1.

A solution in which no more solid will dissolve is called__________

a. Insoluble c. Solubility
b. Saturated d. Soluble

ANSWER: B
2. Solution is a homogenous mixture. Which of the following is an
example of a solution?
a. Mud in a water c. Mango shake
b. Ice cream d. Vinegar

ANSWER: D
3. What is the most comment solvent in everyday life?
a. Carbon containing chemicals
b. Ethanol
c. Water
d. All of the above

ANSWER: C
4. How does temperature affect solubility?
a. Solubility is not affected by temperature
b. Solubility decreases with an increase in temperature
c. Solubility increases with an increase in temperature.
d. Solubility increases with a decrease in temperature.

ANSWER: C
5. The rate of solution is a measure of how fast a substance dissolves.
What is the factor that determine the rate of solution?
a. Stirring
b. Temperature
c. Amount solute already dissolved
d. Time

ANSWER: D
6. What are the main factors that affect solubility?
a. Temperature c. Nature of solute and solvent
b. Pressure d. All of the above

ANSWER: D
7. Which of the following terms refers to a solution that contains the
maximum quantity of solute at a given temperature?
a. supersaturated solution
b. aqueous solution
c. saturated solution
d. unsaturated solution

ANSWER: C
8. In a sugar solution, which component of the solution is a solute?
a. Water c. Salt
b. Sugar d. Milk powder

ANSWER: B
9. Which of the following is an example of suspension?
a. Toothpaste c. Salt in a water
b. Sand in a water d. Smoke

ANSWER: B
10. Which value corresponds to the pH of pure water?
a. 7 c. 6
b. 14 d. 3
ANSWER: A
a. 11. Litmus paper is an acid and base indicator. When red litmus
paper changes to blue, the sample is?
a. Neutral c. Basic
b. Acidic d. None
ANSWER: c
a. 12. Which statement best describe the characteristics of a base?
a. A base is bitter to taste
b. a base can neutralize acid
c. A base is slippery to touch
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
13. What type of substance is a Sodium Chloride?

A. Acid c. Salt
b. Base d. Sugar
ANSWER: C
14. What type of substance is a Sodium Chloride?

A. Acid c. Salt
b. Base d. Sugar
ANSWER: C
a. 15. The pH scale was made and used to distinguish the acidity and
basicity of a substance we use daily. Which of the following is true?

a. pH of less than 7 is basic; pH of more than 7 is acidic.

b. pH of less than 7 is acidic; pH of more than 7 is basic.
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

ANSWER: B
16. What method in separating mixture when you are separating sand
from gravel?

a. Sieving c. Flotation
b. Evaporating d. Decantation

ANSWER: A
17. A solid can be separated from a solution using
a. Condensation c. Freezing
b. Evaporation d. Melting

ANSWER: B
18. Two substances physically combined and that appears the same
throughout is classified as
a. A homogeneous mixture c. An element
b. A heterogeneous mixture d. A compound

ANSWER: A
19. What type of substance is always made up of a single type of atom?
a. Mixture c. Molecule
b. Element d. Compound

ANSWER: B
20. What kind of pure substance forms when two elements chemically
combine?
a. an element c. a mixture
b. a compound d. a solution

ANSWER: B
21. Which one of the following is a good conductor of electricity?
a. Iron c. Wood
b. Plastic d. Glass

ANSWER: A
22. What is the basis of Lewis Dot Structure?
A. Anions
B. Cations
C. Period Number
D. Valence Number

ANSWER: D
23. Which LEDS is the correct structure for Chlorine (Cl)?

ANSWER: D
24. Which type of elements tend to gain electron/s during ionic
bonding?
A. metals
B. metalloid
C. non- metal
D. super alloy

ANSWER: C
25. What is the correct chemical formula for the ionic compound
containing Calcium ion and Chlorine ion?

ANSWER: D
26. The tendency of an object to resist change in its motion is known as

a. Mass b. Inertia c. Force d. Motion

ANSWER: B
27. A net force (an unbalanced force that changes motion) causes an object to

a. stay at the same speed. b. not move. c. Accelerate or decelerate d.

None of these

ANSWER: C
28. Forces that are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction are known as

a. balanced forces b. net forces c. friction forces d. None of these

ANSWER: A
29. Forces that are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction are known as

a. balanced forces b. net forces c. friction forces d. None of these

ANSWER: A
30. In science, a push or a pull of an object is called a(n)

a. force b. acceleration. c. inertia. d. friction

ANSWER: A
31. You are riding fast on a skateboard when your wheel suddenly gets
stuck in a crack on the sidewalk. Why does your body go flying forward?

a. there is a net force pushing you off your skateboard

b. your inertia keeps you moving forward
c. someone pushed you
d. none of these

ANSWER: B
32. According to Newton’s third law of motion, when a hammer strikes and
exerts force on a nail, the nail

a. creates a friction with the hammer.

b. disappears into the wood.
c. exerts an equal force back on the hammer.
d. Nothing will happen

ANSWER: C
33. A hot iron is turned off and cools down to room temperature. The iron
cools because

a. the iron does not hold heat very well.

b. the room transfers cold energy to the iron
c. heat energy is transferred from the warm iron to the cooler room.
d. the thermal energy is destroyed during an interaction with the room.

ANSWER: C
34. White light is actually a combination of several different _________ of
light traveling together.

a. speeds b. types c. Wavelengths d. none of these

ANSWER: C
35. Light that bounces off an object is

a. refracted b. transmitted c. reflected d. amplified

ANSWER: C
36. Which of the following sentences uses work in the scientific sense.

a. Stan goes to work on the bus.

b. Anne did work on the project for 5 hours.
c. Joseph found that holding the banner in place was hard work.
d. An engine does work on a car when the car is moving.

ANSWER: D
37. In which of the following cases is no work done?

a. A weightlifter lifts a barbell.

b. A weightlifter holds a barbell overhead.
c. A weightlifter slowly lowers a barbell.
d. A weightlifter drops a barbell and the barbell falls to the ground.

ANSWER: B
38. Energy transferred as heat occurs between two bodies in thermal
contact when they differ in which of the following properties?

a. mass b. specific heat c. density d. temperature

ANSWER: D
39. When the net force is equal to zero the forces are said to be
____________.

a. Balanced b. Unbalanced d. Changingd. Unchanged

ANSWER: A
40. Work is done when the force applied to an object causes the object to
have a __________

a. Displacement b. Force c. Magnitude d. Change

ANSWER: A
 41. Who formulated the “Uncertainty Principle”?

A. Erwin Schrodinger C. Louise de Broglie

B. James Maxwell D. Werner Heisenberg

ANSWER: D
 42. Where are the electrons usually found according to the atomic theory?

A. In the atomic nucleus.

B. Outside the nucleus, most of an atoms’ volume is the electron cloud.
C. Outside the nucleus, yet near it because they are attracted to protons.
D. Anywhere they want to be – no particular location is more likely than any other.

ANSWER: B
 43. What is the region around the atomic nucleus where the electron is mostly found?

A. Frequency
B. Energy Level
C. Atomic Orbital
D. Atomic Emission Spectrum

ANSWER: C
 44. Which shows the correct order in the following atomic orbitals?

A. f orbital, d orbital, p orbital, s orbital

B. p orbital, f orbital, s orbital, d orbital
C. s orbital, d orbital, f orbital, p orbital
D. s orbital, p orbital, d orbital f orbital

ANSWER: D
 45. Which of the following is the lowest value of that the principal quantum number may
have?

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

ANSWER: B
46. What is the group and period of an element with an electronic configuration of 1s2 2s2
2p6?

A. Group 2 period 3 C. Group 8 period 2

B. Group 4 period 2 D. Group 8 period 4

ANSWER: C
47. What is the group and period of an element with an electronic configuration of 1s 2 2s2
2p6?

A. Group 2 period 3 C. Group 8 period 2

B. Group 4 period 2 D. Group 8 period 4

ANSWER: C
48.  Which orbital designation has the highest energy?

A. 2s B. 2p C. 3d D. 4s

ANSWER: C
 49.  Which explains the filling up of the orbital in the order of increasing energy?

A. Octet Rule C. Pauli’s Exclusion

B. Hund’s Rule D. Aufbau Principle

ANSWER: D
 50.   Which of the following statements BEST explain why covalent compounds do not
conduct electricity when dissolved in water?

A. Covalent compounds have lower melting point.

B. Covalent compounds are weakly bonded.
C. Covalent compounds dissolve into molecules.
D. Covalent compounds don’t dissolve in water since they are composed of non- polar
molecules.

ANSWER: D
 51.   Which of the following pair of elements will result in nonpolar covalent compound?

A. Aluminum and Chlorine C. Sulfur and Oxygen

B. Phosphorous and Hydrogen D. Sodium and Chlorine

ANSWER: C
 52.   What do you call the ion which carry positive charge in its atom?

A. Anions C. Polyatomic ions

B. Cations D. Polymers ion

ANSWER: B
 53.   An element is found in Family(Group) II and Period III of the Periodic Table of
elements. What is its valence electron?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5

ANSWER: B
 54.   What is the basis of Lewis Dot Structure?

A. Anions C. Period Number

B. Cations D. Valence Number

ANSWER: D
 55.   MgBr2is the chemical formula for magnesium bromide. What does the number “2” in
the formula mean?

A. Bromine has 2+ charge

B. Bromine has 2- charge
C. There are 2 Bromine ions in every magnesium ion
D. There are 2 Magnesium ions in every bromine ion

ANSWER: D
 56.   How many number of bond/s the carbon atom can form?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

ANSWER: D
 57.   Which of the given compound is organic?

A.HBr B. C8H18 C. NO2 D. CuSO4

ANSWER: B
 58.   Which hydro carbon compound contains a double bond within the atom?

A. ethane C. propene
B. methane D. propyne

ANSWER: C
 59.   The molecular mass of water is 18 g/mol. How many moles of water is found in 6
grams of water (H2O)?

A. 0.52 mol C. 0.33 mol

B. 1.80 mol D. 0.48 mol

ANSWER: C
 60.   The molecular mass of water is 18 g/mol. How many moles of water is found in 6
grams of water (H2O)?

A. 0.52 mol C. 0.33 mol

B. 1.80 mol D. 0.48 mol

ANSWER: C
 61.   What is the mass of 2.5 mol CaCl2?

A. 420 g C. 120 g
B. 720 g D. 277 g

ANSWER: D
 63.   What is the mass of 2.5 mol CaCl2?

A. 420 g C. 120 g
B. 720 g D. 277 g

ANSWER: D
 63.   What is the mass of 2.5 mol CaCl2?

A. 420 g C. 120 g
B. 720 g D. 277 g

ANSWER: D
 64.   Which unit of measurement is used to represent the amount or quantity of a
substance?

A. amu B. g/mol C. Avogadro’s number D. mol

ANSWER: D
 65.   Which formula shows the smallest whole-number ratio of atoms of the elements in a
compound?

A. Formula mass C. Molecular formula

B. Empirical formula D. Percent composition

ANSWER: B
 66.   What is the atomic mass of an atom that has 12 protons, 12 electrons, and 12
neutrons?

A. 6 amu B. 12 amu C. 24 amu D. 48 amu

ANSWER: C
67.   Which formula tells the actual number of atoms in a molecule?

A. Chemical formula C. Molecular formula

B. Empirical formula D. None of the above

ANSWER: C
 68.   Which statement is TRUE about the different substance having the same number of
moles?

A. They have equal masses.

B. They have equal numbers of particles.
C. They have equal volumes per unit mass.
D. They have the same amounts of energy.

ANSWER: C
 69.   Which of these is the quantity of a substance containing the same number of particles?

A. Density C. Mole
B. Mass D. Volume

ANSWER: C
 70.   Which quantity of matter is equivalent to the mass of 1 mole of any element?

A. Atoms C. Atomic mass

B. Compound D. Number of particles

ANSWER: C
71.   A sudden slipping or movement of a portion of the Earth’s crust, followed by a series of
vibrations.

A. Aftershock c. Volcanism
b. Earthquake

ANSWER: B
72.   Who do you think is the proponent of the continental drift theory?

A. Alfred Wegener
B. Sir Isaac Newton
C. Aristotle

ANSWER: A
73.   What type of electromagnetic waves is used in radar?

A. Infrared rays C. Radio waves

B. Microwaves D. Ultra-violet rays

ANSWER: C
74.   A type of EM wave that is for medical use, to help doctors look inside the body to diagnose
bone fractures and tumors.

A. Gamma rays C. Microwaves

B. X-rays D. Infrared

ANSWER: B
75.   What type of EM wave that is used in remote control of TV, video, cassette recorders, and
other electronic appliances?

A. Microwaves C. UV radiation
B. Infrared D. Visible light

ANSWER: B
76.   Which of the following forms of electromagnetic waves is used mostly in communication?

A. X-ray C. Radio wave

B. Infrared D. Gamma rays

ANSWER: C
77.   Convex mirrors produce _______________ images?

A. only virtual images C. only real images

B. virtual or real images D. inverted images

ANSWER: A
78.   In ray diagramming, an incident ray that is parallel to the principal axis _____________.

A. will reflect parallel to the principal axis

B. will reflect through the center of the curvature
C. will refract through the focal point
D. will continue along the same path through the lens

ANSWER: C
79.   The bending of light as it passes from one transparent substances into another

A. Reflection C. Refraction
B. Focal D. Vertex, V

ANSWER: C
80.   The geometric center of the lens

A. Focus, F C. Ray
B. Focal length D. Vertex, V

ANSWER: D
81.   The crust and upper mantle make up Earth’s __________.

A. asthenosphere B. continents C. core D. lithosphere

ANSWER: D
82.   Which theory states that the entire crust is broken and is continuously moving?

A. Continental Drift B. Plate Tectonics C. Seafloor Spreading D.

Titanic Theory

ANSWER: B
82.   The boundary between two plates moving toward each other is called a
_________.

A. divergent boundary B. transform boundary C. lithosphere D. convergent

boundary

ANSWER: D
84.   Plates move apart at __________ boundaries.

A. divergent boundary B. transform boundary C. lithosphere D. convergent

boundary

ANSWER: A
85.   The word used to refer to the shaking of the ground due to any activity in the
lithosphere.

A. intensity B. earthquake C. volcanism D. wave

ANSWER: B
86.   It is a chain of volcanoes developed parallel to a trench or a crack under the ocean

A. mountain range C. volcanic island arc B. volcanoes D. mountainous

ANSWER: A
87. He is a German Scientist who hypothesized in 1912 that continents were once a
giant landmass called Pangaea.

A. Harry Hammond Hess B. Robert Dietz C. Alfred Lothar Wegener D. Charles

Darwin

ANSWER: C
88. What do you call the supercontinent landmass formed million years ago?

A. Pangaea B. Panthalassa C. Asia D. Eurasia

ANSWER: A
89. Scientists believe that the motion of tectonic plates is caused by
______________.

A. pressure in Earth’s crust

B. conveyor belts
C. convection currents
D. heat in the Earth’s core

ANSWER: C
90. A convection current is caused by differences in temperature resulting to
variation in ___________.

A. air pressure B. color C. density D. mass

ANSWER: C
91. When the diaphragm relaxes, it pushes up
on the lungs and

a. drives CO2 out of the body.

b. enhances movement of O2.
c. facilitates lung expansion.
d. slows down blood flow.

ANSWER: A
92. A regular intake of fatty foods leads to fat deposition in
our blood vessels. What is the likely effect of such a diet in
our circulatory system?

a. Fat allows blood to easily slide on it which facilitates blood

flow.
b. Low blood pressure can be expected because of the
interaction between blood and fat.
c. High blood pressure results from the faster movement of
blood caused by fat deposits.
d. The diameter of the blood vessel becomes smaller and
makes blood flow difficult.

ANSWER: C
93. Write the chemical formula of the following
compound:
Sodium bicarbonate

ANSWER: NaHCO3
94. Write the chemical formula of the following
compound:
Ammonium acetate

ANSWER: NH4C2H3O2
95. Write the chemical formula of the following
compound:
Pentaphosphorus hexaflouride

ANSWER: P5F6
96. Give the stock name of the following compound:
Sn2(SO4)4

ANSWER: Tin (IV) sulfate

97. Draw the structure of 2,4,6-trimethylheptane

ANSWER:
98. Name the following structure:

ANSWER:
99. Name the following structure:

ANSWER:
100. Draw the most stable Lewis structure of aluminum chloride:

ANSWER:
101. What is the unit of measurement for resistance?
A. Voltage C. Ampere
B. Watts D. Ohms

ANSWER: D
102. If the current through a resistor is 2A and voltage across it is 12V,
what is the resistance?
A. 12 Ω C. 6 Ω
B. 24 Ω D. 0.167 Ω

ANSWER:
103. Which of the following blood groups is
considered the universal donor?
A. type A
B. type B
C. type AB
D. type O

ANSWER: D
104. What is the lymphoid organ that filters lymph?
A. spleen
B. thymus
C. lymph node
D. Peyer’s patch

ANSWER: C
105. Which of the following choices is not a
respiratory disease or disorder?
A. asthma
B. leukemia
C. bronchitis
D. lung cancer

ANSWER: B
105. Which of the following choices is not a
respiratory disease or disorder?
A. asthma
B. leukemia
C. bronchitis
D. lung cancer

ANSWER: B
107. Systematic way of acquiring knowledge and
solving problems.
A. Hypothesis Testing
B. Scientific Method
C. Data Interpretation
D. Data organization

ANSWER: B
108. It refers to the pieces of information that are not
in numerical form.
A. Quantitative Data
B. Experimental Design
C. Qualitative Data
D. Variables

ANSWER: C
109. It is an educated guess that is made based on
what the person thinks is the reason or solution to
the research problem he identified.
A. Hypothesis
B. Variable
C. Data
D. Conclusion

ANSWER: A
110. This form of hypothesis states that there is no
significant difference between the results of two
conditions or situations that are being tested.
A. Null Hypothesis
B. Alternative Hypothesis
C. Independent Variable
D. Dependent Variable

ANSWER: A
111. It is made up of particles whose sizes range
between those of suspension particles and the
particles of the solution.
A. Suspension
B. Colloid
C. Phase
D. Mixture

ANSWER: B
112. It is a type of heterogenous mixture that is made
up of suspended solid particles that settle to the
bottom of the suspension’s container
A. Suspension
B. Colloid
C. Phase
D. Mixture

ANSWER: A
113. It is a characteristic that can be observed or
measured without changing the identity or
composition of the material.
A. Chemical Properties
B. Colloid
C. Phase
D. Physical Properties

ANSWER: D
114. It is the amount of solute present in a given
quantity of solution.
A. Concentration of Solution
B. Dilution
C. Acid
D. Base

ANSWER: A
115. It serves as the authority on the behavior and state of the
atmosphere and its interaction with the oceans as well as the
type of climate it brings.

A. PAGASA
B. WHO
C. PAR
D. WMO

ANSWER: A
116. Which of the following celestial bodies is made up of ice,
rocks, and dust particles?

A. Meteor
B. Comet
C. Asteroid
D. Meteoroid

ANSWER: B
117. Concave mirror ___________________________.

a. bulges out toward the light source

b. curves towards the center
c. diverge light rays
d. creates smaller image of an object

ANSWER: B
118. You see the reflection of the analog type of clock without
numbers in your plane mirror. The image formed by the hands
of the clock shows the time of 10:00. What is the real time?

a. 2: 00
b. 1:00
c. 7:00
d. Still 10:00

ANSWER: A
119. Which mirror concept explains why the word AMBULANCE
is written in reverse in an ambulance car?

a. Multiple image
b. Lateral inversion
c. Virtual image and real image
d. All of the above

ANSWER: B
120. Which mirror concept explains why the word AMBULANCE
is written in reverse in an ambulance car?

a. Multiple image
b. Lateral inversion
c. Virtual image and real image
d. All of the above

ANSWER: B
121. Which of the following instruments is a common
earthquake-measuring device
a. Laser satellite c. Seismogram
b. Spectrophotometer d. Seismograph

ANSWER: D
122. How far must a 5N force pull a 50g toy car if 30J of energy
are transferred?
a. d= 5m c. d= 7m
b. d= 6m d. d= 8m

ANSWER: B
123. A man exerts a force of 2kN on a boulder but fails to move
it. Calculate the work done.
a. W= 2000 J c. W= 0 J
b. W=2000 N d. W = 0 N

ANSWER: C
124. A football of mass 2.5kg is lifted up to the top of a cliff that
is 180m high. How much potential energy does the football
gain?
a. PE= 4500 J c. PE = 4500 N
b. PE=452 J d. W = 0J

ANSWER: A
125. A person of mass 70kg runs up a flight of stairs with a
vertical height of 5m. If the trip takes 7s to complete, calculate
the person’s power.
a. Power= 4500 W c. Power = 500 W
b. Power =452 J d. Power = 500 N

ANSWER: A
126. How much kinetic energy has a 500g cricket ball when it is
thrown at a speed of 20m/s?

ANSWER:
127. An object located 18 cm from a convex mirror produces a
virtual image 9 cm from the mirror. What is the magnification of
the image?

ANSWER:
128. A boy is standing near a convex mirror in a fun house at a
fair. He notices that his image appears to be 0.60 m tall. If the
magnification of the mirror is 1/3 , what is the boy’s height?

ANSWER:
129. In a molecule, the sum of all atomic masses is called
_______________.
a. Relative Atomic Mass c. Molecular Mass
b. Atomic Mass Unit d. Formula Mass

ANSWER: C
130. The following are representative particles of matter. Which
among them represents particles of an ionic compound?

a. molecules c. formula units

b. ions d. atoms

ANSWER: B
130. The following are representative particles of matter. Which
among them represents particles of an ionic compound?

a. molecules c. formula units

b. ions d. atoms

ANSWER: B
133. Structures of atoms and molecules whose valence
electrons are represented by dots are known as __________
structures.

a. Arrhenius c. Lewis
b. Bronsted d. Lowry

ANSWER: C
134. Which element will resist bond formation with other
elements?

a. Argon c. Gold
b. Bromine d. Silver

ANSWER: A
135. A Strontium atom differs from a strontium ion in that the
atom has a greater ______________

a. Atomic number c. Number of electrons

b. Mass number d. Number of protons

ANSWER: D
136. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of metals?

a. Malleable and ductile c. Good conductors of electricity

b. Good conductors of heat d. Low melting and boiling
points

ANSWER: D
137. The bond formed by transfer of electrons is known as
___________ bond.

a. Covalent c. Ionic
b. Dative d. Metallic

ANSWER: C
138. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

a. All elements in the second period of the periodic table

contain two valence electrons.
b. Electron configurations may be used to determine the
number of valence electrons of an element.
c. In the periodic table, the number of valence electrons
determine the group placement of an element.
d. The number of valence electrons of the representative
elements is equal to the total number of electrons in the
outermost shell.
ANSWER: A
139. How many atoms are there in in 1 mole of gold?

a. 6.022x1023 atoms c. 1.2x1023 atoms

b. 6.22x1023 atoms d. 1.2x1024 atoms

ANSWER: A
140. What is the mass of 1 mole of gold?

a. 0.0051g c. 79.00g
b. 0.0127g d. 197.0g

ANSWER: D
141. In straight-chain alkanes, as the number of carbon atoms
increases, the boiling point ___________________

a. decreases c. remains constant

b. increases d. stagnates at 100oC

ANSWER: B
142. These are compounds that have a six-membered carbon
ring

a. Hexane c. Aliphatic
b. Aromatic d. Alkyl Halide

ANSWER: B
143. This heat transfer mechanism helps drive the movement
of tectonic plates, which manifested as earthquakes.

a. Convection current c. Conduction

b. Asthenosphere d. Volcanic eruption

ANSWER: A
144. The only liquid layer of the Earth is ______________

a. Crust c. Mantle
b. Inner core d. Outer core

ANSWER: D
145. The interface between the mantle and the outer core is
called the _________________

a. Asthenosphere c. Lithosphere
b. Gutenberg discontinuity d. Moho

ANSWER: B
146. Which part of a microscope do you look through to see an
object magnified?

a. Focus knob c. Objective Lens

b. Stage d. Eyepiece lens

ANSWER: D
147. Which one of the following achievements is Anton Von
Leeuwenhoek famous for?

A. He was one of the first people to see and describe red blood
cells and other single-celled organisms under the microscope.
B. He gave the cell its name because they reminded him
of the small rooms for monks in a monastery.
C. He was a famous Dutch explorer
D. He discovered the microscope.

ANSWER: B
148. The diagram shows a microscope. What is the part
labelled X and what is its function?

A. The objective lens and its function is to allow you to see a

clear, magnified image.
B. The stage and its function is to hold the glass slide.
C. The mirror and its function is to shine light on the glass slide
D. The coarse adjustment and its function is to allow you to see
a clear, magnified image.

ANSWER: D
149. If the eyepiece of a microscope magnifies by 10, and the
objective lens magnifies by 4, then what is the total
magnification of the microscope?

A. 40
B. 10
C. 14
D. 4

ANSWER: A
150. Which one of the following parts of a microscope is used
to hold the slide in position?

A. The eyepiece
B. The focus adjustment
C. The objective lens
D. The stage clips

ANSWER: D
151. Scientists decide whether an organism is a plant or animal
based on?

A. Whether it is multicellular or unicellular

B. How it obtains food or energy
C. Whether it is mobile or not
D. How it reproduces

ANSWER: B
152. Which statement about the cell wall is FALSE?

A. The cell wall, even though it is found outside the cell

membrane, is still an organelle
B. Only plant cells contain a cell wall
C. The cell wall is composed of a material called cellulose
D. The cell wall is rigid and prevents any materials from passing
through it

ANSWER: D
153. Which statement about plant versus animal cells is true?

A. Only unicellular animal cells make their own food

B. Only plant cells contain vacuoles because they must store
sugars
C. Both plant and animal cells make proteins
D. Chloroplasts are located in the endoplasmic reticulum in
animal cells

ANSWER: C
154. An object is placed 20.0 cm in front of a concave mirror of
radius 50.0 cm. Where is the image located?

A. di = 100 cm C. di = -100cm
B. di = 70 cm D. di = -70cm

ANSWER: C
 155. How much heat must be added to 5.0 g of ice at 0oC to
become water at 10oC(The latent heat of fusion of water is 80
calories)?

A. 450 cal C. 480 cal

B. 455 cal D. 490 cal

ANSWER: A
156. The specific heat of aluminum is 900 J/kg-oC. How much
heat is needed to change the temperature of 2.0 kg object
made of aluminum from 25oC to 35oC?

A. 17, 000 J C. 19, 000 J

B. 18, 000 J D. 20, 000 J

ANSWER: B
 157. A 20.0 ohms resistor is connected in series with a 5.0
ohms resistor, with a 50.0 V across the combination. Find the
total current passing through the combination?

A. 4.0 A C. 2.0 A
B. 3.0 A D. 125.0 A

ANSWER: B
158. A force of 150 N elongates a spring by 50 cm. What is the
elastic potential energy of this spring when stretched by 25 cm?

A. 93.75 J C. 9.375 J
B. 937.5 N D. 9.375 N

ANSWER: C
 159. The speed of sound in a certain ideal gas is v at an
absolute temperature T. What is the speed of sound in that gas
when the temperature is 4T?

A. 1/4v C. 2v
B. 1/2v D. 4v

ANSWER: B
160. At what temperature will the Celsius scale and Fahrenheit
scale have the same numerical reading?

A. T= 40o B. T= -40o
B. T= 273o C. T= Oo

ANSWER: B
161. Four identical cells, each having an EMF of 1.5 V are
connected in series. What is their combined EMF?

A. 0.375 V
B. 0.75 V
C. 1.5 V
D. 6.0 V

ANSWER: C