the cable is related with

a) Insulation of conductor b) Cross section of conductor
c) Armature of the cable d) Length of the cable

Q.4 The colour scheme followed for 3-core cable is

a) Red , Yellow , Blue b) Red , Black , Blue
c) Red , Yellow , Black d) Red , Yellow , Green

Q.5 The following type of cable is used for 110 KV Incoming cable Feeder
a) Single core copper conductor b) Single core Aluminium conductor
c) Single strand copper conductor d) Two core copper conductor

Q.6 XLPE means

a) Extra long paper Enamel b) Excess length plastic insulation
c) Cross linked polyethylene d) Extra large polyethylene

Q.7 What is a PILC cable

a) Polyester insulated light cable b) Properly insulated live conductor
c) Paper insulated lead covered d) Polyethylene insulated linked conductor

Q.8 For checking insulation level of the cable conductor , the instrument is
a) Voltmeter b) Tong Tester c) Meggar d) Earth Tester

Q.9 The cross section of 22 KV copper cable is

a) 1000 Sq mm b) 630 Sq mm c) 240 Sq mm d) 300 Sq mm
Q.10 The new 2.2 KV cable before commissioning is tested at
a) 2.2 KV AC b) 5 KV DC c) 3.3 KV AC d) 2.2 KV DC

Q. 11 The new 22 KV cable before commissioning is tested at

a) 20 KV DC b) 22 KV AC c) 37.5 KV DC d) 37.5 KV AC

Q.12 The minimum bending radius for 22 KV XLPE cable is

a) 12D b) 20D c) 15D d) 22D
Where ‘D’ is outer diameter of the cable

Q.13 The minimum depth of laying from ground surface to the top of cable for 2.2 KV is
a) 0.9 Metres b) 1.0 Metres c) 1.5 Metres d) Depending upon site condition

Q.14 The minimum depth of laying from ground surface to the top of cable for 22 KV , 33 KV
a) 1.0 Metres b) 1.05 Metres c) 1.5 Metres d) Depending upon site condition

Q.15 Why it is necessary to seal the ends of PILC cable ?

a) To prevent from shock b) To prevent ingress of moisture
c)To prevent from theft d) None of above

Q.16 The following tests can be carried out for cable fault location
a) Murray loop test b) Direct loop test c) Pulse Echo test d) Any one of the above

Q.17 For testing of 22 KV cable , The following Meggar is used

a) 1000 KV b) 2.5 KV c) 500 Volts d) Any one of the above

Q.18 Cable graded for 22 KV supply system

a) 22 KV b) 3.3 KV c) 1.1 KV d) None of these

Q.23 Cable graded for 2.2 KV supply system

a) 22 KV b) 3.3 KV c) 2.2 KV d) None of these

Q.25 Cable graded for 440 V supply system

a) 22 KV b) 3.3 KV c) 1.2 KV d) 1.1 KV

Q.7 Oil switches are used for

a) Circuits of low voltages
b) Circuits of low currents
c) Circuits of high voltages and currents
d) all circuits

Q.8 A circuit can be operated

a) Manually
b) Automatically
c) By remote control
d) Any of above
Q.9 For remote operation circuit breakers are usually equipped with
a) Shunt trip
b) Inverse time trip
c) Time delay trip
d) Any of the above

Q.10 The advantage of using oil as arc quenching medium in circuit breaker is
a) Absorbtion of arc energy
b) Oil acts as insulator
c) Oil has high dielectric strength
d) All of the above

Q.11 In which of the circuit breaker the arc energy produced will be least
a) Air blast circuit breaker
b) Minimum oil circuit breaker
c) Plain oil circuit breaker
d) Self generated pressure oil circuit breaker

Q.12 The circuit breakers preferred for extra high tension applications
a) Air blast circuit breaker
b) SF6 circuit breaker
c) Minimum oil circuit breaker
d) None of the above

Q.13 The main purpose of oil switches is

a) To provide insulation effect
b) To avoid ionisation of surrounding air
c) To facilitate low temperature operation
d) To cool and quench the arc that tends to form when the circuit is opened and to
provide insulation effect

Q.14 Under the fault condition the information to the circuit breaker is provided by
a) Rewirable fuse
b) HRC Fuse
c) Relay
d) All of the above

Q.15 The rating of a circuit breaker is generally determined on the basis of

a) Single line to ground fault current
b) Line to line fault current
c) Double line to ground fault current
d) Symmetrical fault current

Q.16 The breaker capacity of a three phase circuit breaker is given by

a) Service voltage × Rated symmetrical current
b) 3 × Service voltage × Rated symmetrical current
c √3 × Service voltage × Rated symmetrical current
d) None of the above
Q.17 In the event of a fault on connected circuit , A circuit breaker will operate
a) Manually
b) Manually through control switch
c) Automatically
d) Depends upon the design

Q.18 In circuit breaker the material for arcing contacts is usually

a) Copper b) Copper tungsten alloy c) Mica d) None of these

Q.19 The material used for circuit breaker contacts should have
a) High electrical conductivity and low thermal conductivity
b) High electrical conductivity as well as thermal conductivity
c) Low electrical conductivity and high thermal conductivity
d) Low electrical as well as thermal conductivity .

Q. 20 Which of the following is not a part of a circuit breaker

a) Explosion pot
b) Current transformer
c) Fixed and moving contacts
d) Operating mechanism

Q. 21 In case of circuit breaker , the break time is

a) the same as opening time
b) the same as arc duration
c) the sum of opening time and arc duration
d) the sum of opening time , arc duration and resist to current duration

Q. 22 The time interval from the instant of energising the trip coil to the instant of opening of
the contacts is known as
a) Arcing time
b) Operating time
c) Breaking time
d) Total clearing time

Q. 23 The time interval from the instant of fault to the instant of extinguish of arc is known as
a) Clearing time
b) Break time
c) Make time
d) None of the above

Q. 24 The time instant from the instant of opening of the contacts to the instant of extinguish of
arc is known as
a) Arc clearance time
b) Break time
c) Arc duration
d) None of the above
Q. 25 The time interval from the instant of fault to the instant of energizing the trip coil is
known as
a) Arcing time
b) Operating time
c) Breaking time
d) Protection time

Q. 26 22 KV ASEA MOCB can complete its opening operation in

a) Max 45 milli sec
b) Max 55 milli sec
c) Max 65 milli sec
d) Max 35 milli sec

Q.1 In a transformer which of the following does not change

a) Voltage b) Current c) Frequency d) All of the above

Q.2 In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to secondary

a) Through air b) Through cooling oil c) By the flux d) None of the above

Q.3 The hum in a transformer is developed in

a) Core b) Winding c) Cooling oil d) Tank

Q.4 Magnetic hum is produced due to

a) Eddy current b) Magnetic forces c) Load variations d) Lightning

Q.5 A transformer core is laminated to

a) Reduce eddy current losses b) Reduce hysteresis losses
c) Reduce copper losses d) Reduce all above losses

Q.6 The core losses of a transformer are ultimately dissipated in the form of
a) Light b) Electrical energy c) Magnetic hum d) Heat

Q.7 The path of magnetic flux in a transformer should have

a) High resistance b) High reluctance c) Low resistance d) Low reluctance

Q.8 Open circuit test on transformer is conducted to determine

a) Copper losses b) Hysteresis losses c) Eddy current losses d) Core losses

Q.9 Short circuit test on transformer is conducted to determine

a) copper losses b) Hysteresis losses c) Eddy current losses d) Core losses

Q.10 While conduct open circuit test on a transformer following side is kept open
a) HV side b) LV side c) Primary side d) Secondary side

Q.11 While conducting short circuit test on a transformer the following side is short circuited
a) HV side b) LV side c) Primary side d) Secondary side

Q.12 The function of conservator in a transformer is

a) To protect against internal fault b) To reduce copper as well as core losses
c) To cool the transformer oil d) To take care of the expansion and contraction of
transformer oil to variation of temperature of surroundings
Q.13 Transformers are provided with tap changer to adjust
a) Power factor b) Primary voltage c) Secondary voltage d) Both primary as
well as secondary voltage

Q. 14 The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the quality of
a) Ionising air b) Cleaning the transformer oil c) Cooling the transformer oil
d) Absorbing moisture

Q.15 The chemical used in breather is

a) Asbestos fibre b) Silica sand c) Sodium hypochlorite d) Silica gel

Q.16 Buchholz relay works on the principle of

a) Loss of dielectric strength of transformer iol due to presence of moisture
b) Magnetostriction in armature core causing violent vibrations
c) Violent gas generation before transformer crackdown
d) Melting of lead wire at high currents

Q.17 The transformer ratings are usually expressed in term of

a) Volts b) Amperes c) KVA d) KW

Q.18 Two transformers operating in parallel will share their load depending upon
a) Ratings b) Leakage reactance c) Efficiency d) per unit impedance

Q.19 During parallel operation of transformers , incorrect polarity is likely to result in

a) Open circuit b) Dead short circuit c) Reduced copper losses d) None of the
above

Q.20 The normal colour of silica gel crystals is

a) White b) Blue c) Pink d) Yellow

Q. 21 When saturated with moisture the colour of silica gel crystals becomes
a) Gray b) Pink c) Yellow d) Green

Q.22 Which of the following is not a part of transformer

a) Conservator b) Breather c) Buchholz relay d) Exciter

Q.23 In a transformer the tappings are provided on

a) Primary side b) Secondary side c)High voltage side d) Low voltage side

Q.24 Transformer oil must be free from

a) Sludge b) Odour c) Gasses d) Moisture

Q.25 The oil preferred for use in transformer

a) Mineral oil b) Cooking oil c) Rice bran oil d) Petroleum oil
Q.1 Unit of current is ----------
A) Amp B) Volt C) Ohm D) None of these .

Q.2 Unit of voltage is -----------

A) Amp B) Mho C) Volt D) None of these .

Q.3 Unit of Resistance is ----------

A) Hertz B) Ohm C) Amp D) None of these .

Q.4 Ampere is unit of -----------

A) Current B) Frequency C) Resistance D) none of these

Q.5 Volt is unit of ---------------

A) Current B) Resistance C) Voltage D) All of above

Q.6 Ohm is the unit of ------------

A) Capacitance B) Resistance C) Inductance D) None of these .

Q.7 Ammeter is used for measurement of ----------

A) Current B) Voltage C) Resistance D) None of these .

Q.8 Voltmeter is used for measurement of -------------

A) Frequency B) Current C) Voltage D) None of these .

Q.9 Ohm Meter is used for measurement of -----------------

A) Capacitance B) Resistance C) Inductance D) None of these .

Q.10 Multi Meter is used for measurement of ----------------

A) Current , Voltage , Resistance
B) Current , Voltage , Capacitance
C) Current , Voltage , Inductance
D) All of above .

Q.11 Unit of insulation resistance is --------

A) Kilo-Ohms B) Ohms C) ) Mega-Ohms D) All of above

Q.12 The Meter used for measurement of Insulation Resistance is ----------

A) Earth Tester B) Megger C) Multi Meter D) All of above .

Q.13 Meggar is used for measurement of ---------------

A) Insulation Resistance B) Earth resistance C) Inductive Resistance D) None of these

Q.14 Mega-Ohms is unit of ----------------------

A) Insulation resistance B) Capacitive resistance C) Earth Resistance D) None of these

Q. 15 One Mega-ohms equal to ----------------Ohms .

A) 10000 B) 100000 C) 1000000 D) 10000000

Q. 16 In a circuit , The Ammeter shall be connected in ----------------

A) Series B) Parallel C) Series-parallel D) None of these .
Q.17 In a circuit , The Voltmeter shall be connected in --------------
A) Series B) Parallel C) Parallel-Series D) All of above

Q. 18 One Kilo Meter equal to -----------Metres .

A) 100000 B) 10000 C) 100 D) None of these

Q. 19 One Metre equal to ------------Centi Metre .

A) 100 B) 10 C) 1000 D) None of these

Q.20 One Centi Metre equal to ----------milli metre .

A) 100 B) 0.10 C) 10 D) None of these

Q.21 One Foot equal to ---------inches.

A) 10 B) 12 C) 24 D) None of these .

Q.22 One inches equal to -----------Centi Metre .

A) 2.54 B) 2.00 C) 2.50 D) None of these

Q.23 Unit of electrical Energy consumption is ------------

A) KWH B) Watt C) KVA D) None of these .

Q.24 Unit of electrical power is --------------

A) Volt B) Watt C) Current D) None of these .

Q.25 Horse –Power is the unit of -----------------

A) Brake Power B) Electrical Power C) Mechanical Power D) None of these .

Q. 26 One Horse Power is equal to----------------Watts .

A) 746 Watts B) 735 Watts C) 742 Watts D) None of these .

Q. 27 ----------------------circuit converts AC supply into DC supply .

A) Inverter B) Battery Charger C) Both of above D) None of these

Q. 28 -----------------------circuit converts DC supply into AC supply

A) Inverter B) Battery Charger C) Both inverter and Battery Charger
D) None of these .

Q. 29 The ideal value of power factor is -------------------

A) All of above B) 0.99 C) 0.95 D) 1 (Unity)

Q.30 Maximum voltage for 25 KV AC OHE is --------------

A) 25 KV B) 27.5 KV C) 26.5 KV D) None of these

Q. 31 Minimum Voltage for 25 KV AC OHE is -----------

A) 23 KV B) 21.5 KV C) 22KV D) 19 KV

Q. 32 The ideal Value of insulation resistance is -----------

A) Infinity B) Zero C) 2000 Mega ohms D) None of these

Q.33 Working clearance of 25 KV AC OHE is -------------

A) One Metre B) One and half Metres C) Two Metres C) None of these
Q.34 According to Ohm’s law which relation is incorrect ?
A) I=V∕R B) R= V∕ I C) V= IR D) V=I ∕ R

Q.35 Which type of material is classified as per temperature ?

A) Conductor B) Insulating C) Semi Conducting D) Magnetic

Q.36 For series connected circuit which statement shall be incorrect ?

A) Current shall be equal to all loads .
B) Current through all loads shall be equal but voltage drops shall be different .
C) Current shall different to different points of circuit .
D) Circuit current shall depends on total resistance of the circuit .

Q.37 What is in correct in connection with Ohm’s Law ?

A) It states the relation among the voltage , current and resistance in a closed circuit .
B) Circuit current is proportional to the voltage imposed .
C) Circuit current is inversely proportional to the circuit resistance .
D) Temperature has no effect on this relation .

Q.38 Magnetic poles are generally known as ------------

A) NORTH-SOUTH B) EAST - WEST C) EMF-MMF D) UP-DOWN

Q.39 Which one is incorrect to natural magnet ?

A) Loss of magnetic properties on heating .
B) Similar poles repel and opposite poles attract each other.
C) A magnet attracts all metals .
D) Small pieces of a magnet shall also be a magnet .

Q. 40 When current is flown through the wire , wound on a iron piece , the iron piece becomes
A) Natural Magnet B) Electro Magnet C) Steel D) Mild Steel

Q. 41 How a Electromagnet differs from a Natural magnet ?

A) Number of poles may be arbitrarily chosen .
B) Magnetic lines of force is reversed .
C) Strength of poles depends on size of magnet .
D) Temporary magnetism .

Q.42 --------------------works on principle of electromagnetism .

A) Lightning Arrester B ) Capacitor C) Circuit Breaker D) Auxiliary Transformer

Q. 43 The Vital component of a Battery charger is --------------

A) Resistor B) Diode C) Capacitor D) Choke Coil

Q. 44 Normally generation of electrical energy is done in -------phases .

A) 1 (One) B) 2 (Two) C) 3 (Three) D) 4 (Four)

Q. 45 ACTM has relation with ---------------------------------------------------

A) Maintenance of TRD installations .
B) Directives for different departments in Electrical section .
C) Working of TPC .
D) All of the above .
Q. 46 Direction of electrical current flow is --------------------------------------
A) From high voltage to low voltage .
B) From low voltage to high voltage .
C) Between two points that’s voltage is same .
D) There is no such rule .

Q. 47 Maximum permissible distance between two distance rods are ------------------

A) 1 Metre B) 10 Metres C) 100 Metres D) 1000 Metres

Q. 48 Resistance of a wire increases with ---------------in its length .

A) increase B) decrease C) increase or decrease D) None of these

Q. 49 Resistance of a wire decreases with -----------------------in its length .

A) increase B) decrease C) increase or decrease D) None of these

Q. 50 Resistance of a wire decreases with ---------------of its cross section .

A) decrease B) increase C) no changes D) None of these .

Q.51 Resistance of a wire increases with ------------- of its cross section .

A) no changes B) increase C) decrease D) none of these .

Q.52 A combination of cells shall be called as --------------

A) cell B) battery C) cell or battery D) All of above

Q.53 Cell voltage of a Lead acid cell is -------------

A) 2.52 Volts B) 2.21 Volts C) 2.00 Volts D) All of above

Q.54 Electrical cell converts ---------------energy into electrical energy .

A) chemical energy B) mechanical energy C) solar energy D) none of these

Q.55 Supply available from a electric cell is -----------------supply .

A) AC B) universal C) DC D) All of above

Q. 56 Basically a Battery charger is a ------------------circuit .

A) resistor B) rectifier C) capacitor D) choke Coil

Q.57 The cell voltage of a fully charged Lead Acid cell is -------------
A) 2.21 Volts B) 2.31 Volts C) 2.00 Volts D) None of these

Q. 58 A Lead Acid cell shall be said fully discharged when its voltage drops down to ----------
A) 1.9 5 volt B) 1.85 Volt C) 1.80 Volts D) None of these

Q. 59 Electrolyte of a Lead Acid cell is prepared from Sulphuric acid and ----------
A) mineral water B) distilled water C) river water D) sea water

Q. 60 Electrolyte of a Lead Acid cell is prepared from distilled water and ---------------
A) nitric acid B) hydrochloric acid C) sulphuric acid D) None of these .

Q.61 The specific gravity of electrolyte of fully charged Lead Acid cell is ---------
A) 1.220 B) 1.225 C) 1.230 D) None of these
Q. 62 Unit to indicate battery capacity is --------------------
A) KW B) KVA C) AH D) None of these

Q.63 The battery -----------increases if the cell are connected in series .

A) voltage B) capacity C) current D) none of these

Q.64 The battery -----------------increases if the cells are connected in parallel .

A) current B) voltage C) capacity D) all of above

Q. 65 What shall generally be added to maintain the level of electrolyte in a cell ?

A) electrolyte B) distilled water C) acid D) none of these

Q.66 To keep a battery set at very low charging rate is called as ?

A) Boost charging B) Trickle charging C) Fine control charging D) None of these

Q.67 To charge a battery set a very high rate for a short period is called as ?
A) Boost charging B) Trickle charging C) Speedy charging D) None of these

Q.68 To prepare electrolyte which type of pot is suitable ?

A) Stain less steel B) Glass or porcelain C) copper D) None of these

Q. 69 The white aggregate appearing on the terminals of a battery is called as ---------------

A) Sulfation B) Sedimentation C) Sulfation or Sedimentation D) None of these

Q. 70 Sulfation is a indicator of health of the battery .

A) Good B) Bad C) Normal D) none of these

Q. 71 The specific gravity of electrolyte ---------------when the battery gets charge .

A) increases B) decreases C) no changes D) none of these

Q. 72 The specific gravity of electrolyte------------ when the battery gets discharge.

A) increases B) decreases C) no changes D) none of these

Q.73 Battery rating for a TSS is -----------------AH .

A) 180 AH B) 210 AH C) 200 AH D ) none of these .

Q.74 --------------is used for measurement of specific gravity of electrolyte .

A) Hydrometer B) Lactometer C) Voltmeter D) none of these

Q.75 Specific gravity of distilled water is -------

A) 1.000 B) 1.180 C) 1.220 D) 2.220

Q.76 What is true for DC supply and distilled water ?

A) DC supply can not flow through distilled water .
B) DC supply can flow through distilled water .
C) DC supply gets stored in distilled water .
D) DC gets converted into AC .

Q.77 What you expect from a battery kept on high charging rates for a long time ?
 A) Nothing special B) Plates may be damaged by getting very hot
C) changes of polarity D) Increased capacity

Q. 78 If one cell’s negative terminal connected to another cell’s positive terminal

known as ----------connection Battery.
A)Series B) Parallel C) Series-Parallel D) all of above

Q.79 To prepared the electrolyte ,----------------------------

A) acid shall be poured into distilled water
B) water shall be poured into acid
C) any one way can be apply
D) none of these

Q.80 Unit of specific gravity is -------------

A) no unit B) gram per cubic centimeter
C) milliliter per cubic centimeter D) none of these .

Q.81 Healthy silica gels colours is ---------------

A) Green B) Blue
C) Pink D) none of these

Q. 82 Silica Gel turns ----------colour after absorbing moisture .

A) Green B) Blue
C) Pink D) none of these

Q. 83 The function of Breather of transformer is --------------

A) to absorb moisture B) to supply moisture
C) to stop air supply D) none these

Q.84 Breather is a part of ---------------

A) DPI B) PT C) CT D) Transformer

Q.85 --------------------is fixed between Main tank and Conservator tank .

A) Buchholz relay B) Breather
C) Marshalling Box D) none of these

Q.86 What is use of transformer oil ?

A) Insulation B) Cooling
C) Insulation and cooling both purposes D) none of thes

Q. 87 Which device is used to protect the transformer from excessive internal pressure ?
A) PRD B)Buchholz relay C) MOG D) None of these

Q.88 ------------------is used for Low oil level protection .

A) OTI B) WTI C) MOLG D)none of these

Q.89 What is used for cooling of a Transformer ?

A) Conservator tank B) Radiator C) Breather D) Core

Q.90 The power loss that occurs in transformer winding is called as -------------
A) Copper loss B) Iron loss C) Winding loss D) none of these
Q.91 The ratio of rated voltage of primary and secondary winding of a Transformer
is called as ----------------
A) Voltage ratio B) Transformation ration
C) Both the above D) none of these

Q. 92 For a Transformer , the product of primary side voltage and current is equal to product of
secondary side voltage and ---------------
A) Primary side current B) Secondary side current
C) square of secondary side current D) none of these

Q. 93--------------------is the unit to express moisture content in transformer oil .

A) ppm B) gpm
C) both the above D) none of these

Q.94 POH of power Transfomer is done after --------Years .

A) 5(Five) B) 10 (Ten)
C) 4 (Four) D) none of these

Q.95 Insulation Resistance between LV and Earth for 110 KV/ 25 KV Transformer should not
be less then ----------------
A) 2500 Mega-ohm B) 2000 Mega –ohm C) 400 Mega-ohm D) none of these

Q.96 Insulation Resistance between HV and Earth for 110 KV/ 25 KV Transformer should not
be less then -----------------
A) 2500 Mega –ohm B) 1500 Mega ohm C) 2000 Mega –ohm D) none of ohm

Q. 97 Insulation Resistance between LV and HV for 110 KV/ 25 KV Transformer should not be
less then -----------------
A) 2500 Mega-ohm B) 2000 Mega –ohm C) 400 Mega-ohm D) none of these

Q. 98 Traction transformer can be run for ---------------minutes at 50 percent over load .

A) Continuous B) 15 C) 20 D) none of these

Q.99 Traction transformer can be run for 15 minutes at ---- percent over load .
A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) none of these

Q.100 Traction transformer can be run for ----- minutes at 100 percent over load .
A) 10 B) 5 C) 15 D) none of these

Q.101 Traction transformer can be run for 5 minutes at ----- percent over load .
A) 100 B) 5 C) 15 D) none of these

Q.102 setting for oil temperature alarm is ------------degree centrigrade .

A) 80 B) 85 C) 90 D) 95

Q.103 setting for oil temperature trip is ------------degree centrigrade .

A) 80 B) 85 C) 90 D) 95

Q.104 setting for winding temperature alarm is ------------degree centrigrade .

 A) 80 B) 85 C) 90 D) 95
Q.105 Setting for winding temperature trip is ------------degree centrigrade .
A) 80 B) 85 C) 90 D) 95

Q.106 The ratio of number of turns in primary and secondary winding of a transformer is called
as --------------------
A) Turn ratio B) transformation ratio C) Both of above D) none of these

Q.107 Transformer oil is dangerous since it is --------------------------

A) Inflammable B) Toxic C) Hygroscopic D) unnatural

Q.108 Out of the following relations , what would be incorrect for a transformer, where ‘N’
indicates number of turns , ‘V’ voltage and ‘I’ current .
A) N1/N2= V1/V2 B) V1/V2=I2/I1 C) N1/N2=V1/V2=I1/I2 D) none of these

Q.109 ONAN/ONAF are the types of -----------------------------

A ) Transformer cooling system B) winding C) Tap changer D) Earthing

Q.110 What it indicates , If the terminal connection of a transformer appears bad in colour ?
A) Transformer over load B) transformer instantaneous load
C) Abnormal heating of terminals due to loose connection
D) None of these

Q. 111 Transformer oil sample crackles on heating, it is an indication of -------------

A) increase acid content B) too cold sample
C) excessive water content D) improved BDV

Q. 112 Oil temperature trip facility is given since at higher temperature

A) Transformer oil becomes thick and immovable .
B) Insulating properties of insulations impair sharply .
C) Buchholz relay trips
D) It becomes difficult to operate Tap changer due thicken transformer oil .

Q. 113 What is incorrect in context of Buchholz relay ?

A) It is an electro mechanical relay
B) It protects transformer from internal fault
C) It requires collection of gas to operate
D) It is situated between Main tank and conservator tank .

Q.114 In case of transformer bushing , the Tan ∂( Delta) testing should not be more than ---------
A) 0.003 B) 0.005 C) 0.007 D) none of these

Q. 115 No need to reset OTI/WTI during -----------scheduled maintenance .

A) Monthly B) Half yearly C) Yearly D) none of these
Q. 1 Full form of LAP is -------------------------
A) Leave on full pay B) Leave on average pay C) Left on average pay average D) All of
above

Q.2 Full form of LHAP is -------------------------

A) Leave on half average pay B) Leave half pay C) Half average pay D) All of above

Q. 3 Total accumulation limit of LAP ------------------

A) 240 days B) 260 days C) 300 days D) none of these

Q. 4 Half yearly credit of LAP is -----------------------

A) 15 days B) 30 days C) 20 days D) none of these

Q. 5 Paternity Leave may get ---------------

A) Casual labour B) Temporary staff C) Contractor staff D) Permanent railway
employee

Q. 6 Paternity Leave will get up to --------surviving children .

A) 2 ( Two) B) 1 ( One ) C) 3 ( Three) D) all of above

Q. 7 Paternity Leave will get -------------

A) Male Employee B) Female Employee C) Male or Female Employee both D) All
of above .

Q.8 Paternity leave will be apply within -------------

A) 1 year B) 6 months C) 12 months D) none of these

Q.9 Paternity Leave will be avail --------days .

A) 30 days B) 15 days C) 20 days D) none of these .

Q.10 Maternity Leave may get --------------

A) Casual labour B) Temporary staff C) 1961 Act staff D) Permanent railway employee

Q. 11 Maternity Leave will get -------------

A) Female Employee B) Male Employee C) Male or Female Employee both D) All
of above .

Q.12 Maternity Leave will be avail --------days .

A) 150 days B) 120 days C) 180 days D) none of these

Q. 13 Casual Leave (CL) will get --------------days in a calendar year for open line staff .
A) 10 days B) 8 days C) 12 days D) 15 days .

Q. 14 Casual Leave (CL) will get ------days in a calendar year for Work shop staff .
A)13 days B) 10 days C) 8 days D) 15 days

Q.15 Full form of PTO is ----------------

A) Priviledge ticket order B) Previous ticket order C) Pass ticket order D) none of these
Q.16 Priviledge Pass validation period from issue date ------------
A) 4 months B) 5 months C) 6 months D) none of these .

Q.17 ---------sets Priviledge pass will be getting an Employee( C & D group staff ) in a calendar
up to 5 years service .
A) 1 set B) 6 sets C) 3 sets D) none these

Q.18 ---------sets Priviledge pass will be getting an Employee( ‘C’ & ‘D’ group staff ) in a
calendar after completion 5 years service .

A) 1 set B) 6 sets C) 3 sets D) none of these

Q.19 ---------- sets Priviledge pass will be getting an Employee( ‘A’ & ‘B’ group staff ) in a
calendar .
A) 1 set B) 6 sets C) 3 sets D) none of these

Q. 20 Employee can travel by PTO with --------------

A) full fare B) half fare C) one third fare D) none of these

Q. 21 Employee can travel by Priviledge pass with --------------

A) free of fare completely B) half fare C) one third fare D) full fare

Q. 22 Which category employee are getting Duty Pass (Metal pass) ?

(A) Group ‘C’ & ‘D’ ( B) Group ‘A’ & ‘B’ (C) Group ‘A’ & ‘C’ (D) all of above

Q. 23 Full form of ‘PNM ‘is ----------------------------------------------------------------

A) Permanent negotiating machinery B) Permanent negotiating machine
C) Permanent negotiation machine D) All of above

Q. 24 Full form of ‘HOER’ is ---------------------------

A) Hours our employment regulatory B) Hours of employment regulation
C) Hours of employee regulation D) all of above

Q. 25 ‘Continuous staff ‘ is ---------------------

A) Section controllers B) Saloon Attendants C) Supervisors D) none of these

Q.26 Our country has been divided into -----------regions as per Rajbhasa .
A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) none of these

Q. 27 Uttar Pradesh comes under ------------ .

(A) ‘C’region (B) ‘A’ region (C) ‘B’ region (D) ‘A’ region & ‘B’ region

Q. 28 Maharashtra comes under -------------- .

(A) ‘C’region (B) ‘A’region (C) ‘B’ region (D) ‘A’ region & ‘B’region

Q. 29 Tripura comes under --------------region .

(A) ‘C’ region (B) ‘A’ region (C) ‘B’ region (D) ‘A’ region & ‘B’ region

Q. 30 Night duty hours in railway from ------- to -----------.

A) 23.00 –7.00 Hrs B) 22.00 -- 6.00 Hrs C) 00.00 – 8.00 Hrs D) 22.30 –06.30 Hrs .
Q.31 DAR will not be apply to ------------
A) Casual Employee B) Supervisor staff C) Artisans staff D) all of above

Q. 32 Full form of ‘DAR’ is -----------------

A) Discipline Appeal rules B) Discipline and Appeal rules
C) Display and Appeal rules D) all of above

Q. 33 Full of SF-11 is------------

A) Super fast-11 B) Standard form-11 C) Standard facily-11 D) none of these

Q.34 Write ascending order of 5, -7 ,1 , 0

A) -7, 0, 1, 5 B) 0, 1 , 5,-7 C) -7 , 5, 1 ,0 D) 0, 1 ,-7 ,5

Q.35 Write descending order of 2/3 ,1/4 , 1, 1/2

A) 1, 2/3, 1/2, 1/4 B) 2/3 , 1/4,1/2, 1 C) 2/3 ,1, 1/2, 1/4 D) 1/4 ,1, 1/2, 2/3

Q 36 Write LCM of 2, 3, 4, 8
A) 18 B) 36 C) 24 D) none of these

Q.37 One side of the Square plot is 15 Metres . Find out area of this plot .
A) 225 Sq Metres B) 225 Metres C) 60 Metres D) none of these

Q.38 Length = 10 Cm and Breadth = 5 Cm of a rectangle . Find out perimeter of the rectangle .
A) 30 Sq Cm B) 30 Cm C) 50 Sq Cm D) none of these

Q.39 One side of the Square plot is 15 Metres . Find out perimeter of this plot .
A) 225 Sq Metres B) 225 Metres C) 60 Metres D) none of these

Q.40 Length = 10 Cm and Breadth = 5 Cm of a rectangle . Find out area of the rectangle .
A) 30 Sq Cm B) 30 Cm C) 50 Sq Cm D) none of these

Q. 41 Diameter of circle is 20 cm . Find out radious of this circle

A)10 cm B) 5 cm C) 40 cm D) none of these

Q.42 Radious of a circle is 7 cm . Find out area of this circle .

A) 145 Sq cm B ) 145 Sq cm C) 154 Sq cm D) 154 cm

Q.43 Unit of current is ----------

A) Amp B) Volt C) Ohm D) None of these .

Q. 44 Insulation resistance of the cable is measured in ?

A) Mega ohms.
B)Mega Watt
C)Volts
D) Ohms

Q. 45 The colour scheme followed for 3-core cable is

a) Red , Yellow , Blue b) Red , Black , Blue
c) Red , Yellow , Black d) Red , Yellow , Green
Q.46 A circuit breaker an Equipment which can open or close a circuit under.
a) No load condition c) full load condition
b) Fault condition d) all above condition.

Q.47 An isolator switch to

a) An automatic device for breaking circuit.
b) A relay operated device for breaking circuit.
c) Opens a circuit under no load.
d) Opens a circuit under load.

Q.48 What is the full form of PI test in relation with cable testing ?
a) Polarisation Index Test. b) Potential current Test.
c) Primery injection Test d) None.

Q.49 An isolator usually a

a) Manually operated switch
b) Manually operated oil switch
c) Relay operated oil switch
d) Relay controlled air switch.

Q.50 An isolator is installed

A) As substitute for circuit breaker
B) Always independent of the position of circuit breaker
C) Generally on both sides of a circuit breaker
D) To operate the relay of Circuit Breaker

Q.51 XLPE means

A) Extra long paper Enamel B) Excess length plastic insulation
C) Cross linked polyethylene D) Extra large polyethylene

Q.52 For checking insulation level of the cable conductor , the instrument is
A) Voltmeter B) Tong Tester C) Meggar D) Earth Tester

Q.53 A circuit breaker can be operated

A) Manually
B) Automatically
C) By remote control
D) Any of above

Q.54 Under the fault condition the information to the circuit breaker is provided by
A) Rewirable fuse
B) HRC Fuse
C) Relay
D) All of the above
Q.55 In the event of a fault on connected circuit , A circuit breaker will operate
A) Manually
B) Manually through control switch
C) Automatically
D) Depends upon the design

Q.56 The chemical used in breather is

A) Asbestos fibre B) Silica sand C) Sodium hypochlorite D) Silica gel

Q.57 The transformer ratings are usually expressed in term of

A) Volts B) Amperes C) KVA D) KW

Q.58 The normal colour of silica gel crystals is

A) White B) Blue C) Pink D) Yellow

Q. 59 When saturated with moisture the colour of silica gel crystals becomes
A) Gray B) Pink C) Yellow D) Green

Q.60 Which of the following is not a part of transformer

A) Conservator B) Breather C) Buchholz relay D) Exciter

Q.61 The oil preferred for use in transformer

A) Mineral oil B) Cooking oil C) Rice bran oil D) Petroleum oil

Q.62 Unit of voltage is -----------

A) Amp B) Mho C) Volt D) None of these

Q.63 Unit of Resistance is ----------

A) Hertz B) Ohm C) Amp D) None of these .

Q.64 Ammeter is used for measurement of ----------

A) Current B) Voltage C) Resistance D) None of these .

Q.65 Voltmeter is used for measurement of -------------

A) Frequency B) Current C) Voltage D) None of these .

Q.66 Ohm Meter is used for measurement of -----------------

A) Capacitance B) Resistance C) Inductance D) None of these .

Q.67 Multi Meter is used for measurement of ----------------

A) Current , Voltage , Resistance
B) Current , Voltage , Capacitance
C) Current , Voltage , Inductance
D) All of above .

Q.68 Unit of insulation resistance is --------

A) Kilo-Ohms B) Ohms C) ) Mega-Ohms D) All of above

Q.69 The Meter used for measurement of Insulation Resistance is ----------

A) Earth Tester B) Megger C) Multi Meter D) All of above .
Q.70 One Mega-ohms equal to ----------------Ohms .
A) 10000 B) 100000 C) 1000000 D) 10000000

Q. 71 In a circuit , The Ammeter shall be connected in ----------------

A) Series B) Parallel C) Series-parallel D) None of these

Q.72 ----------------------circuit converts AC supply into DC supply .

A) Inverter B) Battery Charger C) Both of above D) None of these

Q.73 Working clearance of 25 KV AC OHE is -------------

A) One Metre B) One and half Metres C) Two Metres C) None of these

Q. 74 Normally generation of electrical energy is done in -------phases .

A) 1 (One) B) 2 (Two) C) 3 (Three) D) 4 (Four)

Q.75 A combination of cells shall be called as --------------

A) cell B) battery C) cell or battery D) All of above

Q.76 Cell voltage of a Lead acid cell is -------------

A) 2.52 Volts B) 2.21 Volts C) 2.00 Volts D) All of above

Q.77 Electrical cell converts ---------------energy into electrical energy .

A) chemical energy B) mechanical energy C) solar energy D) none of these

Q.78 Supply available from a electric cell is -----------------supply .

A) AC B) universal C) DC D) All of above

Q. 79 Electrolyte of a Lead Acid cell is prepared from Sulphuric acid and ----------
A) mineral water B) distilled water C) river water D) sea water

Q. 80 Electrolyte of a Lead Acid cell is prepared from distilled water and ---------------
A) nitric acid B) hydrochloric acid C) sulphuric acid D) None of these

Q. 81 Unit to indicate battery capacity is --------------------

A) KW B) KVA C) AH D) None of these

Q.82 The battery -----------increases if the cell are connected in series .

A) voltage B) capacity C) current D) none of these

Q.83 --------------is used for measurement of specific gravity of electrolyte .

A) Hydrometer B) Lactometer C) Voltmeter D) none of these

Q. 83 The function of Breather of transformer is --------------

A) to absorb moisture B) to supply moisture
C) to stop air supply D) none these

Q.84 Breather is a part of ---------------

A) DPI B) PT C) CT D) Transformer
Q.85 Battery rating for a TSS is -----------------AH .
A) 180 AH B) 210 AH C) 200 AH D ) none of these .
Q.86 --------------------is fixed between Main tank and Conservator tank .
A) Buchholz relay B) Breather
C) Marshalling Box D) none of these

Q.87 What is use of transformer oil ?

A) Insulation B) Cooling
C) Insulation and cooling both purposes D) none of thes

Q. 89 Which device is used to protect the transformer from excessive internal pressure ?
A) PRD B)Buchholz relay C) MOG D) None of these

Q.88 ------------------is used for Low oil level protection .

A) OTI B) WTI C) MOLG D)none of these

Q.89 What is used for cooling of a Transformer ?

A) Conservator tank B) Radiator C) Breather D) Core

Q.90 Insulation Resistance between LV and Earth for 110 KV/ 25 KV Transformer should not
be less then ----------------
A) 2500 Mega-ohm B) 2000 Mega –ohm C) 400 Mega-ohm D) none of these

Q.91 Insulation Resistance between HV and Earth for 110 KV/ 25 KV Transformer should not
be less then -----------------
A) 2500 Mega –ohm B) 1500 Mega ohm C) 2000 Mega –ohm D) none of ohm

Q. 92 Insulation Resistance between LV and HV for 110 KV/ 25 KV Transformer should not be
less then -----------------
A) 2500 Mega-ohm B) 2000 Mega –ohm C) 400 Mega-ohm D) none of these

Q.93 Setting for oil temperature alarm is ------------degree centrigrade .

A) 80 B) 85 C) 90 D) 95

Q.94 Setting for oil temperature trip is ------------degree centrigrade .

A) 80 B) 85 C) 90 D) 95

Q.95 Setting for winding temperature alarm is ------------degree centrigrade .

A) 80 B) 85 C) 90 D) 95

Q.96 Setting for winding temperature trip is ------------degree centrigrade .

A) 80 B) 85 C) 90 D) 95

Q.97 Total ----nos of TSS are in between VR –CCG Section .

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7

Q.98 Total -------nos of SSP are in between VR—CCG Section .

A) 10 B)11 C) 12 D) 13
Q.99 Total -------nos of SP are in between VR—CCG Section .
A)8 B)6 C) 7 D) 5

Q.100 Who is SrDEE/Sub/BCT ?

A) Shri C S Yadav B) Shri A K Gupta C) Shri A K Verma D) none of these

Q.101 PTW means -------------

A) Permit to work B) Permission to worth C) all of above D) none of these

Q.102 TPC ----------------

A) Truck Power Controller B) Traction Power Controller
C) Traction Power Control D) none of these

Q.103 TRD ----------------

A) Traction Distribution B) Track distribution
C) Truck distribution D) none of these

1. Pure water freezes at

a) 0 deg F b) 30 deg F c) 32 deg F d) None of these

2. Which one of the following is correct .

a) C/9 =(F-32)/5 b) F/5 = (C-32)/9 c) 32/5= (F-C)/9 d) C/5=(F-32)/9

3. One calorie is equal to

a) 1.45 J b) 3.5 J c) 4.18 J d) 5.18 J

4. Light Year is unit of

a) Time b) Very long time c) Length d) None of these

5. In a leap year there are

a) 365 days b) 344 days c) 366 days d) 345 days

6. Unit of density is
a) ML-3 b) M-1L-1 c) ML2 d0 ML3

7. What is the value of human body temperature in Fahrenheit ?

a) 95 deg F b) 88.5 deg F c) 98.6 deg F d) 37 deg F

8. Energy travels from Sun to Earth through

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Modulation

9. The refractive index of water is 4/3. What is the speed of light in water ?
a) 2.25 ×108 m/s b) 4×108 m/s c) 1.5 ×108 m/s d) 2.67×108 m/s

10. Shaving mirror is

a) Convex b) Concave c) Plane d) Parabolic
11. Which type of mirror is used in headlights of vehicle
a) Plane mirror b) Concave c) Convex d) Parabolic

12. Optical fibre are based on the phenomenon of

a) Interference b) dispersion c) diffraction d) total internal reflection

13. Red is used as danger signal as

a) It is lovely b) its wavelength is longest c) it is scattered d) it has very high
energy .

14. --------------- camera is used to detect hot spot .

a) Concave mirror b) photo camera c) infra red camera d) none of the above

15. An instrument which is used to see distant object like stars , planet etc is called
a) Camera b) telescope c) microscope d) spectrometer

16. Which instrument is used to measure current

a) Voltmeter b) photometer c) Ammeter d) Meggar

17. Which instrument is used to measure voltage

a) Voltmeter b) photometer c) Ammeter d) Meggar

18. Which instrument is used measure resistance

a) Voltmeter b) photometer c) ohm meter d) Ammeter

19. The SI unit of power is

a) Volt b) Watt c) coulomb d)tesla

20. The earth conductor provides a path to ground for

a) Circuit current b) Leakage current c) over current d) high voltage

21. A fuse wire is made of

a) an alloy of tin and lead .
b) an alloy of tin and copper
c) an alloy of tin and aluminium
d) an alloy of nickel and chromium

22. Full form of LED is

a) Long Emergency device
b) Lateral energy diode
c) Light Emitting diode
d) None of above

23. Which is correct

a) R= qA/L b) q= R.A/L c) R= q.L/A d) All are correct

24. What is the magnitude of charge on one electron ?

a) 1.30×10-15 C b) – 1.30 ×10-14 C c) 1.6×10-19 C d) 0.16×10-14 C

25. R= R1R2/(R1+R2) represents

a)Series connection b) parallel connection
c) bridge connection d) linear connection
 26. Ohms law is valid in case of
a) Super conductor b) insulator c) semiconductor d) conductor

27. Safety fuse wire used in electrical equipments is made of metal of low
a) Resistance b) melting point c) Specific gravity d) conductance

28.

29. MS windows to
a) Word processing program
b) Database program
c) Operating system
d) Graphics program

30.Which of these is not an operating system

a) android b) ios c)linear d) price print

31.Potrait and landscape are

a) Page orientation b) paper size c) page layout c) page margin

32.Sending e-mail is similar to

a) writing a letter b) drawing a picture c) talking on phone d) sending a packet

33.Buchholz relay operates in event of

a) Earth fault b) short circuit c) Evolution of gas d) High temperature

34. The alarm due to high winding temperature is operated at

a) 80 deg C b) 85 deg C c) 90 deg C d) 95 deg C

35. No of tap setting in traction transformer are

a) 8 b) 7 c) 6 d) 5

36. Min IR value of main transformer between LV and HV windings

a) 2500 M ohm b) 3000 M ohm c) 2000 M ohm d) 1500 M ohm

37. POH of transformer is to be carried out after every

a) 5 years b) 7 years c) 10 years d) 12 years

38. Time setting of relay is termed as

a) TS b) TMS c) TSS d) MS

39. Lightning Arrester provided on 25 KV side is rated for

a) 60 KV b) 48 KV c) 42 KV d) 30 KV

40. Discharge rod cable to be replaced if percentage stands broken exceeds

a) 20 percentage b) 10 percentage c) 5 percentage d) 2 percentage
41. The type of OCR provided for feeder protection as
a) IDMT b) Instantaneous c) Differential d) High speed

42. The electrode gap of oil test for BDV

a) 2.0 mm b) 2.5 mm c) 4.0 mm d) 4.5 mm

43. The UVR setting at SP corresponding to OHE voltage of

a) 17.5 KV b) 18.5 KV c) 19 KV d) 15 KV

44. Minimum working clearance from live OHE

a) 3 Mtrs b) 2 Mtrs c) 1.5 Mtrs d) 1.0 Mtr

45. Maximum permissible combined earth resistance at TSS

a) 0.25 Ohm b) 0.5 Ohm c) 1.0 Ohm d) 2.0 Ohms

46. Maximum permissible earth resistance at SP/SSP

a) 0.25 Ohm b) 0.5 ohm c) 1.0 ohm d) 2.0 ohms

47. Distance between male and female contact of Isolator

a) 300 mm b) 320 mm c) 580 mm d) 500 mm

48. Maximum distance between 2 discharge pole while working on OHE

a) 1 KM b) 0.5 KM c) 100 Mtrs d) 10 Mtrs

49. VA capacity of Type 1 PT is

a) 100 VA b) 75 VA c) 50 VA d) 30 VA

50. WTI trip operates at

a) 85 deg C b) 80 deg C c) 90 deg C d) 95 deg C

51. OTI alarm operates at

a) 85 deg C b) 80 deg C c) 90 deg C d) 95 deg C

52. Who can grant traffic block

a) TPC b) ATNL c) SM d) TLC

53. Who grants local (yard/siding) power block ?

a) PWI b)ATNL c)SM d)TLC

54. Hightest tap setting for 132 / 25 KV transformer

a) 100 % b) 110% c) 90% d) 115 %

55. Lowest tap setting for 132/25 KV transformer

a) 90 % b) 80 % c) 110 % d) 85 %

56.Operation of VCB is done by

a) Gas b) air c) Vacuum d) Spring

57. 132 KV LA rating

a) 140 KV b) 132 KV c) 120 KV d) 42 KV
58.110 KV LA rating
a)140KV b)132 KV c)120 KV d)42 KV

59. 100 % overload in transformer permitted for ---- minutes

a) 1 b) 8 c) 5 d) 15

60. A step up transformer increases

a) current b) voltage c) power d) frequency
 ESTABLISHMENT

Q. 1 Full form of LAP is -------------------------

A) Leave on full pay B) Leave on average pay C) Left on average pay average D) All of
above

Q.2 Full form of LHAP is -------------------------

A) Leave on half average pay B) Leave half pay C) Half average pay D) All of above

Q. 3 Total accumulation limit of LAP ------------------

A) 240 days B) 260 days C) 300 days D) none of these

Q. 4 Half yearly credit of LAP is -----------------------

A) 15 days B) 30 days C) 20 days D) none of these

Q. 5 Paternity Leave may get ---------------

A) Casual labour B) Temporary staff C) Contractor staff D) Permanent railway
employee

Q. 6 Paternity Leave will get up to --------surviving children .

A) 2 ( Two) B) 1 ( One ) C) 3 ( Three) D) all of above

Q. 7 Paternity Leave will get -------------

A) Male Employee B) Female Employee C) Male or Female Employee both D) All
of above .

Q.8 Paternity leave will be apply within -------------

A) 1 year B) 6 months C) 12 months D) none of these

Q.9 Paternity Leave will be avail --------days .

A) 30 days B) 15 days C) 20 days D) none of these .

Q.10 Maternity Leave may get --------------

A) Casual labour B) Temporary staff
C) 1961 Act staff D) Permanent railway employee

Q. 11 Maternity Leave will get -------------

A) Female Employee B) Male Employee C) Male or Female Employee both D) All
of above .

Q.12 Maternity Leave will be avail --------days .

A) 150 days B) 120 days C) 180 days D) none of these

Q. 13 Casual Leave (CL) will get --------------days in a calendar year for open line staff .
A) 10 days B) 8 days C) 12 days D) 15 days .

Q. 14 Casual Leave (CL) will get ------days in a calendar year for Work shop staff .
 A)13 days B) 10 days C) 8 days D) 15 days

Q.15 Full form of PTO is ----------------

A) Priviledge ticket order B) Previous ticket order C) Pass ticket order D) none of these

Q.16 Priviledge Pass validation period from issue date ------------

A) 4 months B) 5 months C) 6 months D) none of these .

Q.17 ---------set Priviledge pass will be getting an Employee( C & D group staff ) in a calendar
up to 5 years service length .
A) 1 set B) 6 sets C) 3 sets D) none these

Q.18 ---------sets Priviledge pass will be getting an Employee( ‘C’ & ‘D’ group staff ) in a
calendar after completion 5 years service .

A) 1 set B) 6 sets C) 3 sets D) none of these

Q.19 ---------- sets Priviledge pass will be getting an Employee( ‘A’ & ‘B’ group staff ) in a
calendar .
A) 1 set B) 6 sets C) 3 sets D) none of these

Q. 20 Employee can travel by PTO with --------------

A) full fare B) half fare C) one third fare D) none of these

Q. 21 Employee can travel by Priviledge pass with --------------

A) free of fare completely B) half fare C) one third fare D) full fare

Q. 22 Which category employee are getting Duty Pass (Metal pass)?

(A) Group ‘C’ & ‘D’ ( B) Group ‘A’ & ‘B’ (C) Group ‘A’ & ‘C’ (D) all of above

Q. 23 Full form of ‘PNM ‘is ----------------------------------------------------------------

A) Permanent negotiating machinery B) Permanent negotiating machine
C) Permanent negotiation machine D) All of above

Q. 24 Full form of ‘HOER’ is ---------------------------

A) Hours our employment regulatory B) Hours of employment regulation
C) Hours of employee regulation D) all of above

Q. 25 ‘Continuous staff ‘ is ---------------------

A) Section controllers B) Saloon Attendants C) Supervisors D) none of these

Q. 26 Night duty hours in railway from ------- to -----------.

A) 23.00 –7.00 Hrs B) 22.00 -- 6.00 Hrs C) 00.00 – 8.00 Hrs D) 22.30 –06.30 Hrs .

Q.27 DAR will not be apply to ------------

A) Casual Employee B) Supervisor staff C) Artisans staff D) all of above

Q. 28 Full form of ‘DAR’ is -----------------

 A) Discipline Appeal rules B) Discipline and Appeal rules
C) Display and Appeal rules D) all of above

Q. 29 Full of SF-11 is------------

A) Super fast-11 B) Standard form-11 C) Standard facily-11 D) none of these

Q. 30 ------------ days LAP in a calender will restored to Principal ,Headmasters ,Teachers ,

Librarians , Laboratory Assistants who are working in Railway School .
A) 15 B) 20 C) 10 D) 30

Q.31 LHAP up to a Maximum of -------- days shall be allowed to be commuted for an approved
course of study during the entire service .
A) 120 B) 180 C) 240 D) None of these

Q.32 Leave not due during the entire service shall be limited to a Maximum of -------days , on
medical certificate .
A) 180 B) 240 C) 360 D) None of these

Q. 33 Child Adoption Leave may granted to Employee on adoption of a child ------ of age
A) up to 2 years B) up to 1 year C) up to 6 Months D) None of these

Q. 34 An Employee can be deemed suspended , if he is detained in police custody for more than
A) 24 Hours B) 36 Hours C) 48 Hours D) 72 Hours

Q. 35 Woman Employees having two minor children may be granted Child care leave during
entire service for a maximum of
A) 365 days B) 730 days C) 1460 days D) None of these

Q.36 Extra -ordinary leaves can be granted in combination with other leaves except
A) LHAP B) LAP C) CL D) Study Leave

Q. 37 During Hospital leave , full salary is granted for a period of

A) 30 days B) 60 days C) 90 days D) 120 days

Q. 38 Paternity leave can be granted for a maximum of

A) 7 days B) 15 days C) 30 days D) 45 days

Q. 39 Leave not due during the entire service is limited to maximum of

A) 360 days B) 365 days C) 730 days D) 400 days

Q. 40 Percentage of Basic pay for House rent allowance for ‘X’ classification cities is
A) 10 % B) 16 % C) 24 % D) 30 %

Q. 41 Percentage of Basic pay for House rent allowance for ‘Y’ classification cities is
A) 10 % B) 16 % C) 24 % D) 30 %

Q.42 Post retirement passes are not granted to ----------------Employee .

A) Retired B) Compulsory retired C) Dismissal D) None of these

Q.43 Compensatory casual leave may be availed within ---------month .

A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) None of these
Q.44 A parent or a guardian may be included in school pass under --------years boy .
A) 18 B) 21 C) 16 D) None of these

Q.45 Standard form no --- is used for charge Memorandum for Major penalty
A) 1 B)11 C) 5 D) 7

Q. 46 The standard hours of duty of an ‘Intensive ‘ worker in a week shall be ---- hours .
A) 40 B) 36 C) 48 D) 42

Q. 47 Standard form no ----- is used for charge Memorandum for Minor penalty
A) 1 B)11 C) 5 D) 7

Q. 48 Weekly rest of not less than --------consecutive hours is granted to Railway servant whose
employment is classified as ‘Continuous’.
A) 48 B) 30 C) 30 D) 24

Q.49 As per HOER Rules , an ‘Excluded ’ Employee is required to work in a fortnight ------
A) 96 Hrs B) 104 Hrs C) 45 Hrs D) None of above

Q. 50 Full of MOSR -----------------------------------

A) Minister of State for Railway B) Minister of Suburban Railway
C) Modernization of State Railway D) None of These

Q.51 Full of MRVC is ----------------------------------------

A) Modernization for Railway Vehicle & Carries B) Mumbai Railway Vikas Corporation
C) Mumbai Rail Vikas Committee D) None of these

Q. 52 Full form of KRCL is -----------------------------------

A) Konkan Railway Corporation Ltd . B) Konkan Railway Company Ltd
C) Konkan Railway Computerised Link D) Konkan Railway Construction Ltd

Q. 53 Appointment of Inquiry Officer under DAR rules is made by Standard Form No -------
A) 5 B) 1 C) 7 D) 11

Q. 54 Reservation of SC should not be exceed ----------% of total Vacancy .

A) 10 % B) 15 % C) 7.5 % D) None of these

Q.55 New pension system in Railway has come into effect from date ---------------
A) 01/01/2014 B) 01/01/2005 C) 01/01/2004 D)01/01/2002

Q. 56 LAP shall be credited to a Railway servant at the rate of ---------days per month .
A) 2.5 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4`

Q.57 Reservation of ST should not be exceed ----------% of total Vacancy .

A) 10 % B) 15 % C) 7.5 % D) None of these

Q. 58 Privilege pass shall be valid for ------------------ months from the date of issue .
A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2

Q. 59 Privilege Ticket Order shall be valid for ------------ months from the date of issue .
A) 4 B) 5 C) 2 D) 3
Q. 60 Half set Privilege pass shall be valid for ------------------ months from the date of issue .
A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2

Q. 61 Half set Privilege Ticket Order shall be valid for ------------ months from the date of issue
A) 4 B) 5 C) 2 D) 3

Q.62 As per 7th pay commission , minimum HRA for ‘X’ class city will be Rs ----------------
A) 5400 B) 4320 C) 2800 D) 5000

Q.63 As per 7th pay commission , minimum HRA for ‘Y’ class city will be Rs ----------------
A) 2880 B) 4800 C) 3600 D) 5000

Q.64 As per 7th pay commission , minimum HRA for ‘Z’ class city will be Rs ----------------
A) 1440 B) 1800 C) 3600 D) 5000

Q.65 Reservation of OBC should not be exceed ----------% of total Vacancy .

A) 28 % B) 15 % C) 27 % D) None of these

Q. 66 Total reservation of SC , ST and OBC should not be exceeded --------------% of total

vacancy .
A) 50 % B) 51 % C) 25 % D) 27 %

Q.67 On Zonal Level , the PNM is held once in --------------------

A) 3 months B) 4 months C) 1 month D) 6 months

Q. 68 Percentage of Basic pay for House rent allowance for ‘Z’ classification cities is
A) 10 % B) 16 % C) 8 % D) 30 %

Q.70 Post retirement passes are granted to ----------------Employee .

A) Retired B) Temporary C) Dismissal D) None of these

Q. 71 An Employee can be avail Maximum ‘Compensatory Casual Leave’ ------days at a time .

A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 5

Q.72 An Employee is working on ‘REST’ day , he will credit/gain -------------------leave.

A) Casual B) LAP C) Compensatory Casual D) none of these

Q. 73 -----------days of LHAP in a calendar year can be credited to an Employee.

A) 15 B) 20 C) 30 D) 10

Q. 74 -------------days of LAP in a calendar year can be credited to an Employee.

A) 15 B) 20 C) 30 D) 10

Q. 75 Western Railway has -------------- number of Divisions .

A) 6 B) 5 C) 8 D) 4

Q. 76 RDSO is situated at --------------------city.

A) New Delhi B) Lucknow C) Gwalior D) None of these .
Q. 76 Full form of RDSO is -------------------------------
A) Research Diagram Standard Organisation B) Research Designs & Standards Organisation
C) Railways Designs & standards Organisation D) None of these
Q. 77 Full form RITES is ---------------------------------------------------------
A) Rail India Technical and Economic Service B) Railway India Technical Economic service
C) Railway Institute for Technical and Economic Service D) None of these

Q.78 RITES is situated at -------------------city .

A) Kolkata B) Mumbai C) Gurgaon D) None of these

Q. 79 Rail Bhawan is situated at ---------------city

A) Kolkata B) Delhi C) Chennai D) None of these

Q.80 ------------ Railway Zones in Indian Railway .

A) 9 B) 15 C) 17 D)16

Q. 81 Full form of PREM is ------------------------------------------------------

A) Permanent railway employee Machinery B) Permanent Railways Electrification Machinery
C) Participation of Railways Employees in Management D) Railways Employees in
Management

Q. 82 Full form of ‘RCF’ is -----------------------------------------------

A) Rail Coach factory B) Railway committee Fund
C) Railway Consumer federation D) Railway Copyright & Trademark

Q. 83 Full form of RCT is ------------------------------------------------------

A) Railway compensation tribunal B) Railway Claims Tribunal
C) Research for Curve Tracks D) Railway Copyright & Trademark

Q.84 As per 7th pay commission, Maximum Children’s education allowance for one child is Rs
---------------
A) 18000 B) 27000 C) 36000 D) 54000

Q.85 In Division level , the PNM is held once in ----------------------

A) 3 months B) 1 month C) 2 months D) 4 months

Q. 86 Form -----is used for revoking suspension of an employee

A) SF-4 B) SF-11 C) SF-5 D) SF-7

Q. 87 SF-1 is served to an employee for ----------------------

A) Suspension B) Major Penalty C) Minor Penalty D) None of these

Q. 88 National Academy of Indian Railway (NAIR) is situated at --------------city .

A) New Delhi B) Lucknow C) Vadodara D) none of these

Q. 89 Average period for calculating overtime in respect of ‘Continuous ‘ staff if --------days .

A) 12 B) 14 C) 7 D) 12

Q. 90 A Group ‘C’ Railway employee can avail ---------sets of privilege passes .

A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 6

Q.91 Broad Gauge of Railway is --------------mm .

A) 1676 B) 1000 C) 836 D) None of these

Q. 91 Metre Gauge of Railway is --------------mm

A) 1676 B) 1000 C) 836 D) None of these

Q.92 44 A parent or a guardian may be included in school pass under --------years girl .
A) 18 B) 21 C) 16 D) None of these

Q. 93 Narrow Gauge railway is ---------------mm .

A) 1676 B) 1000 C) 762 D) None of these

Q. 94 Head quarter of North East Frontier Railway is ------------

A) New Delhi B) Kolkata C) Chennai D) Maligaon

Q. 95 Head quarter of Eastern Central Railway is ------------------

A) Hajipur B) Secunderabad C) Mumbai D) Gorakhpur
 QUESTION PAPER , ETC/VR DATE-18/01/2020
FOR REFRESHER BATCH, PSI UNIT , MARKS---

1×10
Q. 1 Full form of LAP is -------------------------
A) Leave on full pay B) Leave on average pay C) Left on average pay
average D) All of above

Q.2 Full form of LHAP is -------------------------

A) Leave on half average pay B) Leave half pay C) Half average pay
D) All of above

Q. 3 Total accumulation limit of LAP ------------------

A) 240 days B) 260 days C) 300 days
D) none of these

Q. 4 Half yearly credit of LAP is -----------------------

A) 15 days B) 30 days C) 20 days
D) none of these

Q. 5 Paternity Leave may get ---------------

A) Casual labour B)Temporary staff
C) Contractor staff D) Permanent railway employee

Q. 6 Paternity Leave will get up to --------surviving children .

A) 2 ( Two) B) 1 ( One ) C) 3 ( Three)
D) all of above

Q.7 Standard form no --- is used for charge Memorandum for Major penalty
A) 1 B)11 C) 5 D) 7

Q. 8 Standard form no --- is used for charge Memorandum for Minor penalty
A) 1 B)11 C) 5 D) 7

Q. 9 Full form of ‘AAC’

--------------------- --------------------------- --------------------------

Q.10 Full form of ‘DAR’

--------------------------------------- ----------------------------- ---------------------

Q.11 Write Insulation Resistance

A) HT – Earth of 42 KV LA =

B)HT – Earth of 96 KV LA =

C)Fixed contact - Moving contact of 25 KV Circuit Breaker =

D) HV-LV of Power Transformer =

E) HV-Earth of Power transformer =

F) LV – Earth of power transformer =

G) HV – Earth of Auxiliary Transformer=

H) LV – Earth of Auxiliary Transformer=

I)HV-LV of Auxiliary Transformer =

J)Control wire – Earth of 25 KV circuit Breaker=