6 (Control Tower Procedures)

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6.

Control Tower
Procedures
Objective
• After studying this chapter, you should be able to:
• 1. Explain how a controller obtains and amends information from the flight data
processing (FDP) system.
• 2. Explain the purpose and operation of the Automatic Terminal Information
Service (ATIS).
• 3. State the duties of a controller in a control tower.
• 4. Define runway incursions and explain why they should be prevented.
• 5. Explain how the local controller separates aircraft in the traffic pattern.
• 6. State the runway separation minima for landing and departing aircraft.
• 7. Explain wake turbulence and the rules concerning its avoidance.
• 8. Explain the usage, requirements, and limitations of land and hold short
operations (LAHSO).
Control Towers

• Primary responsibility of the control tower:


• To ensure that sufficient runway separation exists between aircraft landing and
departing.
• Other responsibilities of the control tower:
• Relaying IFR clearances, providing taxi instructions, and assisting airborne aircraft
within the immediate vicinity of the airport.
• Tasks are accomplished using two-way radio equipment to instruct the pilot to land
or take-off or to adjust the aircraft’s flight pattern.
• There are three general categories of control towers:
• VFR towers,
• Non radar- approach control towers, and
• Radar-approach control towers.
Both radar and non radar approach control towers have been delegated IFR separation
responsibility by a letter of agreement between the control tower and the ACC.
• Non radar-approach Controllers are usually located in tower cab itself and
separate IFR aircraft using the non radar procedures.
• Radar-approach Controllers are usually housed in a separate room near the
base of the tower. These controllers separate IFR aircraft using radar and the
procedures.
• VFR towers are not delegated any significant separation responsibility by the
ACC. Primary responsibility for IFR separation around VFR towers is retained by
the ACC (Area Control Centre) or has been delegated to another control tower.
• Controllers in a VFR tower may be delegated limited responsibility for initially
separating IFR departures or separating IFR arrivals from IFR departures.
• All three types of control towers are responsible for the separation of aircraft
taking off or landing at the airport.
The duties of personnel assigned to a control tower have been subdivided into four categories:
• Flight data,
• Clearance delivery,
• Ground Control,
• Aerodrome Control.
Flight data Controller:
• Assists the other controllers in the tower and performs the clerical duties inherent in the
operation of any facility. The basic responsibilities of a flight data controller include the following:
• Receiving and relaying IFR departure clearances to the clearance delivery controller.
• Operating the flight data processing equipment
• Relaying weather and NOTAM information to other positions of operation
• Aiding other tower controllers by relaying any directed information
• Collecting, tabulating, and storing daily records
• Preparing the Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) recordings
• Processing field condition reports
Receiving and Relaying IFR Departure Clearances

• Flight data controller is responsible for obtaining IFR clearances from the ARTCC and
relaying them to the clearance delivery controller. These clearances are received over
the telephone or through automated procedures.
• IFR clearances obtained by telephone are handwritten, whereas those obtained
automatically are printed mechanically on a flight data input/output (FDIO) device.
• Clearances are printed in a standard format on forms known as Flight Progress Strips.
• After obtaining the IFR clearance, the flight data controller passes the strip to the
clearance delivery controller.
• To facilitate accurate interpretation, flight strips are printed using standard markings
and abbreviations, ensuring that specific information will always be found in the same
place.
• These locations of flight Progress Strips are known as fields. The approved field contents
and format can be found in the Air Traffic Control Handbook.
• Flight progress strips used in control towers are formatted differently from those used in
the ACCs but contain essentially the same information.
Sample terminal flight progress strip.

+ +

SV
Fields on a terminal flight progress strip.

1 5 8 9 9B 10 11 12
2 2A
3 8A
6 13 14 15
7 8B 16 17 18
4 9A 9C

• The format for flight strips differs somewhat depending on whether the aircraft
involved is a departure, an arrival, or an over flight (an aircraft that passes
through the airspace delegated to the tower but is not planning to land).
• Since the flight data controller in the tower will primarily be concerned with
departing aircraft, that type of flight strip is discussed here.
A flight progress strip for a departing aircraft includes the following information, by field number:

1. Aircraft identification. The aircraft identification consists of the approved identification.


2. Revision number (FDIO strip only). When the first flight progress strip has been printed for this
aircraft, a number 1 appears in this location. If the pilot’s flight plan is changed, or if the ACC amends
the pilot’s clearance, a new flight strip is printed with a number 2 in the field.
2A. Strip request originator. At FDIO-equipped locations, this indicates the sector or position that
requested the strip.
3. Type of aircraft. If more than one aircraft is included in the clearance, the number of aircraft
involved precedes the aircraft type, separated by a slash (multiple aircraft flying under the same IFR
clearance are known as a flight). If the aircraft’s gross weight is over 255,000 pounds, it is considered a
heavy aircraft and usually creates a phenomenon known as wake turbulence. A heavy aircraft is
identified with an H preceding the aircraft type on the flight strip. Examples of aircraft types include the
following:
•2/F16 Two F16 fighters
•H/B747 A heavy Boeing 747
•To assist subsequent controllers, an equipment suffix is added to the aircraft type. The type of
equipment onboard the aircraft is determined using the information provided by the pilot upon filing
the IFR flight plan. The equipment suffix printed on the flight strip will usually be one of the following:
To assist subsequent controllers, an equipment suffix is added to the aircraft type. The type of equipment onboard the aircraft is determined using the information provided by the pilot upon
filing the IFR flight plan.
The equipment suffix printed on the flight strip will usually be one of the following:

T ran sp on der
without Tran sp on d er
No altitude w ith altitud e
tra n sp on der encoding encoding
No DME /X /T /U
DME /D /B /A
TACAN Only /M /N /P
Flight Management /E
Systems (FMS)
GPS/GNSS /G
Required Navigation /R
Performance (RNP)
• Transponder
• without Transponder
• No altitude with altitude
• transponder encoding encoding

• Reduced Vertical /W
• Separation Minima (RVSM)
• RNP and RVSM aircraft /Q
• 4. Computer identification number (FDIO only). If the flight progress strip has been computer
generated and printed, a unique computer identification number will be printed in this field. This
number is unique to the aircraft and can be used in place of the aircraft identification number when
using FDIO equipment to obtain additional information about the aircraft.
• 5. Assigned transponder code. The computer located in the ARTCC will assign a transponder code to
this flight. The transponder code is allocated automatically
• according to the National Beacon Code Allocation Plan (NBCAP). Since two aircraft cannot be assigned
the same transponder code while within the boundaries of the same ARTCC, the NBCAP computer
program attempts to assign each aircraft a transponder code that will not be the same as that assigned
to another aircraft.
• The NBCAP plan reserves some codes that cannot be assigned to IFR flights. These transponder codes
include the following:
1200 Reserved for VFR aircraft not in contact with an ATC facility.
7500 Reserved for aircraft being hijacked.
7600 Reserved for aircraft experiencing radio communications failure.
7700 Reserved for aircraft experiencing some type of emergency.
• 6. Proposed departure time. This is the proposed UTC departure time that the pilot
filed in the original flight plan.
• 7. Requested altitude. This is the altitude requested in the pilot’s original flight plan.
To conserve space on the flight progress strip, the last two zeros in the altitude are
dropped. For example:
• Printed altitude Actual altitude
• 50 5,000 feet
• 100 10,000 feet
• 240 Flight level 240 (24,000 feet)
8. Departure airport. This is the airport from which the aircraft will depart. It is
printed as a three-character identifier. Every airport that has a published
instrument approach has been issued an identifier. Some of the more common
identifiers include the following:
ORD O’Hare International, Chicago, Illinois
JFKJohn F. Kennedy International, New York
ATL Hartsfield International, Atlanta, Georgia
9 . Route of flight and destination airport. The clearance limit is either the
destination airport or an intermediate en route fix. The route to be flown includes
any airways or VORs that the pilot will be using. If the route is to be flown using
area navigation (RNAV), either the waypoint names or their latitude-longitude
coordinates will be included. If no airway is designated between two VORs, it is
assumed that the pilot will fly directly from one VOR to the next.
This field may also include any preferential routes that have been assigned by the
ARTCC computer. A preferential route may be a departure, an en route, or an
arrival route. Whenever the computer places a preferential route on the flight
strip, it should replace the route of flight filed by the pilot. Preferential routes can
be identified on the flight progress strip since they are bracketed with + symbols.
This field may also contain the abbreviation FRC, which stands for “full route
clearance.” This abbreviation is added to the flight plan whenever a controller has
changed the pilot's requested route of flight, without the knowledge of the pilot.
This information will be used by the clearance delivery controller.
9A, 9B, and 9C. Optional use.
• 10–18. These fields include any items that may be specified in the facility directives,
including actual departure time, departure runway, or any other pertinent
information. Standard symbols have been developed for use in these situations.
• The flight data controller should check each flight progress strip to ensure that all
the appropriate information has been obtained. It is the flight data controller’s
responsibility to obtain a corrected flight progress strip, if necessary.
• Operating the Flight Data Processing Equipment:
In 1961, A significant portion of a controller’s time was spent communicating with
other controllers, requesting and passing along this essential flight information.
It was recommended to develop a computerized flight information system to
automatically update and print out flight progress strips.
Such a system was developed and finally installed by IBM in the early 1970s.
By the mid-1980s this system had become outdated, and was replaced with a new
computer system called the flight data processing (FDP) system.
Operating the Flight Data Processing Equipment

• The flight data processing system uses computers located at each of the
ACCs to store and update aircraft flight plan information.
• Whenever a pilot files an IFR flight plan with any air traffic control facility,
the information contained in the flight plan is transmitted to and stored in
the computer.
• A half hour prior to the pilot’s proposed departure time, the computer
assigns the aircraft a transponder code and causes a flight progress strip to
be printed on an FDIO printer at the departure airport.
• At facilities not equipped with FDIO, the flight progress strip is printed at
the appropriate ACC sector, and the flight data controller in the tower must
telephone the ACC and request the appropriate flight information.
• This information must then be handwritten by the flight data controller
onto a flight progress strip.
• Departure Message When the aircraft departs, the FDIO is used to send a
departure message to the computer at the center. A departure message may be
sent either manually or automatically.
• To manually transmit a departure message, the flight data controller types the
departure aircraft’s identification and time of departure into the FDIO. This
information is then sent to the computer. The controller may use the aircraft’s
call sign, transponder code, or computer identification number to identify any
particular aircraft.
• The departure time is always entered as UTC time. If no time is entered in the
departure message, the current time is assumed by the computer.
• A departure message is preceded by the characters “DEP” when being entered
into the FDIO. For example:
• DEP UA611 0313 United Airlines Flight 611 departed at 0313 UTC.
• DEP 561 The aircraft assigned computer identification number
561 departing at current UTC time.
• If the Control Tower is equipped with the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS),
the departure message will be automatically sent to the ACC computer whenever the
secondary radar receiver detects the transmission from the aircraft’s transponder.
• Upon receipt of the departure message, the ACC computer begins to automatically
calculate the aircraft’s future position and prints a flight progress strip for every
controller who will eventually be responsible for separating the aircraft.
• The computer transmits the flight progress strip to each sector approximately 20 to
30 minutes before the aircraft is scheduled to enter that sector.
• Amending Flight Progress Strips Using FDIO :
• The flight progress strip is typically printed in the control tower 30 minutes before the
pilot’s proposed departure time.
• If one of the fields on the flight strip contains incorrect information or if the pilot
requests a change to the flight plan, the flight data controller may be asked to amend
the strip to incorporate the new information.
Amending Flight Progress Strips Using FDIO
• . The controller does so by using the FDIO to send an amendment (AM) message.
The proper procedure is to type the letters AM followed by the aircraft’s
identification, the number of the field that needs to be changed, and the new
information for that field.
• For example, AM UA611 7 120 changes the pilot’s requested altitude (field 7) to
12,000 feet.
• If the aircraft’s route of flight or altitude is amended, a new flight progress strip is
automatically sent to every subsequent sector.
• If the aircraft’s route of flight will cause it to cross into another ACC’s area of
responsibility, the appropriate flight information is automatically transmitted to
the computer within that ACC.
• When the aircraft leaves the ACCs area or lands at the arrival airport, the flight
information is erased from the computer’s memory, permitting that aircraft’s
transponder code to be allocated to another aircraft.
Relaying Weather and NOTAM Information

• The flight data controller is required to acquire and disseminate


appropriate weather information to other controllers or to the MET. office).
If the MET office is located at the airport, its personnel are usually
responsible for taking routine weather observations.
• The controllers in the Tower are required to make only tower visibility
observations. If no MET office is located at the airport, the Tower
controllers are likely to be responsible for performing all of the necessary
weather observations, which they forward to the nearest MET facility.
• The controllers in the Tower are also responsible for asking pilot reports
from pilots operating within the vicinity of the Control Tower.
• The flight data controller is also responsible for disseminating this weather
information to pilots through the use of Automatic Terminal Information
Service (ATIS) equipment.
Relaying Weather and NOTAM Information
• ATIS is a continuous-loop digital recording usually made by the flight data
controller and transmitted on a VHF frequency for pilot reception.
• ATIS recordings inform both arriving and departing pilots of weather conditions
and other pertinent information at the airport.

• Pilot reception of ATIS information relieves the ground or approach controller


of repeating weather conditions and non-control information to every aircraft.

• Recordings are made at least once every half hour but may be made more
often if weather conditions change rapidly.
Following information should be included in an ATIS recording:
• 1. The name of the airport.
• 2. The ATIS phonetic alphabet code. Every ATIS recording is assigned a code letter that identifies it. The code
begins with the letter A and is incremented as new ATIS recordings are made. When pilots make initial contact
with a controller, they advise that they have received “Information (code letter).” Whenever a new ATIS recording
is made, it is the flight data controller’s responsibility to inform the other controllers in the facility of the new ATIS
code letter. Because pilots may listen to the ATIS 10 to 20 minutes prior to
• contacting a controller, this procedure identifies whether the pilot has received the latest ATIS information.
• 3. The UTC time of weather observation. This may not be the actual time that the ATIS is recorded, as there is
usually a delay between the weather observation and the recording.
• 4. Wind direction and speed.
• 5. The visibility in KM and/or fractions of a Kilometer.*
• 6. The cloud ceiling. The ceiling is measured in feet above the ground and is either measured or estimated.
• 7. The current temperature in degrees Celsius.
• 8. The current dew point temperature in degrees Celsius.
• 9. The altimeter setting.
• 10.The instrument approach procedure(s) currently in use.
• 11.The runways(s) used for arrivals.
• 12.The runway(s) used for departures.
• 13.Pertinent NOTAMS or weather advisories. These include any taxiway closures, severe weather advisories,
navigation aid disruptions, unlit obstacles in the vicinity of the airport, or any other problems that could affect the
safety of flight.
• 14.Braking action reports (if appropriate).
• 15.Low-level wind-shear advisories (if appropriate).
• 16.Remarks or other information. This may include VFR arrival frequencies, radio frequencies that have been
temporarily changed, runway friction measurement values, bird activity advisories, and part-time tower operation.
• 17.Some towers are required to include a statement advising the pilot to read back instructions to hold short of a
runway. The air traffic manager may elect to remove this requirement provided that it does not result in increased
requests from aircraft for read back of hold short instructions.
• 18.Instructions for the pilot to advise the controller that the ATIS recording has been received.

• A typical ATIS recording is taped in the following sequence:


• Landing Airport information charlie, one five five zero zulu weather, wind one six zero at one zero, visibility five,
light snow, measured ceiling six hundred overcast. Temperature seven, dew point two, altimeter two niner five
five. ILS runway two eight left approach in use, landing and departing runways two eight left and two eight right.
• NOTAM, taxiway bravo is closed. VFR arrivals contact Landing approach control on one two five point niner. Advise
the controller on initial contact that you have information charlie.
Clearance Delivery Controller Duties
• Clearance delivery Controller:
• Responsible for obtaining and relaying departure clearances to pilots. The clearance should include the
following:
• Aircraft identification
• Clearance limit
• Departure procedure
• Route of flight
• Altitude
• Departure frequency
• Transponder code
• The clearance delivery controller is also responsible for amending clearances as necessary. including
temporary altitude restrictions or temporary changes in the aircraft’s route of flight.
• Aerodrome Controller:
• At most radar-equipped facilities, the Aerodrome Controller has been delegated the responsibility for
initially separating departing aircraft.
• To ensure that these departures are properly separated from other aircraft within the approach controller’s
airspace, facility directives usually describe a specific area that may be used only for departures.
• Arriving aircraft may not enter this airspace without approval from the local
controller. Every facility has its own unique requirements that affect the shape of
this departure area, extending from the Earth’s surface up to about 2,000 feet AGL.
• The facility directives usually state that the local controller may depart aircraft into
this area without prior coordination with the departure controller. The departure
controller must keep arriving aircraft out of this area unless the local controller
grants approval. This procedure automatically provides for initial separation of
aircraft.
• Once an aircraft departs, the local controller advises the pilot to contact the
departure controller, who has the authority to amend the aircraft's clearance as
necessary.
• For example, if a pilot requests a cruising altitude of 15,000 feet MSL but the upper
limit of the departure area is 5,000 feet MSL, the clearance delivery controller
would advise the pilot to “maintain five thousand, expect one five thousand one
zero minutes after departure.”
Protecting Critical Areas Obstacle critical area.
Local Controller Duties Runway Separation

• Departing Aircraft Separation


• Preceding aircraft must have crossed the departure threshold or
turned to avoid a conflict before the following aircraft can depart.
Intersecting Runway Separation
• Before the departing aircraft on the intersecting runway can
be cleared for takeoff, the arriving aircraft must have
(a) landed and turned off the runway,
(b)landed and advised that it will hold short of the
intersection, or
(c) passed through the intersection

Traffic Pattern
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=w_Bbs4K7L5U&t=213s
Traffic pattern legs

• Base leg

an aircraft in left traffic.


Arriving Aircraft

• An arriving aircraft may not cross the landing threshold until the
preceding aircraft has landed and turned off of the runway.


• “Go Around” If it is apparent that proper runway separation cannot
be achieved and neither aircraft’s traffic pattern can be adjusted, it
will be necessary to cancel landing clearance for one of the aircraft.
• In this case, the local controller determines which aircraft’s landing
clearance should be cancelled and instructs that aircraft to “go
around.”
• Upon receipt of this instruction, the pilot will immediately begin a
climb to pattern altitude and will re-enter the traffic pattern as
instructed. Here are some examples of phraseology:
American six eleven, go around, enter right downwind runway
two seven left.
Cessna niner eight delta, go around, enter left base for runway
two five.
• “Cleared to Land” This clearance authorizes the pilot to make a full-stop landing. If the local
controller is using anticipated separation and has cleared more than one aircraft to land, the
preceding traffic should be included in the landing clearance. Any restrictions or requests
should precede this clearance. These might include instructions to hold short of a runway or to
plan to turn off of the runway at a designated taxiway. If the local controller should be able to
see the landing aircraft but cannot do so either visually or using radar, the phrase “not in sight”
should be added to the landing clearance. This phrase alerts the pilot to the fact that the
controller is unsure of the aircraft’s position. It is not uncommon for a pilot to be in contact
with the control tower at one airport while mistakenly attempting to land at another. Advising
the pilot that the aircraft is not in sight will make the pilot aware that they might be
approaching the wrong airport.
• Some examples of landing phraseology:
• Cessna two six mike, cleared to land runway two three.
• Tomahawk six four November, not in sight, cleared to land runway one zero.
• United one twenty-five, cleared to land runway two three, traffic landing runway one zero.
• Clipper four seventeen, cleared to land runway one four right, hold short of runway niner right, traffic
landing runway niner right.
• After the aircraft has landed, the local controller should advise the pilot where to exit the runway and what
frequency to use for contacting the ground controller.
• “Cleared for Touch and Go” A touch and go clearance permits an aircraft to
land on the runway but to take off again before actually coming to a stop.
• This maneuver is usually used by students practicing takeoffs and landings.
• An aircraft performing a touch and go is considered an arriving aircraft until
actually touching down and then is considered a departure.
• “Cleared for Stop and Go” A stop and go clearance is similar to a touch and go
except that the aircraft comes to a full stop on the runway before beginning its
takeoff run.
• A stop and go is also considered an arriving aircraft until coming to a complete
stop, after which it is considered a departure.
• “Cleared for Low Approach” In a low approach, the pilot approaches to land on the
runway but does not actually make contact with the runway surface. Upon reaching the
desired altitude, the pilot begins a climb. Low approaches are usually used by pilots
practicing instrument approaches. In many cases, the pilot may wish to execute the
published missed approach procedure. When it is desirable to determine the pilot’s
intentions prior to issuing this clearance, the controller may ask the pilot, “State your
intentions.” An aircraft conducting a low approach is considered an arriving aircraft until it
crosses the landing threshold, after which it is considered a departure.
• “Cleared for the Option” An option clearance permits the pilot to perform a landing,
touch and go, stop and go, or low approach. The pilot will not typi- cally inform the
controller which option he or she has chosen. This maneuver is generally used in flight
training to permit a flight instructor to evaluate a student’s performance under changing
conditions. If the controller is unable to approve all the options, the following phraseology
should be used to restrict the pilot to the options that can be safely accommodated:
• Sport one three Romeo, unable option, make a full-stop landing.
• Cessna three Niner eight, unable stop and go, other options approved.
Runway Selection
• Since aircraft landing into the wind touch down at lower ground speeds that shorten
the landing roll, most pilots, when given a choice, prefer to land or depart on a
runway as nearly aligned with the wind as possible. Unless other- wise specified by
facility directives, it is usually the local controller’s responsibility to decide which
runway becomes the active runway.
• Local controllers should comply with the following guidelines when selecting active
runways:
1. Whenever the wind speed is greater than 5 knots, use the runway most nearly aligned with the
wind.
2. The calm wind runway should be used whenever the wind is less than 5 knots. The calm wind
runway will be specified by the airport management and is contained in the facility directives.
This runway is chosen to maximize arrivals and departures while minimizing the noise impact on
local residences.
3. The local controller can use any other runway when it is operationally advantageous to do so.
4. If a runway use program has been designated for the facility, the runways specified in the
program should be used as the active runways.
Runway Use Programs

• To minimize the noise impact of landing and departing aircraft, the FAA has implemented a
nationwide Aviation Noise Abatement Policy. This policy places the primary responsibility for
planning and implementing a noise abatement program on the operator of each airport. The
runway use program put into place may be either informal or formal.
• Informal runway use programs primarily affect aircraft that weigh more than 12,500 pounds.
• At airports with informal runway use programs, the controllers will assign these aircraft to
the runway chosen by airport management whenever all of the following conditions can be
met:
• The wind direction is within 90° of the runway heading.
• The wind does not exceed 15 knots.
• The runway is clear and dry, which means that there is no snow, ice, slush, or water on the runway.
• If pilots wish to use a different runway from that specified in the informal runway use
program, they are expected to inform the controller.
• Air traffic controllers are required to honor these requests, but they will advise the pilot that
the runway is “noise sensitive.”
Runway Use Programs
• If airport management wishes to have aircraft use specific runways even when
the runway conditions exceed those listed earlier, a formal runway use program
must be initiated.
• A formal program requires that aircraft operators, airport management,
consummate a letter of agreement specifying the preferential runways and the
weather conditions that must exist to use those runways.
• The letter of agreement specifies that although pilots are expected to comply
with these procedures, pilot requests for other runways will be honored.
However, the pilot will be advised that the previously assigned runway is
specified in the formal runway use program.

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