National Achievement

Test 2022-2023
SCIENCE
1. In the figure below, which of the following is
the location for metamorphic rock formation?

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only
 .
2 Below is a picture of volcanic glass obsidian which is an igneous rock that exhibits a
smooth, uniform texture. How did it obtain its glassy texture?

A. It was cooled slowly.

B. It was cooled rapidly.
C. It was cooled too rapidly.
D. It was cooled slowly then rapidly
3. Metamorphic facies are the different metamorphic rocks formed at
the same temperature and pressure conditions but with different
parent rock grouped together Among the different metamorphic facies,
which of the following will be formed when the parent rock is in a
subduction zone of an oceanic-continental plate boundary?

A. Amphibolite
B. Blueschist
C. Greenschist
D. Hornfels
 4. Mrs. Gonzales takes in calcium supplements
regularly because of her fear of having osteoporosis.
What hormones does she need to monitor to ensure
proper regulation of calcium intake and its release
from the bones?
A Insulin and calcitonin
B. Prolactin and oxytocin
C. Growth hormone and thyroxine
D. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
5. To help animals store food, what process is
involved in the production of fat and glycogen
in animals?
A Hydrolysis
B. Photosynthesis
C. Biological oxidation
D. Dehydration synthesis
6. Why is mechanical breakdown of food
necessary for digestion?
A. It facilitates absorption of food by the villi of the small intestine
B. It allows liquid solutions to move down the digestive tract faster
C It facilitates the movement of food down the digestive tract by
peristalsis
D. It exposes a larger surface area of the food particles for chemical
digestion
 7. Which principle of relative dating may be
used to determine that the rocks at the Grand
Canyon National Park are of the same age?
A Inclusion
B. Lateral continuity
C. Fossil succession
D. Cross-cutting relationships
8. Meteorites are remnants of meteoroids that have
entered the earth's atmosphere and reached the
surface. They provide a clue on how the Solar system
was formed Which dating method is most suitable
for determining the age of meteorites?

A. Radiometric dating
B. Radiocarbon dating
C. Fission track dating
D. Luminescence dating
9. A rhyolite found at the peak of Mount Rogers
Virginia is found to be 820 millio years old using the
radioactive isotope Potassium-40 Which radioactive
isotope can be best used to be able to date an equally
old rock sample?
•A. Carbon-14 with a half life of 5,730 years
•B. Thorium-232 with a half life of 14 billion years
•C. Uranium-238 with a half life of 4.8 billion years 
•D. Uranium-235 with a half life of 704 million years
10. Why is a person with blood type AB capable
of receiving all blood types?

A. Antigens A and B are present.

B. Antibodies A and B are present.
C. Antigens A and B are not present.
D. Antibodies A and B are not present
11. Which characteristic of the genetic code
decreases the occurrence mutation?

A Triplet coding system

B. Degeneracy of the codes
C. Universality of the genetic code
D. Ability of the codes to be repeated
12. If a portion of a strand of a much longer
molecule has a nucleotide sequence AGC AGG
CAG ATC, what will be the complementary
strand?

A. TCG TCC GTC TAG

B. AGC AGG CAG ATC
C. AGC AGG CAG AUC
D. UCG UCC GUC UAG
13. The diagram below shows the
relationship between photosynthesis
and cellular respiration. Which
statement below would best explain
the relationship between the two
processes?
13. The diagram below shows the relationship between
photosynthesis and cellular respiration. Which statement
below would best explain the relationship between the two
processes?
A Photosynthesis produces energy that is released in cellular respiration
B Photosynthesis produces food using CO2 and H2O released during
cellular respiration.
C. Photosynthesis absorbs light energy that is used to cellular
respiration produce food in
D. Carbon dioxide and water are produced in cellular respiration
necessary to produce food in photosynthesis.
14. There is an increased carbon dioxide level in the
atmosphere of deforested areas. Which of the
following is the reason behind this increase?

A. Increased transpiration rate

B. Decreased rate of photosynthesis
C. Increased rate of cellular respiration
D. Increased absorption of solar energy by the surface of the
earth
15. What form of energy is needed by plants in
order to reduce inorganic compounds to
organic compounds?

A Heat energy
B. Light energy
C. Electrical energy
D. Chemical energy
For Items 16 and 17, refer to the situation below.
The data below show the result of an experiment wherein a sodium
thiosulfa solution mixed with a muriatic acid (HCI) solution produced a
yellow colloidal sulfate that resulted in the invincibility of X-mark
under a flask overtime The chemical equation is summarized as
Na;S:05 +2 HCl 2 NaCl +S+SO₂+ H₂O
 16. Which generalization is best to give based on the
information presented above?
•A. The rate of invicibilty of X-mark increases as temperature of the chemical system
increases
•B. The rate of invicibilty of X-mark increases as temperature of the chemical system
decreases
•C. The rate of invicibilty of X-mark decreases as temperature of the system increases.
•D. The rate of invicibilty of X-mark did not change even if the temperature of the
chemical system increases.
17. Which of the following statements best
explains your answer in item 16?
A. Lower temperature promotes higher kinetic energy and a higher number
collisions 
B. Higher temperature promotes higher kinetic energy and a higher number
collisions; therefore, faster rate of chemical reaction.
C. Higher temperature promotes higher kinetic energy and a higher number
collisions; therefore, slower rate of chemical reaction.
D. Lower temperature promotes higher kinetic energy and a lower
18. Chalk is made up of calcium carbonate. When
powdered chalk is left in a solution strong acid, it produces
bubbles faster compared to a chalk stick. What is the best
explanation to this?
A. The smaller particle size provides a higher surface area resulting to a fast
reaction collision
B. The smaller particle size provides a lower surface area resulting to a fast
reaction collision.
C. The smaller particle size provides a higher surface area resulting to a slow
reaction collision.
D. The larger particle size provides a lower surface area resulting to a fast
reaction collision
19. Electrolysis is a process by which a current is passed through a
substance. Oxygen (O2) and hydrogen (H2) gasses can be produced through
water (H2O) electrolysis This is illustrated by the chemical reaction shown
below
2H2O(l) -> 2H2(g) + O2
If you start with 36 grams of water, how much oxygen gas will be produced
idea considering the given data below?
Given molar mass of O = 16 g/mol, molar mass of H = 1g /mol
A. 16 g O2
B. 32g O2
C. 36g O2
D. 64g O2
20. Sodium bicarbonate, NaHCO3 (commonly known as baking soda)
reacts with ace acid, CH COOH (present in vinegar) to produce a basic salt
(CH,COONa), wat (H_{2}*O) and carbon dioxide (C*O_{2}) as described in
the chemical equation below
NaHCO3(s) + CH3COOH(aq) -> CH3COONa(aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
How many moles of CO2 will be produced from 10 moles of NaHCO3 that
react completely with enough CHCOOH?
•A. 1
•B.2 
•C. 10
•D.2
21Refer to the balanced chemical equation below.
NaHCO3(s) + CH3COOH(aq) -> CH3COONa(aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
Tony performed an experiment relating the amount of carbon dioxide (CO)
gas from the amount of the reactants. He summarized his observations in
the table below.
•A. Increasing the mass of NaHCO, in enough volume of CH COOH increases the mass of CO₂
•B. Increasing the mass of NaHCO3 in enough volume of CH3COOH increases the mass of
CO2 and other products
•C. Increasing the mass of NaHCO, in enough volume of CH COOH increases the mass of
CO2 and the reaction energy.
•D. Increasing the mass of NaHCO in enough volume of CH COOH increases the mass of
CO2. other products and reaction energy
22. Which of the following is an abiotic factor?

A. pH of the soil in the field

B. Number of algae in a pond
C. A population of earthworms
D. Relationship of "palay" and frog
23. Examine the illustration below. Which of the following
organisms is a tertiary consumer?

•A. Grass
•B. Grasshopper
•C. Mouse
•D. Owl
24. Adaptive radiation in the mouthparts of insects is
shown in the diagram below. What is the best implication
of this process to the survival of insects?

•A. There is an increase in the diversity,

•B. There is an increase in the survival rate.
•C. There is increase in the reproductive rate
•D. There is an increase in the competition among insects
25. Fossil evidence shows that many species existed for only a
brief period time and eventually became extinct. What could be
the reason existence?

•A. The species lacked the energy to undergo mutation.

•B The species lacked genotypic variations with adaptive value.
•C. Human interventions destroyed habitats of many species leading to
the extinction
•D. Increased competition within the species led to the depletion of
resource and increased mortality rate leading to extinction.
26. Which of the following animals is the most closely
related to dolphin?

•A. Dog
•B. Fish
•C. Snake
•D. Turtle
27. What intervention with least harm to the
environment can remove unwanted insect pests?

•A Removing plants that are used by insects as food

•B Spraying the insects with water soluble insecticides
•C. Introducing exotic species of insects that can prey on the insects
•D. Using traps baited with hormones that can attract are killed
28. For numbers 28-29, refer to the infographic
below
28. Which experimental information fits well
and can be explained by the Bohr model?

•A. Deflection of cathode ray

•B. Line spectra of hydrogen
•C. Wave-particle duality of electron
•D. Deflection of alpha ray in gold foil
29. What happens to the electron in the Bohr model
once it acquires enough energy?

•A. The number of electrons will annihilate

•B-The electron will jump into higher energy level
•C. The electron will be ejected out due to the photons
•D. The electron will be attracted to the positively charged proton
30. Given the infographic below, which of the following
statements is correct?
30. Given the infographic below, which of the following
statements is correct?
•A The atomic number is determined by the number of
neutrons.
•B. The mass number is equal to the number of electrons
multiplied by 2
•C. For all atoms, the number of protons is always equal to
the number of neutrons.
•D. When the number of proton becomes 7, the atom is not
carbon but becomes the element Nitrogen
31. What makes the Earth distinct among the planets
in the solar system?

A Gases diversity
B. Radiation variation
C. Ecosystem diversity
D. Temperature variation
32. There are eight planets in the solar system classified into
terrestrial and Jovian Terrestrial planets have rocky surfaces
where living things can stay while Jovian planets, which are mostly
made up of gas, do not have solid surfaces. Earth is a terrestrial
planet along with Mercury, Venus and Mars, but why is Earth the
only planet that can sustain life?

A. It has gravity.
B. It has an atmosphere.
C. It has a strong magnetic field.
D. It allows water to exist in its liquid state.
33. Earth is revolving around the sun which is an average mass
star. If instead average mass star, the sun becomes a high mass
star, will the planet Earth still t able to sustain life? Why?
33. Earth is revolving around the sun which is an average mass
star. If instead average mass star, the sun becomes a high mass
star, will the planet Earth still t able to sustain life? Why?

A. No, because energy received will not be enough to sustain life.

B. No, because water which is a key to life on earth will turn into ice.
C. No, because water which is a key to life on earth will turn into water
vapor
D. Yes, because earth will still receive enough energy from the sun to
sustain life
34. The figure below represents the number of existing
families throughout the geologic period. Which of the five
extinction events resulted to the most deaths?

A. Triassic-Jurassic Extinction
B. Permian-Triassic extinction
C. Cretaceous - Tertiary extinction
D. Ordovician-Silurian extinction
35. Which of the following statements is true based on the
figure given below?
A Layer F and layer A are of the same age
since the two have the same rock types
B. Layers C, E, G and J are of the same age
since they all have the same rock. types
C Layer C and layer K are of the same age
because the two have the same fossil
present
D. Layer B is older than layer because it is
located lower in the superposition of
sediments
36. Using the principles of relative dating, how will you arrange t
three fossils found from oldest and youngest?

A. Trilobite, triceratops, bacteria

B. B. Bacteria, trilobite, triceratops
C. Triceratops, trilobite, bacteria
D. Bacteria, triceratops, trilobites
37. Which of the following descriptions of light is
correct?

A Light is both a mechanical and transverse wave

B. Light is both a mechanical and longitudinal wave.
C. Light is both an electromagnetic and transverse wave
D. Light is both an electromagnetic and longitudinal wave
38. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of LASER
beams used in surgical purposes?

A LASER beams are coherent and identical.

B LASER beams tend to spread out appreciably.
C. LASER beams are of single frequency and phase.
D LASER beams can be directed in a straight line with high
accuracy.
39. Radiowaves and gamma rays are located at the
opposite ends of electromagnetic spectrum. If radiowaves
have long wavelength, low frequency low energy, how will
you describe gamma rays?
A Long wavelength, low frequency, low energy
B. Short wavelength, high frequency, low energy
C. Long wavelength, high frequency, high energy
D. Short wavelength, high frequency, high energy
40. After weathering has occurred, sediments undergo
erosion, transportation deposition. On the landscape
presented below, where would deposition occur
A. A and B
B. A and C
C. Band D
D. D and E
41. The photo below shows the effects of weathering to
huge rock materials. Which of the following is the reason
for the weathering in the figure?
A. Running water
B. Plant and animal activity
C. Extreme exposure to
heat
D. Freezing and thawing of
water
42. Given the diagram below, which of the following statements
about silt particles true?

A. At 100 cm/s, silt particles get deposited.

B. From 10 cm/s and beyond, silt particles are eroded.
C. At 1 cm/s silt particles stays at the bottom of the river bed.
D. Between 0.1 cm/s to 1cm/s, silt particles stays suspended.
43. Which of the following velocity vs. time graphs
illustrate the motion of a car which starts from rest then
accelerates uniformly?

 
44. Which of the following is/are true?
I. If the acceleration is zero, the object cannot be moving
II. If the acceleration is zero, the position vs. time graph must be a
straight line
III. If the acceleration is zero, the body must be moving in a
constant direction despite varying speed.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
45. A body is moving with positive velocity and negative
acceleration. Which velocity (V) vs time (0) graph
illustrates this?
46. Elements A and B with electronegativity values of 2.1 and 2.4,
respectively, form a compound as shown below. Which among the
following sentences correctly describes the property of the
compound?

A.The compound will float over water.

B.B. The compound is expected to be insoluble in water.
C. The compound will conduct electricity when in solution.
D. The compound is expected to have a high boiling point.
47. Equal of four different solid samples are placed in an aluminum pani
heated at the same time under the same atmospheric pressure Considering
information provided for each sample, which sequence presents the rate of
melting in decreasing order?
Compound Description Solubility in IMF
Oil
i White Insoluble Ionic
crystalline solid
Ii White powder Insoluble Polar
covalent
A. i , ii, iii, iv iii Yellow powder Soluble Polar
covalent
B. i, iii, ii, iv Iv Yellow flakes Soluble Non-polar
covalent
C. iv, ii, iii, i
D. iv, iii, ii, i
48. Which of the following molecular structures represents
a solvent suitable for extraction of non-polar components
of a plant extract?
49. An earthquake bulletin is a concise report of the most important details
about an earthquake. Which among the following bulletins will provide
complete information about an earthquake that has occurred?
50. Examine the infographic below
50. Which best describes the geologic natural
disasters in India and Myanmar?

A. The geologic natural disasters create economic loss in both

countries,
B. The emergency funding of both countries for geologic natural
disaster is the same
C. The total funding of Myanmar's geologic natural disaster is half of
the India Ocean tsunami.
D. The economic cost of geologic natural disasters of both countries
are from $10.0 billion.
51. Based on the figure below, which of the following
activities is NOT an effect of global change?

A.Extreme events
B.. Rise in sea level
C. Climate warming
D. New land management
practice
52. Two bodies X and Y are acted on by equal forces.
What is the acceleration of Y the mass of X is twice
the mass of Y and if "a" is the acceleration of X?

•A. 1a
•B. 2a
•C. 3a
•D. 4a
53. Which of the following statement/s pertains to Newton's Law
of Interaction?
I. Forces always occur in pairs
II. There is an equal and opposite reaction force to every action
force
III. If a force of 2 N is exerted to the left side of body A, then
another 2 N force is exerted to the right side of body A
A. I only
B II only
C. I and II only
DI, II, and III
54. A book is placed on top of a table. Is it probable that it
will stay there and will no move forever?

A Yes. for as long as there is no unbalanced force acting on the

book
B Yes, for as long as the gravitational force is greater than the
upward force c the table on the book
C No, because all things by nature will move on its own course.
D. No, because the forces acting on the book are in equilibrium
55. In 1897 a physicist proposed that negatively-charged particles called electrom exist
in the atom using the cathode ray experiment as shown below. Hi experiment involved a
beam of electrons produced from the cathode that passe through the anode and falls on
point X. When the ray is allowed to move in the influence of an electric field through
charged plates A and B, the cathode ra bends towards point Y Which of the following
statements best describes the charges of plates A and B?

A. Both plates A and B are positively charged.

B. Both plates A and B are negatively charged
C. Plate A is positively charged while plate B is negatively charged
D. Plate A is negatively charged while plate B is positively charged
 56.. In 1911, Rutherford, Marsden and Gieger conducted an
experiment in which positively-charged alpha rays were allowed
to strike through a gold foil. Considering that the atom in a vast
empty space with a very small but dense and positively charged
nucleus, which observation is reasonable?

A. All of the alpha particles passed through the foil

B. All of the alpha particles are reflected back to the source.
C. Most of the alpha particles passed through while very few are absorbed into
the nucleus
D. Most of the alpha particles passed through while those very few that hits the
nucleus were deflected due to repulsion.
57. Which of the following models of the atom best explains why
fireworks emit light with different colors?

A Neils Bohr's planetary model

B. Schrondinger's quanturn model
C. Emest Rutherford's nuclear model
D. J.J. Thomson's plum pudding model
58. While waiting for his mother, Kevin sees an image of
himself in the fast food restaurant's glass window. Which
best explains why he saw his image in the glass window?

A Some of the light passed through the glass window

B. Some of the light was absorbed by the glass surface.
C. Some of the light was reflected off the surface of the glass window.
D. Some of the light separated into different colors when passed through the
glass
59. Which of the following does NOT illustrate
refraction of light?

A How a fish looks like under water

B. A rainbow appears after a rain shower
C. A pencil inside a glass of water appears to be broken
D. When looking through a rear view mirror, the word
AMBULANCE is reversed
 60. When you ride a jeepney and you are observant enough, you
will notice that then a rear view mirror aside from the side
mirrors. Why are plane mirrors used as r view mirrors in jeepney
and other vehicles?
A.  Because the image seen is smaller but is nearer the mirror.
B. B. Because the image seen is magnified but is farther away from the mirror.
C. Because the image seen is of the same size as the object and its distance
from the mirror is the same as the distance of the actual object
D. Because the image seen is of the same size as the object but its distance
from the mirror is nearer as compared to the distance of the actual object.