ARITHMETIC APTITUDE / REASONING APTITUDE / CREATIVITY APTITUDE / VERBAL APTITUDE

ARITHMETIC APTITUDE ............................................................................................. 3

PROBLEMS ON TRAINS ................................................................................................... 3
TIME AND DISTANCE ..................................................................................................... 4
HEIGHT AND DISTANCE ................................................................................................. 5
TIME AND WORK .......................................................................................................... 7
PROBLEMS ON AGES ...................................................................................................... 8
ALLIGATION OR MIXTURE ............................................................................................. 9
CHAIN RULE ............................................................................................................... 10
SIMPLE INTEREST ........................................................................................................ 11
COMPOUND INTEREST ................................................................................................. 12
PROFIT AND LOSS........................................................................................................ 13
PARTNERSHIP ............................................................................................................. 14
PERCENTAGE .............................................................................................................. 15
TRUE DISCOUNT ......................................................................................................... 16
RATIO AND PROPORTION ............................................................................................ 17
SIMPLIFICATION .......................................................................................................... 18
PROBLEMS ON H.C.F AND L.C.M ................................................................................ 19
SQUARE ROOT AND CUBE ROOT ............................................................................... 20
LOGARITHM ............................................................................................................... 21
VOLUME AND SURFACE AREA ...................................................................................... 22
PERMUTATION AND COMBINATION.............................................................................. 23
PROBABILITY .............................................................................................................. 24
AVERAGE ................................................................................................................... 25
AREA ......................................................................................................................... 26
ODD MAN OUT........................................................................................................... 27
RACES AND GAMES ..................................................................................................... 28
BOATS AND STREAMS .................................................................................................. 29
SURDS AND INDICES .................................................................................................... 30
PIPES AND CISTERN ..................................................................................................... 30
NUMBERS ................................................................................................................... 31
PROBLEMS ON NUMBERS ............................................................................................. 33
PICK WRONG NUMBER ............................................................................................... 34
MISSING NUMBER ....................................................................................................... 34
FIND WRONG NUMBER ............................................................................................... 34
Soft Skills Training Aptitude/Verbal Training Finance Training
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NUMBER SERIES .......................................................................................................... 34

CALENDAR ................................................................................................................. 35
CLOCK ....................................................................................................................... 36
REASONING APTITUDE ............................................................................................. 37
ANALYTICAL REASONING ............................................................................................ 37
PIPES AND CISTERN..................................................................................................... 38
LOGICAL PROBLEMS.................................................................................................... 39
LOGICAL GAMES ......................................................................................................... 42
LOGICAL DEDUCTION ................................................................................................. 44
DATA SUFFICIENCY ..................................................................................................... 45
ARITHMETIC REASONING ............................................................................................ 46
DATA INTERPRETATION TABLE CHARTS ...................................................................... 47
DATA INTERPRETATION BAR CHARTS ......................................................................... 50
DATA INTERPRETATION PIE CHARTS .......................................................................... 52
DATA INTERPRETATION LINE CHARTS ........................................................................ 54
DATA SUFFICIENCY (DS) PROBLEMS ON TRAINS ........................................................... 56
DS - TIME AND DISTANCE ........................................................................................... 57
DS - TIME AND WORK ................................................................................................ 57
DS - SIMPLE INTEREST ................................................................................................ 58
DS - COMPOUND INTEREST ......................................................................................... 58
DS - PROFIT AND LOSS ................................................................................................ 58
DS - PARTNERSHIP ..................................................................................................... 59
DS - PROBLEMS ON AGES ............................................................................................ 59
DS - AVERAGE............................................................................................................ 60
DS - AREA.................................................................................................................. 60
DS - VOLUME AND SURFACE AREA .............................................................................. 61
DS - PROBLEMS ON NUMBERS ..................................................................................... 61
STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTION .................................................................................... 62
MAKING ASSUMPTIONS ............................................................................................... 63
COURSE OF ACTION .................................................................................................... 64
CAUSE AND EFFECT..................................................................................................... 66
STATEMENT AND CONCLUSION .................................................................................... 67
STATEMENT AND ARGUMENT ...................................................................................... 69

CREATIVITY APTITUDE ............................................................................................ 70

VENN DIAGRAMS ........................................................................................................ 70
CUBE AND CUBOIDS .................................................................................................... 74
DICE........................................................................................................................... 76
CUBES AND DICE ......................................................................................................... 78
FIGURE MATRIX .......................................................................................................... 81
SEATING ARRANGEMENT ............................................................................................. 82
DIRECTION SENSE TEST ............................................................................................... 84
CHARACTER PUZZLES.................................................................................................. 87
MISSING LETTERS PUZZLES .......................................................................................... 89
LOGICAL PUZZLES ....................................................................................................... 90
PLAYING CARDS PUZZLES ............................................................................................ 92
CLOCK PUZZLES .......................................................................................................... 93
NUMBER PUZZLES ....................................................................................................... 94
SUDOKU ..................................................................................................................... 96
DOT SITUATION .......................................................................................................... 97
RULE DETECTION ........................................................................................................ 98
MIRROR AND WATER IMAGES ..................................................................................... 99
EMBEDDED IMAGES ................................................................................................... 100
GROUPING OF IMAGES ............................................................................................. 101
IMAGE ANALYSIS ...................................................................................................... 102
PATTERN COMPLETION ............................................................................................. 103
PAPER CUTTING ........................................................................................................ 104
SHAPE CONSTRUCTION .............................................................................................. 105
PAPER FOLDING ........................................................................................................ 106
VERBAL APTITUDE .................................................................................................. 107
CLOSET TEST ............................................................................................................ 107
IDIOMS & PHRASES ................................................................................................... 108
SYNONYMS ............................................................................................................... 110
ANTONYMS............................................................................................................... 111
CHANGE OF VOICE .................................................................................................... 111
CHANGE OF SPEECH .................................................................................................. 112
LETTER AND SYMBOL SERIES ...................................................................................... 113
2

ESSENTIAL PART ....................................................................................................... 114

Arithmetic Aptitude

SPELLINGS ................................................................................................................ 114

SELECTING WORDS ................................................................................................... 115

Problems on Trains

SPOTTING ERRORS .................................................................................................... 116

ORDERING OF WORDS .............................................................................................. 117
SENTENCE CORRECTION ............................................................................................ 118

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1. km/hr to m/s conversion:

SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT ......................................................................................... 119

a km/hr =

COMPLETING STATEMENTS........................................................................................ 119

m/s.
18

SENTENCE FORMATION ............................................................................................. 120

2.

PARAGRAPH FORMATION ......................................................................................... 121

ORDERING OF SENTENCES ......................................................................................... 121

m/s to km/hr conversion:

a m/s =

COMPREHENSION ..................................................................................................... 123

18
km/hr.
5

ONE WORD SUBSTITUTES .......................................................................................... 125

3.

VERBAL ANALOGIES ................................................................................................. 125

Time taken by a train of length l metres to pass a pole or standing man or a signal post is
equal to the time taken by the train to cover l metres.

CAUSE AND EFFECT................................................................................................... 128

4.

SYLLOGISM ............................................................................................................... 129

Time taken by a train of length l metres to pass a stationery object of length b metres is
the time taken by the train to cover (l + b) metres.

5.

CLASSIFICATION ....................................................................................................... 130

Suppose two trains or two objects bodies are moving in the same direction at u m/s and

v m/s, where u > v, then their relative speed is = (u - v) m/s.

LOGICAL SEQUENCE OF WORDS ................................................................................ 131

VERBAL REASONING ................................................................................................. 132
ANALYZING ARGUMENTS .......................................................................................... 133
VERIFICATION OF TRUTH .......................................................................................... 135

6.

Suppose two trains or two objects bodies are moving in opposite directions at u m/s and

7.

v m/s, then their relative speed is = (u + v) m/s.

If two trains of length a metres and b metres are moving in opposite directions at u m/s
and v m/s, then:

BLOOD RELATION TEST............................................................................................. 135

The time taken by the trains to cross each other =

MATCHING DEFINITIONS........................................................................................... 138

THEME DETECTION................................................................................................... 139

8.

(a + b)
(u + v)

sec.

If two trains of length a metres and b metres are moving in the same direction at u m/s
and v m/s, then:
The time taken by the faster train to cross the slower train =

9.

(a + b)
(u - v)

sec.

If two trains (or bodies) start at the same time from points A and B towards each other
and after crossing they take a and b sec in reaching B and A respectively, then:
(A's speed) : (B's speed) = (

EXERCISES
1)

A train running at the speed of 60

km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds.
What is the length of the train?

2)

The length of the bridge, which a

train 130 metres long and travelling at
45 km/hr can cross in 30 seconds, is:

3)

Two trains running in opposite

directions cross a man standing on the
platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds
respectively and they cross each other
in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds
is:

4)

17) A 300 metre long train crosses a

platform in 39 seconds while it crosses
a signal pole in 18 seconds. What is the
length of the platform?

18) A train speeds past a pole in 15

seconds and a platform 100 m long in
25 seconds. Its length is

19) A train moves past a telegraph post and

a bridge 264 m long in 8 seconds and
20 seconds respectively. What is the
speed of the train?

20) How many seconds will a 500 metre

long train take to cross a man walking
with a speed of 3 km/hr in the
direction of the moving train if the
speed of the train is 63 km/hr?

5)

A train 240 m long passes a pole in 24

seconds. How long will it take to pass a
platform 650 m long?

6)

A train 360 m long is running at a

speed of 45 km/hr. In what time will
it pass a bridge 140 m long?

7)

Two trains of equal length are running

on parallel lines in the same direction
at 46 km/hr and 36 km/hr. The faster
train passes the slower train in 36
seconds. The length of each train is

8)

Two trains are moving in opposite

directions @ 60 km/hr and 90 km/hr.
Their lengths are 1.10 km and 0.9 km
respectively. The time taken by the
slower train to cross the faster train in
seconds is

21) Two goods train each 500 m long, are

running in opposite directions on
parallel tracks. Their speeds are 45
km/hr and 30 km/hr respectively. Find
the time taken by the slower train to
pass the driver of the faster one.

22) Two trains are running in opposite

directions with the same speed. If the
length of each train is 120 metres and
they cross each other in 12 seconds,
then the speed of each train (in
km/hr) is

A jogger running at 9 kmph alongside a

railway track in 240 metres ahead of
the engine of a 120 metres long train
running at 45 kmph in the same
direction. In how much time will the
train pass the jogger?
11) A goods train runs at the speed of 72
kmph and crosses a 250 m long
platform in 26 seconds. What is the
length of the goods train?

10) A 270 metres long train running at the

speed of 120 kmph crosses another
train running in opposite direction at
the speed of 80 kmph in 9 seconds.
What is the length of the other train?

23) Two trains of equal lengths take 10

seconds and 15 seconds respectively to
cross a telegraph post. If the length of
each train be 120 metres, in what time
(in seconds) will they cross each other
travelling in opposite direction?

24) A train 108 m long moving at a speed

of 50 km/hr crosses a train 112 m long
coming from opposite direction in 6
seconds. The speed of the second train
is

13) Two trains 140 m and 160 m long run

at the speed of 60 km/hr and 40 km/hr
respectively in opposite directions on
parallel tracks. The time (in seconds)
which they take to cross each other, is

14) A train 110 metres long is running

with a speed of 60 kmph. In what time
will it pass a man who is running at 6
kmph in the direction opposite to that
in which the train is going?

15) A train travelling at a speed of 75 mph

enters a tunnel 3 miles long. The train
is mile long. How long does it take for
the train to pass through the tunnel
from the moment the front enters to
the moment the rear emerges?

16) A train 800 metres long is running at a

speed of 78 km/hr. If it crosses a
tunnel in 1 minute, then the length of
the tunnel (in meters) is

9)

A train passes a station platform in 36

seconds and a man standing on the
platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of
the train is 54 km/hr, what is the
length of the platform?

12) Two trains, each 100 m long, moving

in opposite directions, cross each
other in 8 seconds. If one is moving
twice as fast the other, then the speed
of the faster train is

25) A train 125 m long passes a man,

running at 5 km/hr in the same
direction in which the train is going, in
10 seconds. The speed of the train is

Time and Distance

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1. Speed, Time and Distance:
Speed =
2.

Distance
Time

km/hr to m/sec conversion:

x km/hr = x

3.

5
18

m/sec.

m/sec to km/hr conversion:

x m/sec = x 18 km/hr.

Time =

Distance
Speed

, Distance = (Speed x Time).

5
4.

If the ratio of the speeds of A and B is a : b, then the ratio of the

the times taken by then to cover the same distance is

5.

40 minutes more. The distance (in

km) is
1 1
: or b : a.

a b

Suppose a man covers a certain distance at x km/hr and an equal distance at y km/hr.

11) A person crosses a 600 m long street in

5 minutes. What is his speed in km per
hour?

12) An aeroplane covers a certain

distance at a speed of 240 kmph in 5
hours. To cover the same distance in

Then,
the average speed during the whole journey is

2xy

x+y

1
of

km/hr.

EXERCISES
1)

In a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was

slowed down due to bad weather. Its
average speed for the trip was reduced
by 200 km/hr and the time of flight
increased by 30 minutes. The duration
of the flight is

2)

A man completes a journey in 10

hours. He travels first half of the
journey at the rate of 21 km/hr and
second half at the rate of 24 km/hr.
Find the total journey in km

3)

The ratio between the speeds of two

trains is 7: 8. If the second train runs
400 kms in 4 hours, then the speed of
the first train is

4)

A man on tour travels first 160 km

at 64 km/hr and the next 160 km at
80 km/hr. The average speed for the
first 320 km of the tour is

5)

A car travelling with 5/7 of its actual

speed covers 42 km in 1 hr 40 min 48
sec. Find the actual speed of the car.

6)

In covering a distance of 30 km,

Abhay takes 2 hours more than
Sameer. If Abhay doubles his speed,
then he would take 1 hour less than
Sameer. Abhay's speed is

7)

Robert is travelling on his cycle and

has calculated to reach point A at 2
P.M. if he travels at 10 kmph, he will
reach there at 12 noon if he travels at
15 kmph. At what speed must he
travel to reach A at 1 P.M.?

8)

9)

A farmer travelled a distance of 61 km

in 9 hours. He travelled partly on foot
@ 4 km/hr and partly on bicycle @ 9
km/hr. The distance travelled on foot
is

10) A man covered a certain distance at

some speed. Had he moved 3 kmph
faster, he would have taken 40
minutes less. If he had moved 2
kmph slower, he would have taken

13) If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead

of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20
km more. The actual distance travelled
by him is

hours, it must travel at a speed

14) A train can travel 50% faster than a

car. Both start from point A at the
same time and reach point B 75 kms
away from A at the same time. On
the way, however, the train lost
about 12.5 minutes while stopping
at the stations. The speed of the car
is

15) Excluding stoppages, the speed of a

bus is 54 kmph and including
stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how
many minutes does the bus stop per
hour?

Height and Distance

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1. Trigonometry:
In a right angled

OAB, where

It takes eight hours for a 600 km

journey, if 120 km is done by train
and the rest by car. It takes 20
minutes more, if 200 km is done by
train and the rest by car. The ratio
of the speed of the train to that of
the cars is

i. sin
ii. cos

Perpendicular AB
= ;
Hypotenuse OB
Base
OA
=
= ;
Hypotenuse OB

BOA =

iii. tan

iv. cosec

v. sec

vi. cot

2.

1 OB
= ;
sin
AB

Suppose a man from a point O looks up at an object P, placed above the level of his eye.
Then, the angle which the line of sight makes with the horizontal through O is called
the angle of elevation of P as seen from O.
Angle of elevation of P from O =
AOP.

1
OB
= ;
cos
OA

1 OA
= ;
tan
AB

5.

Angle of Depression:

Trigonometrical Identities:
i.
ii.
iii.

3.

Perpendicular AB
= ;
Base
OA

sin2 + cos2 = 1.
1 + tan2 = sec2 .
1 + cot2 = cosec2 .

Values of T-ratios:
(

/6)

/4)

/3)

/2)

0
30

sin

cos

tan

4.

45

60

90

1
2

3
2

3
2

1
2

1
3

Angle of Elevation:

not defined

Suppose a man from a point O looks down at an object P, placed below the level of his
eye, then the angle which the line of sight makes with the horizontal through O is
called the angle of depression of P as seen from O.
EXERCISES
1) Two ships are sailing in the sea on the
two sides of a lighthouse. The angle of
elevation of the top of the lighthouse is
observed from the ships are 30 and 45
respectively. If the lighthouse is 100 m
high, the distance between the two ships
is:

3)

The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning

2)

A man standing at a point P is watching

the top of a tower, which makes an
angle of elevation of 30 with the man's
eye. The man walks some distance
towards the tower to watch its top and
the angle of the elevation becomes 60.
What is the distance between the base
of the tower and the point P?

4)

An observer 1.6 m tall is 203 away from

against a wall is 60 and the foot of the

ladder is 4.6 m away from the wall. The
length of the ladder is:
5)

From a point P on a level ground, the

angle of elevation of the top tower is 30.
If the tower is 100 m high, the distance
of point P from the foot of the tower is:

a tower. The angle of elevation from his

eye to the top of the tower is 30. The
heights of the tower is:
6)

machine R can print them in 12 hours.

All the machines are started at 9 A.M.
while machine P is closed at 11 A.M. and
the remaining two machines complete
work. Approximately at what time will
the work (to print one lakh books) be
finished?

The angle of elevation of the sun, when

the length of the shadow of a tree 3
times the height of the tree, is:
7)

A can finish a work in 18 days and B can

do the same work in 15 days. B worked
for 10 days and left the job. In how many
days, A alone can finish the remaining
work?

8)

9)

A and B can together finish a work 30

days. They worked together for 20 days
and then B left. After another 20 days, A
finished the remaining work. In how
many days A alone can finish the work?

10) 10 women can complete a work in 7

days and 10 children take 14 days to
complete the work. How many days
will 5 women and 10 children take to
complete the work?

11) X and Y can do a piece of work in 20

days and 12 days respectively. X started
the work alone and then after 4 days Y
joined him till the completion of the
work. How long did the work last?

12) A is 30% more efficient than B. How

much time will they, working together,
take to complete a job which A alone
could have done in 23 days?

13) Ravi and Kumar are working on an

assignment. Ravi takes 6 hours to type 32
pages on a computer, while Kumar takes
5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time
will they take, working together on two
different computers to type an
assignment of 110 pages?

14) A, B and C can complete a piece of

work in 24, 6 and 12 days respectively.
Working together, they will complete
the same work in

15) Sakshi can do a piece of work in 20 days.

Tanya is 25% more efficient than Sakshi.
The number of days taken by Tanya to
do the same piece of work is

16) A takes twice as much time as B or

thrice as much time as C to finish a
piece of work. Working together, they
can finish the work in 2 days. B can do
the work alone in

17) A and B can complete a work in 15 days

and 10 days respectively. They started
doing the work together but after 2 days
B had to leave and A alone completed the

18) A and B can do a piece of work in 30

days, while B and C can do the same
work in 24 days and C and A in 20
days. They all work together for 10

Time and Work

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1. Work from Days:
If A can do a piece of work in n days, then A's 1 day's work =
2.

Days from Work:

If A's 1 day's work =

3.

then A can finish the work in n days.

Ratio:
If A is thrice as good a workman as B, then:
Ratio of work done by A and B = 3: 1.
Ratio of times taken by A and B to finish a work = 1: 3.

EXERCISES
1)

If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of

work in 10 days while 26 men and 48
boys can do the same in 2 days, the time
taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing
the same type of work will be

2)

A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B

and C together can do it in 3 hours,
while A and C together can do it in 2
hours. How long will B alone take to do
it?

3)

A can do a certain work in the same time

in which B and C together can do it. If A
and B together could do it in 10 days and
C alone in 50 days, then B alone could do
it in

4)

A does 80% of a work in 20 days. He

then calls in B and they together finish
the remaining work in 3 days. How
long B alone would take to do the
whole work?

5)

A machine P can print one lakh books in

8 hours, machine Q can print the same
number of books in 10 hours while

6)

P can complete a work in 12 days

working 8 hours a day. Q can complete
the same work in 8 days working 10

hours a day. If both P and Q work

together, working 8 hours a day, in
how many days can they complete the
work?

4 men and 6 women can complete a

work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7
women can complete it in 10 days. In
how many days will 10 women
complete it?

remaining work. The whole work was

completed in

days when B and C leave. How many

days more will A take to finish the
work?

19) A works twice as fast as B. If B can

complete a work in 12 days
independently, the number of days in
which A and B can together finish the
work in

20) Twenty women can do a work in

sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete
the same work in fifteen days. What is
the ratio between the capacity of a man
and a woman?

21) A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20

days. If they work on it together for 4
days, then the fraction of the work that is
left is

22) A can lay railway track between two

given stations in 16 days and B can do
the same job in 12 days. With help of
C, they did the job in 4 days only.
Then, C alone can do the job in

Each of the years 1948, 2004, 1676 etc. is a leap year.

ii.

Each of the years 400, 800, 1200, 1600, 2000 etc. is a leap year.

iii.

None of the years 2001, 2002, 2003, 2005, 1800, 2100 is a leap year.

Ordinary Year:
The year which is not a leap year is called an ordinary years. An ordinary year has 365
days.

Counting of Odd Days:

1.

23) A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20,

30 and 60 days respectively. In how
many days can A do the work if he is
assisted by B and C on every third day?

i.

1 ordinary year = 365 days = (52 weeks + 1 day.)

1 ordinary year has 1 odd day.

2.

1 leap year = 366 days = (52 weeks + 2 days)

1 leap year has 2 odd days.

3.

100 years = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years

= (76 x 1 + 24 x 2) odd days = 124 odd days.

= (17 weeks + days) 5 odd days.

24) A is thrice as good as workman as B and

therefore is able to finish a job in 60
days less than B. Working together,
they can do it in

Number of odd days in 100 years = 5.

Number of odd days in 200 years = (5 x 2) 3 odd days.
Number of odd days in 300 years = (5 x 3) 1 odd day.
Number of odd days in 400 years = (5 x 4 + 1) 0 odd day.

25) A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days

and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook
to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C,
they completed the work in 3 days. How
much is to be paid to C?

Similarly, each one of 800 years, 1200 years, 1600 years, 2000 years etc. has 0 odd days.

Day of the Week Related to Odd Days:

No. of days:
Day:

Problems on Ages
IMPORTANT FORMULAS

Sun. Mon. Tues. Wed. Thurs. Fri. Sat.

2)

A man is 24 years older than his son.

In two years, his age will be twice the
age of his son. The present age of his
son is

3)

Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of

Kunal and Sagar was 6 : 5. Four years
hence, the ratio of their ages will be 11
: 10. What is Sagar's age at present?

4)

The sum of the present ages of a father

and his son is 60 years. Six years ago,
father's age was five times the age of
the son. After 6 years, son's age will be

5)

At present, the ratio between the ages

of Arun and Deepak is 4 : 3. After 6
years, Arun's age will be 26 years.

6)

Sachin is younger than Rahul by 7

years. If their ages are in the
respective ratio of 7 : 9, how old is

days.

Leap Year:
(i). Every year divisible by 4 is a leap year, if it is not a century.

Examples:

A is two years older than B who is

twice as old as C. If the total of the
ages of A, B and C be 27, the how old
is B?

For this, we use the concept of 'odd days'.

Note: A leap year has 366 days.

1)

We are supposed to find the day of the week on a given date.

(ii). Every 4th century is a leap year and no other century is a leap year.

EXERCISES

Odd Days:

In a given period, the number of days more than the complete weeks are called odd

What is the age of Deepak at present?

Sachin?

The cost of a unit quantity of the mixture is called the mean price.
3.

7)

The present ages of three persons in

proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago,
the sum of their ages was 56. Find their
present ages (in years).

8)

Ayesha's father was 38 years of age

when she was born while her mother
was 36 years old when her brother
four years younger to her was born.
What is the difference between the
ages of her parents?

Rule of Alligation:
If two ingredients are mixed, then
Quantity of cheaper

C.P. of dearer - Mean Price

=

Quantity of dearer

Mean price - C.P. of cheaper

We present as under:
C.P. of a unit quantity of cheaper = (c)

9)

A person's present age is two-fifth of

the age of his mother. After 8 years, he
will be one-half of the age of his
mother. How old is the mother at
present?

10) Q is as much younger than R as he is

older than T. If the sum of the ages of
R and T is 50 years, what is definitely
the difference between R and Q's age?

11) The age of father 10 years ago was

thrice the age of his son. Ten years
hence, father's age will be twice that of
his son. The ratio of their present ages
is

12) A is two years older than B who is

twice as old as C. If the total of the
ages of A, B and C be 27, the how old
is B?

13) Father is aged three times more than

his son Ronit. After 8 years, he would
be two and a half times of Ronit's age.
After further 8 years, how many times
would he be of Ronit's age?

14) The sum of ages of 5 children born at

the intervals of 3 years each is 50
years. What is the age of the youngest
child?

15) A father said to his son, "I was as old as

you are at the present at the time of
your birth". If the father's age is 38
years now, the son's age five years back
was:

16) Present ages of Sameer and Anand are

in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three
years hence, the ratio of their ages will
become 11 : 9 respectively. What is
Anand's present age in years?

C.P. of a unit quantity of dearer = (d)

(c)

(d)
Mean Price
(m)

(d - m)

(m - c)

(Cheaper quantity) : (Dearer quantity) = ( d - m) : (m - c).

4.

Suppose a container contains x of liquid from which y units are taken out and replaced
by water.
After n operations, the quantity of pure liquid =

1-

n
units.

EXERCISES
1)

A milk vendor has 2 cans of milk. The

first contains 25% water and the rest
milk. The second contains 50% water.
How much milk should he mix from
each of the containers so as to get 12
litres of milk such that the ratio of
water to milk is 3 : 5?

2)

In what ratio must a grocer mix two

varieties of pulses costing Rs. 15 and
Rs. 20 per kg respectively so as to get a
mixture worth Rs. 16.50 kg?

3)

A container contains 40 litres of milk.

From this container 4 litres of milk was
taken out and replaced by water. This
process was repeated further two
times. How much milk is now
contained by the container?

4)

A jar full of whisky contains 40%

alcohol. A part of this whisky is
replaced by another containing 19%
alcohol and now the percentage of
alcohol was found to be 26%. The
quantity of whisky replaced is

Alligation or Mixture
IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1.

Alligation:
It is the rule that enables us to find the ratio in which two or more ingredients at the
given price must be mixed to produce a mixture of desired price. Alligation

2.

Mean Price:

5)

7)

In what ratio must water be mixed

with milk to gain 162/3% on selling
the mixture at cost price?

6)

Find the ratio in which rice at Rs. 7.20

a kg is mixed with rice at Rs. 5.70 a kg
to produce a mixture worth Rs. 6.30 a
kg.

In what ratio must a grocer mix two

varieties of tea worth Rs. 60 a kg and
Rs. 65 a kg so that by selling the
mixture at Rs. 68.20 a kg he may gain
10%?

8)

8 litres are drawn from a cask full of

wine and is then filled with water.
This operation is performed three
more times. The ratio of the quantity
of wine now left in cask to that of
water is 16 : 81. How much wine did
the cask hold originally?

10) A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part

of which he sells at 8% profit and the
rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on
the whole. The quantity sold at 18%
profit is

11) A vessel is filled with liquid, 3 parts of

which are water and 5 parts syrup.
How much of the mixture must be
drawn off and replaced with water so
that the mixture may be half water and
half syrup?

12) Tea worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135

per kg is mixed with a third variety in
the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is
worth Rs. 153 per kg, the price of the
third variety per kg will be

13) A can contains a mixture of two liquids

A and B is the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres
of mixture are drawn off and the can is
filled with B, the ratio of A and B
becomes 7 : 9. How many litres of
liquid A was contained by the can
initially?

14) A dishonest milkman professes to sell

his milk at cost price but he mixes it
with water and thereby gains 25%.
The percentage of water in the
mixture is:

1.

Direct Proportion:
Two quantities are said to be directly proportional, if on the increase (or decrease) of
the one, the other increases (or decreases) to the same extent.
Eg. Cost is directly proportional to the number of articles.
(More Articles, More Cost)

The cost of Type 1 rice is Rs. 15 per kg

and Type 2 rice is Rs. 20 per kg. If
both Type 1 and Type 2 are mixed in
the ratio of 2 : 3, then the price per kg
of the mixed variety of rice is

2.

Indirect Proportion:
Two quantities are said to be indirectly proportional, if on the increase of the one, the
other decreases to the same extent and vice-versa.
Eg. The time taken by a car is covering a certain distance is inversely proportional to
the speed of the car. (More speed, Less is the time taken to cover a distance.)

9)

15) How many kilogram of sugar costing

Rs. 9 per kg must be mixed with 27 kg
of sugar costing Rs. 7 per kg so that
there may be a gain of 10% by selling
the mixture at Rs. 9.24 per kg?

Chain Rule
IMPORTANT FORMULAS

Note: In solving problems by chain rule, we compare every item with the term to be
found out.
EXERCISES
1)

A man completes 5/8 of a job in 10

days. At this rate, how many more
days will it takes him to finish the job?

2)

If a quarter kg of potato costs 60 paisa,

how many paisas will 200 gm cost?

3)

In a dairy farm, 40 cows eat 40 bags of

husk in 40 days. In how many days
one cow will eat one bag of husk?

4)

A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed

with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When
the smaller wheel has made 21
revolutions, then the number of
revolutions mad by the larger wheel is

5)

If 7 spiders make 7 webs in 7 days,

then 1 spider will make 1 web in how
many days?

6)

A flagstaff 17.5 m high casts a shadow

of length 40.25 m. The height of the
building, which casts a shadow of
length 28.75 m under similar
conditions will be

7)

In a camp, there is a meal for 120 men

or 200 children. If 150 children have
taken the meal, how many men will be
catered to with remaining meal?

8)

An industrial loom weaves 0.128

metres of cloth every second.
Approximately, how many seconds
will it take for the loom to weave 25
metres of cloth?

9)

36 men can complete a piece of work

in 18 days. In how many days will 27
men complete the same work?

10) 4 mat-weavers can weave 4 mats in 4

days. At the same rate, how many mats
would be woven by 8 mat-weavers in
8 days?

11) 3 pumps, working 8 hours a day, can

12) If the cost of x metres of wire is d

10

rupees, then what is the cost of y

metres of wire at the same rate?

empty a tank in 2 days. How many

hours a day must 4 pumps work to
empty the tank in 1 day?
13) Running at the same constant rate, 6
identical machines can produce a total
of 270 bottles per minute. At this rate,
how many bottles could 10 such
machines produce in 4 minutes?

he includes the interest every six

months for calculating the principal. If
he is charging an interest of 10%, the
effective rate of interest becomes

14) A fort had provision of food for 150

men for 45 days. After 10 days, 25 men
left the fort. The number of days for
which the remaining food will last, is:

5)

A sum of Rs. 725 is lent in the

beginning of a year at a certain rate of
interest. After 8 months, a sum of Rs.
362.50 more is lent but at the rate
twice the former. At the end of the
year, Rs. 33.50 is earned as interest
from both the loans. What was the
original rate of interest?

6)

A man took loan from a bank at the rate

of 12% p.a. simple interest. After 3 years
he had to pay Rs. 5400 interest only for
the period. The principal amount
borrowed by him was

7)

A sum of money amounts to Rs. 9800

after 5 years and Rs. 12005 after 8
years at the same rate of simple
interest. The rate of interest per
annum is

8)

What will be the ratio of simple interest

earned by certain amount at the same
rate of interest for 6 years and that for 9
years?

9)

A certain amount earns simple interest

of Rs. 1750 after 7 years. Had the
interest been 2% more, how much
more interest would it have earned?

10) A person borrows Rs. 5000 for 2 years at

4% p.a. simple interest. He immediately
lends it to another person at 6 p.a for 2
years. Find his gain in the transaction
per year.

15) 39 persons can repair a road in 12 days,

working 5 hours a day. In how many
days will 30 persons, working 6 hours
a day, complete the work?

Simple Interest
IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1.

Principal:
The money borrowed or lent out for a certain period is called the principal or the sum.

2.

Interest:
Extra money paid for using other's money is called interest.

3.

at the same rate of interest and received

Rs. 2200 in all from both of them as
interest. The rate of interest per annum
is

Simple Interest (S.I.):

If the interest on a sum borrowed for certain period is reckoned uniformly, then it is
called simple interest.
Let Principal = P, Rate = R% per annum (p.a.) and Time = T years. Then
(i). Simple Intereest =
(ii). P =

PRT

100 S.I.
RT

12) Mr. Thomas invested an amount of Rs.

13,900 divided in two different schemes
A and B at the simple interest rate of
14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If
the total amount of simple interest
earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was
the amount invested in Scheme B?

13) A sum fetched a total simple interest of

Rs. 4016.25 at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a. in 5
years. What is the sum?

14) How much time will it take for an

amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as
interest at 4.5% per annum of simple
interest?

100
;R=

EXERCISES
1) A sum of Rs. 12,500 amounts to Rs.
15,500 in 4 years at the rate of simple
interest. What is the rate of interest?

3)

11) A sum of money at simple interest

amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to
Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is:

An automobile financier claims to be

lending money at simple interest, but

100 S.I.
PT

2)

4)

and T =

100 S.I.
PR

A person takes a loan of Rs. 200 at 5%

simple interest. He returns Rs. 100 at the
end of 1 year. In order to clear his dues
at the end of 2 years, he would pay
A lent Rs. 5000 to B for 2 years and Rs.
3000 to C for 4 years on simple interest

15) Reena took a loan of Rs. 1200 with

simple interest for as many years as the
rate of interest. If she paid Rs. 432 as
interest at the end of the loan period,

11

what was the rate of interest?

3)

The least number of complete years in

which a sum of money put out at 20%
compound interest will be more than
doubled is

4)

Albert invested an amount of Rs. 8000

in a fixed deposit scheme for 2 years
at compound interest rate 5 p.c.p.a.
How much amount will Albert get on
maturity of the fixed deposit?

5)

The effective annual rate of interest

corresponding to a nominal rate of 6%
per annum payable half-yearly is

6)

Simple interest on a certain sum of

money for 3 years at 8% per annum is
half the compound interest on Rs.
4000 for 2 years at 10% per annum.
The sum placed on simple interest is

7)

If the simple interest on a sum of

money for 2 years at 5% per annum is
Rs. 50, what is the compound interest
on the same at the same rate and for
the same time?

8)

The difference between simple

interest and compound on Rs. 1200
for one year at 10% per annum
reckoned half-yearly is

9)

The difference between compound

interest and simple interest on an
amount of Rs. 15,000 for 2 years is Rs.
96. What is the rate of interest per
annum?

10) The compound interest on a certain

sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is
Rs. 525. The simple interest on the
same sum for double the time at half
the rate percent per annum is

Compound Interest
IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1. Let Principal = P, Rate = R% per annum, Time = n years.
2.

When interest is compound Annually:

Amount =

1+

100
3.

When interest is compounded Half-yearly:

Amount =

1+

2n

(R/2)
100

4.

When interest is compounded Quarterly:

Amount = P

4n

(R/4)

1+

100
5.

When interest is compounded Annually but time is in fraction, say 3

3

R
Amount = P

1+

2R/5

1+

100
6.

years.

100

When Rates are different for different years, say R1%, R2%, R3% for 1st, 2nd and 3rd year
respectively.
Then, Amount = P

7.

1+

R1

1+

100

R2
100

1+

R3
100

Present worth of Rs. x due n years hence is given by:

x
Present Worth =

1+

100

11) A bank offers 5% compound interest

calculated on half-yearly basis. A
customer deposits Rs. 1600 each on 1st
January and 1st July of a year. At the
end of the year, the amount he would
have gained by way of interest is:

12) The difference between simple and

compound interests compounded
annually on a certain sum of money
for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1.
The sum (in Rs.) is:

13) There is 60% increase in an amount in

6 years at simple interest. What will be
the compound interest of Rs. 12,000
after 3 years at the same rate?

14) What is the difference between the

compound interests on Rs. 5000 for 1

EXERCISES
1)

What will be the compound interest on

a sum of Rs. 25,000 after 3 years at the
rate of 12 p.c.p.a.?

2)

At what rate of compound interest per

annum will a sum of Rs. 1200 become
Rs. 1348.32 in 2 years?

15) The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at

7% per annum is Rs. 4347. The period
(in years) is:

12

years at 4% per annum

compounded yearly and half-yearly?

Profit and Loss

10

13. If a trader professes to sell his goods at cost price, but uses false weights, then

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
Cost Price:

Gain % =

The price, at which an article is purchased, is called its cost price, abbreviated as C.P.
Selling Price:
The price, at which an article is sold, is called its selling prices, abbreviated as S.P.
Profit or Gain:
If S.P. is greater than C.P., the seller is said to have a profit or gain.
Loss:
If S.P. is less than C.P., the seller is said to have incurred a loss.
1.

Gain = (S.P.) - (C.P.)

2.

Loss = (C.P.) - (S.P.)

3.

Loss or gain is always reckoned on C.P.

4.

Gain Percentage: (Gain %)

Gain % =

5.

6.

7.

%.
2)

A shopkeeper expects a gain of 22.5%

on his cost price. If in a week, his sale
was of Rs. 392, what was his profit?

Sam purchased 20 dozens of toys at the

rate of Rs. 375 per dozen. He sold each
one of them at the rate of Rs. 33. What
was his percentage profit?
On selling 17 balls at Rs. 720, there is a
loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls.
The cost price of a ball is

3)

A man buys a cycle for Rs. 1400 and

sells it at a loss of 15%. What is the
selling price of the cycle?

4)

5)

Some articles were bought at 6 articles

for Rs. 5 and sold at 5 articles for Rs. 6.
Gain percent is

6)

7)

When a plot is sold for Rs. 18,700, the

owner loses 15%. At what price must
that plot be sold in order to gain 15%?

8)

9)

A shopkeeper sells one transistor for

Rs. 840 at a gain of 20% and another
for Rs. 960 at a loss of 4%. His total
gain or loss percent is

10) A trader mixes 26 kg of rice at Rs. 20

per kg with 30 kg of rice of other
variety at Rs. 36 per kg and sells the
mixture at Rs. 30 per kg. His profit
percent is

11) Alfred buys an old scooter for Rs. 4700

and spends Rs. 800 on its repairs. If he
sells the scooter for Rs. 5800, his gain
percent is:

12) The cost price of 20 articles is the same

as the selling price of x articles. If the
profit is 25%, then the value of x is:

13) If selling price is doubled, the profit

triples. Find the profit percent.

14) In a certain store, the profit is 320% of

the cost. If the cost increases by 25%
but the selling price remains constant,
approximately what percentage of the

Gain 100
C.P.
Loss 100
C.P.

(100 + Gain %)
C.P
100
(100 - Loss %)
C.P.
100

Cost Price: (C.P.)

C.P. =

9.

x 100

100 oranges are bought at the rate of

Rs. 350 and sold at the rate of Rs. 48
per dozen. The percentage of profit or
loss is

Selling Price: (S.P.)

SP =

8.

EXERCISES
1) The percentage profit earned by selling
an article for Rs. 1920 is equal to the
percentage loss incurred by selling the
same article for Rs. 1280. At what
price should the article be sold to
make 25% profit?

Selling Price: (S.P.)

SP =

Error
(True Value) - (Error)

Loss Percentage: (Loss %)

Loss % =

10

100
S.P.
(100 + Gain %)

Cost Price: (C.P.)

C.P. =

100

S.P.
(100 - Loss %)

10. If an article is sold at a gain of say 35%, then S.P. = 135% of C.P.
11. If an article is sold at a loss of say, 35% then S.P. = 65% of C.P.
12. When a person sells two similar items, one at a gain of say x%, and the other at a loss of

x%, then the seller always incurs a loss given by:

Loss % =

Common Loss and Gain %

2=

2.

13

selling price is the profit?

months, A withdrew
15) A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a
rupee. How many for a rupee must he
sell to gain 20%?

Partnership

5)

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1. Partnership:
When two or more than two persons run a business jointly, they are called partners and
the deal is known as partnership. If a number of partners have invested in a business

with an amount equal to that of B. In

what proportion should the profit at
the end of one year be distributed
among A, B and C?

of his capital

and B withdrew of his capital. The

gain at the end of 10 months was Rs.
760. A's share in this profit is
Two friends P and Q started a business
investing in the ration of 5 : 6. R joined
them after six months investing an
amount equal to that of Q's. At the end
of the year, 20% profit was earned
which was equal to Rs. 98,000. What
was the amount invested by R?

6)

A and B started a business in

partnership investing Rs. 20,000 and
Rs. 15,000 respectively. After six
months, C joined them with Rs.
20,000. What will be B's share in total
profit of Rs. 25,000 earned at the end
of 2 years from the starting of the
business?
Arun, Kamal and Vinay invested Rs.
8000, Rs. 4000 and Rs. 8000
respectively in a business. Arun left
after six months. If after eight months,
there was a gain of Rs. 4005, then
what will be the share of Kamal?

and it has a profit, then

Share Of Partner = (Total_Profit Part_Share / Total_Share)
2.

Ratio of Divisions of Gains:

I.

7)

A began a business with Rs. 85,000. He

was joined afterwards by B with Rs.
42,500. For how much period does B
join, if the profits at the end of the year
are divided in the ratio of 3 : 1?

8)

9)

Aman started a business investing Rs.

70,000. Rakhi joined him after six
months with an amount of Rs.1,05,000
and Sagar joined them with Rs. 1.4
lakhs after another six months. The
amount of profit earned should be
distributed in what ratio among Aman,
Rakhi and Sagar respectively, 3 years
after Aman started the business?

10) Simran started a software business by

investing Rs. 50,000. After six months,
Nanda joined her with a capital of Rs.
80,000. After 3 years, they earned a
profit of Rs. 24,500. What was
Simran's share in the profit?

When investments of all the partners are for the same time, the gain or loss is
distributed among the partners in the ratio of their investments.
Suppose A and B invest Rs. x and Rs. y respectively for a year in a business,
then at the end of the year:
(A's share of profit) : (B's share of profit) = x : y.

II.

When investments are for different time periods, then equivalent capitals are
calculated for a unit of time by taking (capital x number of units of time).
Now gain or loss is divided in the ratio of these capitals.
Suppose A invests Rs. x for p months and B invests Rs. y for q months then,
(A's share of profit) : (B's share of profit)= xp : yq.

3.

Working and Sleeping Partners:

A partner who manages the business is known as a working partner and the one who
simply invests the money is a sleeping partner.

EXERCISES
1)

3)

A starts business with Rs. 3500 and

after 5 months, B joins with A as his
partner. After a year, the profit is
divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B's
contribution in the capital?

A and B entered into partnership with

capitals in the ratio 4 : 5. After 3

2)

4)

A, B, C rent a pasture. A puts 10 oxen

for 7 months, B puts 12 oxen for 5
months and C puts 15 oxen for 3
months for grazing. If the rent of the
pasture is Rs. 175, how much must C
pay as his share of rent?
A and B started a partnership business
investing some amount in the ratio of
3 : 5. C joined then after six months

11) A and B invest in a business in the ratio

3 : 2. If 5% of the total profit goes to
charity and A's share is Rs. 855, the
total profit is:

12) A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a

business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more
than B and B Rs. 5000 more than C.
Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A
receives:

13) A, B and C jointly thought of engaging

themselves in a business venture. It
was agreed that A would invest Rs.
6500 for 6 months, B, Rs. 8400 for 5
months and C, Rs. 10,000 for 3 months.

14) A, B and C enter into a partnership in

14

the ratio : : . After 4 months, A

increases his share 50%. If the total
profit at the end of one year be Rs.

A wants to be the working member for

which, he was to receive 5% of the
profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400.
Calculate the share of B in the profit.

21,600, then B's share in the profit is:

P
2. Population n years ago =
4.

15) Three partners shared the profit in a

business in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. They had
partnered for 14 months, 8 months and
7 months respectively. What was the
ratio of their investments?

Thus,
2.

3.

b
=

as a percent: We have,

100

= 25%.

a
b

1-

P
R

100
R

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1. Concept of Percentage:
By a certain percent, we mean that many hundredths.
Thus, x percent means x hundredths, written as x%.
x
To express x% as a fraction: We have, x% =
.
100
20 1
Thus, 20% =
= .
100 5
To express

100
Results on Depreciation:
Let the present value of a machine be P. Suppose it depreciates at the rate of R% per
annum. Then:
R n
1. Value of the machine after n years = P 1 100
2. Value of the machine n years ago =

Percentage

1+

3. If A is R% more than B, then B is less than A by

4. If A is R% less than B, then B is more than A by

100
(100 + R)
%.
R
(100 - R)

100
%.

EXERCISES

a
b

1)

If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is the

same as

2)

A student multiplied a number by 3/5

instead of 5/3. What is the percentage
error in the calculation?

3)

In a certain school, 20% of students are

below 8 years of age. The number of
students above 8 years of age is 2/3 of
the number of students of 8 years of
age which is 48. What is the total
number of students in the school?

4)

Two numbers A and B are such that

the sum of 5% of A and 4% of B is
two-third of the sum of 6% of A and
8% of B. Find the ratio of A : B.

5)

In an election between two candidates,

one got 55% of the total valid votes,
20% of the votes were invalid. If the
total number of votes was 7500, the
number of valid votes that the other
candidate got, was

6)

Three candidates contested an election

and received 1136, 7636 and 11628
votes respectively. What percentage of
the total votes did the winning
candidate get?

7)

Two tailors X and Y are paid a total of

Rs. 550 per week by their employer. If
X is paid 120 percent of the sum paid
to Y, how much is Y paid per week?

8)

Gauri went to the stationers and

bought things worth Rs. 25, out of
which 30 paisa went on sales tax on
taxable purchases. If the tax rate was
6%, then what was the cost of the tax

100
%.

4
4
%
Percentage Increase/Decrease:
If the price of a commodity increases by R%, then the reduction in consumption so as
not to increase the expenditure is:
R
100
(100 + R)
%
If the price of a commodity decreases by R%, then the increase in consumption so as
not to decrease the expenditure is:
R
100
(100 - R)
%
Results on Population:
Let the population of a town be P now and suppose it increases at the rate of R% per
annum, then:
n
R
1. Population after n years = P
1+
100

15

free items?
2. T.D. =
9)

Rajeev buys good worth Rs. 6650. He

gets a rebate of 6% on it. After getting
the rebate, he pays sales tax @ 10%.
Find the amount he will have to pay
for the goods.

11) A batsman scored 110 runs which

included 3 boundaries and 8 sixes.
What percent of his total score did he
make by running between the wickets?

13) A fruit seller had some apples. He sells

40% apples and still has 420 apples.
Originally, he had

(P.W.) R T

100

10) The population of a town increased

from 1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade.
The average percent increase of
population per year is

3. Sum =

Amount R T
100 + (R T)

(S.I.) (T.D.)
(S.I.) - (T.D.)

4. (S.I.) - (T.D.) = S.I. on T.D.

12) Two students appeared at an
examination. One of them secured 9
marks more than the other and his
marks was 56% of the sum of their
marks. The marks obtained by them
are:

Amount
5. When the sum is put at compound interest, then P.W. =

100

EXERCISES
1)

Goods were bought for Rs. 600 and

sold the same for Rs. 688.50 at a credit
of 9 months and thus gaining 2% The
rate of interest per annum is

2)

The true discount on a bill due 9

months hence at 16% per annum is
Rs. 189. The amount of the bill is

3)

A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in

cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit
of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10%
per annum, the man

4)

The true discount on Rs. 1760 due

after a certain time at 12% per annum
is Rs. 160. The time after which it is
due is

5)

The present worth of Rs. 2310 due 2

years hence, the rate of interest being
15% per annum, is

6)

Rs. 20 is the true discount on Rs. 260

due after a certain time. What will be
the true discount on the same sum due
after half of the former time, the rate
of interest being the same?

7)

The interest on Rs. 750 for 2 years is

the same as the true discount on Rs.
960 due 2 years hence. If the rate of
interest is the same in both cases, it is

8)

The simple interest and the true

discount on a certain sum for a given
time and at a given rate are Rs. 85 and
Rs. 80 respectively. The sum is

9)

The present worth of Rs. 1404 due in

two equal half-yearly installments at
8% per annum simple interest is

10) If the true discount on s sum due 2

years hence at 14% per annum be Rs.
168, the sum due is

14) What percentages of numbers from 1

to 70 have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit?

15) If A = x% of y and B = y% of x, then which of the following is true?

A. A is smaller than B.
B. A is greater than B
C. Relationship cannot be determined.
D. If x is smaller than y, then A is
greater than B.
E. None of these

1+

True Discount
IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
Suppose a man has to pay Rs. 156 after 4 years and the rate of interest is 14% per annum. Clearly,
Rs. 100 at 14% will amount to R. 156 in 4 years. So, the payment of Rs. now will clear off the
debt of Rs. 156 due 4 years hence. We say that:
Sum due = Rs. 156 due 4 years hence;
Present Worth (P.W.) = Rs. 100;
True Discount (T.D.) = Rs. (156 - 100) = Rs. 56 = (Sum due) - (P.W.)
We define: T.D. = Interest on P.W.; Amount = (P.W.) + (T.D.)
Interest is reckoned on P.W. and true discount is reckoned on the amount.
IMPORTANT FORMULAS
Let rate = R% per annum and Time = T years. Then,
100 Amount
1. P.W. =

=
100 + (R T)

100 T.D.
RT

11) A man purchased a cow for Rs. 3000

and sold it the same day for Rs. 3600,
allowing the buyer a credit of 2 years.
If the rate of interest be 10% per
annum, then the man has a gain of

16

12) A trader owes a merchant Rs. 10,028

due 1 year hence. The trader wants to
settle the account after 3 months. If
the rate of interest 12% per annum,
how much cash should he pay?

5.
13) If Rs. 10 be allowed as true discount on
a bill of Rs. 110 due at the end of a
certain time, then the discount allowed
on the same sum due at the end of
double the time is:

14) A man wants to sell his scooter. There

are two offers, one at Rs. 12,000 cash
and the other a credit of Rs. 12,880 to
be paid after 8 months, money being
at 18% per annum. Which is the
better offer?

Compounded Ratio:
The compounded ratio of the ratios: (a : b), (c : d), (e : f) is (ace : bdf).

6.

Duplicate Ratios:
Duplicate ratio of (a : b) is (a2 : b2).
Sub-duplicate ratio of (a : b) is (a : b).
Triplicate ratio of (a : b) is (a3 : b3).
Sub-triplicate ratio of (a : b) is (a1/3 : b1/3).

15) The true discount on Rs. 2562 due 4

months hence is Rs. 122. The rate
percent is:

If
7.

c
d

a+b

, then

a-b

c+d
c-d

. [componendo and dividendo]

Variations:
y.
We say that x is inversely proportional to y, if xy = k for some constant k and

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
Ratio:

we write, x

The ratio of two quantities a and b in the same units, is the fraction (a/b) and we write

it as a : b.

EXERCISES

In the ratio a : b, we call a as the first term or antecedent and b, the second term or

1)

The ratio of the number of boys and

girls in a college is 7: 8. If the
percentage increase in the number of
boys and girls be 20% and 10%
respectively, what will be the new
ratio?

2)

Salaries of Ravi and Sumit are in the

ratio 2 : 3. If the salary of each is
increased by Rs. 4000, the new ratio
becomes 40 : 57. What is Sumit's
salary?

3)

If 0.75 : x :: 5 : 8, then x is equal to:

4)

The sum of three numbers is 98. If the

ratio of the first to second is 2 :3 and
that of the second to the third is 5 : 8,
then the second number is

5)

If Rs. 782 be divided into three parts,

6)

The salaries A, B, C are in the ratio 2 :

3 : 5. If the increments of 15%, 10%
and 20% are allowed respectively in
their salaries, then what will be new
ratio of their salaries?
The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is

consequent.
Eg. The ratio 5 : 9 represents

5
9

With antecedent = 5, consequent = 9.

Rule: The multiplication or division of each term of a ratio by the same non-zero
number does not affect the ratio.
Eg. 4 : 5 = 8 : 10 = 12 : 15. Also, 4 : 6 = 2 : 3.
2.

We say that x is directly proportional to y, if x = ky for some constant k and we write, x

Ratio and Proportion

1.

Proportion:
The equality of two ratios is called proportion.
If a : b = c : d, we write a : b :: c : d and we say that a, b, c, d are in proportion.
Here a and d are called extremes, while b and c are called mean terms.
Product of means = Product of extremes.
Thus, a : b :: c : d

3.

(b x c) = (a x d).

proportional to
part is

Fourth Proportional:

, then the first

If a : b = c : d, then d is called the fourth proportional to a, b, c.

Third Proportional:
a : b = c : d, then c is called the third proportion to a and b.

7)

If 40% of a number is equal to twothird of another number, what is the

ratio of first number to the second
number?

8)

9)

Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9

is subtracted from each, the new

10) In a bag, there are coins of 25 p, 10 p

and 5 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there

Mean Proportional:
Mean proportional between a and b is (ab).
4.

Comparison of Ratios:
We say that (a : b) > (c : d)

a c
> .
b d

17

numbers are in the ratio 12 : 23. The

smaller number is

11) A and B together have Rs. 1210. If

is Rs. 30 in all, how many 5 p coins

are there?
12) Two numbers are respectively 20%
and 50% more than a third number.
The ratio of the two numbers is:

of A's amount is equal to of B's

amount, how much amount does B
have?

-a, if a < 0
Thus, |5| = 5 and |-5| = -(-5) = 5.
3.

Virnaculum (or Bar):

When an expression contains Virnaculum, before applying the 'BODMAS' rule, we
simplify the expression under the Virnaculum.

EXERCISES
1)

A sum of Rs. 1360 has been divided

among A, B and C such that A gets

13) A sum of money is to be distributed

among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5
: 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets Rs. 1000 more than
D, what is B's share?

14) In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk

and water 2 : 1. If the this ratio is to
be 1 : 2, then the quantity of water to
be further added is:

15) Seats for Mathematics, Physics and

Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7
: 8. There is a proposal to increase these
seats by 40%, 50% and 75%
respectively. What will be the ratio of
increased seats?

Simplification

what B gets and B gets

gets. B's share is

One-third of Rahul's savings in

National Savings Certificate is equal to
one-half of his savings in Public
Provident Fund. If he has Rs. 1,50,000
as total savings, how much has he
saved in Public Provident Fund ?

of

of what C

3)

A fires 5 shots to B's 3 but A kills only

once in 3 shots while B kills once in 2
shots. When B has missed 27 times, A
has killed

4)

Eight people are planning to share

equally the cost of a rental car. If one
person
withdraws
from
the
arrangement and the others share
equally the entire cost of the car, then
the share of each of the remaining
persons increased by

5)

To fill a tank, 25 buckets of water is

required. How many buckets of water
will be required to fill the same tank if
the capacity of the bucket is reduced to
two-fifth of its present ?

6)

In a regular week, there are 5 working

days and for each day, the working
hours are 8. A man gets Rs. 2.40 per
hour for regular work and Rs. 3.20 per
hours for overtime. If he earns Rs. 432
in 4 weeks, then how many hours
does he work for ?

7)

Free notebooks were distributed

equally among children of a class. The
number of notebooks each child got
was one-eighth of the number of
children. Had the number of children
been half, each child would have got 16
notebooks. Total how many notebooks
were distributed ?

8)

David gets on the elevator at the 11th

floor of a building and rides up at the
rate of 57 floors per minute. At the
same time, Albert gets on an elevator
at the 51st floor of the same building
and rides down at the rate of 63 floors
per minute. If they continue
travelling at these rates, then at which
floor will their paths cross ?

9)

A man has some hens and cows. If the

number of heads be 48 and the number

10) (469 + 174)2 - (469 - 174)2

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1.

2)

'BODMAS' Rule:
This rule depicts the correct sequence in which the operations are to be executed, so as
to find out the value of given expression.
Here B - Bracket,
O - of,
D - Division,
M - Multiplication,
A - Addition and
S - Subtraction
Thus, in simplifying an expression, first of all the brackets must be removed, strictly in
the order (), {} and ||.
After removing the brackets, we must use the following operations strictly in the order:
(i) of (ii) Division (iii) Multiplication (iv) Addition (v) Subtraction.

2.

Modulus of a Real Number:

Modulus of a real number a is defined as
|a| =

a, if a > 0

18

(469 174)

=?

of feet equals 140, then the number of

hens will be
11) A man has Rs. 480 in the
denominations of one-rupee notes,
five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes.
The number of notes of each
denomination is equal. What is the
total number of notes that he has?

13) The price of 10 chairs is equal to that of

4 tables. The price of 15 chairs and 2
tables together is Rs. 4000. The total
price of 12 chairs and 3 tables is:

Finding the H.C.F. of more than two numbers: Suppose we have to find the
H.C.F. of three numbers, then, H.C.F. of [(H.C.F. of any two) and (the third
12) There are two examinations rooms A
and B. If 10 students are sent from A
to B, then the number of students in
each room is the same. If 20
candidates are sent from B to A, then
the number of students in A is double
the number of students in B. The
number of students in room A is:

number)] gives the H.C.F. of three given number.

Similarly, the H.C.F. of more than three numbers may be obtained.
3.

The least number which is exactly divisible by each one of the given numbers is called
their L.C.M.
There are two methods of finding the L.C.M. of a given set of numbers:
I.

Problems On H.C.F and L.C.M

factors.
II.

Division Method (short-cut): Arrange the given numbers in a row in any

order. Divide by a number which divided exactly at least two of the given
numbers and carry forward the numbers which are not divisible. Repeat the
above process till no two of the numbers are divisible by the same number
except 1. The product of the divisors and the undivided numbers is the
required L.C.M. of the given numbers.

4.

Product of two numbers = Product of their H.C.F. and L.C.M.

5.

Co-primes: Two numbers are said to be co-primes if their H.C.F. is 1.

6.

H.C.F. and L.C.M. of Fractions:

1. H.C.F. =

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
Factors and Multiples:

2. L.C.M. =

If number a divided another number b exactly, we say that a is a factor of b.

In this case, b is called a multiple of a.
2.

Factorization Method: Resolve each one of the given numbers into a product
of prime factors. Then, L.C.M. is the product of highest powers of all the

14) The price of 2 sarees and 4 shirts is Rs.

1600. With the same money one can
buy 1 saree and 6 shirts. If one wants
to buy 12 shirts, how much shall he
have to pay?

15) If a - b = 3 and a2 + b2 = 29, find the

value of ab

1.

Least Common Multiple (L.C.M.):

Highest Common Factor (H.C.F.) or Greatest Common Measure (G.C.M.) or Greatest

H.C.F. or L.C.M. as the case may be. Now, in the result, mark off as many decimal
places as are there in each of the given numbers.
9.

fractions into an equivalent fraction with L.C.M as the denominator, by multiplying

factors gives H.C.F.

both the numerator and denominator by the same number. The resultant fraction with

Division Method: Suppose we have to find the H.C.F. of two given numbers,
divide the larger by the smaller one. Now, divide the divisor by the
remainder. Repeat the process of dividing the preceding number by the
remainder last obtained till zero is obtained as remainder. The last divisor is
required H.C.F.

Comparison of Fractions:
Find the L.C.M. of the denominators of the given fractions. Convert each of the

product of prime factors. The product of least powers of common prime

II.

H.C.F. and L.C.M. of Decimal Fractions:

some numbers, if necessary. Considering these numbers without decimal point, find

of them exactly.
Factorization Method: Express the each one of the given numbers as the

L.C.M. of Numerators

In a given numbers, make the same number of decimal places by annexing zeros in

The H.C.F. of two or more than two numbers is the greatest number that divided each

I.

L.C.M. of Denominators

H.C.F. of Denominators
8.

Common Divisor (G.C.D.):

There are two methods of finding the H.C.F. of a given set of numbers:

H.C.F. of Numerators

the greatest numerator is the greatest.

EXERCISES

1) The product of two numbers is 4107.

If the H.C.F. of these numbers is 37,
then the greater number is

19

2) Three numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5

and their L.C.M. is 2400. Their H.C.F. is

3) The G.C.D. of 1.08, 0.36 and 0.9 is

4) The product of two numbers is 2028 and

their H.C.F. is 13. The number of such
pairs is

5) The least multiple of 7, which leaves

a remainder of 4, when divided by 6,
9, 15 and 18 is

7) The least number which should be

added to 2497 so that the sum is
exactly divisible by 5, 6, 4 and 3 is

9) The least number which when

divided by 5, 6 , 7 and 8 leaves a
remainder 3, but when divided by 9
leaves no remainder, is

21) Six bells commence tolling together

and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8 10
and 12 seconds respectively. In 30
minutes, how many times do they toll
together ?

22) Let N be the greatest number that will

divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the
same remainder in each case. Then sum of
the digits in N is:

23) The greatest number of four digits

which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75
is:
A. 9000
B. 9400
C. 9600
D. 9800

24) Which of the following fraction is the

largest?
A. 7/8
B. 13/16
C. 31/40
D. 63/80

6) Find the lowest common multiple of 24, 36

and 40.

8)
8) Reduce 128352 To its lowest terms.
238368
10) A, B and C start at the same time in the
same direction to run around a circular
stadium. A completes a round in 252
seconds, B in 308 seconds and c in 198
seconds, all starting at the same point.
After what time will they again at the
starting point ?

25) The least number, which when

divided by 12, 15, 20 and 54 leaves in
each case a remainder of 8 is

Square Root and Cube Root

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1.

Square Root:
If x2 = y, we say that the square root of y is x and we write y = x.

11) The H.C.F. of two numbers is 11 and

their L.C.M. is 7700. If one of the
numbers is 275, then the other is

12) What will be the least number which

when doubled will be exactly divisible by
12, 18, 21 and 30 ?

13) The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and

their H.C.F. is 4. Their L.C.M. is

14) The smallest number which when

diminished by 7, is divisible 12, 16, 18, 21
and 28 is

Thus, 4 = 2, 9 = 3, 196 = 14.

2.

Cube Root:
The cube root of a given number x is the number whose cube is x.
We, denote the cube root of x by x.
Thus, 38 =3( 2 2 2) = 2, 3343 = 3(7 7 7) = 7 etc.
Note:
1. xy = (x ) (y)

15) 252 can be expressed as a product of

primes as

16) The greatest possible length which can be

used to measure exactly the lengths 7 m, 3
m 85 cm, 12 m 95 cm is

2.

17) Three numbers which are co-prime

to each other are such that the
product of the first two is 551 and
that of the last two is 1073. The sum
of the three numbers is

18) Find the highest common factor of 36 and

84.

EXERCISES

19) Find the greatest number that will

divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave
the same remainder in each case.

20) The H.C.F. of two numbers is 23 and the

other two factors of their L.C.M. are 13 and
14. The larger of the two numbers is:

x/y

x
=

x
y

y
y

xy
y

If a = 0.1039, then the value of

( (4a2 - 4a + 1) )+ 3a is:

20

3 + 1
and y =
3 - 1
then the value of (x2 + y2) is:
If x =

3 - 1
3 + 1

A group of students decided to collect as

many paisas from each member of group as
is the number of members. If the total
collection accounts to Rs. 59.29, the
number of the member is the group is

Sq rt(162)

2. loga

Sq rt(128)

5 10
+ 125 is equal to:
2 5

0.0169 x = 1.3

= loga x - loga y

3. logx x = 1
4. loga 1 = 0

What should come in place of both x

in the equation

5. loga (xn) = n(loga x)

6. loga x =

If 5 = 2.236,
then the value of

625

11

14

25

11

7. loga x =

is equal to:

196

3.

1
logx a
logb x
logb a

log x
log a

Common Logarithms:
Logarithms to the base 10 are known as common logarithms.

The square root of 64009 is

4.

The logarithm of a number contains two parts, namely 'characteristic' and 'mantissa'.
Characteristic: The internal part of the logarithm of a number is called its characteristic.

How many two-digit numbers satisfy this

property.: The last digit (unit's digit) of the
square of the two-digit number is 8 ?

Case I: When the number is greater than 1.

1
3 -

In this case, the characteristic is one less than the number of digits in the left of the

decimal point in the given number.

simplifies to:

Case II: When the number is less than 1.

In this case, the characteristic is one more than the number of zeros between the decimal
The cube root of .000216 is:

point and the first significant digit of the number and it is negative.

The least perfect square, which is divisible

by each of 21, 36 and 66 is

Instead of -1, -2 etc. we write

1 (one bar), 2

(two bar), etc.

Examples:Sq Rt (1.5625) = ?

The square root of (7 + 35) (7 - 35) is

Number

Characteristic

Number

Characteristic

654.24

0.6453

26.649

0.06134

8.3547

0.00123

Logarithm
IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1.

Logarithm:
If a is a positive real number, other than 1 and am = x, then we write:
m = logax and we say that the value of log x to the base a is m.
Examples:
(i). 103 1000
(ii). 34 = 81
(iii). 2-3 =

The decimal part of the logarithm of a number is known is its mantissa. For mantissa, we

log3 81 = 4.
1
8

(iv). (.1)2 = .01

2.

Mantissa:

log10 1000 = 3.

look through log table.

1
log2 = -3.
8
log(.1) .01 = 2.

EXERCISES

Properties of Logarithms:
1. loga (xy) = loga x + loga y

21

1)

If log10 7 = a, then log10

2)
is equal to

If log10 2 = 0.3010, then log2

10 is equal to

3.

Let radius of base = r and Height (or length) = h. Then,

10
3)

5)

If log10 2 = 0.3010, the value of log10 80 is

The value of

7) If logx

+
+
is:
log3 60 log4 60 log5 60

1
= - , then x is equal to
16
2

4)

6)

8)

CYLINDER

If log10 5 + log10 (5x + 1) =

log10 (x + 5) + 1, then x is
equal to

4.

i.

Volume = ( r2h) cubic units.

ii.

Curved surface area = (2 rh) sq. units.

iii.

Total surface area = 2 r(h + r) sq. units.

CONE
Let radius of base = r and Height = h. Then,
i.

Slant height, l = (h2 + r2 )units.

ii.

Volume =

iii.

Curved surface area = ( rl) sq. units.

iv.

Total surface area = (

If log 2 = 0.30103, the

number of digits in 264 is

If ax = by, then
5.

r2h

cubic units.
rl +

r2) sq. units.

SPHERE
Let the radius of the sphere be r. Then,

9)

7)

If logx y = 100 and log2 x = 10, then the value of y

is
If log 2 = 0.3010 and log 3 = 0.4771, the value of
log5 512 is:
A. 2.870 B. 2.967
C. 3.876 D. 3.912

10) The value of log2 16 is

11) Which of the following

statements is not correct?
A. log10 10 = 1
B. log (2 + 3) = log (2 x 3)
C. log10 1 = 0
D. log (1 + 2 + 3) = log 1 +
log 2 + log 3

Volume and Surface Area

6.

2.

ii.

Surface area = 2(lb + bh + lh) sq. units.

iii.

Diagonal = (l2 + b2 + h2 )units.

cubic units.

ii.

Surface area = (4 r ) sq. units.

2

HEMISPHERE

i.

Volume =

r3

ii.

Curved surface area = (2 r2) sq. units.

cubic units.

iii.

Total surface area = (3 r2) sq. units.

EXERCISES
1)

A boat having a length 3 m and

breadth 2 m is floating on a lake. The
boat sinks by 1 cm when a man gets on
it. The mass of the man is

2)

50 men took a dip in a water tank 40

m long and 20 m broad on a religious
day. If the average displacement of
water by a man is 4 m3, then the rise
in the water level in the tank will be

3)

The slant height of a right circular

cone is 10 m and its height is 8 m. Find
the area of its curved surface.

4)

A cistern 6m long and 4 m wide

contains water up to a depth of 1 m 25
cm. The total area of the wet surface is

5)

A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape

with dimensions 48 m x 36 m. From
each of its corners, a square is cut off

6)

The curved surface area of a

cylindrical pillar is 264 m2 and its
volume is 924 m3. Find the ratio of its

Let length = l, breadth = b and height = h units. Then

Volume = (l b h) cubic units.

r3

Note: 1 litre = 1000 cm3.

CUBOID
i.

Volume =

Let the radius of a hemisphere be r. Then,

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1.

i.

CUBE
Let each edge of a cube be of length a. Then,
i.

Volume = a3 cubic units.

ii.

Surface area = 6a sq. units.

iii.

Diagonal = 3a units.

22

so as to make an open box. If the

length of the square is 8 m, the volume
of the box (in m3) is
7)

A cistern of capacity 8000 litres

measures externally 3.3 m by 2.6 m by
1.1 m and its walls are 5 cm thick. The
thickness of the bottom is

diameter to its height.

iii.
2.

5! = (5 4 3 2 1) = 120.

Permutations:
The different arrangements of a given number of things by taking some or all at a time,

8)

are called permutations.

What is the total surface area of a right

circular cone of height 14 cm and base
radius 7 cm?

Examples:
i.

All permutations (or arrangements) made with the letters a, b, c by taking two
at a time are (ab, ba, ac, ca, bc, cb).

ii.
9)

A large cube is formed from the

material obtained by melting three
smaller cubes of 3, 4 and 5 cm side.
What is the ratio of the total surface
areas of the smaller cubes and the large
cube?

10) How many bricks, each measuring 25

cm x 11.25 cm x 6 cm, will be needed
to build a wall of 8 m x 6 m x 22.5 cm?

11) A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm

and 5 cm is rotated about the side of 3
cm to form a cone. The volume of the
cone so formed is:

12) A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If

the sum of the areas of the floor and
the ceiling is equal to the sum of the
areas of four walls, the volume of the
hall is:

13) In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The

volume of water that falls on 1.5
hectares of ground is:

All permutations made with the letters a, b, c taking all at a time are:
( abc, acb, bac, bca, cab, cba)

3.

Number of Permutations:
Number of all permutations of n things, taken r at a time, is given by:
n!
P = n(n - 1)(n - 2) ... (n - r + 1) =
(n - r)!

n r

Examples:
6 2

ii.

7 3

P = (6 5) = 30.
P = (7 6 5) = 210.

iii.
4.

Cor. number of all permutations of n things, taken all at a time = n!.

An Important Result:
If there are n subjects of which p1 are alike of one kind; p2 are alike of another kind; p3
are

14) 66 cubic centimetres of silver is drawn

into a wire 1 mm in diameter. The
length of the wire in metres will be:

15) A hollow iron pipe is 21 cm long and

its external diameter is 8 cm. If the
thickness of the pipe is 1 cm and iron
weighs 8 g/cm3, then the weight of the
pipe is

i.

alike

of

third

kind

and

so

on

and

pr

are

alike

of

rth

kind,

such that (p1 + p2 + ... pr) = n.

n!
Then, number of permutations of these n objects is =
(p1!).(p2)!.....(pr!)
5.

Combinations:
Each of the different groups or selections which can be formed by taking some or all of
a number of objects is called a combination.
Examples:
1.

Suppose we want to select two out of three boys A, B, C. Then, possible

selections are AB, BC and CA.

Permutation and Combination

Note: AB and BA represent the same selection.

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1. Factorial Notation:

2.

All the combinations formed by a, b, c taking ab, bc, ca.

3.

The only combination that can be formed of three letters a, b, c taken all at a
time is abc.

Let n be a positive integer. Then, factorial n, denoted n! is defined as:

4.

n! = n(n - 1)(n - 2) ... 3.2.1.

AB, AC, AD, BC, BD, CD.

Examples:
i.

We define 0! = 1.

ii.

4! = (4 3 2 1) = 24.

Various groups of 2 out of four persons A, B, C, D are:

5.

Note that ab ba are two different permutations but they represent the same
combination.

Number of Combinations:

23

The number of all combinations of n things, taken r at a time is:

n!

Cr =

(r!)(n - r!)

n(n - 1)(n - 2) ... to r factors

r!

Note:
i.

ii.

13) In how many different ways can the

letters of the word 'CORPORATION'
be arranged so that the vowels always
come together?

Cn = 1 and nC0 = 1.
Cr = nC(n - r)

Examples:
i. 11C4 =

(11 10 9 8)
(4 3 2 1)

ii. 16C13 = 16C(16 - 13) = 16C3 =

EXERCISES
1) In a group of 6 boys and 4 girls, four
children are to be selected. In how
many different ways can they be
selected such that at least one boy
should be there?
3)

5)

In how many ways a committee,

consisting of 5 men and 6 women can
be formed from 8 men and 10 women?

16 15 14
3!

16 15 14
321

= 560.

14) Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels,

how many words of 3 consonants and
2 vowels can be formed?

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1. Experiment:
An operation which can produce some well-defined outcomes is called an experiment.

2)

4)

How many 3-digit numbers can be

formed from the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and
9, which are divisible by 5 and none of
the digits is repeated?

2.

How many 4-letter words with or

without meaning, can be formed out of
the
letters
of
the
word,
'LOGARITHMS', if repetition of letters
is not allowed?

8)

In how many different ways can the

letters of the word 'OPTICAL' be
arranged so that the vowels always
come together?

10) In how many ways can the letters of

the word 'LEADER' be arranged?

11) From a group of 7 men and 6 women,

five persons are to be selected to form a

12) In how many different ways can the

letters of the word 'LEADING' be

Random Experiment:
An experiment in which all possible outcomes are know and the exact output cannot be
predicted in advance, is called a random experiment.
Examples:

A box contains 2 white balls, 3 black

balls and 4 red balls. In how many
ways can 3 balls be drawn from the
box, if at least one black ball is to be
included in the draw?

6)

9)

arranged in such a way that the

vowels always come together?

Probability

= 330.

In how many different ways can the

letters of the word 'DETAIL' be
arranged in such a way that the vowels
occupy only the odd positions?

7)

committee so that at least 3 men are

there on the committee. In how many
ways can it be done?

i.

Rolling an unbiased dice.

ii.

Tossing a fair coin.

iii.

Drawing a card from a pack of well-shuffled cards.

iv.

Picking up a ball of certain color from a bag containing balls of different

colors.

Details:

In how many ways can a group of 5

men and 2 women be made out of a
total of 7 men and 3 women?

i.

When we throw a coin, then either a Head (H) or a Tail (T) appears.

ii.

A dice is a solid cube, having 6 faces, marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 respectively.

When we throw a die, the outcome is the number that appears on its upper
face.

In how many different ways can the

letters of the word 'MATHEMATICS'
be arranged so that the vowels always
come together?

iii.

A pack of cards has 52 cards.

It has 13 cards of each suit, name Spades, Clubs, Hearts and Diamonds.
Cards of spades and clubs are black cards.
Cards of hearts and diamonds are red cards.
There are 4 honors of each unit.
There are Kings, Queens and Jacks. These are all called face cards.

3.

Sample Space:
When we perform an experiment, then the set S of all possible outcomes is called the
sample space.
Examples:
1.

24

In tossing a coin, S = {H, T}

4.

2.

If two coins are tossed, the S = {HH, HT, TH, TT}.

3.

In rolling a dice, we have, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}.

Event:
Any subset of a sample space is called an event.

5.

Probability of Occurrence of an Event:

Let S be the sample and let E be an event.
Then, E

S.

n(E)
P(E) =
.
n(S)
6.

Results on Probability:

11) Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up

and then a ticket is drawn at random.
What is the probability that the ticket
drawn has a number which is a multiple
of 3 or 5?

12) A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2

blue balls. Two balls are drawn at
random. What is the probability that
none of the balls drawn is blue?

13) In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6

green balls. One ball is picked up
randomly. What is the probability that
it is neither red nor green?

14) What is the probability of getting a

sum 9 from two throws of a dice?

P(S) = 1
0

P (E)

P(

)=0

For any events A and B we have : P(A

If

denotes (not-A), then P(

B)

Average

A ) = 1 - P(A).

EXERCISES
1) Two dice are thrown simultaneously.
What is the probability of getting two
numbers whose product is even?

3)

B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A

15) Three unbiased coins are tossed. What

is the probability of getting at most two
heads?

2)

In a class, there are 15 boys and 10

girls. Three students are selected at
random. The probability that 1 girl
and 2 boys are selected, is

In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25

blanks. A lottery is drawn at random.
What is the probability of getting a
prize?

4)

5)

Two dice are tossed. The probability

that the total score is a prime number is

6)

A card is drawn from a pack of 52

cards. The probability of getting a
queen of club or a king of heart is:

7)

A bag contains 4 white, 5 red and 6 blue

balls. Three balls are drawn at random
from the bag. The probability that all of
them are red, is

8)

Two cards are drawn together from a

pack of 52 cards. The probability that
one is a spade and one is a heart, is

9)

One card is drawn at random from a

pack of 52 cards. What is the
probability that the card drawn is a face
card?

10) A bag contains 6 black and 8 white

balls. One ball is drawn at random.
What is the probability that the ball
drawn is white?

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1. Average:
Average =
2.

Sum of observations
Number of observations

Average Speed:
Suppose a man covers a certain distance at x kmph and an equal distance at y kmph.

From a pack of 52 cards, two cards

are drawn together at random. What
is the probability of both the cards
being kings?

Then, the average speed during the whole journey is

EXERCISES
1) The captain of a cricket team of 11
members is 26 years old and the
wicket keeper is 3 years older. If the
ages of these two are excluded, the
average age of the remaining players is
one year less than the average age of
the whole team. What is the average
age of the team?
3)

The average age of husband, wife and

their child 3 years ago was 27 years
and that of wife and the child 5 years
ago was 20 years. The present age of

25

2xy
x+y

kmph.

2)

The average monthly income of P and

Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly
income of Q and R is Rs. 6250 and the
average monthly income of P and R is
Rs. 5200. The monthly income of P is

4)

A car owner buys petrol at Rs.7.50, Rs.

8 and Rs. 8.50 per litre for three
successive years. What approximately
is the average cost per litre of petrol if
he spends Rs. 4000 each year?

Area

the husband is
5)

In Arun's opinion, his weight is greater

than 65 kg but less than 72 kg. His
brother doest not agree with Arun and
he thinks that Arun's weight is greater
than 60 kg but less than 70 kg. His
mother's view is that his weight
cannot be greater than 68 kg. If all are
them are correct in their estimation,
what is the average of different
probable weights of Arun?

6)

The average weight of A, B and C is 45

kg. If the average weight of A and B be
40 kg and that of B and C be 43 kg,
then the weight of B is

The average weight of 16 boys in a

class is 50.25 kg and that of the
remaining 8 boys is 45.15 kg. Find the
average weights of all the boys in the
class.

8)

If the average marks of three batches

of 55, 60 and 45 students respectively
is 50, 55, 60, then the average marks of
all the students is

10) A pupil's marks were wrongly entered

as 83 instead of 63. Due to that the
average marks for the class got
increased by half (1/2). The number of
pupils in the class is

IMPORTANT FORMULAS

Results on Triangles:
Sum of the angles of a triangle is 180.
The sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side.

Pythagoras Theorem:
In a right-angled triangle, (Hypotenuse)2 = (Base)2 + (Height)2.
The line joining the mid-point of a side of a triangle to the positive vertex is called the median.
The point where the three medians of a triangle meet, is called centroid. The centroid divided
each of the medians in the ratio 2 : 1.
In an isosceles triangle, the altitude from the vertex bisects the base.

7)

9)

11) In the first 10 overs of a cricket game,

the run rate was only 3.2. What should
be the run rate in the remaining 40
overs to reach the target of 282 runs?

13) A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs.

6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562
for 5 consecutive months. How much
sale must he have in the sixth month
so that he gets an average sale of Rs.
6500?

A library has an average of 510 visitors

on Sundays and 240 on other days. The
average number of visitors per day in a
month of 30 days beginning with a
Sunday is

12) A family consists of grandparents,

parents and three grandchildren. The
average age of the grandparents is 67
years, that of the parents is 35 years
and that of the grandchildren is 6
years. What is the average age of the
family?
14) The average weight of 8 person's
increases by 2.5 kg when a new person
comes in place of one of them
weighing 65 kg. What might be the
weight of the new person?

The median of a triangle divides it into two triangles of the same area.
The area of the triangle formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of a given triangle is onefourth of the area of the given triangle.

Results on Quadrilaterals:
The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other.
Each diagonal of a parallelogram divides it into triangles of the same area.
The diagonals of a rectangle are equal and bisect each other.
The diagonals of a square are equal and bisect each other at right angles.
The diagonals of a rhombus are unequal and bisect each other at right angles.
A parallelogram and a rectangle on the same base and between the same parallels have equal
area.
Of all the parallelogram of given sides, the parallelogram which is a rectangle has the greatest
area.
I.

1. Area of a rectangle = (Length Breadth).

Length =

Area
Breadth

and Breadth =

Area
Length

2. Perimeter of a rectangle = 2(Length + Breadth).

II.

Area of a square = (side)2 = (diagonal)2 / 2.

III.

Area of 4 walls of a room = 2 (Length + Breadth) Height.

IV.

1. Area of a triangle = (Base Height) / 2.

2. Area of a triangle = [s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)]
where a, b, c are the sides of the triangle and s = (a + b + c) / 2.
3. Area of an equilateral triangle =

15) The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of

them, at the most, how many may be
greater than zero?

3
4

(side)2.

4. Radius of incircle of an equilateral triangle of side a =

26

.
23

5. Radius of circumcircle of an equilateral triangle of side a =

6. Radius of incircle of a triangle of area
V.

a
3

uncovered. If the area of the field is

680 sq. feet, how many feet of fencing
will be required?

and semi-perimeter s =

1. Area of parallelogram = (Base x Height).

2. Area of a rhombus = (Product of diagonals) / 2.
3. Area of a trapezium = [(sum of parallel sides) (distance between them)] / 2.

VI.

1. Area of a circle =

R2, where R is the radius.

2. Circumference of a circle = 2
3. Length of an arc =

R
360

R.

, where

1. Circumference of a semi-circle =
2. Area of semi-circle =

R
2

R.

2)

5)

7)

9)

13) The ratio between the perimeter and

the breadth of a rectangle is 5 : 1. If the
area of the rectangle is 216 sq. cm,
what is the length of the rectangle?

14) An error 2% in excess is made while

measuring the side of a square. The
percentage of error in the calculated
area of the square is:

feet. The

Odd Man Out

I.

A man walked diagonally across a

square lot. Approximately, what was
the percent saved by not walking
along the edges?
What is the least number of squares
tiles required to pave the floor of a
room 15 m 17 cm long and 9 m 2 cm
broad?

4)

The length of a rectangle is halved,

while its breadth is tripled. What is
the percentage change in area?

8)

A rectangular field is to be fenced on

three sides leaving a side of 20 feet

15) The percentage increase in the area of

a rectangle, if each of its sides is
increased by 20% is:

A towel, when bleached, was found to

have lost 20% of its length and 10% of
its breadth. The percentage of decrease
in area is

shorter side of the closet is 4 feet.

What is the area of the closet in square
feet?
3)

12) A rectangular park 60 m long and 40

m wide has two concrete crossroads
running in the middle of the park and
rest of the park has been used as a
lawn. If the area of the lawn is 2109
sq. m, then what is the width of the
road?

EXERCISES
1) The diagonal of the floor of a
rectangular closet is 7

11) The ratio between the length and the

breadth of a rectangular park is 3 : 2. If
a man cycling along the boundary of
the park at the speed of 12 km/hr
completes one round in 8 minutes,
then the area of the park (in sq. m) is:

is the central angle.

1
R2
4. Area of a sector = (arc x R)=
.
2
360
VII.

and bottom at 75 paisa per sq. m, is

6)

Find the odd man out

The diagonal of a rectangle is 41 cm

and its area is 20 sq. cm. The perimeter
of the rectangle must be

1)

1, 4, 9, 16, 23, 25, 36

2)

1, 4, 9, 16, 20, 36, 49

3)

2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64

4)

10, 14, 16, 18, 21, 24, 26

The difference between the length and

breadth of a rectangle is 23 m. If its
perimeter is 206 m, then its area is

5)

16, 25, 36, 72, 144, 196, 225

6)

331, 482, 551, 263, 383, 362, 284

7)

835, 734, 642, 751, 853, 981, 532

8)

41, 43, 47, 53, 61, 71, 73, 81

9)

3, 5, 7, 12, 17, 19

10) 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21

The length of a rectangular plot is 20

metres more than its breadth. If the
cost of fencing the plot @ 26.50 per
metre is Rs. 5300, what is the length of
the plot in metres?

10) A tank is 25 m long, 12 m wide and 6

m deep. The cost of plastering its walls

II.

11) 10, 25, 45, 54, 60, 75, 80

12) 8, 27, 64, 100, 125, 216, 343

13) 6, 9, 15, 21, 24, 28, 30

14) 396, 462, 572, 396, 427, 671, 264

Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers.

27

1)

52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16

2)

4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12

3)

105, 85, 60, 30, 0, -45, -90

4)

5, 16, 6, 16, 7, 16, 9

5)

125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165

6)

46080, 3840, 384, 48, 24, 2, 1

7)

6, 13, 18, 25, 30, 37, 40

8)

36, 54, 18, 27, 9, 18.5, 4.5

9)

56, 72, 90, 110, 132, 150

10) 25, 36, 49, 81, 121, 169, 225

5)

1, 3, 10, 21, 64, 129, 356, 777

6)

6, 12, 48, 100, 384, 768, 3072

7)

40960, 10240, 2560, 640, 200, 40, 10

8)

3, 7, 15, 39, 63, 127, 255, 511

9)

64, 71, 80, 91, 104, 119, 135, 155

10) 15, 16, 34, 105, 424, 2124, 12576

11) 10, 26, 74, 218, 654, 1946, 5834

12) 2880, 480, 92, 24, 8, 4, 4

13) 3, 7, 15, 27, 63, 127, 255

14) 1, 1, 2, 6, 24, 96, 720

15) 7, 8, 18, 57, 228, 1165, 6996

11) 582, 605, 588, 611, 634, 617, 600

12) 22, 33, 66, 99, 121, 279, 594

13) 8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83

14) 1, 8, 27, 64, 124, 216, 343

Races And Games

IMPORTANT FORMULAS

15) 1, 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, 91

III.

Insert the missing number.

1)

1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, (....)

2)

2, 4, 12, 48, 240, (....)

3)

8, 7, 11, 12, 14, 17, 17, 22, (....)

4)

8, 24, 12, 36, 18, 54, (....)

5)

11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, (....)

6)

2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, (....)

7)

4, -8, 16, -32, 64, (....)

8)

7, 26, 63, 124, 215, 342, (....)

9)

5, 10, 13, 26, 29, 58, 61, (....)

10) 15, 31, 63, 127, 255, (....)

11) 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, (....)

12) 3, 7, 6, 5, 9, 3, 12, 1, 15, (....)

13) 16, 33, 65, 131, 261, (....)

14) 10, 5, 13, 10, 16, 20, 19, (....)

1.

Races: A contest of speed in running, riding, driving, sailing or rowing is called a race.

2.

Race Course: The ground or path on which contests are made is called a race course.

3.

Starting Point: The point from which a race begins is known as a starting point.

4.

Winning Point or Goal: The point set to bound a race is called a winning point or a
goal.

5.

Winner: The person who first reaches the winning point is called a winner.

6.

Dead Heat Race: If all the persons contesting a race reach the goal exactly at the same
time, the race is said to be dead heat race.

7.

Start: Suppose A and B are two contestants in a race. If before the start of the race, A is
at the starting point and B is ahead of A by 12 metres, then we say that 'A gives B, a
start of 12 metres.
To cover a race of 100 metres in this case, A will have to cover 100 metres while B will
have to cover only (100 - 12) = 88 metres.
In a 100 race, 'A can give B 12 m' or 'A can give B a start of 12 m' or 'A beats B by 12 m'
means that while A runs 100 m, B runs (100 - 12) = 88 m.

8.

Games: 'A game of 100, means that the person among the contestants who scores 100
points first is the winner'.

IV.

If A scores 100 points while B scores only 80 points, then we say that 'A can give B 20

Find out the wrong number in the series.

points'.
1)

196, 169, 144, 121, 100, 80, 64

2)

445, 221, 109, 46, 25, 11, 4

3)

190, 166, 145, 128, 112, 100, 91

4)

19, 26, 33, 46, 59, 74, 91

28

1
Speed in still water = (a + b) km/hr.
2

EXERCISES
1)

In a race of 200 m, A can beat B by 31

m and C by 18 m. In a race of 350 m, C
will beat B by

2)

In 100 m race, A covers the distance in

36 seconds and B in 45 seconds. In this
race A beats B by

3)

In a game of 100 points, A can give B 20

points and C 28 points. Then, B can
give C

4)

In a 200 metres race A beats B by 35 m

or 7 seconds. A's time over the course
is

5)

A can run 22.5 m while B runs 25 m. In

a kilometre race B beats A by

6)

In a 300 m race A beats B by 22.5 m or

6 seconds. B's time over the course is

8)

In a 100 m race, A can beat B by 25 m

and B can beat C by 4 m. In the same
race, A can beat C by

7)

9)

A runs 1 times as fast as B. If A gives

B a start of 80 m, how far must the
winning post be so that A and B might
reach it at the same time?
At a game of billiards, A can give B 15
points in 60 and A can give C to 20
points in 60. How many points can B
give C in a game of 90?

10) In a 10 m race, A beats B by 10 m and

C by 13 m. In a race of 180 m, B will
beat C by:

11) In a 500 m race, the ratio of the speeds

of two contestants A and B is 3 : 4. A
has a start of 140 m. Then, A wins by:

12) A and B take part in 100 m race. A

runs at 5 kmph. A gives B a start of 8
m and still beats him by 8 seconds.
The speed of B is:

1
Rate of stream = (a - b) km/hr.
2
EXERCISES
1)

A boat running downstream covers a

distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for
covering the same distance upstream, it
takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the
boat in still water?

2)

The speed of a boat in still water in 15

km/hr and the rate of current is 3
km/hr.
The
distance
travelled
downstream in 12 minutes is

3)

A boat takes 90 minutes less to travel

36 miles downstream than to travel the
same distance upstream. If the speed of
the boat in still water is 10 mph, the
speed of the stream is

4)

A man can row at 5 kmph in still

water. If the velocity of current is 1
kmph and it takes him 1 hour to row
to a place and come back, how far is
the place?

5)

A boat covers a certain distance

downstream in 1 hour, while it comes

6)

A boatman goes 2 km against the

current of the stream in 1 hour and
goes 1 km along the current in 10
minutes. How long will it take to go 5
km in stationary water?

8)

Speed of a boat in standing water is 9

kmph and the speed of the stream is
1.5 kmph. A man rows to a place at a
distance of 105 km and comes back to
the starting point. The total time
taken by him is

back in 1 hours. If the speed of the

stream be 3 kmph, what is the speed of
the boat in still water?
7)

kilometre against the stream in 11

minutes and down the stream in 7
minutes. The speed (in km/hr) of the
man in still water is

13) In a 100 m race, A can give B 10 m and

C 28 m. In the same race B can give C:

Boats and Streams

A man can row three-quarters of a

9)

A man takes twice as long to row a

distance against the stream as to row
IMPORTANT FORMULAS
the same distance in favor of the
1. Downstream/Upstream:
stream. The ratio of the speed of the
In water, the direction along the stream is called downstream. And, the direction against the stream is
called
boat
(in still water) and the stream is
upstream.
16) A boat can travel with a speed of 13
2. If the speed of a boat in still water is u km/hr and the speed of the stream is v km/hr, then:
km/hr in still water. If the speed of the
Speed downstream = (u + v) km/hr.
stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken
Speed upstream = (u - v) km/hr.
by the boat to go 68 km downstream.
3. If the speed downstream is a km/hr and the speed upstream is b km/hr, then:

29

10) A man rows to a place 48 km distant

and come back in 14 hours. He finds
that he can row 4 km with the stream
in the same time as 3 km against the
stream. The rate of the stream is
17) A man's speed with the current is 15
km/hr and the speed of the current is
2.5 km/hr. The man's speed against
the current is:

18) A boat running upstream takes 8 hours

48 minutes to cover a certain distance,
while it takes 4 hours to cover the same
distance running downstream. What is
the ratio between the speed of the boat
and speed of the water current
respectively?

19) A motorboat, whose speed in 15

km/hr in still water goes 30 km
downstream and comes back in a total
of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of
the stream (in km/hr) is

1 + x(b - a) + x(c -+1 + x(a - b) + x(c -+1 + x(b - c) + x(a a)

b)

5)

20) In one hour, a boat goes 11 km/hr

along the stream and 5 km/hr against
the stream. The speed of the boat in
still water (in km/hr) is

c)

(0.04)-1.5 = ?

+
=?
1 + a(n - m) 1 + a(m - n)

9)

xb

IMPORTANT FORMULAS

xc
(b + c - a).

xc

Laws of Indices:

xa
(c + a - b).

xa

xb

4)

(25)7.5 x (5)2.5 (125)1.5 = 5?

6)

(243)n/5 x 32n + 1
=?
9n x 3 n - 1

8)

If m and n are whole numbers

such that mn = 121, the value of
(m - 1)n + 1 is

=
?

7)

Surds and Indices

1.

3)

(a + b - c)

=?

1
10) If x = 3 + 22, then
xis:
the value of
x

am an = am + n
am

= am - n

11) (17)3.5 x (17)? = 178

12) Given that 100.48 = x, 100.70 = y

and xz = y2, then the value of z
is close to

13) If 5a = 3125, then the value of 5(a - 3) is

14) If 3(x - y) = 27 and 3(x + y) = 243,

then x is equal to

(am)n = amn
(ab)n = anbn
an

bn

a =1
0

2.

Surds:
Let a be rational number and n be a positive integer such that a

(1/n)

Then,
3.

is called a surd of order n.

x-1 =

b
a
15) If
then the value of x is

x-3

Laws of Surds:

Pipes and Cistern

= a(1/n)
=

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
=

1.

A pipe connected with a tank or a cistern or a reservoir, that fills it, is known as an

=a
(

)m =

inlet.
Outlet:

A pipe connected with a tank or cistern or reservoir, emptying it, is known as an outlet.

EXERCISES
1)

(256)0.16 x (256)0.09 = ?

Inlet:

2)

The value of [(10)150 (10)146]

2.

30

If a pipe can fill a tank in x hours, then:

1
part filled in 1 hour = .
x
3.

the time and A and B fill it together for

the other half?

If a pipe can empty a tank in y hours, then:

9)

1
part emptied in 1 hour = .
y
4.

If a pipe can fill a tank in x hours and another pipe can empty the full tank in y hours
(where y > x), then on opening both the pipes, then
the net part filled in 1 hour =

5.

If a pipe can fill a tank in x hours and another pipe can empty the full tank in y hours

the net part emptied in 1 hour =

1 1
- .
yx

EXERCISES

3)

5)

Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in

12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If A
is open all the time and B and C are
open for one hour each alternately, the
tank will be full in

10) Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank

in 6 hours. After working at it
together for 2 hours, C is closed and A
and B can fill the remaining part in 7
hours. The number of hours taken by
C alone to fill the tank is

11) Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank

from empty to full in 30 minutes, 20
minutes, and 10 minutes respectively.
When the tank is empty, all the three
pipes are opened. A, B and C discharge
chemical solutions P,Q and R
respectively. What is the proportion of
the solution R in the liquid in the tank
after 3 minutes?

12) A tank is filled by three pipes with

uniform flow. The first two pipes
operating simultaneously fill the tank
in the same time during which the
tank is filled by the third pipe alone.
The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours
faster than the first pipe and 4 hours
slower than the third pipe. The time
required by the first pipe is

13) A pump can fill a tank with water in 2

14) Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in

11
- .
xy

(where y > x), then on opening both the pipes, then

1)

Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 24

minutes respectively and a waste pipe
can empty 3 gallons per minute. All
the three pipes working together can
fill the tank in 15 minutes. The
capacity of the tank is

2)

Two pipes A and B together can fill a

cistern in 4 hours. Had they been
opened separately, then B would have
taken 6 hours more than A to fill the
cistern. How much time will be taken
by A to fill the cistern separately?

4)

Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15

minutes and 20 minutes respectively.
Both the pipes are opened together but
after 4 minutes, pipe A is turned off.
What is the total time required to fill
the tank?

6)

A tank is filled in 5 hours by three

pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice
as fast as B and B is twice as fast as A.
How much time will pipe A alone take
to fill the tank?

Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20

and 30 minutes respectively. If both
the pipes are used together, then how
long will it take to fill the tank?

One pipe can fill a tank three times as

fast as another pipe. If together the
two pipes can fill the tank in 36
minutes, then the slower pipe alone
will be able to fill the tank in

hours. Because of la leak, it took 2

hours to fill the tank. The leak can
drain all the water of the tank in

A large tanker can be filled by two

pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40
minutes respectively. How many
minutes will it take to fill the tanker
from empty state if B is used for half

37
minutes and 45 minutes
respectively. Both pipes are opened.
The cistern will be filled in just half an
hour, if the B is turned off after

15) Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 5 and 6

hours respectively. Pipe C can empty it
in 12 hours. If all the three pipes are
opened together, then the tank will be
filled in

Numbers
IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1.

7)

completely?

8)

A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After

half the tank is filled, three more
similar taps are opened. What is the
total time taken to fill the tank

31

Some Basic Formulae:

i.
(a + b)(a - b) = (a2 - b2)
ii.
(a + b)2 = (a2 + b2 + 2ab)
iii.
(a - b)2 = (a2 + b2 - 2ab)
iv.
(a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ca)
v.
(a3 + b3) = (a + b)(a2 - ab + b2)

vi.

(a3 - b3) = (a - b)(a2 + ab + b2)

vii.

(a + b + c - 3abc) = (a + b + c)(a + b + c - ab - bc - ac)

viii.

When a + b + c = 0, then a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc.

A.9944
B.9768 C.9988
D.8888 E.None of these

2.

A number is divisible by 2, if its units place digit is 0, 2, 4, or 8

3.

A number is divisible by 3, if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3

4.

A number is divisible by 4, if the number formed by its last two digits is divisible by 4

5.

A number is divisible by 8, if the number formed by its last three digits is divisible by 8

6.

A number is divisible by 9, if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9

7.

9)

A number is divisible by 11, if, starting from the RHS,

(Sum of its digits at the odd place) (Sum of its digits at even place) is equal to 0 or 11x

8.

Results on Division = Dividend = Quotient Divisor + Remainder

9.

Arithmetic Progression (A. P.) with first term a and Common Difference d is given

On dividing a number by 5, we get 3 as

remainder. What will the remainder when
the square of the this number is divided by
5?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4

10) How many of the following numbers

are divisible by 3 but not by 9 ?
2133, 2343, 3474, 4131, 5286, 5340,
6336, 7347, 8115, 9276
A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. None of these

11) (xn - an) is completely divisible by (x - a), when

12) A 3-digit number 4a3 is added to

another 3-digit number 984 to give a
4-digit number 13b7, which is
divisible by 11. Then, (a + b) =

A. n is any natural number

B. n is an even natural number
C. n is and odd natural number
D. n is prime

by:
[a], [(a + d)], [(a + 2d)], , [a + (n - 1)d]

A. 10

B. 11

C. 12

D. 15

nth term, Tn = a + (n - 1)d

Sum of first n terms, Sn = n/2 (First Term + Last Term)
10. Geometric Progression (G. P.) with first term a and Common Ratio r is given by:
a, ar,

, ,

nth term, Tn =
Sum of first n terms Sn = [a(1 -

)] / [1 - r]

11. (1 + 2 + 3 + + n) = [n(n + 1)] / 2

12.

+ +

) = [n(n + 1)(2n + 1)] / 6

13.

+ +

)=[

]/4

EXERCISES
1)
3)

1397 1397 = ?

2)

It is being given that (232 + 1) is

completely divisible by a whole number.
Which of the following numbers is
completely divisible by this number?

4)

5)

What least number must be added to

1056, so that the sum is completely
divisible by 23 ?

6)

7)

(935421 x 625) = ?

8)

13) Which one of the following is the

common factor of (4743 + 4343) and (4747 +
4347) ?

14)

15) 8597 - ? = 7429 - 4358

16) (12345679 x 72) = ?

17) What smallest number should be added to

4456 so that the sum is divisible by 6 ?

18) Which of the following numbers will

completely divide (4915 - 1)

19) (112 + 122 + 132 + ... + 202) = ?

20) (51 + 52 + 53 + ... + 100) = ?

(112 54) = ?
Which one of the following is not a
prime number?
A.31

B.61 C.71

D.91

How many of the following numbers

are divisible by 132?
264, 396, 462, 792, 968, 2178, 5184,
6336
The largest 4 digit number exactly
divisible by 88 is:

121)

1-

1-

(963 + 476)2 + (963 =

476)2
?
(963 x 963 + 476 x 476)

22) Which natural number is nearest to

8485, which is completely divisible by
+ ... upto n terms = ?
75 ?

23) A boy multiplied 987 by a certain number

and obtained 559981 as his answer. If in
the answer both 98 are wrong and the
other digits are correct, then the correct
answer would be:

24) On dividing 2272 as well as 875 by 3digit number N, we get the same
remainder. The sum of the digits of N
is:

25) How many prime numbers are less than

50 ?

26) In a division sum, the divisor is 10

times the quotient and 5 times the
remainder. If the remainder is 46,

32

what is the dividend ?

67) is divided by 68 ?

27) n is a whole number which when divided

by 4 gives 3 as remainder. What will be
the remainder when 2n is divided by 4 ?

28) The sum of the two numbers is 12 and

their product is 35. What is the sum of
the reciprocals of these numbers ?

29) 5358 51 = ?

30) The sum of first five prime numbers is

31) The difference of two numbers is 1365.

On dividing the larger number by the
smaller, we get 6 as quotient and the 15 as
remainder. What is the smaller number ?

32) If the number 517 * 324 is completely

divisible by 3, then the smallest whole
number in the place of * will be

1)

The sum of the digits of a two-digit

number is 15 and the difference
between the digits is 3. What is the
two-digit number?

2)

The sum of the squares of three

numbers is 138, while the sum of their
products taken two at a time is 131.
Their sum is

33) 72519 9999 = ?

34) (12)3 64 432 = ?

3)

4)

35) The smallest 3 digit prime number is

36) Which one of the following numbers

is exactly divisible by 11?
A. 235641 B. 245642 C. 315624 D.
415624

A number consists of two digits. If the

digits interchange places and the new
number is added to the original
number, then the resulting number
will be divisible by

In a two-digit, if it is known that its

unit's digit exceeds its ten's digit by 2
and that the product of the given
number and the sum of its digits is
equal to 144, then the number is

5)

Find a positive number which when

increased by 17 is equal to 60 times
the reciprocal of the number.

6)

7)

The product of two numbers is 120

and the sum of their squares is 289.
The sum of the number is

8)

The product of two numbers is 9375

and the quotient, when the larger one
is divided by the smaller, is 15. The
sum of the numbers is
A number consists of 3 digits whose
sum is 10. The middle digit is equal to
the sum of the other two and the
number will be increased by 99 if its
digits are reversed. The number is

9)

The sum of two number is 25 and

their difference is 13. Find their
product.

10) What is the sum of two consecutive

even numbers, the difference of whose
squares is 84?

11) If one-third of one-fourth of a number

is 15, then three-tenth of that number
is:

12) Three times the first of three

consecutive odd integers is 3 more
than twice the third. The third integer
is:

13) The difference between a two-digit

number and the number obtained by
interchanging the positions of its digits
is 36. What is the difference between
the two digits of that number?

The difference between a two-digit

number and the number obtained by
interchanging the digits is 36. What is
the difference between the sum and
the difference of the digits of the

49) Which of the following is a prime number

A.33 B.81 C.93
D.97

Problems on Numbers
EXERCISES

37) (?) - 19657 - 33994 = 9999

39) (?) + 3699 + 1985 - 2047 = 31111

38) The sum of first 45 natural numbers is

40) 753 753 + 247 247 - 753 247
=?
753 753 753 + 247 247 247

41) Which of the following number is

divisible by 24 ?
A. 35718
B. 63810
C. 537804
D. 3125736

42) If the number 481 * 673 is completely

divisible by 9, then the smallest whole
number in place of * will be

43) The difference between the local value

and the face value of 7 in the numeral
32675149 is

44) The difference between a positive

proper fraction and its reciprocal is
9/20. The fraction is

45) On dividing a number by 56, we get 29 as

remainder. On dividing the same number
by 8, what will be the remainder ?

46) If n is a natural number, then (6n2 +

6n) is always divisible by

47) 107 107 + 93 93 = ?

48) What will be remainder when (6767 +

33

Find Wrong Number

number if the ratio between the digits

of the number is 1 : 2 ?
14) A two-digit number is such that the
product of the digits is 8. When 18 is
added to the number, then the digits
are reversed. The number is:

EXERCISES

Pick Wrong Number

EXERCISES
1)

1, 8, 27, 64, 124, 216, 343

2)

1, 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, 91

3)

52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16

4)

4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12

5)

105, 85, 60, 30, 0, -45, -90

6)

5, 16, 6, 16, 7, 16, 9

7)

125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165

8)

46080, 3840, 384, 48, 24, 2, 1

9)

6, 13, 18, 25, 30, 37, 40

10) 36, 54, 18, 27, 9, 18.5, 4.5

11) 56, 72, 90, 110, 132, 150

12) 25, 36, 49, 81, 121, 169, 225

13) 582, 605, 588, 611, 634, 617, 600

14) 22, 33, 66, 99, 121, 279, 594

Missing Number
EXERCISES
1)

2, 4, 12, 48, 240, (....)

2)

8, 7, 11, 12, 14, 17, 17, 22, (....)

3)

11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, (....)

4)

8, 24, 12, 36, 18, 54, (....)

5)

2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, (....)

6)

4, -8, 16, -32, 64, (....)

7)

7, 26, 63, 124, 215, 342, (....)

8)

5, 10, 13, 26, 29, 58, 61, (....)

9)

15, 31, 63, 127, 255, (....)

10) 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, (....)

11) 3, 7, 6, 5, 9, 3, 12, 1, 15, (....)

12) 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, (....)

13) 10, 5, 13, 10, 16, 20, 19, (....)

14) 16, 33, 65, 131, 261, (....)

1)

445, 221, 109, 46, 25, 11, 4

2)

190, 166, 145, 128, 112, 100, 91

3)

19, 26, 33, 46, 59, 74, 91

4)

1, 3, 10, 21, 64, 129, 356, 777

5)

6, 12, 48, 100, 384, 768, 3072

6)

40960, 10240, 2560, 640, 200, 40, 10

7)

3, 7, 15, 39, 63, 127, 255, 511

8)

64, 71, 80, 91, 104, 119, 135, 155

9)

15, 16, 34, 105, 424, 2124, 12576

10) 10, 26, 74, 218, 654, 1946, 5834

11) 2880, 480, 92, 24, 8, 4, 4

12) 3, 7, 15, 27, 63, 127, 255

13) 7, 8, 18, 57, 228, 1165, 6996

14) 1, 1, 2, 6, 24, 96, 720

15) 196, 169, 144, 121, 100, 80, 64

Number Series
EXERCISES
1)

Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ...

What number should come next?

2)

Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12,

... What number should come next?

3)

Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ...

What number should come next?

4)

Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24,

23, ... What number should come
next?

5)

Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27,

27, ... What number should come next?

6)

Look at this series: 21, 9, 21, 11, 21,

13, 21, ... What number should come
next?

7)

Look at this series: 58, 52, 46, 40, 34, ...

What number should come next?

8)

Look at this series: 3, 4, 7, 8, 11, 12, ...

What number should come next?

9)

Look at this series: 8, 22, 8, 28, 8, ...

What number should come next?

10) Look at this series: 31, 29, 24, 22, 17,

... What number should come next?

11) Choose which pair of numbers comes

12) Choose which pair of numbers comes

34

next 9 16 23 30 37 44 51

next

2 8 14 20 26 32 38

13) 9 11 33 13 15 33 17

14) 2 3 4 5 6 4 8

15) 17 17 34 20 20 31 23

16) 6 20 8 14 10 8 12

17) 21 25 18 29 33 18

18) 75 65 85 55 45 85 35

19) 11 16 21 26 31 36 41

20) 11 16 21 26 31 36 41

21) 42 40 38 35 33 31 28

22) 6 10 14 18 22 26 30

23) 8 12 9 13 10 14 11

24) 36 31 29 24 22 17 15

25) 3 5 35 10 12 35 17

26) 13 29 15 26 17 23 19

blank?

blank?

Calendar
IMPORTANT FORMULAS
1.

Odd Days:
We are supposed to find the day of the week on a given date.
For this, we use the concept of 'odd days'.
In a given period, the number of days more than the complete weeks are called odd

27) 14 14 26 26 38 38 50
29) 34 30 26 22 18 14 10

days.
2.

(i). Every year divisible by 4 is a leap year, if it is not a century.

(ii). Every 4th century is a leap year and no other century is a leap year.
Note: A leap year has 366 days.
Examples:

28) 44 41 38 35 32 29 26
30) 32 31 32 29 32 27 32

Leap Year:

3.

i.

Each of the years 1948, 2004, 1676 etc. is a leap year.

ii.

Each of the years 400, 800, 1200, 1600, 2000 etc. is a leap year.

iii.

None of the years 2001, 2002, 2003, 2005, 1800, 2100 is a leap year.

Ordinary Year:
The year which is not a leap year is called an ordinary years. An ordinary year has 365

31) Look at this series: VI, 10, V, 11, __,

12, III, ... What number should fill the
blank?

32) Look at this series: (1/9), (1/3), 1, ____

, 9, ... What number should fill the
blank?

33) Look at this series: 83, 73, 93, 63, __,

93, 43, ... What number should fill the
blank?

34) Look at this series: 15, __, 27, 27, 39,

39, ... What number should fill the
blank?

35) Look at this series: 72, 76, 73, 77, 74,

__, 75, ... What number should fill the
blank?

36) Look at this series: J14, L16, __, P20,

R22, ... What number should fill the
blank?

37) Look at this series: 4, 7, 25, 10, __, 20,

16, 19, ... What number should fill the
blank?

38) Look at this series: XXIV, XX, __, XII,

VIII, ... What number should fill the
blank?

days.
4.

Counting of Odd Days:

1.

1 ordinary year = 365 days = (52 weeks + 1 day.)

2.

1 leap year = 366 days = (52 weeks + 2 days)

3.

100 years = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years

1 ordinary year has 1 odd day.

1 leap year has 2 odd days.
= (76 x 1 + 24 x 2) odd days = 124 odd days.
= (17 weeks + days)

5 odd days.

Number of odd days in 100 years = 5.

Number of odd days in 200 years = (5 x 2)

3 odd days.

Number of odd days in 300 years = (5 x 3)

1 odd day.

Number of odd days in 400 years = (5 x 4 + 1)

0 odd day.

Similarly, each one of 800 years, 1200 years, 1600 years, 2000 years etc. has 0
odd days.

39) Look at this series: 0.15, 0.3, ____, 1.2,

2.4, ... What number should fill the

Day of the Week Related to Odd Days:

40) Look at this series: U32, V29, __, X23,

Y20, ... What number should fill the

No. of days: 0

35

Day:

2.

Sun. Mon. Tues. Wed. Thurs. Fri. Sat.

i.

hand.

EXERCISES
1)

3)

5)

If 6th March, 2005 is Monday, what was

the day of the week on 6th March,
2004?
How many days are there in x weeks x
days?

2)

4)

On what dates of April, 2001 did

Wednesday fall?

6)

Which of the following is not a leap

year?

8)

January 1, 2008 is Tuesday. What day

of the week lies on Jan 1, 2009?

10) January 1, 2007 was Monday. What

day of the week lies on Jan. 1, 2008?

50) Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will

be

51) What will be the day of the week 15th

August, 2010?

52) What was the day of the week on 17th

June, 1998?

53) It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What

was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?

9)

In every hour, both the hands coincide once.

iii.

The hands are in the same straight line when they are coincident or opposite
to each other.

The calendar for the year 2007 will be

the same for the year

iv.

When the two hands are at right angles, they are 15 minute spaces apart.

v.

When the hands are in opposite directions, they are 30 minute spaces apart.

vi.

Angle traced by hour hand in 12 hrs = 360

vii.

Angle traced by minute hand in 60 min. = 360.

viii.

If a watch or a clock indicates 8.15, when the correct time is 8, it is said to be

15 minutes too fast.

ix.
On 8th Dec, 2007 Saturday falls. What
day of the week was it on 8th Dec,
2006?

54) What was the day of the week on 28th

May, 2006?

IMPORTANT FORMULAS
Minute Spaces:
The face or dial of watch is a circle whose circumference is divided into 60 equal parts,

On the other hand, if it indicates 7.45, when the correct time is 8, it is said to
be 15 minutes too slow.

EXERCISES
1)

At what time between 7 and 8

o'clock will the hands of a clock be
in the same straight line but, not
together?

2)

At what time between 5.30 and 6

will the hands of a clock be at right
angles?

3)

The angle between the minute hand

and the hour hand of a clock when
the time is 4.20, is

4)

At what angle the hands of a clock

are inclined at 15 minutes past 5?

5)

At 3.40, the hour hand and the

minute hand of a clock form an
angle of

6)

How many times are the hands of a

clock at right angle in a day?

7)

The angle between the minute hand

and the hour hand of a clock when
the time is 8.30, is

8)

How many times in a day, are the

hands of a clock in straight line but
opposite in direction?

9)

At what time between 4 and 5

o'clock will the hands of a watch
point in opposite directions?

10) At what time between 9 and 10

o'clock will the hands of a watch be
together?

11) At what time, in minutes, between 3

o'clock and 4 o'clock, both the

12) How many times do the hands of a

clock coincide in a day?

Clock
1.

ii.

The last day of a century cannot be

On 8th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday. What

was the day of the week on 8th Feb,
2004?

7)

In 60 minutes, the minute hand gains 55 minutes on the hour on the hour

called minute spaces.

Hour Hand and Minute Hand:
A clock has two hands, the smaller one is called the hour hand or short hand while the
larger one is called minute hand or long hand.

36

needles will coincide each other?

13) How many times in a day, the hands
of a clock are straight?

14) A watch which gains uniformly is 2

minutes low at noon on Monday
and is 4 min. 48 sec fast at 2 p.m. on
the following Monday. When was it
correct?

15) How much does a watch lose per

day, if its hands coincide ever 64
minutes?

16) The reflex angle between the hands

of a clock at 10.25 is:

17) An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in

the morning. Through how may
degrees will the hour hand rotate
when the clock shows 2 o'clock in
the afternoon?

18) A watch which gains 5 seconds in 3

minutes was set right at 7 a.m. In
the afternoon of the same day,
when the watch indicated quarter
past 4 o'clock, the true time is:

5)

6)

c.

7)

8)

d.

9)

10)

e.

11)

12)

f.

19) A clock is started at noon. By 10

minutes past 5, the hour hand has
turned through:

REASONING Aptitude
Analytical Reasoning
EXERCISES
Find the number of triangles in the given figure
1)

3)

2)

4)

a.

b.

37

13)

14)

g.

15)

16)

h.

17)

19)

18)

20)

21)

22)

k.

23)

24) Find
l. the minimum number of straight
lines required to make the given figure

25) What is the number of straight lines and

the number of triangles in the given
figure.

26) What
m. is the number of triangles that
can be formed whose vertices are the
vertices of an octagon but have only one
side common with that of octagon?

i.

j.
A. 64 B. 32 C. 24 D. 16

Pipes and Cistern

Each of the questions given below consists of a statement and / or a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statement(s) is / are sufficient to answer the given question.
EXERCISES

38

1)

How long will it take to empty the tank

if both the inlet pipe A and the outlet
pipe B are opened simultaneously?

I. A can fill the tank in 16 minutes.

II. B can empty the full tank in 8 minutes.
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not
sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not
sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E. Both I and II are necessary to answer

3)

2) n. If both the pipes are opened, how many

hours will be taken to fill the tank?
I. The capacity of the tank is 400 litres.
II. The pipe A fills the tank in 4 hours.
III. The pipe B fills the tank in 6 hours.
A. Only I and II
B. Only II and III
C. All I, II and III
D. Any two of the three
E. Even with all the three statements, answer
cannot be given.

How much time will the leak take to empty the full cistern?
I. The cistern is normally filled in 9 hours.
II. It takes one hour more than the usual time to fill the cistern because of la leak in the
bottom.
A.I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
B.II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C.Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D.Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E.Both I and II are necessary to answer

Logical Problems
I.

Each problem consists of three statements. Based on the first two statements, the third
statement may be true, false, or uncertain.
EXERCISES
1) The Kingston Mall has more stores than
2) All
A. the tulips in Zoe's garden are white.
the Galleria.
All the pansies in Zoe's garden are
The Four Corners Mall has fewer stores
yellow.
than the Galleria.
All the flowers in Zoe's garden are
The Kingston Mall has more stores than
either white or yellow
the Four Corners Mall.
If the first two statements are true, the
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain
A. true B. false C. uncertain
3)

During the past year, Josh saw more

movies than Stephen.

4)

Stephen saw fewer movies than Darren.

Darren saw more movies than Josh.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

Of the three dogs, Boomer weighs the

least.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

5)

All the offices on the 9th floor have wallto-wall carpeting.

No wall-to-wall carpeting is pink.
None of the offices on the 9th floor has
pink wall-to-wall carpeting.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

6)

Class A has a higher enrollment than

A.
Class B.
Class C has a lower enrollment than
Class B.
Class A has a lower enrollment than
Class C.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

7)

A fruit basket contains more apples than

lemons.
There are more lemons in the basket
than there are oranges.
The basket contains more apples than
oranges.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

8)

The Shop and Save Grocery is south of

A.
Greenwood Pharmacy.
Rebecca's house is northeast of
Greenwood Pharmacy.
Rebecca's house is west of the Shop and
Save Grocery.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

9)

Joe is younger than Kathy.

Mark was born after Joe.
Kathy is older than Mark.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

10) A.
On the day the Barton triplets are born,
Jenna weighs more than Jason.
Jason weighs less than Jasmine.
Of the three babies, Jasmine weighs the
most.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

Rover weighs less than Fido.

A.
Rover weighs more than Boomer.

39

11) The temperature on Monday was lower

than on Tuesday.
The temperature on Wednesday was
lower than on Tuesday.
The temperature on Monday was higher
than on Wednesday
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

12) A.
Oat cereal has more fiber than corn
cereal but less fiber than bran cereal.
Corn cereal has more fiber than rice
cereal but less fiber than wheat cereal.
Of the three kinds of cereal, rice cereal
has the least amount of fiber.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

13) Martina is sitting in the desk behind

Jerome.
Jerome is sitting in the desk behind
Bryant.
Bryant is sitting in the desk behind
Martina.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain
15) Middletown is north of Centerville.
Centerville is east of Penfield.
Penfield is northwest of Middletown.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

14) A.
Battery X lasts longer than Battery Y.
Battery Y doesn't last as long as Battery
Z.
Battery Z lasts longer than Battery X.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

16) A.
All spotted Gangles have long tails.
Short-haired Gangles always have short
tails.
Long-tailed Gangles never have short
hair.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

17) All Lamels are Signots with buttons.

No yellow Signots have buttons.
No Lamels are yellow.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

18) A.
The hotel is two blocks east of the
drugstore.
The market is one block west of the
hotel.
The drugstore is west of the market.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

19) A toothpick is useful.

Useful things are valuable.
A toothpick is valuable.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

20) A.
Tom puts on his socks before he puts on
his shoes.
He puts on his shirt before he puts on
his jacket.
Tom puts on his shoes before he puts on
his shirt.

If the first two statements are true, the

third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain
21) Three pencils cost the same as two
erasers.
Four erasers cost the same as one ruler.
Pencils are more expensive than rulers.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

22) A.
Taking the train across town is quicker
than taking the bus.
Taking the bus across town is slower
than driving a car.
Taking the train across town is quicker
than driving a car.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

23) Cloudy days tend to be more windy than

sunny days.
Foggy days tend to be less windy than
cloudy days.
Sunny days tend to be less windy than
foggy days.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

24) A.
At a parking lot, a sedan is parked to
the right of a pickup and to the left of a
sport utility vehicle.
A minivan is parked to the left of the
pickup.
The minivan is parked between the
pickup and the sedan.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

25) The bookstore has a better selection of

postcards than the newsstand does.
The selection of postcards at the
drugstore is better than at the bookstore.
The drugstore has a better selection of
postcards than the bookstore or the
newsstand.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

26) A.
A jar of jelly beans contains more red
beans than green.
There are more yellow beans than red.
The jar contains fewer yellow jelly
beans than green ones.
If the first two statements are true, the
third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain

II. The logic problems in this set present you with three true statements: Fact 1, Fact 2, and Fact
3. Then, you are given three more statements (labeled I, II, and III), and you must determine
which of these, if any, is also a fact. One or two of the statements could be true; all of the
statements could be true; or none of the statements could be true. Choose your answer based
solely on the information given in the first three facts.

40

Fact 1:

Eyeglass frames cost between $35 and $350. Fact 1: a.Most stuffed toys are stuffed with beans.

Fact 2:

Some eyeglass frames are made of titanium. Fact 2:

There are stuffed bears and stuffed tigers.

Fact 3:

Some eyeglass frames are made of plastic.

Some chairs are stuffed with beans.

If the first three statements are facts, which of

the following statements must also be a fact?

Fact 3:

If the first three statements are facts, which

of the following statements must also be a
fact?

the following statements must also be a fact?

I:

Some writing utensils don't write.

II:

Some writing utensils are blue.

III: Some blue writing utensils don't write.

A. I only
B. II only
Titanium eyeglass frames cost more than plastic frames.
C. II and III only
I:
Only
children's
chairs
are
stuffed
with
beans.
II: Expensive eyeglass frames last longer than cheap frames.
D. None of the statements is a known fact.
II: All stuffed tigers are stuffed with beans.
III: Only a few eyeglass frames cost less than $35.
III: Stuffed monkeys are not stuffed with beans.
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.

Fact 1:

Mary said, "Ann and I both have cats."

Fact 1: b.
Pictures can tell a story.

Fact 2:

Ann said, "I don't have a cat."

Fact 2:

Fact 3:

Mary always tells the truth, but Ann sometimes

Factlies.
3: Some storybooks have words.

If the first three statements are facts, which of

the following statements must also be a fact?
I:

Ann has a cat.

II:

Mary has a cat.

Maui is surrounded by water.

II:

All islands are formed by volcanoes.

Fact 1:

Robert has four vehicles.

Fact 2:

Two of the vehicles are red.

Fact 3:

One of the vehicles is a minivan.

If the first three statements are facts, which of

the following statements must also be a fact?

A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.
Fact 1:
Fact 2:
Fact 3:

If the first three statements are facts, which

of the following statements must also be a
fact?

I:

Robert has a red minivan.

II:

Robert has three cars.

III: Robert's favorite color is red.

A. I only
B. II only
Pictures can tell a story better than words can. C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.
The stories in storybooks are very simple.

I:
II:
III:

II:

A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.

III: Some storybooks have both words and pictures.III. Read the question carefully and choose the correct answer.
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.

Fact 1:

Some pens don't write.

Fact 1: c.Islands are surrounded by water.

Fact 2:

All blue pens write.

Fact 2:

Maui is an island.

Fact 3:

Some writing utensils are pens.

Fact 3:

Maui was formed by a volcano.

If the first three statements are facts, which

41

All caps have brims.

Some baseball caps are blue.
Baseball caps have no brims.

A.I only
B.II only
C.II and III only
D.None of the statements is a known fact.

III: Ann is lying.

If the first three statements are facts, which of

All hats have brims.

d.
There are black hats and blue hats.
Baseball caps are hats.

All storybooks have pictures.

If the first three statements are facts, which

of the following statements must also be a
fact?
I:

I:

III: All volcanoes are on islands.

I:

A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.

of the following statements must also be a

fact?

1)

At the baseball game, Henry was sitting

in seat 253. Marla was sitting to the right
of Henry in seat 254. In the seat to the
left of Henry was George. Inez was
sitting to the left of George. Which seat
is
Inez
sitting
in?

2)

A. 251 B. 254 C. 255 D. 256

As
o. they prepare for the state
championships, one gymnast must be
moved from the Level 2 team to the
Level 1 team. The coaches will move the
gymnast who has won the biggest prize
and who has the most experience. In the
last competition, Roberta won a bronze
medal and has competed seven times
before. Jamie has won a silver medal and
has competed fewer times than Roberta.
Beth has won a higher medal than Jamie
and has competed more times than
Roberta. Michele has won a bronze
medal, and it is her third time
competing. Who will be moved to the
Level 1 team?

A. nine miles
C. eight miles

7)

A. Roberta B. Beth C. Michele D. Jamie

3)

Four friends in the sixth grade were

sharing a pizza. They decided that the
oldest friend would get the extra piece.
Randy is two months older than Greg,
who is three months younger than Ned.
Kent is one month older than Greg. Who
should get the extra piece of pizza?

4)

A. Randy B. Greg C. Ned D. Kent

5)

Danielle has been visiting friends in

Ridge-wood for the past two weeks. She
is leaving tomorrow morning and her
flight is very early. Most of her friends
live fairly close to the airport. Madison
lives ten miles away. Frances lives five
miles away, Samantha, seven miles.
Alexis is farther away than Frances, but
closer than Samantha. Approximately
how far away from the airport is Alexis?

6)

9)

A. eight B. nine C. ten D. eleven

Four defensive football players are

chasing the opposing wide receiver, who
has the ball. Calvin is directly behind the
ball carrier. Jenkins and Burton are side
by side behind Calvin. Zeller is behind
Jenkins and Burton. Calvin tries for the
tackle but misses and falls. Burton trips.
Which defensive player tackles the
receiver?
A.Burton B.Zeller C.Jenkins D.Calvin

B. Mr. Temple
D. Ms. Brody

Nurse
q.
Kemp has worked more night
shifts in a row than Nurse Rogers, who
has worked five. Nurse Miller has
worked fifteen night shifts in a row,
more than Nurses Kemp and Rogers
combined. Nurse Calvin has worked
eight night shifts in a row, less than
Nurse Kemp. How many night shifts in a
row has Nurse Kemp worked?

Children are in pursuit of a dog whose

leash has broken. James is directly
behind the dog. Ruby is behind James.
Rachel is behind Ruby. Max is ahead of
the dog walking down the street in the
opposite direction. As the children and
dog pass, Max turns around and joins the
pursuit. He runs in behind Ruby. James
runs faster and is alongside the dog on
the left. Ruby runs faster and is alongside
the dog on the right. Which child is
directly behind the dog?

8)

Ms.
r. Forest likes to let her students
choose who their partners will be;
however, no pair of students may work
together more than seven class periods in
a row. Adam and Baxter have studied
together seven class periods in a row.
Carter and Dennis have worked together
three class periods in a row. Carter does
not want to work with Adam. Who
should be assigned to work with Baxter?
A.Carter B.Adam C.Dennis D.Forest

A. James B. Ruby C. Rachel D. Max

The
p. high school math department needs
to appoint a new chairperson, which will
be based on seniority. Ms. West has less
seniority than Mr. Temple, but more
than Ms. Brody. Mr. Rhodes has more
seniority than Ms. West, but less than
Mr. Temple. Mr. Temple doesn't want
the job. Who will be the new math
department chairperson?
A. Mr. Rhodes
C. Ms.West

B. seven miles
D. six miles

10) Ins. a four-day period Monday through

Thursday each of the following
temporary office workers worked only
one day, each a different day. Ms.
Johnson was scheduled to work on
Monday, but she traded with Mr. Carter,
who was originally scheduled to work on
Wednesday. Ms. Falk traded with Mr.
Kirk, who was originally scheduled to
work on Thursday. After all the
switching was done, who worked on
Tuesday?
A.Mr. Carter
C.Ms. Johnson

B.Ms. Falk
D.Mr. Kirk

Logical Games
I.

EXERCISES
The government of an island nation is in the process of deciding how to spend its limited
income. It has $7 million left in its budget and eight programs to choose among. There is no
provision in the constitution to have a surplus, and each program has requested the
minimum amount they need; in other words, no program may be partially funded. The
programs and their funding requests are:

42

1)

2)

II.

* Hurricane preparedness: $2.5 million

* Harbor improvements: $1 million
* School music program: $0.5 million
* Senate office building remodeling: $1.5 million
* Agricultural subsidy program: $2 million
* National radio: $0.5 million
* Small business loan program: $3 million
* International airport: $4 million
Senators from urban areas are very concerned about assuring that there will be funding for a
new international airport. Senators from rural areas refuse to fund anything until money for
agricultural subsidies is appropriated. If the legislature funds these two programs, on which
of the following could they spend the rest of the money?
A. the school music program and national radio
B. Hurricane preparedness
C. Harbor improvements and the school music program
D. Small business loan program
E. national radio and senate office building remodeling
If the legislature decides to fund the
agricultural subsidy program, national
radio, and the small business loan
program, what two other programs could
they fund?
A. harbor improvements and
international airport
B. harbor improvements and school
music program
C. hurricane preparedness and school
music program
D. hurricane preparedness and
international airport
E. harbor improvements and hurricane
preparedness

3)

* Alice's car is parked next to David's.

* Enid drives a green car.
* Bert's car is parked between Cheryl's and Enid's.
* David's car is parked in the last space.
1) Who is the CEO ?
A. Alice B. Bert C. Cheryl D. David E. Enid

3)

III.

If the legislature decides to fund the

agricultural subsidy program, national
radio, and the small business loan
program, the only other single program
that can be funded is
A. hurricane preparedness.
B. harbor improvements.
C. school music program.
D. senate office building remodeling.
E. international airport.

At a small company, parking spaces are reserved for the top executives: CEO, president, vice
president, secretary, and treasurer with the spaces lined up in that order. The parking lot
guard can tell at a glance if the cars are parked correctly by looking at the color of the cars.
The cars are yellow, green, purple, red, and blue, and the executives names are Alice, Bert,
Cheryl, David, and Enid.
* The car in the first space is red.
* A blue car is parked between the red car and the green car.
* The car in the last space is purple.
* The secretary drives a yellow car.

IV.

Who is the secretary?

A. Enid
B. David
Bert
E. Alice

2) What
t.
color is the vice president's car?
A. green B. yellow C. blue D. purple E. red

u.
C. Cheryl

D.

Five cities all got more rain than usual this year. The five cities are: Last Stand, Mile City,
New Town, Olliopolis, and Polberg. The cities are located in five different areas of the
country: the mountains, the forest, the coast, the desert, and in a valley. The rainfall
amounts were: 12 inches, 27 inches, 32 inches, 44 inches, and 65 inches.
* The city in the desert got the least rain; the city in the forest got the most rain.
* New Town is in the mountains.
* Last Stand got more rain than Olliopolis.
* Mile City got more rain than Polberg, but less rain than New Town.
* Olliopolis got 44 inches of rain.
* The city in the mountains got 32 inches of rain; the city on the coast got 27 inches of rain.
1)

How much rain did Mile City get?

A. 12 inches B. 27 inches C. 32 inches
D. 44 inches E. 65 inches

2) v.Which city is in the desert ?

A. Last Stand B. Mile City C. New Town
D. Olliopolis E. Polberg

3)

Where is Olliopolis located?

A. the mountains B. the coast C. in a
valley
D. the desert E. the forest

4) w.Which city got the most rain?

A.Last Stand B.Mile City C.New Town
D.Olliopolis
E.Polberg

Five roommates Randy, Sally, Terry, Uma, and Vernon each do one housekeeping task
mopping, sweeping, laundry, vacuuming, or dusting one day a week, Monday through
Friday.
* Vernon does not vacuum and does not do his task on Tuesday.
* Sally does the dusting, and does not do it on Monday or Friday.
* The mopping is done on Thursday.
* Terry does his task, which is not vacuuming, on Wednesday.
* The laundry is done on Friday, and not by Uma.

43

* Randy does his task on Monday.

1)

What day does Uma do her task?

A. Monday B. Tuesday C. Wednesday
D. Thursday E. Friday

2)

What
x. task does Vernon do?
A. vacuuming B. dusting C. mopping
D. sweeping E. laundry

3)

What day is the vacuuming done?

A. Friday B. Monday C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday E. Thursday

4)

When
y.
does Sally do the dusting?
A. Friday B. Monday C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday E. Thursday

5)

What task does Terry do on Wednesday?

A. vacuuming
B.dusting
C.mopping
D.sweeping
E.laundry

z.

Logical Deduction
EXERCISES
In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements: All bags are cakes. All lamps are
cakes.
Conclusions:
Some lamps are bags.
No lamp is bag.

Statements:
aa. All mangoes are golden in
color. No golden-colored things are cheap.
Conclusions:
All mangoes are cheap.
Golden-colored mangoes are not cheap.

Statements: Some kings are queens. All queens

are beautiful.
Conclusions:
All kings are beautiful.
All queens are kings.

Statements:
bb. Some doctors are fools. Some
fools are rich.
Conclusions:
Some doctors are rich
Some rich are doctors

Statements: All roads are waters. Some waters

are boats.
Conclusions:
Some boats are roads.
All waters are boats.

Statements:
cc. No bat is ball. No ball is
wicket.
Conclusions:
No bat is wicket.
All wickets are bats.

Statements: All flowers are trees. No fruit is

tree.
Conclusions:
No fruit is flower.
Some trees are flowers.

Statements:
dd. Some adults are boys. Some
boys are old.
Conclusions:
Some adults are not old.
Some boys are not old.

Statements: Every minister is a student. Every

student is inexperienced.
Conclusions:
Every minister is inexperienced.
Some inexperienced are students.

Statements:
ee. All roads are poles. No pole is
a house.
Conclusions:
Some roads are houses.
Some houses are poles.

Statements: All fish are tortoise. No tortoise is a

crocodile.
Conclusions:
No crocodile is a fish.
No fish is a crocodile.

Statements:
ff.
Some dedicated souls are
angels. All social workers are angels.
Conclusions: Some dedicated souls are
social workers. Some social workers are
dedicated souls.

Statements: No gentleman is poor. All

gentlemen are rich.
Conclusions:
No poor man is rich.
No rich man is poor.

Statements:
gg. Some swords are sharp. All
swords are rusty
Conclusions:
Some rusty things are sharp.
Some rusty things are not sharp.

Statements: All fishes are grey in color. Some

fishes are heavy.
Conclusions:
All heavy fishes are grey in color.
All light fishes are not grey in color.

Statements:
hh. All good athletes win. All
good athletes eat well.
Conclusions:
All those who eat well are good athletes.
All those who win eat well.

Statements: All film stars are playback singers.

All film directors are film stars.
Conclusions:
All film directors are playback singers.
Some film stars are film directors.

Statements:
ii.
All hill stations have a sun-set
point. X is a hill station.
Conclusions:
X has a sun-set point.
Places other than hill stations do not have
sun-set points.

Statements: Some dreams are nights. Some

nights are days.
Conclusions:
All days are either nights or dreams.
Some days are nights.

Statements:
jj.
All jungles are tigers. Some
tigers are horses.
Conclusions:
Some horses are jungles.
No horse is jungle.

44

Data Sufficiency

7)

8)

In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer
the question. Read both the statements and Give answer
1) (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
2) (B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
3) (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question
4) (D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question and
5) (E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Who is to the immediate right of P among

five persons P, Q, R, S and T facing North?
Statements:
R is third to the left of Q and P is second
to the right of R.
Q is to the immediate left of T who is
second to the right of P.

9)

How is X related to Y?
Statements:
Y says, "I have only one brother".
X says, "I have only one sister".

10) How
1) is F related to P?
Statements:
P has two sisters M and N.
F's mother is sister of M's father.

EXERCISES
1) What is the code for 'sky' in the code
language?
Statements:
In the code language, 'sky is clear' is
written as 'de ra fa'.
In the same code language, 'make it clear'
is written as 'de ga jo'

2)

How
kk. many children are there
between P and Q in a row of
children?
Statements:
P is fifteenth from the left in the row.
Q is exactly in the middle and there
are ten children towards his right.

3)

How is T related to K?
Statements:
R's sister J has married Ts brother L, who
is the only son of his parents.
K is the only daughter of L and J.

4)

How
ll. is J related to P?
Statements:
M is brother of P and T is sister of P.
P's mother is married to J's husband
who has one son and two daughters.

5)

How is X related to Y?
Statements:
Y and Z are children of D who is wife of
X.
R's sister X is married to Ys father.

6)

Who
mm.is to the immediate right of P
among five persons P, Q, R, S and T
facing North?
Statements:
R is third to the left of Q and P is
second to the right of R.
Q is to the immediate left of T who is
second to the right of P.

On
nn.which date of the month was
Anjali born in February 2004?
Statements:
Anjali was born on an even date of
the month.
Anjali's birth date was a prime
number.

11) When is Manohar's birthday this year ?

Statements:
It is between January 13 and 15, January
13 being Wednesday.
It is not on Friday.

12) How is 'No' coded in the code

language ?
Statements:
'Ne Pa Sic Lo' means 'But No None
And' and 'Pa Lo Le Ne' means 'If
None And But'.
'Le Se Ne Sic' means 'If No None
Will' and 'Le Pi Se Be' means 'Not
None If All'.

13) Who among P, Q, T, V and M is exactly in

the middle when they are arranged in
ascending order of their heights?
Statements:
V is taller than Q but shorter than M.
T is taller than Q and M but shorter than
P.

14) Which code word stands for 'good' in

the coded sentence 'sin co bye' which
means 'He is good?
Statements:
In the same code language, 'co mot
det' means 'They are good'.
In the same code language, 'sin mic
bye' means 'He is honest'.

15) What is the numerical code for 'water' in a

certain code?
Statements:
The code for 'give me water' is '719'. The
code for 'you can bring water for me' is
written as '574186'.

16) A is D's brother. F is mother of D.

How is D related to A?
Statements:
F has only one son and one daughter.
A is the only son of P who has two
children.

45

17) How many visitors saw the exhibition

yesterday?
Statements:
Each entry pass holder can take up to
three persons with him/her.
In all, 243 passes were sold yesterday.

19) What is the rank of P from the bottom in

a class of 30 students?
Statements:
M is third from the top and there are five
students between M and P.
The rank of K is fourth from the bottom
and there are 17 students between K and
P.

18) Gaurav ranks eighteenth from the

top in a class. What is his rank from
the last?
Statements:
There are 47 students in the class.
Jatin who ranks 10th in the same
class, ranks 38th from the last.
20) In a row of five buildings - P, Q, R, S
and T, which building is in the
middle?
Statements:
Buildings S and Q are at the two
extreme ends of the row.
Building ,T is to the right of building
R.

Arithmetic Reasoning
EXERCISES
1) A pineapple costs Rs. 7 each. A
watermelon costs Rs. 5 each. X spends Rs.
38 on these fruits. The number of
pineapples purchased is
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. Data inadequate

3)

A girl counted in the following way on the

fingers of her left hand : She started by
calling the thumb 1, the index finger 2,
middle finger 3, ring finger 4, little finger
5 and then reversed direction calling the
ring finger 6, middle finger 7 and so on.
She counted upto 1994. She ended
counting on which finger ?
A. Thumb B. Index finger
C. Middle finger D. Ring finger

2)

4)

A woman says, "If you reverse my

own age, the figures represent my
husband's age. He is, of course, senior
to me and the difference between our
ages is one-eleventh of their sum."
The woman's age is
A. 23 years B. 34 years
C. 45 years D. None of these
A man has Rs. 480 in the
denominations of one-rupee notes,
five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes.
The number of notes of each
denomination is equal. What is the
total number of notes that he has ?
A. 45 B. 60 C. 75 D. 90

5)

What is the product of all the numbers in

the dial of a telephone ?
A. 1,58,480 B. 1,59,450
C. 1,59,480 D. None of these

6)

A is 3 years older to B and 3 years

younger to C, while B and D are
twins. How many years older is C to
D?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 12

7)

The 30 members of a club decided to play

a badminton singles tournament. Every
time a member loses a game he is out of
the tournament. There are no ties. What is
the minimum number of matches that
must be played to determine the winner ?
A. 15 B. 29 C. 61 D. None of these

8)

In a garden, there are 10 rows and 12

columns of mango trees. The distance
between the two trees is 2 metres and
a distance of one metre is left from all
sides of the boundary of the garden.
The length of the garden is
A. 20 m B. 22 m C. 24 m D. 26 m

9)

12 year old Manick is three times as old as

his brother Rahul. How old will Manick
be when he is twice as old as Rahul ?
A. 14 years B. 16 years
C. 18 years D. 20 years

10) A tailor had a number of shirt pieces

to cut from a roll of fabric. He cut
each roll of equal length into 10
pieces. He cut at the rate of 45 cuts a
minute. How many rolls would be
cut in 24 minutes?
A. 32 rolls B. 54 rolls C. 108 rolls D.
120 rolls

11) A student got twice as many sums wrong

as he got right. If he attempted 48 sums in
all, how many did he solve correctly ?
A. 12 B. 16 C. 18 D. 24

12) David gets on the elevator at the 11th

floor of a building and rides up at the
rate of 57 floors per minute. At the
same time, Albert gets on an elevator
at the 51st floor of the same building
and rides down at the rate of 63
floors per minute. If they continue
travelling at these rates, then at
which floor will their paths cross?
A. 19 B. 28 C. 30 D. 37

13) I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I

keep 2, 3 or 4 in a pack, I am left with one
sweet. If I keep 5 in a pack, I am left with
none. What is the minimum number of
sweets I have to pack and distribute?
A. 25 B. 37 C. 54 D. 65

14) If a clock takes seven seconds to

strike seven, how long will it take to
strike ten?
A. 7 seconds
B. 9 seconds
C. 10 seconds D. None of these

46

15) In a group of cows and hens, the number

of legs is 14 more than twice the number
of heads. The number of cows is
A. 5 B. 7 C. 10 D. 12

16) A father tells his son, "I was of your

present age when you were born". If
the father is 36 now, how old was the
boy five years back?
A. 13 B. 15 C. 17 D. 20

1)

2)

What
a. are the average candidates who
appeared from State Q during the
given years?
A. 8700 B. 8760 C. 8990 D. 8920

17) A fires 5 shots to B's 3 but A kills only

once in 3 shots while B kills once in 2
shots. When B has missed 27 times, A has
killed
A. 30 birds B. 60 birds
C. 72 birds D. 90 birds

18) In a class, 3/5 of the students are girls

and rest is boys. If 2/9 of the girls and
1/4 of the boys are absent, what part
of the total number of students is
present?
A. 17/25 B. 18/49 C. 23/30 D.
23/36

Total number of candidates qualified from

all the states together in 1997 is
approximately what percentage of the
total number of candidates qualified from
all the states together in 1998?
A. 72% B. 77% C. 80% D. 83%

3)

In which of the given years the number of

candidates appeared from State P has
maximum percentage of qualified
candidates?
A. 1997 B. 1998 C. 1999 D. 2001

4)

19) In a family, a couple has a son and a

daughter. The age of the father is three
times that of his daughter and the age of
the son is half of that of his mother. The
wife is 9 years younger to her husband
and the brother is seven years older than
his sister. What is the age of the mother?
A.40 years B. 45 years
C. 50 years D. 60 years

20) If a 1 mm thick paper is folded so

that the area is halved at every fold,
then what would be the thickness of
the pile after 50 folds?
A. 100 km B. 1000 km
C. 1 million km D. 1 billion km

What
b. is the percentage of candidates
qualified from State N for all the
years together, over the candidates
appeared from State N during all the
years together?
A. 12.36% B. 12.16% C. 11.47% D.
11.15%

5)

The percentage of total number of

qualified candidates to the total number of
appeared candidates among all the five
states in 1999 is?
A. 11.49% B. 11.84% C. 12.21% D.
12.57%

6)

Combining the states P and Q

together in 1998, what is the
percentage of the candidates qualified
to that of the candidate appeared?
A.10.87% B.11.49% C.12.35%
D.12.54%

Data Interpretation
Table Charts
I.

II.

Study the following table and answer the questions.

Number of Candidates Appeared and Qualified in a Competitive Examination from Different
States over the Years.

1997

1998

1999

2000

2001

App.

Qual.

App.

Qual.

App.

Qual.

App.

Qual.

App.

Qual.

5200

720

8500

980

7400

850

6800

775

9500

1125

7500

840

9200

1050

8450

920

9200

980

8800

1020

6400

780

8800

1020

7800

890

8750

1010

9750

1250

8100

950

9500

1240

8700

980

9700

1200

8950

995

870

7600

940

9800

1350

7600

945

7990

885

The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different
subjects in an examination.
The Numbers in the Brackets give the Maximum Marks in Each Subject.
Subject (Max. Marks)
Student

Maths

Chemistry

Physics

Geography

History

Computer Science

(150)

(130)

(120)

(100)

(60)

(40)

Ayush

90

50

90

60

70

80

Aman

100

80

80

40

80

70

Sajal

90

60

70

70

90

70

Rohit

80

65

80

80

60

60

Muskan

80

65

85

95

50

90

Tanvi

70

75

65

85

40

60

Year
State

7800

47

Tarun
1.

3)

5)

III.

65

35

50

77

What are the average marks obtained by

all the seven students in Physics?
(rounded off to two digit after decimal)
A. 77.26 B. 89.14 C. 91.37 D. 96.11

2)

What was the aggregate of marks obtained

by Sajal in all the six subjects?
A. 409 B. 419 C. 429 D. 449

4)

80

A.21% B. 27% C. 29% D. 31%

80

The
a. number of students who
obtained 60% and above marks in all
subjects is?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. None
In which subject is the overall
percentage the best?
A. Maths B. Chemistry C. Physics D.
History

5)

IV.

What is the overall percentage of Tarum?

A. 52.5% B. 55% C. 60% D. 63%

Subject

40 and
above

30 and
above

20 and
above

10 and
above

0 and
above

Physics

32

80

92

100

Chemistry

21

66

81

100

Average
(Aggregate)

27

73

87

100

2)

A.3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
3)

The percentage of number of students

getting at least 60% marks in Chemistry
over those getting at least 40% marks in
aggregate, is approximately?

If at least 60% marks in Physics are

required for pursuing higher studies in
Physics, how many students will be
eligible to pursue higher studies in
Physics?
A.27 B. 32 C. 34 D. 41

4)

The number of students scoring less than

40% marks in aggregate is?

Delhi

H.P

V.

U.P

Punjab

Haryana

App Qual Sel App Qual Sel App Qual Sel App Qual Sel App Qual Sel

1997 8000 850 94 7800 810 82

1998 4800 500 48 7500 800 65
1999 7500 640 82 7400 560 70
2000 9500 850 90 8800 920 86
2001 9000 800 70 7200 850 75
1) For which state the average number of
candidates selected over the years is
the maximum?
A. Delhi B. H.P C. U.P D. Punjab

Marks out of 50

What is the different between the

number of students passed with 30 as
cut-off marks in Chemistry and those
passed with 30 as cut-off marks in
aggregate?

Study the following table and answer the questions based on it.
Number of Candidates Appeared, Qualified and Scheduled in a Competitive Examination from
Five States Delhi, H.P, U.P, Punjab and Haryana Over the Years 1994 to 1998

Year

Study the following table and answer the questions.

Classification of 100 Students Based on the Marks Obtained by them in Physics and Chemistry in
an Examination.

1)

If it is known that at least 23 students were eligible for a Symposium on Chemistry, then the
minimum qualifying marks in Chemistry for eligibility to Symposium would lie in the range?
A. 40-45 B. 30-40 C. 20-30 D. Below 20

7500
5600
4800
7000
8500

720 78 8200 680 85 6400 700 75

620 85 6800 600 70 7100 650 75
400 48 6500 525 65 5200 350 55
650 70 7800 720 84 6400 540 60
950 80 5700 485 60 4500 600 75
2) The
a. percentage of candidates qualified
from Punjab over those appeared
from Punjab is highest in the year?
A. 1997 B. 1998 C. 1999 D. 2000

3) In the year 1997, which state had the

lowest percentage of candidates selected
over the candidates appeared?
A. Delhi B. H.P C. U.P D. Punjab

4) The number of candidates selected from

Haryana during the period under review
is approximately what percent of the
number selected from Delhi during this
period?
A. 79.5% B. 81% C. 84.5% D. 88.5%

5) The percentage of candidates selected

from U.P over those qualified from U.P is
highest in the year?
A. 1997 B. 1998 C. 1999 D. 2001

6) What is the approximate percentage of

total number of candidates selected to the
total number of candidates qualified for all
five stages together during the year 1999?
A. 10% B. 11% C. 12% D. 13%

The following table gives the sales of batteries manufactured by a company over the years.
Number of Different Types of Batteries Sold by a Company Over the Years (Numbers in
Thousands)

A. 13 B. 19 C. 20 D. 27

Year

48

Types of Batteries

1)

A.
B.
C.
D.

3)

5)

If the number of students passing an

examination be considered a criteria
for comparison of difficulty level of
two examinations, which of the
following statements is true in this
context?

2)

1)

What was the approximate percentage

increase in the sales of 55AH batteries
in 1998 compared to that in 1992?
A. 28% B. 31% C. 33% D. 34%

2)

The
a. total sales of all the seven years are
the maximum for which battery?
A. 4AH B. 7AH C. 32AH D. 35AH

3)

What is the difference in the number of

35AH batteries sold in 1993 and 1997?
A. 24000 B. 28000 C. 35000 D.
39000

4)

The
b. percentage of 4AH batteries sold to
the total number of batteries sold was
maximum in the year?
A. 1994 B. 1995 C. 1996 D. 1997

How many students are there in Class

IX in the school?
A. 336 B. 189 C. 335 D. 430

Half yearly examinations were more

difficult.
Annual examinations were more
difficult.
Both the examinations had almost
the same difficulty level.
The two examinations cannot be
compared for difficulty level.

5) In case of which battery there was a continuous decrease in sales from 1992 to 1997?
A. 4AH B. 7AH C. 32AH D. 35AH
VI.

Which section has the maximum

pass percentage in at least one of the
two examinations?
A. A Section B. B Section C. C
Section
D. D Section

4)

A school has four sections A, B, C, D of Class IX students.

The results of half yearly and annual examinations are shown in the table given below.
No. of Students

Which section has the maximum

success rate in annual examination?
A. A Section B. B Section C. C Section
D. D Section

Result

Which section has the minimum failure rate in half yearly examination?
A. A Section B. B Section C. C Section D. D Section

4AH

7AH

32AH

35AH

55AH

Total

1992

75

144

114

102

108

543

1993

90

126

102

84

126

528

1994

96

114

75

105

135

525

1995

105

90

150

90

75

510

1996

90

75

135

75

90

465

1997

105

60

165

45

120

495

1998

115

85

160

100

145

605

VII.

Section A

Section B

Section C

Section D

Students failed in both Exams

28

23

17

27

Students failed in half-yearly

but passed in Annual Exams

14

12

13

Students passed in half-yearly

but failed in Annual Exams

17

15

Students passed in both Exams

64

55

46

76

The following table shows the number of new employees added to different categories of
employees in a company and also the number of employees from these categories who left
the company every year since the foundation of the Company in 1995.

Year

Managers

Technicians

Operators

Accountants

Peons

New

Left

New

Left

New

Left

New

Left

New

Left

1995

760

1200

880

1160

820

1996

280

120

272

120

256

104

200

100

184

96

49

1)

3)

5)

VIII.

1997

179

92

240

128

240

120

224

104

152

88

19

3:2

1998

148

88

236

96

208

100

248

96

196

80

15

5:3

1999

160

72

256

100

192

112

272

88

224

120

2000

193

96

288

112

248

144

260

92

200

104

What is the difference between the

total number of Technicians added to
the Company and the total number of
Accountants added to the Company
during the years 1996 to 2000?
A. 128 B. 112 C. 96 D. 88

2) a. What was the total number of Peons

working in the Company in the year
1999?
A. 1312 B. 1192 C. 1088 D. 968

For which of the following categories

the percentage increase in the number
of employees working in the Company
from 1995 to 2000 was the maximum?
A. Managers B. Technicians
C. Operators D. Accountants

4) b.What is the pooled average of the total

number of employees of all categories in
the year 1997?
A. 1325 B. 1195 C. 1265 D. 1235

What is the pooled average of the total

number of employees of all categories
in the year 1997?
A. 1325 B. 1195 C. 1265 D. 1235

6) c. During the period between 1995 and

2000, the total number of Operators
who left the Company is what percent
of total number of Operators who
joined
the
Company?
A. 19% B. 21% C. 27% D. 29%

4:3
3

:2

1)

If the male population above poverty

line for State R is 1.9 million, then the
total population of State R is?
A. 4.5 million B. 4.85 million
C. 5.35 million D. 6.25 million

2)

What will be the number of females

above the poverty line in the State S
if it is known that the population of
State S is 7 million?
A. 3 million B. 2.43 million
C. 1.33 million D. 5.7 million

3)

What will be the male population

above poverty line for State P if the
female population below poverty line
for State P is 2.1 million?
A. 2.1 million B. 2.3 million
C. 2.7 million D. 3.3 million

4)

If the population of males below

poverty line for State Q is 2.4 million
and that for State T is 6 million, then
the total populations of States Q and
T
are
in
the
ratio?
A. 1:3 B. 2:5 C. 3:7 D. 4:9

Data Interpretation
Bar Charts
I.

The bar graph given below shows the foreign exchange reserves of a country (in million US
$) from 1991 - 1992 to 1998 - 1999. Foreign Exchange Reserves Of a Country. (in million US
$)

The following table gives the percentage distribution of population of five states, P, Q, R, S
and T on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex.
Proportion of Males and Females

State

Percentage of
Population
below the
Poverty Line

Below
Poverty
Line

Above Poverty Line

M:F

M:F

35

5:6

6:7

25

3:5

4:5

24

1:2

2:3

1) The ratio of the number of years, in

which the foreign exchange reserves are
above the average reserves, to those in
which the reserves are below the average
reserves is?

50

2) The
a. foreign exchange reserves in 199798 were how many times that in 1994-95?
A. 0.7 B. 1.2 C. 1.4 D. 1.5

A. 2:6 B. 3:4 C. 3:5 D. 4:4

3) For which year, the percent increase of

foreign exchange reserves over the
previous year, is the highest?
A. 1992-93 B. 1993-94 C. 1994-95 D. 199697

4) The
b. foreign exchange reserves in 199697 were approximately what percent of the
average foreign exchange reserves over the
period under review?
A.95% B.110% C.115% D.125%

5) What was the percentage increase in the foreign exchange reserves in 1997-98 over 1993-94?
A.100 B.150 C.200 D.620
III.
II.

The bar graph given below shows the data of the production of paper (in lakh tonnes) by
three different companies X, Y and Z over the years. Production of Paper (in lakh tonnes) by
Three Companies X, Y and Z over the Years.

EXERCISES
1) For which of the following years, the
percentage rise/fall in production from the
previous year is the maximum for
Company Y?
A. 1997 B. 1998 C. 1999 D. 2000

2)

What
a. is the ratio of the average
production of Company X in the
period 1998-2000 to the average
production of Company Y in the
same period?
A. 1:1 B. 15:17 C. 23:25 D. 27:29

3)

The average production for five years was

maximum for which company?
A. X B. Y C. Z D. X and Z both

4)

Inb.which year was the percentage of

production of Company Z to the
production of Company Y the
maximum?
A. 1996 B. 1997 C. 1998 D. 1999

5)

What is the percentage increase in the

production of Company Y from 1996 to
1999?
A. 30% B. 45% C. 50% D. 60%

6)

What
c. is the difference between the
production of Company Z in 1998
and Company Y in 1996?
A. 2,00,000 tons B. 20,00,000 tons
C. 20,000 tons
D. 2,00,00,000 tons

Study the bar chart and answer the question based on it. Production of Fertilizers by a
Company (in 1000 tonnes) Over the Years

EXERCISES
1) What was the percentage decline in the
production of fertilizers from 1997 to
1998?
A. 33(1/3)% B. 20% C. 25% D. 21%

51

2) The
a. average production of 1996 and 1997
was exactly equal to the average production
of which of the following pairs of years?
A. 2000 and 2001 B. 1999 and 2000
C. 1998 and 2000 D. 1995 and 2001

3) What was the percentage increase in

production of fertilizers in 2002 compared
to that in 1995?
A. 320% B. 300% C. 220% D. 200%

4) In
b. which year was the percentage
increase in production as compared to the
precious year the maximum?
A. 2002 B. 2001 C. 1997 D. 1996

5) The expenditure on the interest on loans is by what percent more than the expenditure on
transport?
A. 5% B. 10% C. 20% D. 40%

5) In how many of the given years was the production of fertilizers more than the average
production of the given years?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
IV.

The bar graph given below shows the percentage distribution of the total expenditures of a
company under various expense heads during 2003. Percentage Distribution of Total
Expenditure of a Company

Data Interpretation
Pie Charts
I.

The following pie charts exhibit the distribution of the overseas tourist traffic from India.
The two charts show the tourist distribution by country and the age profiles of the tourists
respectively.
Distribution of Overseas Tourist Traffic from India.

1) The total amount of expenditures of the

company is how many times of
expenditure on research and
development?
A. 27 B. 20 C. 18 D. 8

2) If the
a. expenditure on advertisement is
2.10 crores then the difference between the
expenditure on transport and taxes is?
A. Rs. 1.25 crores B. Rs. 95 lakhs
C. Rs. 65 lakhs
D. Rs. 35 lakhs

3) What is the ratio of the total expenditure

on infrastructure and transport to the total
expenditure on taxes and interest on loans?
A. 5:4 B. 8:7 C. 9:7 D. 13:11

4) If the
b. interest on loans amounted to Rs.
2.45 crores then the total amount of
expenditure on advertisement, taxes and
research and development is?
A. Rs. 7 crores
B. Rs. 5.4 crores
C. Rs. 4.2 crores D. Rs. 3 crores

1) What percentage of Indian tourist went to

either USA or UK?
A. 40 % B. 50 % C. 60 % D. 70 %

52

2) Thea.ratio of the number of Indian

tourists that went to USA to the number of
Indian tourists who were below 30 years of
age is?

A. 2:1 B. 8:3 C. 3:8 D. Cannot be

determined

3) If amongst other countries, Switzerland accounted for 25% of the Indian tourist traffic, and it
is known from official Swiss records that a total of 25 lakh Indian tourists had gone to
Switzerland during the year, then find the number of 30-39 year old Indian tourists who went
abroad in that year ?
A. 18.75 lakh B. 25 lakh C. 50 lakh D. 75 lakh

II.

The following pie chart gives the information about the distribution of weight in the human
body according to different kinds of components. Study the pie charts and answer the
question.
Distribution of Weight in Human Body

C. 44.44 %

D. Cannot be determined

3) What is the ratio of the distribution of proteins in the muscles to that of the distribution of
proteins in the bones?
A. 2:1 B. 2:3 C. 3:2 D. Cannot be determined

III.

The pie chart shows the distribution of New York market share by value of different
computer companies in 2005.

The pie chart shows the distribution of New York market share by volume of different computer
companies in 2005.
Number of units sold in 2005 in New York = 1,500
Value of units sold in 2005 in New York = US $1,650,000.

1) What percentage of proteins of the

human body is equivalent to the weight of
its skin?
A. 41.66 % B. 43.33 %

2) How
a. much of the human body is neither
made of bones or skin?
A. 40 % B. 50 % C. 60 % D. 70 %

53

1) For the year 2005, which company has

realized the lowest average unit sales price
for a PC ?
A. Commodore B. IBM
C. Tandy D. Cannot be determined

2) Over
a. the period 2005-2006, if sales
(value-wise) of IBM PC's increased by
50% and of Apple by 15% assuming that
PC sales of all other computer companies
remained the same, by what percentage
(approximately) would the PC sales in
New York (value-wise) increase over the
same period ?
A. 16.1 % B. 18 % C. 14 % D. None of
these

3)

The approximate ratio of the funds to be

arranged through Toll and that through
Market Borrowing is
A. 2 : 9 B. 1 : 6 C. 3 : 11 D. 2 : 5

5)

If the toll is to be collected through an outsourced agency by allowing a maximum 10%

commission, how much amount should be permitted to be collected by the outsourced
agency, so that the project is supported with Rs. 4910 crores?
A. Rs. 6213 crores B. Rs. 5827 crores
C. Rs. 5401 crores D. Rs. 5316 crores

3) In 2005, the average unit sale price of an IBM PC was approximately (in US$)
A. 3180 B. 2800 C. 393 D. 3080

IV.

The following pie-chart shows the sources of funds to be collected by the National
Highways Authority of India (NHAI) for its Phase II projects. Study the pie-chart and
answers the question that follow. Sources of funds to be arranged by NHAI for Phase II
projects (in crores Rs.)

1)

Near about 20% of the funds are to be

arranged through:
A. SPVS B. External Assistance
C. Annuity D. Market Borrowing

2)

If NHAI could receive a total of Rs.

9695 crores as External Assistance,
by what percent (approximately)
should it increase the Market
Borrowing to arrange for the
shortage of funds?
A. 4.5% B. 7.5% C. 6% D. 8%

4)

The central angle corresponding to

Market Borrowing is
A. 52 B. 137.8 C. 187.2 D. 192.4

Data Interpretation
Line Charts
I.

The following line graph gives the ratio of the amounts of imports by a company to the
amount of exports from that company over the period from 1995 to 2001.
Ratio of Value of Imports to Exports by a Company Over the Years.

EXERCISES
1) If the imports in 1998 were Rs. 250
crores and the total exports in the
years 1998 and 1999 together was Rs.
500 crores, then the imports in 1999
was?

54

2)

The
a. imports were minimum
proportionate to the exports of the
company in the year?
A. 1995 B. 1996 C. 1997 D. 2000

A. Rs. 250 crores B. Rs. 300 crores

C. Rs. 357 crores D. Rs. 420 crores

111223
5)

3)

What was the percentage increase in

imports from 1997 to 1998?
A. 72 B. 56 C. 28 D. Data inadequate

4)

Ifb.the imports of the company in

1996 was Rs. 272 crores, the exports
from the company in 1996 was?
A. Rs. 370 crores B. Rs. 320 crores
C. Rs. 280 crores D. Rs. 275 crores

III.

The production of Company Y in 2000 was approximately what percent of the production
of Company X in the same year
A. 173 B. 164 C. 132 D. 97

The following line graph gives the percent profit earned by two Companies X and Y during
the period 1996 - 2001.
Percentage profit earned by Two Companies X and Y over the Given Years

5) In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

II.

A. 1997 B. 1998 C. 1999 D. 2000

%Profit =

Income - Expenditure
x 100
Expenditure

Study the following line graph and answer the questions based on it.
Number of Vehicles Manufactured by Two companies over the Years (Number in Thousands)

EXERCISES
1) What is the difference between the
number of vehicles manufactured by
Company Y in 2000 and 2001?
A. 50000 B. 42000 C. 33000 D. 21000

2)

What
a. is the difference between the
total productions of the two
Companies in the given years?
A. 19000 B. 22000 C. 26000 D. 28000

4)

In which of the following years, the

difference between the productions of
Companies X and Y was the maximum
among the given years?

EXERCISES
1) The incomes of two Companies X and Y
in 2000 were in the ratio of 3:4
respectively. What was the respective
ratio of their expenditures in 2000?
A. 7:22 B. 14:19 C. 15:22 D. 27:35
3)

3)

What is the average numbers of

vehicles manufactured by Company X
over the given period? (rounded off to
nearest integer)
A. 119333 B. 113666 C. 112778 D.

If the expenditures of Company X and Y

in 1996 were equal and the total income
of the two Companies in 1996 was Rs.
342 crores, what was the total profit of
the two Companies together in 1996?
(Profit = Income - Expenditure)
A. Rs. 240 crores B. Rs. 171 crores

55

2)

Ifa.the expenditure of Company Y in

1997 was Rs. 220 crores, what was its
income in 1997?
A. Rs. 312 crores B. Rs. 297 crores
C. Rs. 283 crores D. Rs. 275 crores

4)

The
b. expenditure of Company X in
the year 1998 was Rs. 200 crores and
the income of company X in 1998
was the same as its expenditure in
2001. The income of Company X in
2001 was ?
A. Rs. 465 crores B. Rs. 385 crores

C. Rs. 120 crores D. Rs. 102 crores

5)

IV.

C. Rs. 335 crores D. Rs. 295 crores

If the incomes of two Companies were

equal in 1999, then what was the ratio
of expenditure of Company X to that of
Company Y in 1999 ?
A. 6:5 B. 5:6 C. 11:6 D. 16:15

3)

If the number of candidates qualified in

1998 was 21200, what was the number of
candidates appeared in 1998?
A. 32000 B. 28500 C. 26500 D. 25000

5)

The total number of candidates qualified

in 1999 and 2000 together was 33500 and
the number of candidates appeared in
1999 was 26500. What was the number of
candidates in 2000?
A. 24500 B. 22000 C. 20500 D. 19000

4)

c.

The following line graph gives the percentage of the number of candidates who qualified an
examination out of the total number of candidates who appeared for the examination over a
period of seven years from 1994 to 2000.

If the total number of candidates

appeared in 1996 and 1997 together was
47400, then the total number of
candidates qualified in these two years
together was?
A. 34700 B. 32100 C. 31500 D. Data
inadequate

Data Sufficiency (DS)

Problems on Trains

Percentage of Candidates Qualified to Appeared in an Examination Over the Years

Each of the questions given below consists of a statement and / or a question and two statements
given below it (in italicized). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement(s) is
/ are sufficient to answer the given question. Read the both statements and
Give answer (A) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (B) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (C) if the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (D) if the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (E) if the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

EXERCISES
1) The difference between the percentages of
candidates qualified to appear was
maximum in which of the following pairs
of years?
A. 1994 and 1995 B. 1997 and 1998
C. 1998 and 1999 D. 1999 and 2000

2)

In which pair of years was the number

of candidates qualified the same?
A. 1995 and 1997 B. 1995 and 2000
C. 1998 and 1999 D. Data inadequate

EXERCISES
1) What is the speed of the train whose
length is 210 metres?

The train crosses another train (Howrah

Express/12869) of 300 metres length
running in opposite direction in 10
seconds.
The train crosses another train (Howrah
Express/12869) running in the same

56

2)

What
oo. is the length of a running train
crossing another 180 metre long train
running in the opposite direction?

The relative speed of the two trains

was 150 kmph.
The trains took 9 seconds to cross each
other.

direction at the speed of 60 km/hr in 30

seconds.
3)

What is the length of a running train?

1)

4)

The train crosses a man in 9 seconds.

The train crosses a 240 metre long
platform in 24 seconds.

5)

What is the speed of the train?

The train crosses a signal pole in 18

seconds.
The train crosses a platform of equal
length in 36 seconds.
Length of the train is 330 metres.

6)

The train crosses a tree in 13 seconds.

The train crosses a platform of length 250
metres in 27 seconds.
The train crosses another train running
in the same direction in 32 seconds.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. Any two of the three
E. None of these

3)

The train crosses another train of

equal length of 200 metres and
running in opposite directions in 15
seconds.
The train leaves city Y and 7.15 a.m.
for city X situated at a distance of 558
km.
The 200 metres long train crosses a
signal pole in 10 seconds.

These two trains take 18 seconds to cross each other.

These trains are running in opposite directions.
The length of the train Q is 180 metres.
C. III only

D. All I, II and III are required

E. Answer cannot be

DS - Time and Distance

EXERCISES

4)

How
ss. much time did X take to reach the
destination?

The ratio between the speed of X and Y

is 3 : 4. Y takes 36 minutes to reach the
same destination.

At
qq.
what time will the train reach city
X from city Y?

What is the length of a running train P crossing another running train Q?

A. I only B. II only
obtained.

Two cars pass each other in opposite

direction. How long would they take to be
500 km apart?

The
rr. towns A, B and C are on a straight
line. Town C is between A and B. The
distance from A to B is 100 km. How far
is A from C? The distance from A to B is

25% more than the distance from C to

B.
The distance from A to C is of the
distance C to B.

The sum of their speeds is 135 km/hr.

The difference of their speed is 25 km/hr.

DS - Time and Work

EXERCISES
1) A and B together can complete a task in 7
days. B alone can do it in 20 days. What
part of the work was carried out by A?

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only D. II and III only
E. All I, II and III are required.
7)

2)

The speed of the mail train is 12 km/hr

more than that of an express train.
A mail train takes 40 minutes less than an
express train to cover the distance.

What
pp. is the speed of the train?

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only D. III and either I
or II only
E. Any two of the three

Two towns are connected by railway. Can

you find the distance between them?

3)

2)

How
a. long will Machine Y,
working alone, take to produce x
candles?

A completed the job alone after A and B

worked together for 5 days.
Part of the work done by A could have
been done by B and C together in 6 days.

Machine X produces x candles in 5

minutes.
Machine X and Machine Y
working at the same time produce
x candles in 2 minutes.

In how many days can 10 women finish a work? 4)

How
b. many
3 workers are required
for completing the construction
work in 10 days?
20% of the days
work can be completed
7

10 men can complete the work in 6 days.

10 men and 10 women together can
complete the work in 3 3/7 days.
If 10 men work for 3 days and thereafter 10
women replace them, the remaining work in
completed in 4 days.
A. Any two of the three B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. None of these

57

by 8 workers in 8 days.
20 workers can complete the work
in 16 days.
One-eighth of the work can be
completed by 8 workers in 5 days.
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. III only D. I and III only
E. Any one of the three

5)

8 men and 14 women are working together in a field. After working for 3 days, 5 men
and 8 women leave the work. How many more days will be required to complete the
work?

3)

19 men and 12 women together can complete the work in 18 days.

16 men can complete two-third of the work in 16 days.
In 1 day, the work done by three men in equal to the work done by four women.

An amount of money was lent for 3 years.

What will be the difference between the
simple and the compound interest earned
on it at the same rate?

4)

An amount doubles itself in 5 years on

simple interest.
Difference between the compound
interest and the simple interest earned
on a certain amount in 2 years is Rs. 400.
Simple interest earned per annum is Rs.
2000.

The rate of interest was 8 p.c.p.a.

The total amount of simple interest was
Rs. 1200.

DS - Simple Interest
EXERCISES
1) The simple interest on a sum of money is
Rs. 50. What is the sum?

2)

The interest rate is 10% p.a.

The sum earned simple interest in 10
years.

3)

4)

Anand borrowed Rs. 8000 from Deepak

for four years.
Anand returned Rs. 8800 to Deepak at the
end of two years and settled the loan.
5)

A. I only
B. II and III only
C. All I, II and III
D. Any two of the three
E. I only or II and III only

What
a. is the sum which earned
interest?
5)

The total simple interest was Rs.

7000 after 7 years.
The total of sum and simple
interest was double of the sum
after 5 years.

What percentage of simple interest per

annum did Anand pay to Deepak?

b.
What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?

What will be the compound interest

earned on an amount of Rs. 5000 in 2
years?

6)

The simple interest on the same amount

at the same rate of interest in 5 years is
Rs. 2000.
The compound interest and the simple
interest earned in one year is the same.
The amount becomed more than double
on compound interest in 10 years.

What
b. is the rate of simple
interest?

The total interest earned was Rs.

4000.
The sum was invested for 4 years.

A. I only
C. II and III only
E. None of these

c.
Mr. Gupta borrowed a sum of money on
compound interest. What will be the
amount to be repaid if he is repaying the
entire amount at the end of 2 years?

The rate of interest is 5 p.c.p.a.

Simple interest fetched on the same
amount in one year is Rs. 600.
The amount borrowed is 10 times the
simple interest in 2 years.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I or II only
D. II and Either I or
III only
E. All I, II and III are required

B. I and II only
D. I and III only

What is the principal sum?

The sum amounts to Rs. 690 in 3 years at S.I.

The sum amounts to Rs. 750 in 5 years at S.I.
The rate of interest is 5% p.a.
A. I and III only B. II and III only
only
E. Any two of the three

DS - Profit and Loss

C. I and II only

D. I and III only, or II and III

DS - Compound Interest
EXERCISES
1) What is the rate of compound interest?

The principal was invested for 4 years.

The earned interest was Rs. 1491.

2)

1)

EXERCISES
A man mixes two types of rice (X and Y)
and sells the mixture at the rate of Rs. 17
per kg. Find his profit percentage.

The rate of X is Rs. 20 per kg.

The rate of Y is Rs. 13 per kg.

a.
What will be compounded amount?

Rs. 200 was borrowed for 192 months at

6% compounded annually.
Rs. 200 was borrowed for 16 years at 6%.

58

2)

a.
By selling a product with 20% profit,
how much profit was earned?

The difference between cost and selling

price is Rs. 40.
The selling price is 120 percent of the
cost price.

3)

A shopkeeper sells some articles at the

profit of 25% on the original price. What
is the exact amount of profit? To find the
answer, which of the following
information given in Statements I and II
is/are necessary?

4)

A. Only I is necessary
B. Only II is necessary
C. Both I and II are necessary
D. Either I or II ins necessary
E. None of these

A. Only I is necessary
B. Only II is necessary
C. Both I and II are necessary
D. Either I or II ins necessary
E. None of these
By selling an article what is the profit
percent gained?

5% discount is given on list price.

If discount is not given, 20% profit is
gained.
The cost price of the articles is Rs. 5000.
A. Only I and II
C. Only I and III
E. None of these

7)

B. Only II and II
D. All I, II and III

1)

6)

3)

What is R's share of profit in a joint

venture?

4)

Labeled price of the articles sold was 130% of the cost price.
Cost price of each article was Rs. 550.
A discount of 10% on labeled price was offered.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and III
D. All the three are required
E. Question cannot be answer even with information in all the three statements.

b.
How much did Rohit get as profit at the
year-end in the business done by Nitin,
Rohit and Kunal?

Kunal invested Rs. 8000 for nine months,

his profit was times that of Rohit's and
his investment was four times that of
Nitin.
Nitin and Rohit invested for one year in
the proportion 1 : 2 respectively.
The three together got Rs. 1000 as profit
at the year end.
A. Only I and II
B. Only I and III
C. Question cannot be answered even
with the information in all the three
statements.
D. All I, II and III
E. None of these

D. Any two of the

5)

a.
Rahul, Anurag and Vivek started a
business together. In what proportion
would the annual profit be distributed
among them?

Rahul got one-fourth of the profit.

Rahul and Vivek contributed 75% of the
total investment.

A. All I, II and III

B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. Even with all I, II and III, the answer
cannot be arrived at
E. None of these

23.5% profit was earned by selling an

almirah for Rs. 12,350.
If there were no discount, the earned
profit would have been 30%.
The cost price of the almirah was Rs.
10,000. A. Only I and II
B. Only II

What is the percent profit earned by the shopkeeper on selling the articles in his shop?

Three friends, P, Q and R started a partnership business investing money in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 2
respectively for a period of 3 years. What is the amount received by P as his share profit?

Total amount invested in the business in Rs. 22,000.

Profit earned at the end of 3 years is of the total investment.
The average amount of profit earned per year is Rs. 2750.
A. I or II or III
C. Any two of the three
E. None of these

DS - Partnership
EXERCISES

2)

Q started business investing Rs. 80,000.

R joined him after 3 months.
P joined after 4 months with a capital of
Rs. 1,20,000 and got Rs. 6000 as his share
profit.

c.
What was the percentage of discount
given?

and III
C. Only I and III
three
E. None of these

Ravi, Gagan and Nitin are running a

business firm in partnership. What is
Gagan's share in the profit earned by
them?

Ravi, Gagan and Nitin invested the

amounts in the ratio of 2 : 4 : 7.
Nitin's share in the profit is Rs. 8750.

Number of toys sold.

Cost price of each toy.

Sale price of the article

Number of articles sold

5)

b.
A shopkeeper sells some toys at Rs. 250
each. What percent profit does he make?
To find the answer, which of the
following information given in
Statements I and II is/are necessary?

B. Either III only, or I and II together

D. All I, II and III are required.

DS - Problems on Ages
EXERCISES
1) hat is Sonia's present age?

Sonia's present age is five times Deepak's

present age.
Five years ago her age was twenty-five
times Deepak's age at that time.

2)

Average
a.
age of employees working in
a department is 30 years. In the next
year, ten workers will retire. What
will be the average age in the next
year?

Retirement age is 60 years.

59

DS - Average

There are 50 employees in the

department.

EXERCISES
1) The average age of P, Q, R and S is 30
years. How old is R?
3)

Divya is twice as old as Shruti. What is

the difference in their ages?

4)

B. Only II and III

C. Only I and III
the three
E. None of these
5)

What is Ravi's present age?

6)

The present age of Ravi is half of that of

his father.
After 5 years, the ratio of Ravi's age to
that of his father's age will be 6 : 11.
Ravi is 5 years younger than his brother.

7)

What will be the ratio between ages of

Sam and Albert after 5 years?

Sam's present age is more than Albert's

present age by 4 years.
Albert's present age is 20 years.
The ratio of Albert's present age to Sam's
present age is 5 : 6.
A. Any two of I, II and III
B. II only
C. III only
D. I or III only
E. II or III only

8)

3)

How many candidates were interviewed

everyday by the panel A out of the three
panels A, B and C?

The three panels on average interview

15 candidates every day.
Out of a total of 45 candidates
interviewed everyday by the three
panels, the number of candidates
interviewed by panel A is more by 2
than the candidates interviewed by
panel c and is more by 1 than the
candidates interviewed by panel B.

D. Any two of

What
c. is the present age of Tanya?

The ratio between the present ages of

Tanya and her brother Rahul is 3 : 4
respectively. After 5 years the ratio
between the ages of Tanya and Rahul
will be 4 : 5.
Rahul is 5 years older than Tanya.

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. All I, II and III
E. Cannot be determined.

The sum of ages of P and R is 60 years.

S is 10 years younger than R.

What
b. is Arun's present age?

Five years ago, Arun's age was double

that of his son's age at that time.
Present ages of Arun and his son are in
the ratio of 11 : 6 respectively.
Five years hence, the respective ratio
of Arun's age and his son's age will
become 12 : 7. A.Only I and II

Five years hence, the ratio of their ages

would be 9 : 5.
Ten years back, the ratio of their ages
was 3 : 1.

2)

5)

What
e. is the average age of children in
the class?

The age of the teacher is as many

years as the number of children.
Average age is increased by 1 year if
the teacher's age is also included.
4)

How
f. many marks did Tarun secure in
English? The average mark obtained

by Tarun in four subjects including

English is 60.
The total marks obtained by him in
English and Mathematics together are
170.
The total marks obtained by him in
Mathematics and Science together are
180.
A.I and II only B.II and III only
C.I and III only
D. All I, II and III
E. None of these

In a cricket team, the average age of eleven players in 28 years. What is the age of the
captain?

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. All I, II and III
E. Any two of the three

The captain is eleven years older than the youngest player.

The average age of 10 players, other than the captain is 27.3 years.
Leaving aside the captain and the youngest player, the average ages of three groups of
three players each are 25 years, 28 years and 30 years respectively.

What
d. is the difference between the
present ages of Ayush and Deepak?

A.Any two of the three B.All I, II and III C.II only or I and III only D.II and III only
E.None of these

The ratio between Ayush's present age

and his age after 8 years 4 : 5.
The ratio between the present ages of
Ayush and Deepak is 4 : 3.
The ratio between Deepak's present
age and his age four years ago is 6 : 5.

DS - Area
EXERCISES

A. Any two of I, II and III

B. I or III only
C. Any one of the three
D. All I, II and III are required
E. The answer cannot be obtained.

60

1)

The area of playground is 1600 m2. What

is the perimeter?

2)

It is a perfect square playground.

It costs Rs. 3200 to put a fence around the
playground at the rate of Rs. 20 per metre.

What is the height of the triangle?

A.I alone sufficient while II alone not

sufficient to answer
B.II alone sufficient while I alone not
sufficient to answer
C.Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D.Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E.Both I and II are necessary to answer
4)

The area of the triangle is 20 times its base.

The perimeter of the triangle is equal to
the perimeter of a square of side 10 cm.

5)

What is the area of the hall?

A.I alone sufficient while II alone not

sufficient to answer
B.II alone sufficient while I alone not
sufficient to answer
C.Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D.Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E.Both I and II are necessary to answer
6)

Material cost of flooring per square metre

is Rs. 2.50
Labour cost of flooring the hall is Rs. 3500
Total cost of flooring the hall is Rs. 14,500.

7)

What is the area of rectangular field?

The perimeter of the field is 110 metres.

The length is 5 metres more than the
width.

A.I and II only

B.II and III only
C.I and III only
D.III, and either I or II only
E.None of these
8)

What is the cost painting the two adjacent walls of a hall at Rs. 5 per m2 which has no windows or
doors?

The area of the hall is 24 sq. m.

The breadth, length and height of the hall are in the ratio of 4 : 6 : 5 respectively.
Area of one wall is 30 sq. m.
A.I only B.II only C.III only D.Either I or III E.All I, II and III are required.

DS - Volume and Surface Area

EXERCISES
1) What is the volume of 32 metre high
cylindrical tank?

2)

3)

What is the capacity of a cylindrical tank?

4)

Radius of the base is half of its height

which is 28 metres.
Area of the base is 616 sq. metres and its
height is 28 metres.
5)

What is the volume of a cube?

The area of each face of the cube is 64

square metres.
The length of one side of the cube is 8
metres.

Isa.a given rectangular block, a cube?

At least 2 faces of the rectangular block

are squares.
The volume of the block is 64.

The area of its base is 154 m2.

The diameter of the base is 14 m.

What
i. is the area of a right-angled triangle?

The perimeter of the triangle is 30 cm.

The ratio between the base and the height
of the triangle is 5 : 12.
The area of the triangle is equal to the area
of a rectangle of length 10 cm.

A.I and II only

B.II and III only
C.All I, II and III
D.Any two of the three
E.None of these

9)

What
h. will be the cost of painting the inner
walls of a room if the rate of painting is Rs.
20 per square foot?

Circumference of the floor is 44 feet.

The height of the wall of the room is 12
feet.

A.I alone sufficient while II alone not

sufficient to answer
B.II alone sufficient while I alone not
sufficient to answer
C.Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D.Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E.Both I and II are necessary to answer

A.I only
B.II only
C.I and II only
D.II and III only
E.II and either I or III

A.I and II only

B.Any two of the three
C.All I, II and III
D.I, and either II or III only
E.None of these

The base of the triangle is 40 cm.

The height of the triangle is 50 cm.

A.I alone sufficient while II alone not

sufficient to answer
B.II alone sufficient while I alone not
sufficient to answer
C.Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D.Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E.Both I and II are necessary to answer
3)

The ratio between length and width is 6 : 5

respectively.

The
g. area of a rectangle is equal to the area
of right-angles triangle. What is the length
of the rectangle?

What
b. is the height of a circular cone?

The area of that cone is equal to the area

of a rectangle whose length is 33 cm.
The area of the base of that cone is 154 sq.
cm.
6)

What
c. is the capacity of the cylindrical
tank?

The area of the base is 61,600 sq. cm.

The height of the tank is 1.5 times the
radius.
The circumference of base is 880 cm.
A. Only I and II
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and III D. Any two of the
three
E. Only II and either I or III

What
j. is the area of the given rectangle?

Perimeter of the rectangle is 60 cm.

Breadth of the rectangle is 12 cm.
Sum of two adjacent sides is 30 cm.

DS - Problems on Numbers
61

EXERCISES
1) What is the number?

2)

The sum of the two digits is 8. The ratio

of the two digits is 1 : 3.
The product of the two digit of a number
is 12. The quotient of two digits is 3.
3)

What is the two-digit number whose

first digit is a and the second digit is b?.

The difference between the two digits is

9.
The sum of the digits is equal to the
difference between the two digits.
4)

3)

5)

Statement: The State government has

decided to appoint four thousand
primary school teachers during the next
financial year.
Assumptions:

There are enough schools in the state to

accommodate four thousand additional
primary school teachers.
The eligible candidates may not be
interested to apply as the government

2)

Statement: "The bridge was built at the

cost of Rs. 128 crores and even civil bus
service is not utilizing it, what a pity to
see it grossly underutilized." - A citizen's
view on a new flyover linking east and
west sides of a suburb.
Assumptions:

6)

Statement: The concession in rail fares

a.
for the journey to hill stations has been
cancelled because it is not needed for
people who can spend their holidays
there.
Assumptions:

7)

Statement: Try to steal this camera from

our store - a display on a departmental
store.
Assumptions:

People want to own a camera.

The store has a video monitoring system
to detect stealing.

Statement: A warning in a train

a.
compartment - "To stop train, pull
chain. Penalty for improper use Rs.
500."
Assumptions:

Some people misuse the alarm chain.

On certain occasions, people may want
to stop a running train.

62

Statement: The Government has

a.
decided to levy 2 percent on the tax
amount payable for funding drought
relief programmes.
Assumptions:

The Government does not have

sufficient money to fund drought relief
programmes. The amount collected by
way of surcharge may be adequate to
fund these drought relief programmes.

The building of such bridges does not

serve any public objective.
There has to be some accountability and
utility of money spent on public projects.

Statement and Assumption

1)

4)

Railways should give concession only to

needy
persons.
Railways should not encourage people
to spend their holidays at hill stations.

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. All I, II and III
D. I, and either
II or III
E. Answer cannot be given.

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

Statement: If it is easy to become an

engineer, I don't want to be an engineer.
Assumptions:

An individual aspires to be professional.

One desires to achieve a thing which is
hard earned.

b.
What is the two-digit number?

The difference between the tow-digit

number and the number formed by
interchanging the digits is 27.
The difference between the two digits is
3.
The digit at unit's place is less than that
at ten's place by 3.

The number is greater than 9.

The number is multiple of 51.
The sum of the digits a and b is 6.

may not finally appoint such a large

number of primary school teachers.

a.
What is the two-digit number?

8)

Statement: Detergents should be used to

a.
clean clothes.
Assumptions:

Detergents form more lather.

Detergents help to dislodge grease and
dirt.

9)

Statement: It will be a substantial

achievement in the field of education if
one provides one school for every village
in our country and enforce attendance.
Assumptions:

Children in villages do not attend school

regularly.
Providing school to every village is
desirable.

11) Statement: Never before such a lucid

book was available on the topic.
Assumptions:

Some other books were available on this

topic.
You can write lucid books on very few
topics.

13) Statement: "I have not received

telephone bills for nine months inspite of
several complaints" - A telephone
customer's letter to the editor of a daily
Assumptions:

Every customer has a right to get bills

regularly from the telephone company.
The customer's complaints point to
defect in the services which are expected
to
be
corrected.
15) Statement: Government has permitted
unaided colleges to increase their fees.
Assumptions:

Unaided colleges are in financial

difficulties. Aided colleges do not need to
increase fees.
17) Statement: The government has decided
to pay compensation to the tune of Rs. 1
lakh to the family members of those who
are killed in railway accidents.

10) a.
Statement: The government has decided
to disinvest large chunk of its equity in
select public sector undertakings for a
better fiscal management.
Assumptions:

The amount generated out of the

disinvestment process may reduce
substantially the mounting fiscal
deficits. There will be enough demand
in the market for the shares of these
undertakings.

Assumptions:

The government has enough funds to

meet the expenses due to compensation.
There may be reduction in incidents of
railway accidents in near future.
19) Statement: Of all the newspapers
published in Mumbai, readership of the
"Times" is the largest in the Metropolis.
Assumptions:

'Times' is not popular in Mumbai areas.

'Times' has the popular feature of
cartoons on burning social and political
issues.

12) a.
Statement: Please do not use lift while
going down - an instruction on the top
floor of a five-storey building.
Assumptions:

While going down, the lift is unable to

carry any load.
Provision of lift is a matter of facility
and not of right.

18) a.
Statement:
Films
have
become
indispensable for the entertainment of
people.
Assumptions:

of

20) a.
Statement:
Apart
from
the
entertainment value of television, its
educational value cannot be ignored.
Assumptions:

People take television to be a means of

entertainment only.
The educational value of television is
not realized properly.

Each question presents a situation and asks you to make a judgment regarding that particular
circumstance. Choose an answer based on given information.
1)

Mark is working with a realtor to find a location for the toy store he plans to open in his
town. He is looking for a place that is either in, or not too far from, the center of town and
one that would attract the right kind of foot traffic. Which of the following locations should
Mark's realtor call to his attention?

A. a storefront in a new high-rise building near the train station in the center of town whose
occupants are mainly young, childless professionals who use the train to commute to their
offices each day.
B. a little shop three blocks away from the town's main street, located across the street from
an elementary school and next door to an ice cream store
C. a stand-alone storefront on a quiet residential street ten blocks away from the town's
center.
D. a storefront in a small strip mall located on the outskirts of town that is also occupied by a
pharmacy and a dry cleaner

People differ in their preferences.

Some people will get attracted to the
drink as it can be had as it is.

Many people are humble after being

victorious.
Generally people are not humble

media

Making Assumptions

14) a.
Statement: "This drink can be had
either as it is, or after adding ice to it." An advertisement.
Assumptions:

16) a.
Statement: Be humble even after being
victorious.
Assumptions:

Films are the only

entertainment.
People enjoy films.

2)

The neighborhood block association has received many complaints about people knocking
on doors and soliciting money for an unknown charity organization even though door-todoor solicitation is prohibited by local laws. Three residents have provided descriptions of
individuals who have come to their door asking for money.

Solicitor #1 is a white male, 20-25 years old, 5'9", 145 pounds, with very short brown hair.
He was wearing a dark blue suit and carrying a brown leather briefcase.
Solicitor #2 is a white male, 25-30 years old, 6'2", 200 pounds, with a shaved-head. He was
wearing a red T-shirt and jeans.
Solicitor #3 is a white male, approximately 23 years old, 5'10", slight build, with short brown
hair. He was wearing a blue suit. Three days after the block association meet- ing, a resident

63

noticed a man knocking on doors in the neighborhood and phoned the police to report the
illegal activity. This solic- itor was described as follows:
Solicitor #4 is a white male, 22 years old, 140 pounds, about 5'10", with short brown hair. He
was carrying a briefcase and wearing a dark suit.
Based on this description, which of the three solicitations was also likely carried out by
Solicitor #4?
A. #1, #2, and #3
B. #1, but not #2 and #3
C. #1 and #3, but not #2
D. #1 and #2, but not #3
3)

Rita, an accomplished pastry chef who is well known for her artistic and exquisite wedding
cakes, opened a bakery one year ago and is surprised that business has been so slow. A
consultant she hired to conduct market research has reported that the local population
doesn't think of her shop as one they would visit on a daily basis but rather a place they'd
visit if they were celebrating a special occasion. Which of the following strategies should
Rita employ to increase her daily business?

A. making coupons available that entitle the coupon holder to receive a 25% discount on
wedding, anniversary, or birthday cakes
B. exhibiting at the next Bridal Expo and having pieces of one of her wedding cakes available
for tasting
C. placing a series of ads in the local newspaper that advertise the wide array of breads
D. moving the bakery to the other side of town
4)

Dr. Miller has a busy pediatric dentistry practice and she needs a skilled, reliable hygienist to
keep things running smoothly. The last two people she hired were recommended by top
dentists in the area, but they each lasted less than one month. She is now in desperate need
of a hygienist who can competently handle the specific challenges of her practice. Which
one of the following candidates should Dr. Miller consider most seriously?

A. Marilyn has been a hygienist for fifteen years, and her current employer, who is about to
retire, says she is the best in the business. The clientele she has worked with consists of some
of the wealthiest and most powerful citizens in the county.
B. Lindy recently graduated at the top of her class from one of the best dental hygiene
programs in the state. Prior to becoming a dental hygienist, Lindy spent two years working
in a day care center.
C. James has worked as a dental hygienist for three years in a public health clinic. He is very
interested in securing a position in a private dental office.
D. Kathy is an experienced and highly recommended dental hygienist who is also finishing
up a degree in early childhood education, which she hopes will get her a job as a preschool
teacher. She is eager to find a job in a pediatric practice, since she has always wanted to
work with children.

5)

Mrs. Jansen recently moved to Arizona. She wants to fill her new backyard with flowering
plants. Although she is an experienced gardener, she isn't very well-versed in what plants
will do well in the Arizona climate. Also, there is a big tree in her backyard making for
shady conditions and she isn't sure what plants will thrive without much direct sunlight.
Her favorite gardening catalog offers several backyard seed packages. Which one should
Mrs. Jansen choose?

A. The Rainbow Collection is ideal for North-east gardens. It includes a variety of colorful
perennials that thrive in cool, moist conditions.
B. The Greenhouse Collection will blossom year after year if planted in brightly lit locations
and watered regularly.
C. The Treehouse Collection will provide lush green plants with delicate colorful flowers
that thrive in shady and partially shady locations.
D. The Oasis Collection includes a variety of perennials that thrive in dry climates and
bright sunlight.

Course of Action
In each question below are given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and
II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information
given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for
pursuing.
Give answer
(A) If only I follows
(B) If only II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows
(E) If both I and II follow.
1) Statement: Most of those who study in
2) Statement:
tt.
There is an unprecedented
premier engineering colleges in India
increase in migration of villagers to
migrate to developed nations for better
urban areas as repeated crop failure has
prospects in their professional pursuits.
put them into precarious financial
Courses of Action:
situation.
All the students joining these colleges
Courses of Action

should be asked to sign a bond at the

time of admission to the effect that they
will remain in India at least for ten years
after they complete education.
All those students who desire to settle in
the developed nations should be asked to
pay entire cost of their education which
the government subsidizes.

64

The villagers should be provided with

alternate source of income in their
villages which will make them stay put.
The migrated villagers should be
provided with jobs in the urban areas to
help them survive.

3)

Statement: As stated in the recent census

report the female to male ratio is
alarmingly low.
Courses of Action:

4)

The government should conduct another

census to verify the results.
The government should immediately
issue orders to all the departments to
encourage people to improve the ratio.

5)

Statement: Four districts in State A have

been experiencing severe drought for the
last three years resulting into exodus of
people from these districts.
Courses of Action:

The government should make

arrangements to increase number of seats
of intermediate courses in existing
colleges.
The government should take active steps
to open new colleges to accommodate all
these successful candidates.
6)

The government should immediately

start food for work programme in the
district to put a halt to the exodus.
The government should make since
efforts to provide drinking/potable water
to these districts

7)

Statement: The sale of a particular

product has gone down considerably
causing great concern to the company.
Courses of Action:

The company should make a proper

study of rival products in the market.
The price of the product should be
reduced and quality improved.

9)

Statement: Doordarshan is concerned

about the quality of its programmes
particularly in view of stiff competition it
is facing from STAR and other satellite

Statement:
uu.
There has been an
unprecedented increase in the number of
successful candidates in this year's School
Leaving Certificate Examination.
Courses of Action:

Statement:
vv.
If the retired Professors of the
same Institutes are also invited to
deliberate on restructuring of the
organization, their contribution may be
beneficial to the Institute.
Courses of Action:

Management may seek opinion of the

employees before calling retired
professors.
Management should involve experienced
people for the systematic restructuring of
the organization.
8)

TV channels and is contemplating

various measures to attract talent for its
programmes.
Courses of Action:

In an effort to attract talent, the

Doordarshan has decided to revise its fee
structure for the artists.
The fee structure should not be revised
until other electronic media also revise it.

11) Statement: A recent study shows that

children below five die in the cities of
the developing countries mainly from
diarrhea and parasitic intestinal worms.
Courses of Action:

Governments of the developing countries

should take adequate measures to
improve the hygienic conditions in the
cities.
Children below five years in the cities of
the developing countries need to be kept
under periodic medical check-up.

Statement:
ww.
The Asian Development Bank
has approved a $285 million loan to
finance a project to construct coal ports
by Paradip and Madras Port Trusts.
Courses of Action:

13) Statement: The car dealer found that

there was a tremendous response for the
new XYZ's car-booking with long queues
of people complaining about the duration
of business hours and arrangements.
Courses of Action:

India should use financial assistance from

other international financial
organizations to develop such ports in
other places.
India should not seek such financial
assistance from the international
financial agencies.

People should make their arrangement of

lunch and snacks while going for car
XYZ's booking and be ready to spend
several hours.
Arrangement should be made for more
booking desks and increased business
hours to serve more people in less time.

10) Statement:
xx.
The Minister said that the
teachers are still not familiarized with
the need, importance and meaning of
population education in the higher

65

education system. They are not even

clearly aware about their role and
responsibilities in the population
education programme.
Courses of Action:

Population education programme should

be included in the college curriculum.
Orientation programme should be
conducted for teachers on population
education
12) Statement:
yy.
The kharif crops have been
affected by the insects for consecutive
three years in the district and the farmers
harvested less than fifty percent of
produce during these years.
Courses of Action:

The farmers should seek measures to

control the attack of insects to protect
their crops next year.
The Government should increase the
support price of kharif crops considerably
to protect the economic interests of
farmers.
14) Statement:
zz.
The State Government has
decided to declare 'Kala Azar' as a
notifiable disease under the Epidemics
Act. Family members or neighbours of
the patient are liable to be punished in
case they did not inform the State
authorities.
Courses of Action:

Efforts should be made to effectively

implement the Act.
The cases of punishment should be
propagated through mass media so that
more people become aware of the stern
actions.

15) Statement: The Chairman stressed the

need for making education system more
flexible and regretted that the
curriculum has not been revised in
keeping with the pace of the changes
taking place.
Courses of Action:

Curriculum should be reviewed and

revised periodically.
System of education should be made
more flexible.
17) Statement: The Indian electronic
component industry venturing into the
West European markets faces tough
competition from the Japanese.
Courses of Action:

India should search for other

international markets for its products.
India should improve the quality of the
electronic components to compete with
the Japanese in capturing these markets.

19) Statement: The Government has decided

not to provide financial support to
voluntary organizations from next Five
Year Plan and has communicated that all
such organizations should raise funds to
meet their financial needs.
Courses of Action:

Voluntary organizations should

collaborate with foreign agencies.
They should explore other sources of
financial support.

16) Statement:
a.
The Central Bureau of
Investigation receives the complaint of
an officer taking bribe to do the duty he
is supposed to.
Courses of Action:

CBI should try to catch the officer redhanded and then take a strict action
against him.
CBI should wait for some more
complaints about the officer to be sure
about the matter.
18) Statement:
a.
Orissa and Andhra Pradesh
have agreed in principle to set up a joint
control board for better control,
management and productivity of several
inter-state multipurpose projects.
Courses of Action:

Other neighbouring states should set up

such control boards.
The proposed control board should not
be allowed to function as such joint
boards are always ineffective.
20) Statement:
b. The availability of imported
fruits has increased in the indigenous
market and so the demand for indigenous
fruits has been decreased.
Courses of Action:

To help the indigenous producers of

fruits, the Government should impose
high import duty on these fruits, even if
these are not of good quality.
The fruit vendors should stop selling
imported fruits. So that the demand for
indigenous fruits would be increased.

without having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your
answer as
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes; and
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
1)

Statements:
There is unprecedented increase in
the number of young unemployed
in comparison to the previous year.
II.
A large number of candidates
submitted applications against an
advertisement for the post of
manager issued by a bank.

2)

Statements:
There is considerable reduction in
the number of people affected by
water-borne diseases in City A
during this rainy season.
II.
The government has opened four
new civil hospitals in City A in the
beginning of the year.

4)

Statements:
Majority of the students in the
college expressed their opinion
against the college authority's
decision to break away from the
university
and
become
autonomous.
II.
The university authorities have
expressed their inability to provide
grants to its constituent colleges.

6)

I.

3)

I.

5)

I.

Cause and Effect

In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be
cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the
effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes

66

Statements:
c.
The police authority has recently
caught a group of house breakers.
II.
The citizens groups in the locality
have started night vigil in the area.
I.

Statements:
d.
The prices of vegetables have been
increased considerably during this
summer.
II.
There is tremendous increase in the
temperature during this summer
thereby damaging crops greatly.
I.

Statements:
e.
The literacy rate in the district has
been increasing for the last four
years.
II.
The district administration has
conducted
extensive
training
programme for the workers involved
in the literacy drive.
I.

7)

Statements:
The school authority has asked the
X Std. students to attend special
classes to be conducted on Sundays.
II.
The parents of the X Std. students
have withdrawn their wards from
attending
private
tuitions
conducted on Sundays.

8)

Statements:
There is sharp decline in the
production of oil seeds this year.
II.
The Government has decided to
increase the import quantum of
edible oil.

10) Statements:
g.
I.
The private medical colleges have
increased the tuition fees in the
current year by 200 per cent over the
last year's fees to meet the expenses.
II.
The Government medical colleges
have not increased their fees in spite
of price escalation.

11) Statements:
I.
Large number of people living in
the low-lying areas has been
evacuated during the last few days
to safer places.
II.
The Government has rushed in
relief supplies to the people living
in the affected areas.

12) Statements:
h.
I.
It is the aim of the city's civic
authority to get the air pollution
reduced by 20% in the next two
months.
II.
The number of asthma cases in the
city is constantly increasing.

13) Statements:
I.
The local co-operative credit
society has decided to stop giving
loans to farmers with immediate
effect.
II.
A large number of credit society
members have withdrawn major
part of their deposits from the
credit society.

14) Statements:
i.
I.
The employees of the biggest bank in
the country have given an indefinite
strike call starting from third of the
next month.
II.
The employees of the Central
Government have withdrawn their
week long demonstrations.

15) Statements:
I.
Police resorted to lathi-charge to
disperse the unlawful gathering of
large number of people.
II.
The citizens' forum called a general
strike in protest against the police

16) Statements:
j.
I.
Majority of the citizens in the
locality belongs to higher income
group.
II.
The sales in the local super market
are comparatively much higher than

I.

9)

I.

Statements:
f.
The Government has imported large
quantities of sugar as per trade
agreement with other countries.
II.
The prices of sugar in the domestic
market have fallen sharply in the
recent months.

atrocities.

in other localities.

I.

17) Statements:
I.
The life today is too fast,
demanding and full of variety in all
aspects which at times leads to
stressful situations.
II.
Number of suicide cases among
teenagers is on increase.

18) Statements:
k.
I.
The government has decided to make
all the information related to primary
education available to the general
public.
II.
In the past, the general public did not
have access to all these information
related to primary education.

19) Statements:
I.
The farmers have decided against
selling their kharif crops to the
Government agencies.
II.
The Government has reduced the
procurement price of kharif crops
starting from last month to the
next six months.

20) Statements:
l.
I.
The performance of most of the
students in final exam of class X in
the schools run by the Government
was excellent.
II.
Many teachers of the Government
schools left the school and joined
private schools.

Statement and Conclusion

In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions
together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the
information given in the statement.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.

67

1)

Statements: In Japan, the incidence of

stomach cancer is very high, while that
of bowel cancer is very low. But
Japanese immigrate to Hawaii, this is
reversed - the rate of bowel cancer
increases but the rate of stomach cancer
is reduced in the next generation. All
this is related to nutrition - the diets of
Japanese in Hawaii are different than
those in Japan.
Conclusions:

2)

Statements: Monitoring has become an

integral part in the planning of social
development programmes. It is
recommended that Management
Information System be developed for all
programmes. This is likely to give a
feedback on the performance of the
functionaries and the efficacy with
which services are being delivered.
Conclusions:

Statements: The distance of 900 km by

road between Bombay and Jafra will be
reduced to 280 km by sea. This will lead
to a saving of Rs. 7.92 crores per annum
on fuel.
Conclusions:

4)

Statements:
a.
The T.V. programmes,
telecast specially for women are packed
with a variety of recipes and household
hints. A major portion of magazines for
women also contains the items mentioned
above.
Conclusions:

Women are not interested in other things.

An average woman's primary interest lies
in home and especially in the kitchen.

6)

Statements:
a.
The manager humiliated
Sachin in the presence of his colleagues.
Conclusions:

The manager did not like Sachin.

Sachin was not popular with his
colleagues.

Transportation by sea is cheaper than

that by road.
Fuel must be saved to the greatest
extent
7)

Statements: Women's organizations in

Sexual harassment of women at work

place is more prevalent in India as
compared to other developed countries.
Many organizations in India will stop
recruiting women to avoid such
problems.
9)

All the social development programmes

should be evaluated.
There is a need to monitor the
performance of workers.
5)

India have welcomed the amendment of

the Industrial Employment Rules 1946
to curb sexual harassment at the work
place.
Conclusions:

The employees of this company do not

seem to have any additional undisclosed
income
besides
their
salary.
The employees union wants all senior
officers to declare their income first.

The same diet as in Hawaii should be

propagated in Japan also.
Bowel cancer is less severe than
stomach cancer.
3)

Statements:
a.
The
Government
run
company had asked its employees to
declare their income and assets but it has
been strongly resisted by employees union
and no employee is going to declare his
income.
Conclusions:

8)

Statements: In a highly centralized

power structure, in which even senior
cabinet ministers are prepared to reduce
themselves to pathetic countries or yesmen airing views that are primarily
intended to anticipate or reflect the
Prime Minister's own performances,
there can be no place for any consensus
that is quite different from real or
contrived unanimity of opinion,
expressed through a well orchestrated
endorsement of the leader's actions.
Conclusions:

international opposition for its decision to

explode eight nuclear weapons at its test
site.
Conclusions:

The citizens of the nation favoured the

decision. Some powerful countries do not
want other nations to become as powerful
as they are.

10) Statements:
a.
National Aluminium
Company has moved India from a position
of shortage to self-sufficiency in the
metal.
Conclusions:

Previously, India had to import

aluminium.
With this speed, it can soon become a
foreign exchange earner.

The Ministers play safe by not giving

anti-government views.
The Prime Minister does not encourage
his colleagues to render their own
views.
11) Statements: Reading makes a full man,
conference a ready man and writing an
exact man.
Conclusions:

Pointed and precise expression comes

only through extensive writing.
Extensive reading makes a complete
man.

Statements:
a.
Nation X faced growing

68

12) Statements:
a.
Jade plant has thick leaves
and it requires little water.
Conclusions:

All plants with thick leaves require little

water.
Jade plants may be grown in places where
water is not in abundance.

13) Statements: Use "Kraft" colors. They add

color to our life. - An advertisement.
Conclusions:

Catchy slogans do not attract people.

People like dark colors.

14) Statements:
a.
All those political prisoners
were released on bail who had gone to jail
for reasons other than political dharnas.
Bail was not granted to persons involved
in murders.
Conclusions:

No political - prisoner had committed

murder.
Some politicians were not arrested.
15) Statements: Modern man influences his
destiny by the choice he makes unlike
in the past.
Conclusions:

Earlier there were fewer options

available to man.
There was no desire in the past to
influence the destiny.

17) Statements: People who speak too much

against dowry are those who had taken
it themselves.
Conclusions:

It is easier said than done.

People have double standards.

16) Statements:
a.
Water supply in wards A and
B of the city will be affected by about 50%
on Friday because repairing work of the
main lines is to be carried out.
Conclusions:

The residents in these wards should

economize on water on Friday.
The residents in these wards should store
some water on the previous day.

Statement and Argument

Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and
IL You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak'
argument.
Give answer:
(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If either I or II is strong
(D) If neither I nor II is strong and
(E) If both I and II are strong.
1)

Statement: Should cottage industries be

encouraged
in
rural
areas?
Arguments:
Yes. Rural people are creative.
Yes. This would help to solve the
problem of unemployment to some
extent

2)

Statement:
m. Should young entrepreneurs
be encouraged?
Arguments:
Yes. They will help in industrial
development of the country.
Yes. They will reduce the burden on
employment market.

3)

Statement: Should all the annual

examinations up to Std. V be abolished?
Arguments:

4)

Statement:
n. Should Indian scientists
working abroad be called back to India?
Arguments:

18) Statements:
a.
The national norm is 100 beds
per thousand populations but in this state,
150 beds per thousand are available in the
hospitals.
Conclusions:

Yes. The young students should not be

burdened with such examinations
which hampers their natural growth.
No. The students will not study
seriously as they will get automatic
promotion to the next class and this will
affect them in future.

Our national norm is appropriate.

The state's health system is taking
adequate care in this regard.
5)

19) Statements: Our securities investments

carry market risk. Consult your
investment advisor or agent before
investing.
Conclusions:

One should not invest in securities.

The investment advisor calculates the
market risk with certainty.

20) Statements:
a.
Money plays a vital role in
politics.
Conclusions:

The poor can never become politicians.

All the rich men take part in politics.

Statement: Should we scrap the system

of formal education beyond graduation?
Arguments:

Yes. It will mean taking employment at

an early date.
No. It will mean lack of depth of
knowledge.

69

Yes. They must serve the motherland first

and forget about discoveries, honours,
facilities and all.
No. We have enough talent; let them stay
where they want.

6)

Statement:
a.
Should there be an upper age
limit of 65 years for contesting
Parliamentary/ Legislative Assembly
elections?
Arguments:

Yes. Generally, people above the age of 65

lose their dynamism and will power.
No. The life span is so increased that
people remain physically and mentally
active even up to the age of 80.

7)

Statement: Should new big industries be

started in Mumbai?
Arguments:

Yes. It will create job opportunities.

No. It will further add to the pollution
of the city.
9)

Statement: Does India need so many

plans for development?
Arguments:

Yes. Nothing can be achieved without

proper planning.
No. Too much time, money and energy
is wasted on planning.

11) Statement: Should colleges be given the

status of a university in India?
Arguments:

Yes. Colleges are in a better position to

assess the student's performance and
therefore the degrees will be more
valid.
No. It is Utopian to think that there will
not be nepotism and corruption in
awarding degrees by colleges.
13) Statement: Can pollution be controlled?
Arguments:

Yes. If everyone realizes the hazards it

may create and cooperates to get rid of
it, pollution may be controlled.
No. The crowded highways, factories
and industries and an ever-growing
population eager to acquire more and
more land for constructing houses are
beyond control.

8)

Statement:
b.
Should high chimneys be
installed
in
industries?
Arguments:

Yes. It reduces pollution at ground level.

No. It increases pollution in upper
atmosphere.
10) Statement:
c.
Should articles of only
deserving authors be allowed to be
published?
Arguments:

Yes. It will save a lot of paper which is in

short supply.
No. It is not possible to draw a line
between the deserving and the
undeserving.
12) Statement:
d.
Should the prestigious people
who have committed crime unknowingly,
be met with special treatment?
Arguments:

Yes. The prestigious people do not commit

crime intentionally.
No. It is our policy that everybody is equal
before the law.

15) Statement: Should internal assessment

in colleges be abolished?
Arguments:

Yes. This will help in reducing the

possibility of favouritism.
No, teaching faculty will lose control
over students.
17) Statement: Should there be a maximum
limit for the number of ministers in the
Central Government?
Arguments:

No. The political party in power should

have the freedom to decide the number
of ministers to be appointed.
Yes. The number of ministers should be
restricted to a certain percentage of the
total number of seats in the parliament
to avoid unnecessary expenditure.
19) Statement: Is buying things on
installments profitable to the customer?
Arguments:

Yes. He has to pay less.

No, paying installments upsets the
family budget.

14) Statement:
e.
Should the railways in India be
privatized in a phased manner like other
public sector enterprises?
Arguments:

Yes. This is the only way to bring in

competitiveness and provide better
services to the public.
No. This will pose a threat to the national
security of our country as multinationals
will enter into the fray.

16) Statement:
f.
Should all the unauthorized
structures in the city be demolished?
Arguments:

No. Where will the people residing in

such houses live?
Yes. This will give a clear message to
general public and they will refrain from
constructing unauthorized buildings.
18) Statement:
g.
Should foreign films be banned
in India?
Arguments:

Yes. They depict an alien culture which

adversely affects our values.
No. Foreign films are of a high artistic
standard.

20) Statement:
h.
Should Doordarshan be given
autonomous status?
Arguments:

Yes. It will help Doordarshan to have fair

and impartial coverage of all important
events.
No. The coverage of events will be
decided by a few who may not have
healthy outlook.

Creativity Aptitude
Venn Diagrams
INTRODUCTION
The main aim of this section is to test your ability about the relation between some items of a
group by diagrams. In these questions some figures of circles and some words are given. You have
to choose a figure which represents the given words.
Some critical examples are given below:
Example 1:
If all the words are of different groups, then they will be shown by the diagram as given below.
Dog, Cow, Horse

70

All these three are animals but of different groups, there is no relation between them. Hence
they will be represented by three different circles.
Example 2:
If the first word is related to second word and second word is related to third word. Then they
will be shown by diagram as given below.
Unit, Tens, Hundreds

Some sisters may be mothers and vice-versa. Similarly some mothers may not be sisters and viceversa. But all the sisters and all the mothers belong to women group.
Example 5:
Two items are related to a third item to some extent but not completely and first two items
totally different.
Students, Boys, Girls

The boys and girls are different items while some boys may be students. Similarly among girls
some may be students.
Example 6:
All the three items are related to one another but to some extent not completely.
Boys, Students, Athletes

Ten units together make one Tens or in one tens, whole unit is available and ten tens together
make one hundreds.
Example 3:
If two different items are completely related to third item, they will be shown as below.
Pen, Pencil, Stationery

Example 4:
If there is some relation between two items and these two items are completely related to a third
item they will be shown as given below.
Women, Sisters, Mothers

Some boys may be students and vice-versa. Similarly some boys may be athletes and vice-versa.
Some students may be athletes and vice-versa.
Example 7:
Two items are related to each other completely and third item is entirely different from first two.
Lions, Carnivorous, Cows

All the lions are carnivorous but no cow is lion or carnivorous.

Example 8:
First item is completely related to second and third item is partially related to first and second
item.
Dogs, Animals, Flesh-eaters

71

All the dogs are belonging to animals but some dogs are flesh eater but not all.
Example 9:
First item is partially related to second but third is entirely different from the first two.
Dogs, Flesh-eaters, Cows

Some dogs are flesh-eaters but not all while any dog or any flesh-eater cannot be cow

C
7)

D
In an organization of pollution control
board, engineers are represented by a
circle, legal experts by a square and
environmentalist by a triangle. Who is
most represented in the board as shown
in the following figure ?

C
8)

D
Inddd.
the following figure triangle represents
'girls', square players and circle-coach.
Which part of the diagram represents the
girls who are player but not coach?

EXERCISES
1)

Which of the following diagrams

indicates the best relation between
Author, Lawyer and Singer ?

2)

Which
aaa. of the following diagrams indicates
the best relation between Judge, Thieves
and Criminals ?
A. Environmentalists

A.

B.

A.

B.

B. Legal Experts
C. Engineers with legal background

C.

3)

Which of the following diagrams

indicates the best relation between Iron,
Lead and Nitrogen ?

C
5)

C.

D.

D. Environmentalists with Engineering background

Which
bbb. of the following diagrams indicates
the best relation between Pigeon, Bird
and Dog ?

Which of the following diagrams

indicates the best relation between Earth,
Sea and Sun ?

4)

D.

6)

Which
ccc. of the following diagrams indicates
the best relation between Hockey,
Football and Cricket ?

72

A
P
.

B
Q
.

C
R
.

D
S
.

9)

The diagram given below represents

those students who play Cricket, Football
and Kabaddi.

10) Study
eee. the diagram and identify the people
who can speak only one language.

How many persons can speak Marathi and Telugu both ?

A. 10
C. 13

B. 11
D. None of these

12) Study the diagram given below and answer each of the following questions.

A
L+M+O
.

B
K+J+I
.

C
K
.

D
I
.

Study the diagram and identify the students

who play all the three games.

How many persons who take tea and wine but not coffee ?
A. 20
C. 25

A
P+Q+R
.

B
V+T
.

C
S+T+V
.

D
S
.

B. 17
D. 15

How many persons are there who take both tea and coffee but not wine ?
A. 22
B. 17
C. 7

11) In the following figure small square represents the persons who know English, triangle to
those who know Marathi, big square to those who know Telugu and circle to those who
know Hindi. In the different regions of the figures from 1 to 12 are given

D. 20

13) In the following diagram rectangle represents men, Triangle represents educated, Circle
represents urban and square represents government employees.

Which one of the following represents the educated men but not urban ?
A. 9
B. 5
How many persons can speak English and Hindi both the languages only ?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 7

D. 18

C. 4

D. 11

Which one of the following represents a woman who is urban as well as government employee ?
A. 7
B. 13

73

C. 10

D. 6

14) Study the following figure and answer the questions given below.

The following questions and answers are based on the information give above:
How many doctors are neither artists nor players ?
A. 17

1. How many small cubes will be there?

B. 5

Total no. of cubes = (sides)3 = (4)3 = 64

2. How many small cubes will have three faces painted?

C. 10

D. 30

How many doctors are both players and artists ?

A. 22

From the figure it is clear that the small cube having three faces colored are situated at the
corners of the big cube because at these corners only three faces of the big cube meet.

B. 8

Therefore the required number of such cubes is always 8, because there are 8 corners.
3. How many small cubes will have only two faces painted?

C. 3

D. 30

Cube and Cuboids

INTRODUCTION
In a cube or a cuboid there are six faces in each.
In a cube length, breadth and height are same while in cuboid these are different.
In a cube the number of unit cubes = (side)3.
In cuboid the number of unit cube = (l x b x h).

From the figure it is clear that to each edge of the big cube 4 small cubes are connected and two
out of them are situated at the corners of the big cube which have all three faces painted.
Thus, to edge two small cubes are left which have two faces painted. As the total no. of edges in a
cube are 12.
Hence the no. of small cubes with two faces colored = 12 x 2 = 24
(or)
No. of small cubes with two faces colored = (x - 2) x No. of edges
where x = (side of big cube / side of small cube)

Example:
A cube of each side 4 cm, has been painted black, red and green on pars of opposite faces. It is
then cut into small cubes of each side 1 cm.

4. How many small cubes will have only one face painted?

74

The cubes which are painted on one face only are the cubes at the centre of each face of the big
cube.
Since there are 6 faces in the big cube and each of the face of big cube there will be four small
cubes.
Hence, in all there will be 6 x 4 = 24 such small cubes (or) (x - 2)2 x 6.

11. How many small cubes will be only green painted?

No. of small cubes having only green paint = 4 + 4 = 8.
12. How many small cubes will have at least one face painted?
5. How many small cubes will have no faces painted?

No. of small cubes having at least one face painted = No. of small cubes having 1 face painted + 2

No. of small cubes will have no faces painted = No. of such small cubes

faces painted + 3 faces painted

= (x - 2) [Here x = (4/1) = 4]

= 24 + 24 + 8

= (4 - 2)3

= 56.

= 8.

13. How many small cubes will have at least two faces painted?

6. How many small cubes will have only two faces painted in black and green and all other faces

No. of small cubes having at least two faces painted = No. of small cubes having two faces painted

unpainted ?

+ 3 faces painted

There are 4 small cubes in layer II and 4 small cubes in layer III which have two faces painted

= 24 + 8

green and black.

= 32.

Required no. of such small cubes = 4 + 4 = 8.

EXERCISES

7. How many small cubes will have only two faces painted green and red?

1)

The following questions are based on the information given below:

No. of small cubes having two faces painted green and red = 4 + 4 = 8.

1.

There is a cuboid whose dimensions are 4 x 3 x 3 cm.

8. How many small cubes will have only two faces painted black and red?

2.

The opposite faces of dimensions 4 x 3 are colored yellow.

No. of small cubes having two faces painted black and red = 4 + 4 = 8.

3.

The opposite faces of other dimensions 4 x 3 are colored red.

9. How many small cubes will have only black painted?

4.

The opposite faces of dimensions 3 x 3 are colored green.

No. of small cubes having only black paint. There will be 8 small cubes which have only black

5.

Now the cuboid is cut into small cubes of side 1 cm.

paint. Four cubes will be form one side and 4 from the opposite side.
10. How many small cubes will be only red painted?

How many small cubes will have only two faces colored?

No. of small cubes having only red paint = 4 + 4 = 8.

A. 12

B. 24

C. 16

D. 12

How many small cubes have three faces colored?

75

A. 24

B. 20

C. 16

D. 8

How many small cubes will have no face colored?

C. 16

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

Dice

How many small cubes will have only one face colored?

2)

D. 24

A. 10

B. 12

INTRODUCTION:

C. 14

D. 18

Dice is a cube. In cube there are 6 faces. Some important points are given below:

The following questions are based on the information given below:

1.

A cuboid shaped wooden block has 4 cm length, 3 cm breadth and 5 cm height.

2.

Two sides measuring 5 cm x 4 cm are colored in red.

3.

Two faces measuring 4 cm x 3 cm are colored in blue.

4.

Two faces measuring 5 cm x 3 cm are colored in green.

5.

Now the block is divided into small cubes of side 1 cm each.

1.

There are 6 faces in the cube - ABCG, GCDE, DEFH, BCDH, AGEF and ABHF.

2.

Always four faces are adjacent to one face.

3.

Opposite of ABCG is DEFH and so on.

4.

CDEG is the upper face of the cube.

5.

ABHF is the bottom of the cube.

How many small cubes will have will have three faces colored ?
A. 14

B. 8

C. 10

D. 12

How many small cubes will have only one face colored ?
A. 12

B. 28

C. 22

D. 16

How many small cubes will have no faces colored ?

A. None

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

How many small cubes will have two faces colored with red and green colors ?

3)

A. 12

B. 8

C. 16

D. 20

The following questions are based on the information given below:

1.

All the faces of cubes are painted with red color.

2.

The cubes are cut into 64 equal small cubes.

There are certain rules with the help of these rules question on dice can easily determined.
Rule No. 1:
Two opposite faces cannot be adjacent to one another.
Example:
Two different positions of a dice are shown below. Which number will appear on the face
opposite to the face with number 4?

How many small cubes have only one face colored ?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 16

D. 24

How many small cubes have no faces colored ?

A. 24

B. 8

Solution:

C. 16

D. 0

Faces with four numbers 6, 2, 5 and 3 are adjacent of to the face with No. 4.

How many small cubes are there whose three faces are colored ?

Hence the faces with no. 6, 2, 5 and 3 cannot be opposite to the face with no. 4.

A. 4

B. 8

Therefore the remaining face with no.1 will be the opposite of the face with no. 4.

C. 16

D. 24

Rule No. 2:

How many small cubes are there whose two adjacent faces are colored red ?
A. 0

B. 8

If two different positions of a dice are shown and one of the two common faces is in the same
position then of the remaining faces will be opposite to each other.

76

Example:

How many points will appear on the

opposite to the face containing 5 points?

Two different positions of a dice are shown below.

opposite to the face with number 4?

Here in both shown positions two faces 5 and 3 are common.

3) Two positions of a dice are shown below.

The remaining faces are 2 and 4.

Hence the number on the face opposite to the face with number 2 is 4.
Rule No. 3:

Which number will appear on the face

opposite to the face with the number 5?

a.
4) Which
number is on the face opposite to
6?

If in two different positions of dice, the position of a common face be the same, then each of the
opposite faces of the remaining faces will be in the same position.

Here in both positions of common (3) is same.

Therefore, opposite of 5 is 6 and opposite of 4 is 2.
Rule No. 4:

5) Two positions of a dice are shown below.

a.
6) Two
positions of a cube with its surfaces

When number '1' is on the top. What

number will be at the bottom?

numbered are shown below. When the

surface 4 touch the bottom, what surface
will be on the top?

7) Here two positions of dice are shown. If

8) a.
Two positions of dice are shown below.

there are two dots in the bottom, then

how many dots will be on the top?

How many points will be on the top

when 2 points are at the bottom?

If in two different positions of a dice, the position of the common face be not the same, then
opposite face of the common face will be that which is not shown on any face in these two
positions. Besides, the opposite faces of the remaining faces will not be the same.
Example:

Here in two positions of a dice the face with number 1 is not in the same position.
The face with number 6 is not shown.
Hence the face opposite to the face with number 1 is 6.
Besides the opposite face of 3 will be the face with number 2 and opposite face to face 5 will be
the face with number 1.
EXERCISES

1) Two positions are dice are shown below.

2) a.
Which digit will appear on the face

77

9) Two positions of a cubical block are

10) a.
When the digit 5 is on the bottom then

shown. When 5 is at the top which

number will be at bottom?

which number will be on its upper

surface?

17) Six dice with upper faces erased are as shows.

The sum of the numbers of dots on the opposite face is 7.

If even numbered dice have even number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the total

11) Observe the dots on the dice (one to six

dots) in the following figures. How many
dots are contained on the face opposite to
the containing four dots?

a.
12) Two
positions of a dice are shown below. Whennumber
3 points
of dots on the top faces of their dice?
are at the bottom, how many points will be at the top?

12

B. 14

C. 18

D. 24

A.

If the numbered dice have even number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the total
number of dots on the top faces of their dice?

13) The figure given on the left hand side in

each of the following questions is folded
to form a box. Choose from the
alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) the boxes
that are similar to the box formed.
A. 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only D. 1 and 4 only

a. 4 only
14) A. 1 and
C. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 and 4 only
D. 2 and 3 only

13)
A.
8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 14

If dice (I), (II) and (III) have even number of dots on their bottom faces and the dice (IV), (V) and
(VI) have odd number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the difference in the total
number of top faces between there two sets?
A. 0

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

If the even numbers of dice have odd number of dots on their top faces and odd numbered
dice have even of dots on their bottom faces, then what would be the total number of dots on
their top faces?
A. 12

B. 14

C. 16

D. 18

If the dice (I), (II) and (III) have even number of dots on their bottom faces, then what would be
the total number of dots on their top faces?

15) A. 1 only
C. 3 only

B. 2 only
D. 4 only

a. 3 only
16) A. 1 and
C. 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A. 7

B. 11

C. 12

D. 14

Cubes and Dice

INTRODUCTION
Construction of Boxes:
The details of the cube formed when a sheet is folded to form a box:

78

Form I
In this case:
1 lies opposite 5;
2 lies opposite 4;
3 lies opposite 6.

Form II

Form VI
In this case:

In this case:
1 lies opposite 6;
2 lies opposite 4;
3 lies opposite 5.

Form III

will be the one of the faces of the cube and it lies opposite 3;
2 lies opposite 4;
1 lies opposite 5.

Form VII
In this case:
1 lies opposite 4;
2 lies opposite 6;
3 lies opposite 5.

Form IV

In this case:
will be the one of the faces of the cube and it lies opposite 3;
2 lies opposite 4;
1 lies opposite 5.

Form VIII
In this case:

In this case:
1 lies opposite 4;
2 lies opposite 5;
3 lies opposite 6.

and
are two faces of the cube that lie opposite to each other.
1 lies opposite 3;
2 lies opposite 4;
EXERCISES

Form V

In this case:
1 lies opposite 3;
2 lies opposite 5;
4 lies opposite 6.

1)

Choose the box that is similar to the box

formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

79

2)

Choose the box that is similar to the

1)
box formed from the given sheet of
paper (X).

3)

5)

7)

9)

Choose the box that is similar to the box

formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

Choose the box that is similar to the box

formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

Choose the box that is similar to the box

formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

Choose the box that is similar to the box

formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

4)

6)

8)

Choose the box that is similar to the

1)
box formed from the given sheet of
paper (X).

Choose the box that is similar to the

1)
box formed from the given sheet of
paper (X).

11) Four usual dice are thrown on the

ground. The total of numbers on the top
faces of these four dice is 13 as the top
faces showed 4, 3, 1 and 5 respectively.
What is the total of the faces touching
the ground?
A. 12
C. 15
determined

12) 1)
In a dice a, b, c and d are written on
the adjacent faces, in a clockwise
order and e and f at the top and
bottom. When c is at the top, what
will be at the bottom?

B. 13
D. Cannot be

13) Which of the following finished patterns

can be obtained from the piece of
cardboard (X) shown below?

14) 1)
Three different positions X, Y and Z of
a dice are shown in the figures given
below. Which numbers are hidden
behind the numbers 6 and 5 in the
position Z?

15) A dice is numbered from 1 to 6 in

different ways. If 2 is opposite to 3 and
adjacent to 4 and 6, then which of the
following statements is necessarily true?

16) 1)
When the following figure is folded to
form a cube, how many dots lie
opposite the face bearing five dots?

Choose the box that is similar to the

1)
box formed from the given sheet of
paper (X).

10) 1)
Choose the box that is similar to the
box formed from the given sheet of
paper (X).

A. 1 is opposite to 5
B. 4 is opposite to 6
C. 4 is adjacent to 2 and 6 D. 1 is adjacent to
2 and 3

80

A. 4 is adjacent to 6
17) Choose the box that is similar to the box
formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

18) 1)
What number is opposite 3 in the
figure shown below? The given two
positions are of the same dice whose
each surface bears a number among 1,
2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.

B. 2 is adjacent to 5
C. 1 is adjacent to 6
D. 1 is adjacent to 4

Figure Matrix
EXERCISES

25) If the total number of dots on opposite

faces of a cubical block is always 7, find
the figure which is correct.

20) A dice is thrown four times and its four

different positions are shown below. Find
the number on the face opposite the face
showing 2.

22) Two positions of a parallelepiped are

shown below. When the number 3 will
be on the top side, then which number
will be at the bottom?

1)

Select a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

2)

Selecta. a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

3)

Select a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

4)

Selecta. a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

5)

Select a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

6)

Selecta. a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

19) 1)
Three different positions of a dice are
shown below. How many dots lie
opposite 2 dots?

21) 1)
Two positions of a dice are shown.
When 4 is at the bottom, what
number will be on the top?

25) 1)
A dice is numbered from 1 to 6 in
different ways. If 1 is adjacent to 2, 3
and 5, then which of the following
statements is necessarily true?

81

14) Select a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

7)

Select a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

8)

Selecta. a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.
16) Select a suitable figure from the four
alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

9)

Select a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

15) Selecta. a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

a.

10) Selecta. a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

Seating Arrangement
INTRODUCTION
In order to solve seating arrangement questions, first of all diagram should be made. By doing so
questions are easily and quickly solved.
Example 1:

11) Select a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

12) Selecta. a suitable figure from the four

alternatives that would complete the
figure matrix.

1.

6 Boys are sitting in a circle and facing towards the centre of the circle.

2.

Rajeev is sitting to the right of mohan but he is not just at the left of Vijay.

3.

Suresh is between Babu and Vijay.

4.

Ajay is sitting to the left of Vijay.

Who is sitting to the left of Mohan ?

Solution :

13)

82

1.

A, B and C are three boys while R, S and T are three girls. They are sitting such that the
boys are facing the girls.

2.

A and R are diagonally opposite to each other.

3.

C is not sitting at any of the ends.

4.

T is left to R but opposite to C.

(A). Who is sitting opposite to B ?

Hence, Babu is sitting to the left of Mohan.

(B). Who is sitting diagonally opposite to B ?

Example 2:

Solution :

1.

Eleven students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sitting in first line facing to the

teacher.

2.

D who is just to the left of F, is to the right of C at second place.

3.

A is second to the right of E who is at one end.

4.

J is the nearest neighbour of A and B and is to the left of G at third place.

5.

H is next to D to the right and is at the third place to the right of I.

Who is just in the middle ?

Solution :

(A). Hence, R is sitting opposite to B. (B). Hence, S is sitting diagonally opposite to B.

1)
Hence, I is just in the middle.
Example 3:
Siva, Sathish, Amar and Praveen are playing cards. Amar into the right of Sathish, who is to the
right of Siva.
Who is to the right of Amar ?
Solution :

Six girls are sitting in a circle facing to

the centre of the circle. They are P, Q, R,
S, T and V. T is not between Q and S but
some other one. P is next to the left of V.
R is 4th to the right of P.
Which of the following statement is not true?
A.S is just next to the right to R
B.T is just next to the right of V
C.R is second to the left of T
D.P is second to the right of R
If P and R interchange their positions then
which of the following pair will sit together?
A.RT
B.PV C.VR
D.QV

Hence Praveen is to the right of Amar.

Example 4:

83

2)

In
fff. a class there are seven students
(including boys and girls) A, B, C, D, E, F
and G. They sit on three benches I, II
and III. Such that at least two students
on each bench and at least one girl on
each bench. C who is a girl student, does
not sit with A, E and D. F the boy
student sits with only B. A sits on the
bench I with his best friends. G sits on
the bench III. E is the brother of C.
How many girls are there out of these 7
students A.3
B.3 or 4
C.4
D.Data inadequate
Which of the following is the group of girls?
A.BAC B.BFC C.BCD D.CDF

3)

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row

facing North : F is to the immediate right
of E. E is 4th to the right of G. C is the
neighbour of B and D. Person who is
third to the left of D is at one of ends.

Who are to the left of C?

A.Only B B.G, B and D
C.G and B
D.D, E, F and A
Who are the neighbours of B?
A.C and D
B.C and G
C.G and F
D.C and E

4)

8ggg.
persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are
seated around a square table - two on
each side. There are 3 ladies who are not
seated next to each other. J is between L
and F. G is between I and F. H, a lady
member is second to the left of J. F, a
male member is seated opposite to E, a
lady member. There is a lady member
between F and I.

Who among the

immediate left of F?
A.G
B.I C.J

following

is

to

Direction Sense Test

INTRODUCTION
There are four main directions - East, West, North and South as shown below:

the

D.H

There are four cardinal directions - North-East (N-E), North-West (N-W), South-East (S-E), and
South-West (S-W) as shown below:

How many persons are seated between K and

F?
A.1
B.2 C.3
D.4
5)

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row

facing North F is to the immediate right
of E. E is 4th to the right of G. C is the
neighbour of B and D. Person who is
third to the left of D is at one of ends.
Who are to the left of C?
A. Only B
B. G, B and D
C. G and B D. D, E, F and A

6)

A ,B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a

line facing to south - while M, N, O, P
and Q are five ladies sitting in a second
line parallel to the first line and are
facing to North. B who is just next to the
left of D, is opposite to Q. C and N are
diagonally opposite to each other. E is
opposite to O who is just next right of M.
P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite
to D. M is at one end of the line.
Who is sitting third to the right of O?
A. Q
B. N C. M
D. Data inadequate
Which of the following pair is diagonally
opposite to each other?
A. EQ
B. BO C. AN D. AM

8)

7)

Which
hhh. of the following statement is not
true ?
A. E is to the immediate left of D
B. A is at one of the ends
C. G is to the immediate left of B
D. F is second to the right of D

Six
iii. friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting
around the hexagonal table each at one
corner and are facing the centre of the
hexagonal. P is second to the left of U. Q
is neighbour of R and S. T is second to
the left of S.
Which one is sitting opposite to P?
A. R B. Q C. T D. S
Who is the fourth person to the left of Q?
A. P B. U C. R D. Data inadequate

1.
2.
3.

At the time of sunrise if a man stands facing the east, his shadow will be towards west.
At the time of sunset the shadow of an object is always in the east.
If a man stands facing the North, at the time of sunrise his shadow will be towards his
left and at the time of sunset it will be towards his right.
4. At 12:00 noon, the rays of the sun are vertically downward hence there will be no
shadow.
Main types of questions are given below:
Type 1:
Siva starting from his house, goes 5 km in the East, then he turns to his left and goes 4 km.
Finally he turns to his left and goes 5 km. Now how far is he from his house and in what
direction?

From third position it is clear he is 4 km from his house and is in North direction.
Type 2:
Suresh starting from his house, goes 4 km in the East, then he turns to his right and goes 3 km.

84

What minimum distance will be covered by him to come back to his house?

From II it is clear that the road which goes to IT-Park is left to Hema.
EXERCISES
1)

One morning Udai and Vishal were

talking to each other face to face at a
crossing. If Vishal's shadow was exactly
to the left of Udai, which direction was
Udai facing?

2)

Y is in the East of X which is in the

North of Z. If P is in the South of Z,
then in which direction of Y, is P?

3)

If South-East becomes North, NorthEast becomes West and so on. What

will West become?

4)

A man walks 5 km toward south and

then turns to the right. After walking
3 km he turns to the left and walks 5
km. Now in which direction is he
from the starting place?

5)

Rasik walked 20 m towards north.

Then he turned right and walks 30 m.
Then he turns right and walks 35 m.
Then he turns left and walks 15 m.
Finally he turns left and walks 15 m. In
which direction and how many metres
is he from the starting position?

6)

Rahul put his timepiece on the table

in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour
hand points to North. In which
direction the minute hand will point
at 9.15 P.M.?

7)

A boy rode his bicycle Northward, then

turned left and rode 1 km and again
turned left and rode 2 km. He found
himself 1 km west of his starting point.
How far did he ride northward
initially?

8)

One evening before sunset Rekha and

Hema were talking to each other face
to face. If Hema's shadow was exactly
to the right of Hema, which direction
was Rekha facing?

9)

Starting from the point X, Jayant

walked 15 m towards west. He turned
left and walked 20 m. He then turned

10) Two cars start from the opposite

places of a main road, 150 km apart.
First car runs for 25 km and takes a

Type 3:
One morning after sunrise Juhi while going to school met Lalli at Boring road crossing. Lalli's
shadow was exactly to the right of Juhi. If they were face to face, which direction was Juhi
facing?
In the morning sunrises in the east.

So in morning the shadow falls towards the west.

Now Lalli's shadow falls to the right of the Juhi. Hence Juhi is facing South.
Type 4:
Hema starting from her house walked 5 km to reach the crossing of Palace. In which direction
she was going, a road opposite to this direction goes to Hospital. The road to the right goes to
station. If the road which goes to station is just opposite to the road which IT-Park, then in
which direction to Hema is the road which goes to IT-Park?

85

left and walked 15 m. After this he

turned to his right and walked 12 m.
How far and in which directions is now
Jayant from X?

right turn and then runs 15 km. It

then turns left and then runs for
another 25 km and then takes the
direction back to reach the main road.
In the mean time, due to minor break
down the other car has run only 35
km along the main road. What would
be the distance between two cars at
this point?

11) K is 40 m South-West of L. If M is 40 m
South-East of L, then M is in which
direction of K?

12) A man walks 2 km towards North.

Then he turns to East and walks 10
km. After this he turns to North and
walks 3 km. Again he turns towards
East and walks 2 km. How far is he
from the starting point?

13) The length and breadth of a room are 8

m and 6 m respectively. A cat runs
along all the four walls and finally
along a diagonal order to catch a rat.
How much total distance is covered by
the cat?

14) One morning sujata started to walk

towards the Sun. After covering some
distance she turned to right then
again to the right and after covering
some distance she again turns to the
right. Now in which direction is she
facing?

15) One morning after sunrise, Vimal

started to walk. During this walking he
met Stephen who was coming from
opposite direction. Vimal watch that
the shadow of Stephen to the right of
him (Vimal). To Which direction
Vimal was facing?

16) Golu started from his house towards

North. After covering a distance of 8
km. he turned towards left and
covered a distance of 6 km. What is
the shortest distance now from his
house?

17) P started from his house towards west.

After walking a distance of 25 m. He
turned to the right and walked 10 m.
He then again turned to the right and
walked 15 m. After this he is to turn
right at 135o and to cover 30 m. In
which direction should he go?

18) X started to walk straight towards

south. After walking 5 m he turned to
the left and walked 3 m. After this he
turned to the right and walked 5 m
Now to which direction X is facing?

19) Dev, Kumar, Nilesh, Ankur and Pintu

are standing facing to the North in a

20) Six flats on a floor in two rows facing

North and South are allotted to P, Q,

playground such as given below:

Kumar is at 40 m to the right of Ankur.
Dev is are 60 m in the south of Kumar.
Nilesh is at a distance of 25 m in the
west of Ankur.
Pintu is at a distance of 90 m in the
North of Dev.
1. Which one is in the North-East of the
person. Who is to the left of Kumar?
A. Dev B. Nilesh C. Ankur D. Pintu
2. If a boy starting from Nilesh, met to
Ankur and then to Kumar and after this he
to Dev and then to Pintu and whole the
time he walked in a straight line, then how
much total distance did he cover?
A. 215 m B. 155 m C. 245 m D. 185 m

R, S, T and U.
Q gets a North facing flat and is not
next to S.
S and U get diagonally opposite flats.
R next to U, gets a south facing flat
and T gets North facing flat.
1. If the flats of P and T are interchanged
then whose flat will be next to that of U?
A. P B. Q C. R D. T
2. Which of the following combination get
south facing flats?
A. QTS B. UPT C. URP D. Data is
inadequate
3. The flats of which of the other pair than
SU, is diagonally opposite to each other?
A. QP B. QR C. PT D. TS
4. Whose flat is between Q and S?
A. T B. U C. R D. P

21) 8-trees mango, guava, papaya,

pomegranate, lemon, banana, raspberry
and apple are in two rows 4 in each
facing North and South.
Lemon is between mango and apple but
just opposite to guava.
Banana is at one end of a line and is just
next in the right of guava or either
banana tree is just after guava tree.
Raspberry tree which at one end of a
line, is just diagonally opposite to
mango tree.
Which tree is just opposite to raspberry
tree?
A. Papaya B. Pomegranate
C. Papaya or Pomegranate D. Data is
inadequate
Which tree is just opposite to banana tree?

86

22) A #b. B means B is at 1 metre to the

right of A. A $ B means B is at 1 metre
to the North of A. A * B means B is at
1 metre to the left of A. A @ B means
B is at 1 metre to the south of A.
In each question first person from the left
is facing North.
According to X @ B * Y, Y is in which
direction with respect to X?
A. North
B. South
C. North-East D. South-West
According to P # R $ A * U, in which
direction is U with respect to P?
A. East
B. West
C. North
D. South

A. Mango
C. Papaya

B. Pomegranate
D. Data is inadequate

Solution:
From fig. a: (3)2 + (2)2 = 13
From fig. b: (4)2 + (8)2 = 80

Character Puzzles

From fig. c: ? = (1)2 + (5)2

? = 1 + 25

INTRODUCTION

? = 26

In this type of questions, a figure or a matrix is given in which some numbers are filled according

Hence the number 26 will replace the question mark.

to a rule. A place is left blank. You have to find out a character (a number or a letter) from the
given possible answers which may be filled in the blank space.

EXERCISES

Some examples are given below.

1)

Which one will replace the question

mark ?

2)

Whicha.one will replace the question mark?

3)

Which one will replace the question

mark?

4)

Whichb.one will replace the question mark?

5)

Which one will replace the question

mark?

6)

Whichc.one will replace the question mark?

Example 1:
Which number will replace the question mark?

Solution:
From fig. a: 6 + 4 + 8 = 18
18 + 2 = 20
From fig. b: 7 + 9 + 8 = 24
24 + 2 = 26
From fig. c: 6 + 5 + 12 = 23
23 + 2 = 25
Hence the number 25 will replace the question mark.
Example 2:
Which number will replace the question mark?

87

7)

9)

Which one will replace the question

mark?

Which one will replace the question

mark?

11) Which one will replace the question

mark?

3)

8)

Whichd.one will replace the question mark?

16) Which one will replace the question

mark?

17) Whichi. one will replace the question mark?

18) Which one will replace the question

mark?

19) Whichj. one will replace the question mark?

20) Which one will replace the question

mark?

21) Whichk.one will replace the question mark?

10) Whiche.one will replace the question mark?

12) Whichf. one will replace the question mark?

Which one will replace the question

mark?

13) Whichg.one will replace the question mark?

14) Which one will replace the question

mark?

15) Whichh.one will replace the question mark?

88

22) Which one will replace the question

mark?

23) Whichl. one will replace the question mark?

7)

8)

p.

9)

10)

q.

11)

12)

r.

13)

14)

s.

Missing Letters Puzzles

EXERCISES
1)

3)

5)

2)

4)

6)

m.

n.

o.

89

15)

16)

Logical Puzzles

t.
EXERCISES

17)

19)

21)

18)

20)

22)

1)

2)

x.

3)

4)

y.

5)

6)

z.

u.

v.

w.

90

7)

9)

8)

10)

aa.
12)

13)

cc.

14)

15)

dd.

bb.

16)
11)

91

17)

Playing Cards Puzzles

18)

19)

ee.

20)

21)

ff.

EXERCISES
1)

2)

gg.

3)

4)

hh.

22)

92

5)

6)

ii.

5)

6)

ll.

7)

8)

mm.

9)

10)

nn.

Clock Puzzles
EXERCISES
1)

3)

2)

4)

jj.

kk.

93

11)

12)

oo.

19)
13)

14)

pp.

15)

16)

qq.

20)

ss.

Number Puzzles
EXERCISES
1)

17)

18)

2)

rr.

94

tt.

3)

4)

uu.

5)

6)

vv.

7)

8)

ww.

9)

10)

xx.

11)

12)

yy.

13)

14)

zz.

95

15)

16)

aaa.

17)

18)

bbb.

21)

22)

ddd.

Sudoku
SUDOKU RULES
The objective of Sudoku is to enter a digit from 1 through 9 in each cell, in such a
way that:
y
x

19)

20)

ccc.

y
y
y
y

Each horizontal row (shown in x) contains each digit exactly once.

Each vertical column (shown in y) contains each digit exactly once.
Each sub grid or region (shown in z) contains each digit exactly once.
EXERCISES

96

2)

1)
6

1
6

6
4

1
1

4
3

3
8

7
3
6

3
1

9
8

iii.

5)

6)

jjj.

7)

8)

kkk.

9)

10)

lll.

11)

12)

mmm.

3
9

4
8

5
2

5)

4)

3)

fff.

8
4

From amongst the figures marked (1), (2), (3) and (4), select the figure which satisfies the same
conditions of placement of the dots as in figure (X). Select the figure which satisfies the same
conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.
2)
hhh.
1)

EXERCISES

2
7

4)
3

9
8

3
1

7
3)

6
1

5
2

7
6

Dot Situation

eee.

ggg.

7
5

1
2

9
1
7

3
8
6
7

8
4

3
9

5
6

9
7
4

97

13)

14)

nnn.

15)

16)

ooo.

17)

18)

ppp.
3)

19)

20)

Rule: As the circle decreases in size, its

sectors increase in number.

qqq.

Rule Detection
EXERCISES
In each of the following questions, choose the set of figures which follows the given rule.
1) Rule: Closed figures become more and
2) Rule: rrr.
The series becomes simpler as it
more open and open figures become
proceeds.
more and more closed.

98

4)

Rule: sss.
The series becomes complex as it
proceeds.

5)

Rule: Closed figures become more and

more open and open figures become
more and more closed.

6)

Rule: ttt.
Closed figure becomes more and
more open.

7)

8)

mmm.

9)

10)

nnn.

11)

12)

ooo.

13)

14)

ppp.

15)

16)

qqq.

17)

18)

rrr.

Mirror and Water Images

EXERCISES
In each of the following questions, choose the correct mirror images of the given image of the
Fig.(X) from amongst the four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) given along with it.
2)
jjj.
1)

(X)
3)

5)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
4)

6)

kkk.

lll.

99

19)

20)

sss.

Embedded Images

9)

10)

xxx.

11)

12)

yyy.

13)

14)

zzz.

15)

16)

aaaa.

17)

18)

bbbb.

19)

20)

cccc.

EXERCISES
In each of the following questions, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figures
(1), (2), (3) and (4) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative
figure which contains fig. (X) as its part.
2)
ttt.
1)

(X)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

4)

uuu.

5)

6)

vvv.

7)

8)

www.

100

Grouping Of Images
EXERCISES
In each of the following questions, group the given figures into three classes using each figure
only once.
2)
dddd.
1)

A. 7,8,9 ; 2,4,3 ; 1,5,6

B. 1,3,2 ; 4,5,7 ; 6,8,9
C. 1,6,8 ; 3,4,7 ; 2,5,9
D. 1,6,9 ; 3,4,7 ; 2,5,8

A. 1,4,7 ; 2,5,8 ; 3,6,9

B. 1,4,7 ; 2,5,9 ; 3,6,7
C. 1,3,4 ; 2,5,8 ; 6,7,9
D. 1,2,3 ; 4,5,6 ; 7,8,9

3)

4)

A. 1,2,5 ; 3,7,8 ; 4,6,9

B. 1,7,2 ; 3,9,6 ; 4,5,8
C. 2,3,8 ; 4,6,9 ; 1,5,7
D. 5,6,9 ; 3,4,1 ; 2,7,8

A. 2,4,7 ; 1,8,9 ; 3,5,6

B. 2,6,9 ; 1,5,7 ; 3,4,8
C. 2,6,7 ; 1,5,8 ; 3,4,9
D. 2,8,7 ; 1,5,9 ; 3,4,6

7)

8)

A. 1,3,5 ; 2,6,9 ; 4,7,8

B. 2,3,4 ; 5,6,8 ; 9,1,7
C. 1,3,5 ; 2,6,8 ; 4,7,9
D. 3,2,4 ; 6,5,8 ; 7,9,1

A. 1,5,8 ; 3,4,7 ; 2,6,9

B. 1,3,6 ; 4,5,9 ; 2,7,8
C. 1,3,6 ; 2,5,7 ; 4,8,9
D. 6,7,8 ; 1,3,7 ; 2,4,9

9)

10)

A. 1,2,4 ; 3,5,6 ; 7,8,9

B. 1,7,8 ; 3,5,6 ; 2,4,9
C. 1,3,4 ; 2,8,9 ; 5,6,7
D. 1,7,8 ; 2,3,6 ; 4,5,9

A. 1,3,7 ; 2,4,6 ; 5,8,9

B. 1,4,6 ; 2,5,7 ; 3,8,9
C. 1,4,8 ; 2,5,6 ; 3,7,9
D. 1,4,8 ; 2,7,9 ; 3,5,6

gggg.

eeee.

hhhh.

A. 1,2,6 ; 3,4,7 ; 5
B. 1,3 ; 2,6 ; 4,5,7
C. 1,2,6,7 ; 3 ; 4,5
D. 1,3 ; 2,4,5 ; 6,7
A. 1,5,7 ; 2,4,6 ; 3,9,8
B. 1,5,7 ; 2,4,8 ; 3,6,9
C. 1,4,7 ; 2,5,8 ; 3,6,9
D. 1,7,9 ; 3,5,8 ; 2,4,6
5)

6)

ffff.

101

11)

12)

iiii.

A. 1,7,9 ; 2,3,6 ; 4,5,8

B. 1,2,9 ; 3,4,6 ; 5,7,8
C. 1,6,8 ; 2,4,7 ; 3,5,9
D. 1,7,8 ; 2,9,3 ; 6,4,5

A. 1,4,7 ; 2,5,9 ; 3,8,6

B. 2,6,9 ; 1,4,7 ; 5,8,3
C. 1,4,7 ; 2,3,6 ; 5,8,9
D. 3,5,1 ; 4,7,8 ; 6,2,9

13)

14)

jjjj.

C. 1,3,5 ; 2,4,8 ; 6,7,9

D. 1,4,7 ; 2,5,8 ; 3,6,9

D. 1,5,7 ; 2,6,9 ; 3,4,8

17)

18)

A. 1,3,9 ; 2,5,8 ; 4,6,7

B. 1,5,8 ; 4,6,7 ; 2,3,9
C. 2,5,9 ; 1,3,8 ; 2,6,7
D. 1,8,9 ; 4,6,7 ; 2,3,5

A. 1,5,9 ; 2,7,8 ; 3,4,6

B. 1,5,6 ; 4,7,8 ; 2,3,9
C. 2,4,9 ; 6,7,8 ; 1,3,5
D. 3,7,8 ; 4,5,9 ; 1,2,6

llll.

Image Analysis
EXERCISES

A. 1,5,8 ; 2,6,7 ; 3,4,9

B. 1,5,7 ; 2,6,8 ; 3,4,5
C. 1,5,8 ; 2,4,7 ; 3,6,9
D. 1,5,8 ; 2,6,9 ; 3,4,7

A. 2,4,7 ; 1,6,9 ; 3,5,8

B. 1,3,5 ; 2,6,7 ; 4,8,9
C. 1,5,7 ; 2,3,6 ; 4,8,9
D. 1,3,5 ; 2,4,7 ; 6,8,9

15)

16)

kkkk.

A. 1,2,3 ; 4,5,8 ; 6,7,9

B. 1,5,6 ; 2,3,4 ; 7,8,9

A. 1,4,7 ; 3,6,9 ; 2,5,8

B. 1,6,9 ; 2,4,7 ; 3,5,8
C. 1,4,7 ; 2,6,9 ; 3,5,8

Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in figure
(X).
2)
mmmm.
1)

3)

4)

102

nnnn.

5)

6)

oooo.

19)

7)

8)

20)

vvvv.

pppp.

Pattern Completion
EXERCISES
9)

10)

qqqq.

11)

12)

rrrr.

13)

15) Find out how the key figure (X) look will
like after rotation.

17)

14)

ssss.

In each of the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which
when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.
2)
wwww.
1)

(X)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

4)

xxxx.

5)

6)

yyyy.

7)

8)

zzzz.

9)

10)

aaaaa.

16) Find
tttt. out how the key figure (X) look
will like after rotation.

18)

uuuu.

103

11)

12)

bbbbb.

13)

14)

ccccc.

15)

16)

1)

2)

ggggg.

3)

4)

hhhhh.

5)

6)

iiiii.

7)

8)

jjjjj.

ddddd.

17)

18)

eeeee.

19)

20)

fffff.

Paper Cutting
EXERCISES
Each of the following questions consists of a set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence
of folding of a piece of paper. Figure (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been
cut. These three figures are followed by four answer figures from which you have to choose a
figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of figure (Z).

104

9)

10)

kkkkk.

11)

12)

lllll.

13)

14)

mmmmm.

17)

18)

ooooo.

19)

20)

ppppp.

Shape Construction
EXERCISES

15)

16)

nnnnn.

In each of the following questions, a set of five alternative figures 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 followed by a
set of four alternatives (A), (B), (C) and (D) is provided. It is required to select the alternative
which represents three out of the five alternative figures which when fitted into each other
would form a complete square.
2)
qqqqq.
1)

A. 124 B. 234 C. 345 D. 235

105

A. 135 B. 123 C. 145 D. 234

3)

4)

A. 123 B. 234 C. 345 D. 245

A. 123 B. 234 C. 134 D. 235

5)

6)

A. 123 B. 134 C. 135 D. 345

A. 145 B. 234 C. 134 D. 235

8)
ttttt.

A. 123 B. 134 C. 235 D. 345

19)

A. 123 B. 234 C. 134 D. 345

A. 134 B. 124 C. 234 D. 345

10) uuuuu.

A. 134 B. 145 C. 125 D. 124

A. 123 B. 124 C. 134 D. 345

7)

A. 145 B. 135 C. 235 D. 234

9)

rrrrr.

A. 123 B. 124 C. 125 D. 235

15)

A. 125 B. 123 C. 235 D. 234

16) xxxxx.

A. 123 B. 134 C. 135 D. 145

sssss.

A. 123 B. 234 C. 124 D. 245

18) yyyyy.

17)

20)

zzzzz.

Paper Folding
EXERCISES
A. 123 B. 235 C. 245 D. 145
11)

A. 145 B. 234 C. 245 D. 135

A. 123 B. 125 C. 234 D. 245

13)

A. 124 B. 234 C. 345 D. 235

12)

14)

vvvvv.

wwwww.

In each of the following problems, a square transparent sheet (X) with a pattern is given. Figure
out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the patter would appear when the transparent
sheet is folded at the dotted line.
2)
aaaaaa.
1)

(X)
(4)
3)

106

(1)

(2)

(3)
4)

bbbbbb.

5)

6)

cccccc.

7)

8)

dddddd.

19)

20)

jjjjjj.

Verbal Aptitude
Closet Test
9)

10)

eeeeee.

EXERCISES
1)

11)

13)

12)

14)

Today most businessmen are very worried. To begin with, they are not used to competition.
In the past they sold whatever ...(1)... produced at whatever prices they chose. But ...(2)...
increasing competition, customers began to ...(3)... and choose. Imports suddenly became
...(4)... available and that too at cheaper ...(5)...
1) A.it B.he C.they D.we

ffffff.

gggggg.

2)

2)

A.with B.by C.after D.from

3)

A.buy B.take C.pick D.want

4)

A.hardly B.easily C.frequently D.conveniently

5)

A.costs B.returns C.dividend D.prices

As a rule of thumb, a manned mission costs from fifty to a hundred times more than a
comparable unmanned mission. Thus, for scientific exploration alone, ...(1)... missions,
employing machine intelligence, are ...(2)... However, there may well be ...(3)... other than
scientific for exploring ...(4)... social, economic, political, cultural or ...(5)...

15)

17)

16)

18)

hhhhhh.

iiiiii.

3)

1)

manned B. unmanned C. space D. lunar

2)

liked B. wanted C. used D. preferred

3)

reasons B. causes C. clues D. objects

4)

moon B. sun C. space D. mission

5)

casual B. historic C. historical D. histrionic

The principal advantage in having a clear cut objective of business is that it does not derail;
the enterprise does not stray ...(1)... the direct route that it has set for ...(2)... Enterprises
with well defined objectives can conveniently undertake ...(3)... and follow long range
development policies. Recognition of objectives ...(4)... the temptation to compromise long
range ...(5)... for short term gains and improves coordination in work and consistency in

107

policy.

9)

A. multiplying B. providing C. saving D. infecting E. growing

1)

from B. on C. along D. towards

10) A. children B. species C. women D. medicos E. people

2)

others B. industry C. itself D. government

3)

production B. research C. audit D. appraisal

4)

invites B. defers C. shifts D. removes

that desire may be ...(2)... from action. If P is seen as trying to do X, it is often inferred that P

5)

A. objectives B. loses C. interests D. profits

desires X. However, desire and action are not ...(3)... coordinated. The person may desire X

6)

Desire and action are often coordinated in that desire may ...(1)... the person to action or

without ...(4)... in any action directed towards the attainment of X. This even happens when
4)

Each species has its special place or habitat. An ...(1)... bird-watcher can look at ...(2)...

X appears ...(5)... or when the other effects resulting from the action ...(6)... to attain X are

forest, meadow, lake, swamp or field and ...(3)... almost exactly what birds he ...(4)... find

sufficiently undesirable as to ...(7)... the desire for X. Sometimes, Of course, no action is

there ...(5)... birds are found all over the world; others ...(6)... themselves to certain areas.

necessary; the desire may or may not be ...(8)... quite independently of P's action.

Still ...(7)... migrate from one country to another in ...(8)... in search of warmth and ...(9)...

Furthermore, a given desire may lead to different actions, depending upon the

and then return in spring, ...(10)... the season is more favourable.

environmental requirements. Actions are ...(9)... not only by desire but also by the way the

1)

A. expert B. experienced C. advanced D. active

2)

A. the B. some C. a D. certain

person ...(10)... the casual structure of the environment.

1)

dampen B. hinder C. indulge D. arouse E. prohibit

3)

A. predict B. suggest C. prophecy D. calculate

2)

A. expelled B. ceased C. abstained D. refrained E. inferred

4)

A. should B. must C. might D. will

3)

A. invariably B. hopefully C. deliberately D. purposely E. negatively

5)

A. more B. some C. most D. all

4)

A. wanting B. associating C. engaging D. supporting E. exhibiting

6)

A. keep B. entrust C. confine D. involve

5)

A. manageable B. valuable C. unattainable D. reachable E. approachable

7)

A. some B. others C. few D. all

6)

A. hostile B. necessary C. incidental D. insensible E. detrimental

8)

A. winter B. summer C. spring D. autumn

7)

A. express B. appreciate C. reciprocate D. damage E. negate

9)

A. seeds B. crops C. fruit D. food

8)

A. realised B. hypothesised C. verbalised D. criticised E. actualized

9)

A. projected B. determined C. controlled D. galvanised E. pronounced

10) A. while B. until C. after D. when

10) A. downgrades B. fabricates C. develops D. sees E. enlarges

5)

...(1)... can be injected ...(2)... human blood for ...(3)... diphtheria, pneumonia and severe
wounds ...(4)... surgical operations, penicillin is given to ...(5)... to ...(6)... the bacterial

Idioms & Phrases

information from spreading. After this ...(7)... several antibiotics ...(8)... discovered. Today,
these antibiotics are ...(9)... the lives of lakhs of ...(10)... all over the world.
1)

A. Antibiotics B. Penicillin C. Streptomycin D. Teramycin E. Medicine

2)

A. within B. through C. on D. into E. over

3)

A. treating B. operating C. discovering D. spreading E. monitoring

4)

A. In B. Over C. While D. After E. During

5)

A. children B. injured C. patients D. doctors E. nurses

6)

A. study B. prevent C. dismiss D. spread E. remove

7)

A. treatment B. patient C. cause D. discovery E. operation

8)

A. were B. may be C. have D. are E. would be

EXERCISES
Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct
meaning of proverb/idiom,
1)

To cry wolf
A.To listen eagerly
B.To give false alarm
C.To turn pale
D.To keep off starvation
E.None of these

108

2)

To end in smoke
A.To make completely understand
B.To ruin oneself
C.To excite great applause
D.To overcome someone
E.None of these

3)

5)

7)

9)

To be above board
A.To have a good height
B.To be honest in any business deal
C.They have no debts
D.To try to be beautiful
E.None of these

4)

To do oneself justice
A.To dispense justice on our won
B.To treat others with due respect
C.To defends one's point of view
D.To follow the path of truth and
justice
E.None of these
To leave someone in the lurch
A.To come to compromise with
someone
B.Constant source of annoyance to
someone
C.To put someone at ease
D.To desert someone in his difficulties
E.None of these
To be the question
A.To refer to
B.To take for granted
C.To raise objections
D.To be discussed
E.None of these

6)

To put one's hand to plough

A.To take up agricultural farming
B.To take a difficult task
C.To get entangled into unnecessary
things
D.Take interest in technical work
E.None of these
To pick holes
A.To find some reason to quarrel
B.To destroy something
C.To criticise someone
D.To cut some part of an item
E.None of these

issue
E.None of these
15) To set one's face against
A.To oppose with determination
B.To judge by appearance
C.To get out of difficulty
D.To look at one steadily
E.None of these
In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase italicized and
underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of
idiom/phrase

To play second fiddle

A.To be happy, cheerful and healthy
B.To reduce importance of one's senior
C.To support the role and view of
another person
D.To do back seat driving
E.None of these

1)

Their business is now on its last legs.

A. About to fructify
B. About to perish
C. About to produce results
D. About to take off

2)

There was no opposition to the new

policy by the rank and file of the
Government.
A. the official machinery
B. the ordinary members
C. the majority
D. the cabinet ministers

10) A black sheep

A.An unlucky person
B.A negro
C.An ugly person
D.A partner who takes no share of the
profits
E.None of these

3)

He went back on his promise to vote

for me.
A. withdrew
B. forgot
C. reinforced
D. supported

4)

The old beggar ran amuck and began

to throw stones at the passerby.
A. became desperate
B. ran about wildly
C. become annoyed
D. felt disgusted

5)

I cannot conceive of a time when I was

without a refrigerator
A. Imagine
B. Give birth
C. Understand
D. Depend

6)

In spite of the immense pressure

exerted by the militants, the
Government has decided not to give
in.
A. accede
B. yield
C. oblige
D. confirm

7)

The authorities took him to task for his

negligence.
A. gave him additional work
B. suspended his assignment
C. reprimanded him

8)

The detective left no stone unturned to

trace the culprit.
A. took no pains
B. did very irrelevant things
C. resorted to illegitimate practices

8)

11) A man of straw

A.A man of no substance
B.A very active person
C.A worthy fellow
D.An unreasonable person
E.None of these

12) To smell a rat

A.To see signs of plague epidemic
B.To get bad small of a bad dead rat
C.To suspect foul dealings
D.To be in a bad mood
E.None of these

13) To hit the right nail on the head

A.To do the right thing
B.To destroy one's reputation
C.To announce one's fixed views
D.To teach someone a lesson
E.None of these

14) To join issue with

A.To cooperate with others for a cause
B.To join any voluntary organization
for good purpose
C.To resolve dispute and restore peace
D.To enter into argument over any

109

D. forced him to resign

D. used all available means

Rohit has bitten off more than he

chew.
A. Is trying to do much
B. Is very greedy
C. Is always hungry
D. Has little regard for others

10) His speech went down well with the

majority of the audience.
A. found acceptance with
B. was attentively listened to by
C. was appreciated by
D. was applauded by

11) The parliamentary inquiry into the

Bofors deal did not bring to light any
startling facts.
A. Prove
B. Probe
C. Highlight
D. Disclose

12) The class could not keep a straight face

on hearing the strange pronunciation
of the new teacher.
A. remain silent
B. remain serious
C. remain mute
D. remain disturbed

13) Harassed by repeated acts of injustice.

he decided to put his foot down.
A. not to yield
B. resign
C.
to
accept
the
proposal
unconditionally
D. withdraw

14) The new C.M stuck his neck out today

and promised 10kgs. free wheat a
month for all rural families.
A. took an oath
B. took a risk
C. extended help
D. caused embarrassment

15) The dacoit murdered the man in cold

blood.
A. coldly
B. boldly
C. ruthlessly
D. deliberately

16) He has built a big business empire by

his sharp practices.
A. extreme hard work
B. keen business skills
C. dishonest dealings
D. sharp intelligence

17) The secretary and the treasurer are

hand in glove with each other.
A. very good friends
B. constantly fighting
C. associates in some action
D. suspicious of each other

18) He never liked the idea of keeping his

wife under his thumb and so he let her
do what she liked.
A. Pressed down
B. Unduly under control
C. Below his thumb
D. Under tyrannical conditions.

9)

19) It is time that professors came down

from their ivory towers and studied
the real needs of the students.

20) You have to be a cool customer and be

patient if you want to get the best
buys.

A. Detachment and seclusion

B. A tower made of ivory
C. Prison
D. Dream lands

A. Be calm and not be excitable

B. Have a cool head
C. Be uncommunicative
D. Be choosy

Synonyms
EXERCISES
1)

AUGUST
A.Common B.Ridiculous
C.Dignified D.Petty

2)

KEN
A. Ignorance B. Witness
C. Trial D. Knowledge

3)

VENT
A.Opening B.Stodge
C.End D.Past tense of
go

4)

EMBEZZLE
A.Misappropriate
B.Balance
C.Remunerate
D.Clear

5)

RABBLE
A. Mob B. Noise
C. Roar D. Rubbish

6)

MAYHEM
A. Jubilation B. Havoc
C. Excitement D. Defeat

7)

CORPULENT
A.Lean
B.Gaunt
C.Emaciated
D.Obese

8)

ZANY
A. Clown B. Pet
C. Thief D. Magician

9)

MELD
A. To soothe B. Merge
C. Purchase D. Glisten

10) FRUGALITY
A. Foolishness
B. Extremity
C. Enthusiasm
D. Economy

11) CANTANKEROUS
A. Quarrelsome B. Rash
C. Disrespectful D. Noisy

12) SCINTILLATING
A. Smouldering
B. Glittering
C. Touching
D. Warming

13) TEPID
A. Hot B. Warm
C. Cold D. Boiling

14) IMPROMPTU
A. Offhand
B. Unimportant
C. Unreal D. Effective

15) INTIMIDATE
A. To hint B. Frighten
C. Bluff D. Harass

16) COMBAT
A. Conflict B. Quarrel
C. Feud D. Fight

17) MAYHEM
A. Jubilation B. Havoc
C. Excitement D. Defeat

18) CONNOISSEUR
A. Ignorant
B. Lover of art
C. Interpreter
D. Delinquent

110

10) ZENITH
A. Acme B. Top
C. Nadir D. Pinnacle

11) RELINQUISH
A. Abdicate B. Renounce
C. Posses D. Deny

12) EXODUS
A. Influx
B. Home-coming
C. Return D. Restoration

13) PERENNIAL
A. Frequent B. Regular
C. Lasting D. Rare

14) BENIGN
A. Malevolent B. Soft
C. Friendly D. Unwise

15) EXTRICATE
A. Manifest B. Palpable
C. Release D. Entangle

27) HARBINGER
A. Massenger B. Steward
C. Forerunner D. Pilot

16) EVASIVE
A. Free B. Honest
C. Liberal D. Frank

17) GREGARIOUS
A. Antisocial B. Glorious
C. Horrendous
D. Similar

18) REPRESS
A. Inhibit B. Liberate
C. Curb D. Quell

30) REFECTORY
A. Restaurant
B. Parlour
C.Living Room
D. DiningRoom

19) HIRSUTE
A. Scaly B. Bald
C. Erudite D. Quiet

20) ACQUITTED
A. Freed B. Burdened
C. Convicted
D. Entrusted

21) INSIPID
A. Tasty B. Stupid
C. Discreet D. Feast

22) FRUGAL
A. Copious
B. Extravagant
C. Generous
D. Ostentatious

23) TANGIBLE
A. Ethereal B. Concrete
C. Actual D. Solid

24) INDISCREET
A. Reliable B. Honest
C. Prudent D. Stupid

25) EQUANIMITY
A. Resentment
B. Dubiousness
C. Duplicity
D. Excitement

26) FLIMSY
A. Frail B. Filthy
C. Firm D. Flippant

27) HAPLESS
A. Cheerful B. Consistent
C. Fortunate D. Shapely

28) HOSTILITY
A. Courtesy B.
Hospitality
C.RelationshipD.
Friendliness

29) VANITY
A. Pride B. Humility
C. Conceit D. Ostentious

30) HYPOCRITICAL
A. Gentle B. Sincere
C. Amiable D.
Dependable

19) REPERCUSSION
A. Clever reply
B. Recollection
C. Remuneration
D. Reaction

20) WARY
A. Sad
B. vigilant
C. Distorted D. Tired

21) RABBLE
A. Mob B. Noise
C. Roar D. Rubbish

22) PONDER
A. Think B. Evaluate
C. Anticipate D. Increase

23) LAUD
A. Lord B. Eulogy
C. Praise D. Extolled

24) LYNCH
A. Hang B. Madden
C. Kill D. Shoot

25) DESTITUTION
A. Humility B.
Moderation
C. Poverty D. Beggary

26) DEIFY
A. Flatter B. Challenge
C. Worship D. Face

28) TACITURNITY
A. Dumbness
B. Changeablemess
C. Hesitation
D. Reserve

29) RANT
A. Praise inordinately
B. Formalise
C. To preach noisly
D. Treat with screen

Antonyms
EXERCISES
1)

4)

7)

HAPHAZARD
A. Fortuitous
B. Indifferent
C. Deliberate
D. Accidental

2)

STARTLED
A. Amused B. Relaxed
C. Endless D. Astonished

5)

CULPABLE
A. Defendable
B. Blameless
C. Careless
D. Irresponsible

8)

IMPASSE
A.Resurgence
B.Breakthrough
C.Continuatio
D.Combination

3)

NIGGARDLY
A. Frugal B. Thrifty
C. Stingy D. Generous

6)

QUIESCENT
A. ACTIVE
B. Dormant
C. Weak
D. Unconcerned

9)

FLAGITIOUS
A. Innocent B. Vapid
C. Ignorant D. Frivolous

LOQUACIOUS
A. Reticent B. Talkative
C. Garrulous D. Verbose

MORTAL
A. Divine B. Immortal
C. Spiritual D. Eternal

Change of Voice
EXERCISES

111

In the questions below the sentences have been given in Active/Passive voice. From the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active voice.
1) Could you buy some stamps for me?
A. Stamps should be bought.
B. You are requested to buy some stamps.
C. You are ordered to buy some stamps.
D. Stamps could be bought.

2) She spoke to the official on duty.

A. The official on duty was spoken to by
her
B. The official was spoken to by her on
duty.
C. She was spoken to by the official on
duty.
D. She was the official to be spoken to on
duty.

3) He is said to be very rich.

A. He said he is very rich.
B. People say he is very rich.
C. He said it is very rich.
D. People say it is very rich.

4)

5) Do you imitate others?

A. Are others being imitated by you?
B. Are others imitated by you?
C. Have others being imitated by you?
D. Were others being imitated by you?

6) She makes cakes every Sunday.

A. Every Sunday cakes made by her.
B. Cakes are made by her every Sunday.
C. Cakes make her every Sunday.
D. Cakes were made by her every Sunday.

7) Darjeeling grows tea.

A. Tea is being grown in Darjeeling.
B. Let the tea be grown in Darjeeling.
C. Tea is grown in Darjeeling.
D. Tea grows in Darjeeling.

8) Who is creating this mess?

A. Who has been created this mess?
B. By whom has this mess been created?
C. By whom this mess is being created?
D. By whom is this mess being created?

9)

10) You can play with these kittens quite

safely.
A. These kittens can played with quite
safely.
B. These kittens can play with you quite
safely.
C. These kittens can be played with you
quite safely.
D. These kittens can be played with quite

A child could not have done this

mischief.
A. This mischief could not be done by a
child.
B. This mischief could not been done by a
child.
C. This mischief could not have been done
by a child.
D. This mischief a child could not have

You need to clean your shoes

properly.
A. Your shoes are needed to clean properly.
B. You are needed to clean your shoes
properly.
C. Your shoes need to be cleaned properly.
D. Your shoes are needed by you to clean
properly.

been done.

safely.

11) After driving professor Kumar to the

museum she dropped him at his hotel.
A. After being driven to the museum,
Professor Kumar was dropped at his
hotel.
B. Professor Kumar was being driven
dropped at his hotel.
C. After she had driven Professor
Kumar to the museum she had dropped
him at his hotel.
D. After she was driven Professor
Kumar to the museum she had dropped
him at his hotel.

12) I remember my sister taking me to the

museum.
A. I remember I was taken to the
museum by my sister.
B. I remember being taken to the
museum by my sister.
C. I remember myself being taken to
the museum by my sister.
D. I remember taken to the museum
by my sister.

13) They have built a perfect dam across

the river.
A. Across the river a perfect dam was
built.
B. A perfect dam has been built by
them across the river.
C. A perfect dam should have been
built by them.
D. Across the river was a perfect dam.

14) The invigilator was reading out the

instructions.
A. The instructions were read by the
invigilator.
B. The instructions were being read
out by the invigilator.
C. The instructions had been read out
by the invigilator.
D. The instructions had been read by
the invigilator.

15) James Watt discovered the energy of

steam.
A. The energy of steam discovered
James Watt.
B. The energy of steam was discovered
by James Watt.
C. James Watt was discovered by the
energy of steam.
D. James Watt had discovered energy
by the steam.

Change of Speech
EXERCISES
In the questions below the sentences have been given in Direct/Indirect speech. From the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.
1) The boy said, "Who dare call you a
2) He prayed to God that he might live

112

thief?"
A. The boy enquired who dared call him a
thief.
B. The boy asked who called him a thief.
C. The boy told that who dared call him a
thief.
D. The boy wondered who dared call a
thief.

long.
A. He prayed, "He may have a long life".
B. He said, "May you live long."
C. He said, "May I live a long life."
D. He said, "Will you live long."

3)

The man said, "No, I refused to confers

guilt."
A. The man emphatically refused to confers
guilt.
B. The man refused to confers his guilt.
C. The man told that he did not confers
guilt.
D. The man was stubborn enough to confers
guilt.
5) The little girl said to her mother, "Did
the sun rise in the East?"
A. The little girl said to her mother that the
sun rose in the East.
B. The little girl asked her mother if the sun
rose in the East.
C. The little girl said to her mother if the
sun rises in the East.
D. The little girl asked her mother if the sun
is in the East.

4)

7)

She said to him, "Why don't you go

today?"
A. She asked him why he did not go that
day.
B. She said to him why he don't go that day.
C. She asked him not to go that day.
D. She asked him why he did not go today.

9)

She exclaimed with sorrow that was a

very miserable plight.
A. She said with sorrow, "What a pity it is."

B. She said, "What a mystery it is."

C. She said, "What a miserable sight it is."
D. She said, "What a miserable plight it is."

day."
B. She said, "I will finish the work the
tomorrow."
C. She said, "You will finish the work the
next day."
D. She said, "I finished the work."

11) "If you don't keep quite I shall shoot

you", he said to her in a calm voice.
A.He warned her to shoot if she didn't
keep quite calmly.
B.He said calmly that I shall shoot you
if you don't be quite.
C.He warned her calmly that he would
shoot her if she didn't keep quite.
D.Calmly he warned her that be quite
or else he will have to shoot her.

12) I told him that he was not working

hard.
A.I said to him, "You are not working
hard."
B.I told to him, "You are not working
hard."
C.I said, "You are not working hard."
D.I said to him, "He is not working
hard."

6)

Dhruv said that he was sick and tired

of working for that company.
A. Dhruv said, "I am sick and tired of
working for this company."
B. Dhruv said, "He was tired of that
company."
C. Dhruv said to me, "I am sick and tired of
working for this company."
D. Dhruv said, "I will be tired of working
for that company."

13) His father ordered him to go to his

room and study.
A.His father said, "Go to your room
and study."
B.His father said to him, "Go and study
in your room."
C.His father shouted, "Go right now to
your study room"
D.His father said firmly, "Go and study
in your room."

14) He said to his father, "Please increase

my pocket-money."
A.He told his father, "Please increase
the pocket-money"
B.He pleaded his father to please
increase my pocket money.
C.He requested his father to increase
his pocket-money.
D.He asked his father to increase his
pocket-money.

8)

15) She said that her brother was

married.
A.She said, "Her brother is
married."
B.She told, "Her brother is
married."
C.She said, "My brother is
married."
D.She said, "My brother was
married."

He exclaimed with joy that India had

won the Sahara Cup.
A. He said, "India has won the Sahara Cup"
B. He said, "India won the Sahara Cup"
C. He said, "How! India will win the Sahara
Cup"
D. He said, "Hurrah! India has won the
Sahara Cup"

"Are you alone, my son?" asked a soft

voice close behind me.
A. A soft voice asked that what I was doing
there alone.
B. A soft voice said to me are you alone
son.
C. A soft voice from my back asked If I was
alone.
D. A soft voice behind me asked If I was
alone.
10) She said that she would finish the
work the next day.
A. She said, "I will finish the work the next

getting
getting
getting
getting
getting

Letter and Symbol Series

EXERCISES

113

In these series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number pattern. Fill the
blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.
1)

3)

5)

7)

DEF, DEF2, DE2F2, _____, D2E2F3

A. DEF3 B. D3EF3 C. D2E3F D.
D2E2F2
QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, _____
A. UAV B. UAT C. TAS D. TAT

BCB, DED, FGF, HIH, ___

A. JKJ B. HJH C. IJI D. JHJ
QPO, NML, KJI, _____, EDC
A. HGF B. CAB C. JKL D. GHI

9)

ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, _____, MLNA

A.OLPA B.KLMA C.LLMA
D.KLLA
11) B2CD, _____, BCD4, B5CD, BC6D
A.B2C2D B.BC3D C.B2C3D D.BCD7

2)

4)

6)

8)

ZA5, Y4B, XC6, W3D, _____

A. E7V B. V2E C. VE5 D. VE7
P5QR, P4QS, P3QT, _____, P1QV
A. PQW B. PQV2 C. P2QU D.
PQ3U
JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, _____
A. OEP B. NEO C. MEN D. PFQ
CMM, EOO, GQQ, _____, KUU
A.GRR B.GSS C.ISS
D.ITT

10) FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, ____

A.JAK B.HAL C.HAK D.JAI

Essential Part

9)

knowledge

10) harvest

A. school B. teacher C. textbook D. learning

A. autumn B. stockpile C. tractor D. crop

11) desert

12) book

A. cactus B. arid C. oasis D. flat

A. fiction B. pages C. pictures D. learning

13) language

14) School

A. tongue B. slang C. writing D. words

A. student B. report card C. test D. learning

15) gala

16) monopoly

A. celebration B. tuxedo C. appetizer D.

A. corrupt B. exclusive C. rich D. gigantic

orator
17) pain

18) election

A. cut B. burn C. nuisance D. hurt

A. president B. voter C. November D.

nation

19) shoe

20) swimming

A. sole B. leather C. laces D. walking

A. pool B. bathing suit C. water D. life

jacket

DIRECTIONS TO SOLVE

Spellings

A good way to approach this type of question is to use the following sentence: "A ______ could
not exist without ______.".
EXERCISES

EXERCISES
1)

orchestra

A. violin B. stage C. musician D. soloist

2) provisions
A. groceries B. supplies C. gear D. caterers

3)

4)

Find the correctly spelt words

1)

A.Indipensable B. Indipenseble
C. Indispansible D. Indispensable

2)

A.Itinarery B. Itinerary
C. Itenary D. Itinarary

A. nourishment B. water C. grains D. menu

3)

A.Survaillance B. Surveillance
C. Survellance D. Surveilance

4)

A.Sepulchral B. Sepilchrle
C. Sepalchrul D. Sepalchrl

5)

A.Judicious B. Cancious
C. Dilicous D. Gracous

6)

A. trade B. money C. bank D. acquisition

6) dimension
A. compass B. ruler C. inch D. measure

A.Klaptomania B. Klepptomania
C. Kleptemania D. Kleptomania

7)

8)

7)

A.Eflorescence B. Efllorescence
C. Efflorescence D. Efflorascence

8)

A.Exterminatte B. Inexpliccable
C. Offspring D. Reffere

9)

A.Entrepreneur B. Entrapreneur

10) A.Equanimity B. Equannimity

infirmary

A. surgery B. disease C. patient D.

sustenance

receptionist
5)

purchase

bonus

A. reward B. raise C. cash D. employer

Culture

A. civility B. education C. agriculture D.

customs

114

C. Entrepraneur D. Enterprenuer

C. Equanimmity D. Equinimity

11) A. Treachrous B. Trecherous

C. Trechearous D. Treacherous

12) A. Rigerous B. Rigourous

C. Regerous D. Rigorous

13) A. Palete B. Palet

C. Palate D. Pelate

14) A. Bouquete B. Bouquette

C. Bouquet D. Boqquet

In each sentence below, four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed,
one which may be either inappropriate in the context of the sentence or wrongly spelt. The
letter of that word is answer.
1)

A. When none of the advocates

B. accepted
C. his offer
D. he appologised them
E. All correct

2)

A. Social security
B. and poverty alleviation
C. programmes are not implimented
D. with required seriousness
E. All correct

3)

A. Many legends
B.superstitions endow the moon with a
beauty and
C. mistery which will
D. linger for countless years
E. All correct

4)

A. One should be able for

B. differentiate between what is
C. desirable and
D. what is not
E. All correct

5)

A. The notorious
B. bandit
C. poisoned the guard and made a
D. miraculous escape
E. All correct

6)

A. The non-availability
B. of unprocessed natural
C. resources in a country should not
be the
D. basic for rejecting that possibility
of export industry
E. All correct

15) A. Chancelary B. Chancellery

C. Chancelery D. Chancellary

Find out that word, the spelling of which is WRONG.

1)

A. Immature B. Imminent
C. Ilicit D. Imperative E. All correct

2)

A. Quarreled B. Rebellious
C. Commission D. Mirraculous
E. All correct

3)

A. Lenient B. Nationalism
C. Overhaul D. Transfered E. All
correct

4)

A, Refuse B. Repute
C. Despute D. Confuse E. All correct

5)

A. Urge B. Merge
C. Perge D. Surge E. All correct

6)

7)

A. Narrator B. Overseer
C. Pretence D. Licence E. All correct

8)

A, Aristocracy B. Prophecy
C. Beaureacuracy D. Democracy
E. All correct
A. Burglar B. Designation
C. Controversy D. Ratificasion
E. All correct

9)

A. Periphery B. Advurtise
C. Courteous D. Indefinite
correct

10) A. Psychologist B. Psychaitrist

C. Physiologist D. Psychoanalyst
E. All correct

Selecting Words
EXERCISES

E. All

11) A. Geography B. History

C. Chemistry D. Commerce
E. All correct

14) A. Inflamable B. Musician

C. Righteousness D. Negotiate
E. All correct

12) A. Amature B. Manual

C. Nephew D. Athletic E. All correct

15) Passion B. Fashion

C. Ration D. Tution E. All correct

13) A. Appraise B. Commend

C.Mentanence D.Behavior
correct

E.

All

Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the
sentence meaningfully complete.
1) Success in this examination depends
2) My uncle decided to take ...... and my
...... hard work alone.
sister to the market.
A. at B. over C. for D. on
A. I B. mine C. me D. myself
3)

We had a ...... of warm weather in

February.
A. time B. spell
B. length D. phase

4)

The ruling party will have to put its

own house ...... order.
A. in B. on C. to D. into

5)

Piyush behaves strangely at times

and, therefore, nobody gets ...... with
him.

6)

Rohan and Rohit are twin brothers, but

they do not look ......
A. unique B. different C. likely D. alike

115

A. about B. through C. along D. up

7)

To err is ...... to forgive divine.

A. beastly B. human C. inhuman D.
natural
...... of old paintings is a job for
experts.
A. Resurrection B. Retrieval C.
Restoration D. Resumption

7)

Man does not live by ...... alone.

A. food B. bread C. meals D. diet

9)

Physically we are now all neighbors,

but psychologically. we are ...... to each
other.
A. primitives B. complimentary
C. strangers D. cowards

If you smuggle goods into the

country, they may be ...... by the
customs authority.
A. possessed B. punished C.
confiscated D. fined

10) When their examinations are over, the

children gleefully ...... the books they
had been reading.
A. shelve B. sidetrack
B. overthrew D. abandon

11) The more your action and thought are

allied and ...... the happier you grow.
A. diverget B. unravelled
B. integrated D. invincible

12) In a large cities people are cut ...... from

nature.
A. away B. off
C. out D. down

13) If I take a state roadways bus, I'll get

late, ...... ?
A. isn't it B. won't I
C. will I D. is it

16) He is a person of sound character and

...... disposition.
A. beneficent B. morous
C. amiable D. amicable

17) A stone that goes on rolling ...... no

moss.
A. collects B. gets
C. gathers D. accumulates

18) Walking at 3'o clock, I heard the ...... of

thunder.
A. crackle B. rumble
C. ripple D. clank

19) The thief ...... all the money.

A. made up B. made off with
C. mode do with D. made good

20) When their examinations are over, the

children gleefully ...... the books they
had been reading.
A. shelve B. sidetrack
C. overthrew D. abandon

8)

8)

Spotting Errors
EXERCISES
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
1)

If I had known

2)

B. this yesterday
C. I will have helped him.
D. No error.

B. due to the inefficiency and lack of

good management
C. on behalf of the railways.
D. No error.

3)

A. One of the members

B. expressed doubt if
C. the Minister was an athiest.
D. No error.

4)

A. I have got
B. my M.Sc. degree
C. in 1988.
D. No error.

5)

A. Having received your letter

B. this morning, we are writing
C. to thank you for the same.
D. No error.

6)

A. If you lend him a book

B. he will lend it to some one else
C. and never you will get it back.
D. No error.

7)

A. Block of Residential flats

B. are coming up
C. near our house.
D. No error
A. According to the Bible
B. it is meek and humble
C. who shall inherit the earth.
D. No error.

8)

9)

A. Do the roses in your garden smell

B. more sweetly
C. than those in ours?
D. No error.
10) A. None of the students attending
your class
B. answered your questions
C. did they?
D. No error.

11) A. He is working in
B. a bank in New Delhi
C. for the past several months.
D. No error.

12) A. A large scale exchange of nuclear

weapons
B. Will produce unprecedented
amounts of radiation
C. that can penetrate into the
biological tissue.
D. No error.

13) A. The person which was

B. recommended for the position
C. did not fulfil the prescribed
qualifications.
D. No error.
15) A. One of my favourite actor
B. is acting
C. in this play also.
D. No error.

14) A. Supposing if
B. there is no bus.
C. how will you get there?
D. No error.

A lot of travel delay is caused

116

16) A. Emphasis on equality of life

ensures
B. for the health and happiness
C. of every individual.
D. No error.

17) A. Because of the emergency help

B. that the patient received
C. he would have died
D. No error.

18) A. He was in such hurry

B. that he didn't
C. wait for me
D. No error.

19) A. Few scientists changed

B. people's ideas as much as
C. Darwin with his Theory
Evolution.
D. No error.

20) A. The course provide

B. not only theoretical inputs
C. but also practical training
D. No error.

of

A. RSQP B. QRPS
C. RQSP D. RQPS
7)

Of many artists
P : those who impressed me the most
Q : I was a child
R : but those with unique personalities
off stage
S : were not always the successful ones
The Proper sequence should be:
A. SRQP B. QRSP
C. RSPQ D. QPSR

8)

9)

The majestic mahogany table P :

belongs to an old prince
Q : which has one leg missing
R : who is no impoverished
S : but not without some pride
The Proper sequence should be:
A. PQSR B. QRSP
C. PRSQ D. QPRS

10) It would P : appear from his

statement
Q : about the policy of management
R : in dealing with the strike
S : that he was quite in the dark
The Proper sequence should be:
A. RPSQ B. PSQR
C. RQPS D. PRQS

11) Education is P : of the proper sense of

responsibilities
Q : the first need
R : in a citizen
S : for the development
The Proper sequence should be:
A. SQPR B. QSRP
C. QSPR D. PQRS

12) He was so kind and generous that P :

he not only
Q : made others do so
R : but also
S : helped them himself
The Proper sequence should be:
A. PSRQ B. SPQR
C. PRSQ D. QPRS

13) We went P : along the railway line

Q : and had a right to
R : where other people not allowed to
go
S : but daddy belonged to the railway
The Proper sequence should be:
A. RPQS B. PRSQ
C. RSQP D. PRQS

14) There was P : needed for it everyday

life
Q : a time when each family
R : for itself most of the things it
S : actually produced
The Proper sequence should be:
A. QRSP B. RQPS
C. RSPQ D. QSRP

15) Little P : that he had been let down

Q : stood by all these years
R : did he realize

16) It is very easy

P : a great deal more than one realizes
Q : may mean

Ordering of Words
EXERCISES
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up.
Rearrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose
the proper sequence.
1) In the darkness
2) We have to
P : the long, narrow beard
P : as we see it
Q : was clearly visible with
Q : speak the truth
R : the tall stooping figure of the
R : there is falsehood and weakness
doctor
S : even if all around us
S : and the aquiline nose
The Proper sequence should be:
The Proper sequence should be:
A. RQSP B. QRPS
A. RQPS
B. PSQR
C. RSQP D. QPSR
C. RSQP
D. QPRS
3)

5)

It is not, therefore P : that I pay a

tribute
Q : to conductors as a class
R : with any feeling of unfriendliness
S : to a particular member of that class
The Proper sequence should be:
A. PQRS B. RQPS
C. RSPQ D. PSRQ

4)

He told us that P : and enjoy it

immensely
Q : in a prose translation
R : he had read Milton
S : which he had borrowed from his
teacher
The Proper sequence should be:

6)

He knows that P : and then to save

himself
Q : was to save all the lives
R : entrusted to his care
S : the duty of a captain
The Proper sequence should be:
A. PQRS B. SQRP
C. SPRQ D. QSRP
When it began to rain suddenly on
the first of January P : to celebrate the
new year
Q : we ran for shelter
R : to the neighbouring house
S : where many people had gathered
The Proper sequence should be:

A. QRPS B. PSQR
C. PRSQ D. QRSP

117

It is easy to excuse P : but it is hard

Q : in a boy of fourteen
R : the mischief of early childhood
S : to tolerate even unavoidable faults
The Proper sequence should be:
A. RPQS B. QRSP
C. QRPS D. RPSQ

S : by a colleague whom he had

The Proper sequence should be:
A. RPSQ B. RSQP
C. QSRP D. QSPR

R : that a phrase that one does not

quite understand
S : to persuade oneself
The Proper sequence should be:
A. RSQP B. SPQR
C. SRQP D. RQPS

17) work is the one thing

P : and without it
Q : that is necessary
R : to keep the world going
S : we should all die
The Proper sequence should be:
A. QPSR B. RPQS
C. SRPQ D. QRPS

18) The appearance

P : this dinosaurs were at their peak
Q : of the first mammals on the earth
R : at the time when
S : went almost unnoticed
The Proper sequence should be:
A. SRPQ B. QSRP
C. QRPS D. RPQS

19) By this time P : at the railway station

Q : reported mass looting
R : reports of violence were flooding in
S : which police dispatches
The Proper sequence should be:
A. RSPQ B. SPRQ
C. SQRP D. RSQP

20) Women P : till the other day

Q : who were content being
housewives
R : about spending their time cooking
S : now sound apologetic
The Proper sequence should be:
A. PQRS B. RSPQ
C. QPSR D. RQPS

Sentence Correction

B. worse than I had expected

C. worse than expectation
D. worst than was expected
E. No correction required

C. did you not thrown

D. you did not thrown
E. No correction required

5)

Shapes of gods and goddess are

worshipped by people.
A. Images
B. Reflections
C. Clay shapes
D. Clay toys
E. No correction required

6)

The intruder stood quietly for few

moments
A. for few time
B. for the few moments
C. for moments
D. for a few moments
E. No correction required

7)

The police has so far succeeded in

recovering only a part of the stolen
property.
A. thus far succeeded for recovery
B. so far succeeded in recovery of
C. as for as succeeded in recovery of
D. so far succeeded to recover
E. No correction required

8)

Despite of their differences on matters

of principles, they all agree on the
demand of hike is salary?
A. Despite their
B. Despite of the
C. Despite for their
D. Despite off their
E. No correction required

9)

The world has seen small real attempt

at population and resource planning.
A. few
B. little
C. less
D. a few
E. No correction required

10) We don't know how did the thief

made an escape.
A. how the thief did make
B. how the thief does make
C. how the thief made
D. how was the thief made
E. No correction required

11) Their earnings are such that they find

it difficult to make both ends to meet.
A. to makings both ends meet
B. to make both ends for meeting
C. to make both ends meet
D. for making both ends to meet
E. No correction required

12) One of the most significant

phenomenons of our time has been
the development of cinema.
A. phenomenon
B.
phenomena
C. phenomenonna
D.
phenomenonns
E. No correction required

13) This is one of the most important

inventions of this century.
A. invention of this century
B. invention of these century

14) If you are thinking about investigation

overseas, isn't it makes sense to find an
experience guide?
A. it is not making
B. doesn't

EXERCISES
Which of phrases given below should replace the phrase printed in bold type?
1) He is too important for tolerating any
2) The population of Tokyo is greater
delay.
than that of any other town in the
A. to tolerate B. to tolerating
world.
C. at tolerating D. with tolerating
A. greatest among any other
E. No correction required
B. greater than all other
C. greater than those of any other
D. greater than any other
E. No correction required
3)

The performance of our players was

rather worst than I had expected.
A. bad as I had expected

4)

Why did you not threw the bag away?

A. did you not throw
B. had you not threw

118

C. invention of centuries
D. invention of the centuries
E. No correction required

it make
C. does it make
making
E. No correction required

D. is it

Sentence Improvement
EXERCISES
In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given
alternatives to the italicized part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative.
1) Will you kindly open the knot?
2) He sent a word to me that he would
A. untie B. break
be coming late.
C. loose D. No improvement
A. sent word
B. had sent a word
C. sent words D. No improvement
3)

More than one person was killed in

accident.
A. were killed
B. are killed
C. have been killed
D. No
improvement

While crossing the highway a five

year old child was knocked out by a
passing car.
A. away B. up
C. down D. No improvement

4)

Five years ago today, I am sitting in a

small Japanese car, driving across
Poland towards Berlin.
A. was sitting
B. sat
C. have been sitting
D. No
improvement

6)

7)

If you are living near a market place

you should be ready to bear the
disturbances caused by traffic.
A. to bear upon
B. to bear with
C. to bear away
D. No
improvement

8)

9)

You cannot forbid him leaving.

A. he leaving
B. his leaving
C. him to leave
D. No
improvement

10) You have come here with a view to

insult me.
A. to insulting me
B. of insulting
me
C. for insulting me
D. No
improvement

5)

Please make it a point to send you

letter at my address.
A. on my address B. to my address
C. in my address
D. No
improvement

I hope you won't object to me

watching while you work.
A. against me watching B. me to
watch
C. to my watching
D. No
improvement

11) 20 kms are not a great distance in

these days of fast moving vehicles.
A. is not a great distance B. is no
distance
C. aren't a great distance
D. No
improvement
13) The dissidents hold a great problem in
every political party.
A. cause
B. give
C. pose
D. No improvement

12) It became clear that the strangers

were heading into a serious disaster.
A. along
B. towards
C. for
D. No improvement

15) Practically every part of the banana

tree is used by man.
A. each part
B. any part
C. most part
D. No improvement

16) My opinion for the film is that it will

bag the national ward.
A. opinion to
B. opinion about
C. opinion on
D. No
improvement

14) I would have waited for you at the

station if I knew that you would
come.
A. had known
B. was knowing
C. have known
D. No
improvement

Completing Statements
EXERCISES
In each question, an incomplete statement (Stem) followed by fillers is given. Pick out the best
one which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.
1) It is not easy to remain tranquil when
2) Although
initial
investigations
those around you ......
pointed towards him ......
A. behave in a socially acceptable manner
A. the preceding events corroborated his
B. exhibit pleasant mannerism
involvement in the crime
C. are losing their heads
B. the additional information confirmed his
D. agree to whatever you say
guilt
E. exhibit generous and magnanimous
C. the subsequent events established that
gestures
he was guilt
D. the subsequent events proved that he
was innocent
E. he gave an open confession of his crime
3)

The weather outside was extremely

pleasant and hence we decided to ......
A. utilise our time in watching the
television
B. refrain from going out for a morning
walk

119

4)

Although, he is reputed for making

very candid statements ......
A. his today speech was not fairly audible
B. his promises had always been realistic
C. his speech was very interesting
D. people follow whatever he instructs to

C. enjoy a morning ride in the open

D. employ this rare opportunity for writing
letters
E. remain seated in our rooms in the
bungalow

them
E. his today's
ambiguous

5)

"Anand stuck up a friendship with

Mahesh in just 2 days" means ......
A. Anand friendship with Mahesh came to
an end recently
B. Anand found out the other friends of
Mahesh
C. Anand fixed a deal with Mahesh in 2
days
D. Anand's friendship with Mahesh lasted
for 2 years
E. Anand became a friend of Mahesh in less
than 2 days

6)

7)

The manager would like you to help

Dhiraj, means ......
A. the manager would like you if you help
Dhiraj
B. the manager desires you to help Dhiraj
C. the manager likes you because you help
Dhiraj
D. Dhiraj expects the manager to tell you to
help him
E. it will be a help to the manager if you
like Dhiraj

8)

9) He has no money now ......

A. although he was very poor once
B. as he has given up all his wealth
C. because he was very rich once
D. because he has received huge donation
E. because he was very greedy about wealth

10) He is so lazy that he ......

A. cannot depend on others for getting his
work done
B. cannot delay the schedule of completing
the work
C. can seldom complete his work on time
D. dislike to postpone the work that he
undertakes to do
E. always help others to complete their
work

statements

were very

"It is an uphill task but you will have

to do it" means ......
A. The work is above the hill and you will
have to do it
B. It is a very easy task but you must do it
C. It is very difficult task but you have to
do it
D. This work is not reserved for you but
you will have to do it
E. It is almost impossible for others but you
can do it

Owing to the acute power shortage,

the people of our locality have
decided to ......
A. dispense with other non-conventional
energy sources
B. resort to abundant use of electricity for
illumination
C. off-switch the electrical appliance while
not in use
D. explore other avenues for utilising the
excess power
E. resort to use of electricity only when it is
inevitable

11) Dinesh is as stupid as he is lazy means

......
A. Dinesh is stupid because he is lazy
B. Dinesh is lazy because he is stupid
C. Dinesh is either stupid or lazy
D. Dinesh is hardly stupid but he is lazy
E. Dinesh is equally stupid and lazy

12) Practically, very little work could be

completed in the last week as it was
......
A. full of working days
B. a very hectic week
C. full of holidays
D. a very busy week
E. loaded with work

13) Because he believes in democratic

principles, he always ......
A. decides all the matters himself
B. listen to others views and enforces his
own
C. shown respect to others opinions if they
match his own
D. reconciles with the majority views and
gives us his own
E. imposes his own views on others

14) The employer appeared to be in such

an affable mood that Rohit ......
A. decided to ask for a raise in his salary
B. was scared to talk to him about his leave
C. felt very guilty for his inadvertent slip
D. promised him that he would not commit
mistake again
E. was pained to press his demand for a
new flat.

15) He always stammers in public

meetings, but his today's speech ......
A. was fairly audible to everyone present in
the hall
B. was not received satisfactorily
C. could not be understood properly
D. was not liked by the audience
E. was free from that defect

16) Even though it is very large house,

......
A. there is a lot of space available in it for
children
B. there is hardly any space available for
children
C. there is no dearth of space for children
D. the servants take a long time to clean it
E. the municipal taxes on it are very happy

Sentence Formation
EXERCISES
In each question below a sentence broken into five or six parts. Join these parts to make a
meaningful sentence. The correct order of parts is the answer.
1. at 2. it 3. take 4. once 5. away
1. him 2. the 3. to 4. charge 5. handover
A. 23514 B. 14352 C. 32514 D. 53214 E.
A. 42531 B. 51342 C. 41352 D. 45231 E.
42315
52431
1. seen 2. going 3. you 4. him 5. have

120

1. bag 2. you 3. seen 4. have 5. my

1. killed 2. a 3. Jaswant 4. bear 5. wild

1. not 2. Hari 3. away 4. run 5. did

1. I 2. help 3. not 4. you 5. did

1. not 2. hotel 3. comfortable 4. was 5. the

1. tea 2. have 3. that 4. some 5. before

1. was 2. and 3. Suresh 4. kind 5. loving

4.
5.
6.

When Jane saw it, she felt like crying.

He decided to present her a clip made of ivory for her long flowing hair.
He, therefore sold off his watch and brought home the present.
1.
2.
3.

Paragraph Formation

4.
EXERCISES
I.
1.
2.
3.
4.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

In each question rearrange the given sentences in proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph; then, mark the correct sequence as answer.
Participation involves more than the formal sharing of decisions.
Through anticipation, individuals or organisations consider trends and make plans, shielding
institutions from trauma of learning by shock.
Innovative learning involves both anticipation and participation.
It is an attitude characterised by cooperation, dialogue and empathy.
A.2314
B.1243
C.4132
D.3214
E.1324

2.
3.
4.
5.

3.

6.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

In his literacy work he spoke of that province of human life which mere intellect does not
speak.
He has also given innocent joy to many children by his stories like 'Kabuliwalah'
These songs are sung not only in bengal but all over the country.
Rabindranath's great works sprang from intensity of vision and feelings.
He sang of beauty and heroism, nobility and charm.

But, we all helped in the first few days.

Chandrapur is considered as a rural area.
Manohar was transferred to his office recently.
Initially he was not getting adjusted to the city life.
Now, Manohar is very proud of his colleagues.
Before that he was working in chandrapur branch of our office.
1.

1.
2.

5.

A Study to this effects suggests that the average white-collar worker demonstrates
only about 25% listening efficiency.
However for trained and good listeners it is not unusual to use all the three
approaches during a setting, thus improving listening efficiency.
There are three approaches to listening: Listening for comprehension, Listening for
empathy and Listening for evaluation.
Although we spend nearly half of each communication interaction listening, we do
not listen well.
Each approach has a particular emphasis that may help us to receive and process
informationin different settings.

John did not have the money to buy the beautiful clip.
After a while, Jane explained to John that she had sold her hair to buy a gold chain for his
watch.
As it was Christmas, john want to give Jane a surprise present.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

The means and methods they employ to deal with public pressures are also
different.
They will make no move unless the gallery is packed.
The poorest are over-hesitant, evasive and preoccupied with their relationships
with others.
Enourmous difference is generally observed in the ways in which various public
officials respond to public pressures.
The best possess understanding of forces that must be taken in to account,
determination not to be swerved from the path of public interest.
They confront all embarrassments with a state general formula.

But by then it was too late to correct things.

It is impossible to steer such a large project to success without planning.
He had to standby and watch helplessly.
The whole scheme was destined, to fail from the beginning.
Bhaskar started realising this only towards the end.

Would you steal a software programme out of retail shop?

The industry on its part has formed an organisation to specially gather information, educate
and drag and software pirates to courts.
But more than the legality, there is always a different way of looking at piracy and that is in
terms of morality.
The Government on the other hand has initiated National Enforcements Committees.
As far as the issue of tackling piracy is concerned, both the industry and government have
already started initiating action.

Ordering Of Sentences
EXERCISES
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in
the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are

121

labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
1)

S1: You know my wife, Madhavi,

always urged me to give up smoking.
P : I really gave it up.
Q : And so When I went to jail I said
to myself I really must give it up, if for
no other reason than of being selfreliant.
R : When I emerged from jail, I
wanted to tell her of my great
triumph.
S : But when I met her, there she was
with a packet of cigarettes.
S6: poor girl!.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. PSRQ B. SPQR C. QPRS D. RSPQ

2)

3)

S1: A father having offered to take the

baby out in a perambulator, was
tempted by the sunny morning to slip
into a pub for a glass of beer.
P : Indignant at her husband's
behaviour, she decided to teach him a
lesson.
Q : She wheeled away the pram.
R : A little later, his wife came by,
where to her horror, she discovered
her sleeping baby.
S : Leaving the pram outside, he
disappeared inside the bar.
S6: She waited for him, anticipating
the white face and quivering lips
which would soon appear with the
news that the baby had been stolen.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. SRPQ B. RQPS C. SPQR D. PQSR

4)

5)

6)

S1: The city is almost a slum and stinks

most of time.
P : The slush on the road did not deter
them.
Q : The occasional slips and falls were

S1: When a satellite is launched, the

rocket begins by going slowly
upwards through the air.
P : However, the higher it goes, the
less air it meets.
Q : As the rocket goes higher, it
travels faster.
R : For the atmosphere becomes
thinner.
S : As a result there is less friction.
S6: Consequently, the rocket still does
not become too hot.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. QPRS B. QSPR C. PQRS D. PQSR

S1: For some time in his youth

Abraham Lincoln was manager for a
shop.
P : Then a chance Customer would
come.
Q : Young Lincoln way of keeping
shop was entirely unlike anyone else's
R : Lincoln would jump up and attend
to his needs and then revert to his
reading.
S : He used to lie full length on the
counter of the shop eagerly reading a
book.
S6: Never before had Lincoln had so
much time for reading as had then.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. SRQPB. QSPR C. SQRP D. QPSR

S1: Venice is a strange and beautiful

city in the north of Italy.
P : There are about four hundred old
stone bridges joining the island of
Venice.

considered a small price to pay for the

trip.
R : They were excited, fascinated by
the sight of fresh snow on the roads.
S : Even so, it looked beautiful to
tourists of various categories.
S6: But some visitors came away with
the unforgettable sight of young
labours scantily clad.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. RQPS B. QPRS C. RSQP D. SPQR

Q : In this city there are no motor

cars, no horses, no buses.
R : These small islands are near one
another.
S : It is not an island but a hundred
and seventeen islands.
S6: This is because Venice has no
streets.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. PQRS B. PRQS C. SRPQ D. PQSR

7)

S1: Ants eat worms, centipedes and

spiders.
P : They are usually much quicker
than the ant itself.
Q : Nevertheless, these animals do not
make easy game for ants.
R : Besides, they have an
extraordinary number of ways of
escaping.
S : They also eat larvae and insect
adults such as flies, moths and spring
tails.
S6: Some jump, and some give out a
pungent repellent substance.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. SQPR B. SPRQ C. SQRP D. SRQP

8)

9)

10) S1: While crossing a busy road, we

should obey the policeman on duty.
P : We should always cross the road at
the zebra crossing.
Q : We must look to the signal lights
and cross the road only when the road
is clear.
R : If there are no signal lights at the
crossing, we should look to the right,
then to left and again the right before
crossing the road.
S : If the road is not clear we should
wait.
S6: We should never run while

S1: A gentleman who lived alone

always had two plates placed on the
table at dinner time.
P : One day just as he sat down to
dine, the cat rushed in to the room.
Q : One plate was for himself and
other was for his cat.
R : she drooped a mouse into her own
plate and another into her master
plate.
S : He used to give the cat a piece of
meat from his own plate.
S6: In this way the cat showed her
gratitude to her master.

122

S1: The Hound of Baskervilles was

feared by the people of the area.
P : Some people spoke of seeing a
huge, shadowy form a Hound at
midnight on the moor.
Q : But they spoke of it in tones of
horror.
R : Nobody had actually seen the
hound.
S : This shadowy form did not reveal
any details about the animal.
S6: The Hound of Baskervilles
remains an unsolved mystery.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. SPQR B. SPRQ C. PSRQ D. PQRS

The Proper sequence should be:

A. QSPR B. PSRQ C. QRSP D. RPQS
11) S1: Calcutta unlike other cities kepts
its trams.
P : As a result there horrendous
congestion.
Q : It was going to be the first in South
Asia.
R : They run down the centre of the
road
S : To ease in the city decided to build
an underground railway line.
S6: The foundation stone was laid in
1972.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. PRSQ B. PSQR C. SQRPD. RPSQ

crossing the road.

The Proper sequence should be:
A. PSRQ B. PQRS C. RQSP D. QRPS
12) S1: Satyajit Ray made several films
for children.
P : Later film makers have followed
his lead.
Q : Today other nations are making
the children's film in a big way.
R : This was at a time when no
director considered children as
potential audience.
S : Ray was, thus, a pioneer in the
field.
S6: But today few think of Ray as a
maker of children's films.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. PSRQ B. RSQP C. RSPQ D. SQRP

4)

The passage tells us

A. how medicine should be manufactured
B. what healthy man should or should not do
C. what television programmes should be about D. how best to imagine illness

5)

A healthy man should be concerned with

A. his work which good health makes possible
C. his health which makes work possible

2)

Comprehension
1)

In the world today we make health and end in itself. We have forgotten that health is really
means to enable a person to do his work and do it well. a lot of modern medicine and this
includes many patients as well as many physicians pays very little attention to health but
very much attention to those who imagine that they are ill. Our great concern with health
is shown by the medical columns in newspapers. the health articles in popular magazines
and the popularity of television programmes and all those books on medicine. We talk
about health all the time. Yet for the most part the only result is more people with
imaginary illness. The healthy man should not be wasting time talking about health: he
should be using health for work. The work does the work that good health possible.

1)

Modern medicine is primarily concerned with

A. promotion of good health
B. people suffering from imaginary illness
C. people suffering from real illness
D. increased efficiency in work

2)

The passage suggests that

A. health is an end in itself
C. health is only means to an end

3)

B. health is blessing
D. we should not talk about health

Talking about the health all time makes people

A. always suffer from imaginary illness
B. sometimes suffer from imaginary illness
C. rarely suffer from imaginary illness
D. often suffer from imaginary illness

1)

B. looking after his health

D. talking about health

The object underlying the rules of natural justice "is to prevent miscarriage of justice" ans
secure "fair play in action" As pointed out earlier the requirement about recording of reasons
for its decision by an administrative authority exercising quasi-judicial functions achieves
his object by excluding changes of arbitrariness and ensuring a degree of fairness in the
process of decision making. Keeping in view the expanding horizon of the principle of
natural justice which govern exercise of power by administrative authorities. The rules of
natural justice are not embodied rules. The extent of their application depends upon the
particularly statutory framework where under jurisdication has been conferred on the
administrative authority. with regard to the exercise of particular power by an
administrative authority including exercise of judicial or quasi-judicial functions the
legislature, while conferring the said power, may feel that it would not be in the larger
public interest that the reasons for the order passed by the administrative authority be
recorded in the order and be communicated to the aggrieved party and it may dispense with
such a requirement.
"The rules of the natural justice are not embodies rules" means that these rules
A. are left deliberately vague
B.cannot be satisfactorily interpreted
C. are flexible
D. cannot be visualized

2)

From the passage it is clear that it is the legislature that

A. invests the administrative authority with enormous powers
B. embodies rules
C. has the larger interests of public welfare
D. leaves administrative authority enough discretion to interpret rules

3)

According to the passage, there is always a gap between

A. rules of natural justice and their application
B. conception of a rule and its concretisation
C. demand for natural justice and its realisation
D. intention and execution

4)

"To dispense with a requirement" means

A. to do without the demand
C. to cancel all formal procedure

5)

B. to drop the charge

D. to alter the provisions of the case

According to the passage, natural justice can be brought about by

A. administrative authority remaining vigilant

123

B. administrative authority upholding rules of natural justice

C. administrative authority farming rules suitably
D. administrative authority observing the rules of fair play
3)

1)

2)

3)

4)

5)

4)

It is to progress in the human sciences that we must look to undo the evils which have
resulted from a knowledge of physical world hastily and superficially acquired by population
unconscious of the changes in themselves that the new knowledge has imperative. The road
to a happier world than any known in the past lies open before us if atavistic destructive
passions can be kept in leash while the necessary adaptations are made. Fears are inevitable
in time, but hopes are equally rational and far more likely to bear good fruit. We must learn
to think rather less of the dangers to be avoided than of the good that will lie within our
grasp if we can believe in it and let it dominate our thoughts. Science, whatever unpleasant
consequences it may have by the way, is in its very nature a liberator, a liberator of bondage
to physical nature and in time to come, a liberator from the weight of destructive passions.
We are on the threshold of utter disaster or unprecedentely glorious achievement. No
previous age has been fraught with problems so momentous; and it is to science that we
must look to for a happy future.
What does science liberate s from? It is liberate us from
A. fears and destructive passions
B. slavery to physical nature and from passions
C. bondage to physical nature
D. idealistic hopes of glorious future
Should human sciences be developed because they will
A. provide more knowledge of the physical word
B. make us conscious of the changing world
C. make us conscious of the changing in ourselves
D. eliminate the destruction caused by a superficial knowledge of the physical world
If man's bestial yearning is controlled
A. the future will be tolerable
B. the future will be brighter than the present
C. the present will be brighter than the future
D. the present will become tolerable
Fears and hopes according to the author
A. are closely linked with the life of modern man
C. can yield good results

B. can bear fruit

D. are irrational

To carve out a bright future man should

A. analyse dangers that lie ahead
C. overcome fear and dangers

B. try to avoid dangers

D. cultivate a positive outlook

The strength of the electronics industry in Japan is the Japanese ability to organise
production and marketing rather than their achievements in original research. The British
are generally recognised as a far more inventive collection of individuals, but never seem
able to exploit what they invent. There are many examples, from the TSR Z hovercraft, high
speed train and Sinclair scooter to the Triumph, BSA and Norton Motorcycle which all

1)

prove this sad rule. The Japanese were able to exploits their strengths in marketing and
development many years ago, and their success was at first either not understood in the
West or was dismissed as something which could have been produced only at their low
price. They were sold because they were cheap copies of other people's ideas churned out of
a workhouse which was dedicated to hard grind above all else.
It is evident from the passage that the strength of a country's industry depends upon
A. original research
B. international cooperation
C. dedicated workforce
D. electronic development

2)

The sad rule mentioned in this passage refers to

A. the inability of the Japanese to be inventive like the British
B. the inability of the British to be industrious like the Japanese
C. the lack of variety in Japanese inventions
D. the poorer marketing ability of British

3)

The TSR Z hovercraft, high speed train, Sinclair scooter etc. are the symbols of
A. Japanese success
B. British failure
C. British success
D. Japanese failure

4)

According to the passage, prosperity in industry depends upon

A. productivity
B. inventiveness
C. marketing ability
D. official patronage

5)

The main theme of this passage is

A. electronic industry in Japan
B. industrial comparison between Japan and Britain
C. the role of marketing efficiency in industrial prosperity
D. the importance of original research in industry

5)

Courage is not only the basis of virtue; it is its expression. faith, hope, charity and all the rest
don't become virtues until it takes courage to exercise them. There are roughly two types of
courage. the first an emotional state which urges a man to risk injury or death, is physical
courage. The second, more reasoning attitude which enables him to take coolly his career,
happiness, his whole future or his judgement of what he thinks either right or worthwhile,
is moral courage.I have known many men, who had marked physical courage, but lacked
moral courage. Some of them were in high places, but they failed to be great in themselves
because they lacked moral courage. On the other hand I have seen men who undoubtedly
possessed moral courage but were very cautious about taking physical risks. But I have never
met a man with moral courage who couldn't, when it was really necessary, face a situation
boldly.
A man of courage is
A. cunning
B. intelligent
C. curious
D. careful

1)

124

2)
3)

4)

5)

Physical courage is an expression of

A. emotions
B. deliberation
A man with moral courage can
A. defy his enemies
C. face a situation boldly

B. overcome all difficulties

D. be very pragmatic

People with physical courage of ten lack

A. mental balance
C. emotional stability

B. capacity for reasoning

D. will to fight

C. uncertainty

All virtues become meaningful because of

A. faith
B. charity

C. courage

D. defiance

D. hope

One Word Substitutes

EXERCISES
In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given word/sentence.
1) State in which the few govern the
2) A style in which a writer makes a
many
display of his knowledge
A. Monarchy B. Oligarchy
A. Pedantic B. Verbose
C. Plutocracy D. Autocracy
C. Pompous D. Ornate
3)

List of the business or subjects to be

considered at a meeting
A. Schedule B. Timetable
C. Agenda D. Plan

4)

Leave or remove from

considered dangerous
A. Evade B. Evacuate
C. Avoid D. Exterminate

5)

A person pretending to be somebody

he is not
A. Magician B. Rogue
C. Liar D. Imposter

6)

A person who knows many foreign

languages
A. Linguist B. Grammarian
C. Polyglot D. Bilingual

7)

One who has little faith in human

sincerity and goodness
A. Egoist B. Fatalist
C. Stoic D. Cynic

8)

9)

Words inscribed on tomb

A. Epitome B. Epistle
C. Epilogue D. Epitaph

10) One who eats everything

A. Omnivorous B. Omniscent
C. Irrestible D. Insolvent

One who possesses many talents

A. Versatile B. Nubile
C. Exceptional D. Gifted

place

11) The custom or practice of having more

than one husband at same time
A. Polygyny B. Polyphony
C. Polyandry D. Polychromy

12) Tending to move away from the

centre or axis
A. Centrifugal B. Centripetal
C. Axiomatic D. Awry

13) A person interested in collecting,

studying and selling of old things
A. Antiquarian B. Junk-dealer
C. Crank D. Archealogist

14) A drawing on transparent paper

A. Red print B. Blue print
C. Negative D. Transparency

15) One who is not easily pleased by

anything
A. Maiden B. Mediaeval
C. Precarious D. Fastidious

16) A remedy for all diseases

A. Stoic B. Marvel
C. Panacea D. Recompense

17) One who is fond of fighting

A. Bellicose B. Aggressive
C. Belligerent D. Militant

18) In a state of tension or anxiety or

suspense
A. Off balance B. Depressed
C. Diffused D. On tenterhooks

19) That which cannot be read

A. Negligible B. Illegible
C. Ineligible D. Incorrigible

20) A small shop that sells fashionable

clothes, cosmetics, etc.
A. Store B. Stall C. Boutique D. Booth

21) Be the embodiment or perfect example

of
A. Characterise B. Idol
C. Personify D. Signify

22) Habitually silent or talking little

A. Serville B. Unequivocal
C. Taciturn D. Synoptic

23) One who cannot be corrected

A. Incurable B. Incorrigible
C. Hardened D. Invulnerable

24) A paper written by hand

A. Handicraft B. Manuscript
C. Handiwork D. Thesis

25) A person not sure of the existence of

god
A. Cynic B. Agnostic C. Atheist D.
Theist

26) To slap with a flat object

A. Chop B. Hew C. Gnaw D. Swat

Verbal Analogies
INTRODUCTION
Analogy means similarity. In this type of questions, two objects related in some way are given

125

and third object is also given with four or five alternatives. You have to find out which one of the

C.foreigner:immigrant
pedagogue:teacher

alternatives bears the same relation with the third objects as first and second objects are related.
Example 1:

15) Glove : Hand

A. Neck : Collar
C. Socks : Feet

Curd : Milk :: Shoe : ?

(A) Leather

(B) Cloth

(C) Jute

(D) Silver

Answer: Option A. As curd is made from milk similarly shoe is made from leather.

D.

B. Tie : Shirt
D. Coat : Pocket

C. colours:pallet
art:appreciation

D.

16) Lawyer : Court

A. Chemist : Laboratory
B. Businessman : Office
C. Labour : Factory
D. Athlete :
Olympics

EXERCISES
Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by
four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.
1) WAN:COLOUR
2) PORK:PIG
A.corpulent:weight
A.rooster:chicken
B.insipid:flavour
B.mutton:sheep
C.pallid:complexion
C.steer:beef
D.enigmatic:puzzle
D.lobster:crustacean

17) Lively : Dull

A. Employed : Jobless B. Flower : Bud
C. Factory : Labour D. Happy : Gay

3)

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

5)

7)

9)

AFTER:BEFORE
A.first:second
B.present:past
C.contemporary:historic
D.successor:predecessor

4)

DISTANCE:MILE
A.liquid:litre B.bushel:corn
C.weight:scale
D.fame:television

6)

ARMY:LOGISTICS
A. business:strategy B. soldier:students
C. war:logic
D. team:individual

8)

MUNDANE:SPIRITUAL
A.
common:ghostly
B.
worldly:unworldly
C. routine:novel
D. secular:clerical

19) Scales : Fish

A. Bear : Fur B. Woman : Dress
C. Skin : Man D. Tree : Leaves

INDIGENT:WEALTHY
A.angry:rich
B.native:affluent
C.gauche:graceful
D.scholarly:erudite
GRAVITY:PULL
A. iron:metal B. north pole:directions
C. magnetism:attraction D. dust:desert

LAWYER:COURT
A.
businessman:market
chemist:laboratory
C. labourer:factory
athlete:Olympics
10) TEN:DECIMAL
A. seven:septet B. four:quartet
C. two:binary
D. five:quince

18) Letter : Word

A. Page : Book B. Product : Factory
C. Club : People D. Home work :
School
20) Candle : Wick
A. Hammer : Nail B. Light : Bulb
C. Oven : Fire D. Bicycle : Wheel

1)

Shade : Tree :: Warmth : ?

A. Self respect B. Mother
C. Wealth D. Ease

2)

Master : OCUVGT :: LABOUR : ?

A. NCDQWT B. NDERWT
C. NBERWT D. NEDRWT

3)

Safe : Secure :: Protect : ?

A. Lock B. Sure
C. Guard D. Conserve

4)

5)

Eye : Myopia :: Teeth : ?

A. Pyrrhoea B. Cataract
C. Trachoma D. Eczema

6)

Conference
:
Chairman
::
Newspaper : ?
A. Reporter B. Distributor
C. Printer D. Editor
Architect : Building :: Sculptor : ?
A. Museum B. Stone
C. Chisel D. Statue

7)

NATION : ANTINO :: HUNGRY : ?

A. HNUGRY B. UHNGYR
C. YRNGUH D. UNHGYR

8)

9)

REASON : SFBTPO :: THINK : ?

A. SGHMJ B. UIJOL
C. UHNKI D. UJKPM

10) South : North-West :: West : ?

A. North B. South-West
C. North-East D. East

B.
D.

11) FILTER:WATER
A. curtail:activity B. expunge:book
C. edit:text D. censor:play

12) HOPE:ASPIRES
A. love:elevates B. film:flam
C. fib:lie
D. fake:ordinary

13) CORPOREAL:SPIRITUAL
A. mesa:plateau
B. moron:savant

14) SYMPHONY:COMPOSER
A. Leonardo:music B. Fresco:painter

11) MXN : 13 x 14 :: FXR : ?

A. 14 x 15 B. 5 x 17
C. 6 x 18 D. 7 x 19

126

Carbon : Diamond :: Corundum : ?

A. Garnet B. Ruby
C. Pukhraj D. Pearl

12) K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?

A. 10/18 B. 11/19
C. 10/8 D. 9/10

13) daisy
flower plant
bungalow house
?
A. building B. cottage C. apartment D. city
15) rule command dictate
doze sleep
?
A. snore B. govern C. awaken D. hibernate

14) palette
easel
brush
textbook lesson plan
?
A. artist B. teacher C. report card
D. paint
16) ant
fly
bee
hamster squirrel ?
A. spider B. mouse C. rodent D. cat

17) Pathology,Cardiology,Radiology,
Ophthalmology
A. Biology B. Hematology
C. Zoology D. Geology

18) Root, Stem, Branch

A. Fertilizer B. Leaf
C. Tree D. Wood

19) Arid, Parched, Droughty

A. Draft B. Earth
C. Dry D. Cow

20) Clutch, Brake, Horn

A. Car B. Scooter
C. Accident D. Steering

21) 'Ophthalmia' is related to 'Eye' in the same

way as 'Rickets' is related to:
A. Kidney B. Nose
C. Bone D. Heart

22) 'Nun' is related to 'Convent' in the

same way as 'Hen' is related to:
A. Nest B. Shed
C. Cell D. Cote

23) 'Jade' is related to 'Green' in the same way

as 'Garnet' is related to:
A. Red B. Blue
C. Orange D. Yellow

24) 'Jackal' is related to 'Howl' in the

same way as 'Cow' is related to:
A. Caws B. Hoot
C. Coo D. Moo

25) 'Cat' is related to 'Kitten' in the same way

as 'Woman' is related to:
A. Puppy B. Colt
C. Calf D. Baby

26) 'Horse' is related to 'Hoof' in the

same way as 'Eagle' is related to:
A. Clutch B. Leg
C. Foot D. Claw

27) 'Forest' is related to 'Viviparium' in the

same way as 'sea' is related to:
A. Port site B. Water
C. Fishery D. Aquarium

28) 'Wax' is related to 'Grease' in the

same way as 'Milk' is related to:
A. Drink B. Ghee
C. Protein D. Curd

29) 'Much' is related to 'Many' in the same way

as 'Measure' is related to:
A. Count B. Measures
C. Calculate D. Weigh

30) 'Calf' is related to 'Cow' in the

same way as 'Kitten' is related to:
A. Deer B. Bear
C. Cat D. Duck

31) 'Dogs' is related to 'Bark' in the same way as

32) 'Metal' is related to 'Conduction' in

'Goats' is related to:

A. Bleat B. Crow
C. Grunt D. Howl

33) 'Rabbit' is related to 'Burrow' in the same

way as 'Lunatic' is related to:
A. Prison B. Cell
C. Barrack D. Asylum

the same way as 'Plastic' is related

to:
A. Ground oil chemistry B.
Industry
C. Inflammability D. Insulation
34) 'Sea' is related to 'Ship' in the same
way as 'Road' is related to:
A. Traffic B. Travellers
C. journey D. Bus

Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).

127

Cause and Effect

INTRODUCTION:
In this type of questions two statements are given. Out of these two statements one may be the
cause and other the effect or either these two may be independent causes any effect or
independent effects of any cause etc.
The following examples will you a clear cut idea to solve this type of problems.
Example 1:
Statements:
1. Ram's father was ill.
2. Ram brought medicine after consulting the doctor.
As Ram's father was ill, he brought medicine on the advice of doctor.
Therefore, I statement is the cause while II statement is the effect.
Example 2:
Statements:
1. The Central Government has recently declared to finish the rebate on farming.
2. The Central Government faces financial loss on account of giving rebate on farming for the
last few years.
As the Central Government faced financial loss on accounts of giving rebate on farming for the
last few years, therefore, they declared to finish the rebate of farming.
Hence statement II is the cause while statement I is the effect.

during the week-end.

Few people visited the religious place
during the week days.
The Government has decided to hold a
single entrance test for admission to all
the medical colleges in India.
The State Government has debarred
students from other States to apply for
the seats in the medical colleges in the
State.
The literacy rate in the district has
been increasing for the last four years.
The district administration has
conducted
extensive
training
programme for the workers involved
in the literacy drive.

The car manufacturing companies

have recently increased the prices of
mid-sized cars.
The Government recently increased
the duty on mid-sized cars.

All the schools in the area had to be

kept closed for most part of the week.
Many parents have withdrawn their
children from the local schools.

The State Government has announced

special tax package for the new
industries to be set-up in the State.
Last year the State Government had
hiked the taxes for all industrial
activities in the State.

The government has allowed private

airline companies in India to operate to
overseas destinations.
The national air carrier has increased
its flights to overseas destinations.

The Government has imported large

quantities of sugar as per trade
agreement with other countries.
The prices of sugar in the domestic
market have fallen sharply in the
recent months.
The vegetable prices in the local
market have increases manifold during
the past few days.
Incessant rains have created flood like
situation in most rural parts of the
State.
There was a huge rush of people to the
temple last Sunday the 15th of the
month.
The temple authority had decided to
close down the temple for repairs from

EXERCISES
The prices of food grains and other
essential commodities in the open
market have risen sharply during the
past three months.
The political party in opposition has
given a call for general strike to protest
against the government's economic
policy.

The employees of the biggest bank in

the country have given an indefinite
strike call starting from the third of
the next month.
The employees of the Central
Government have withdrawn their
week long demonstrations.

The farmers have decided against

selling their Kharif crops to the
Government agencies.
The Government has reduced the
procurement price of Kharif crops
starting from the last month to the
next six months.

Police resorted to lathi-charge to

disperse the unlawful gathering of
large number of people.
The citizens' forum called a general
strike in protest against the police
atrocities.

Many people visited the religious place

Large number of Primary Schools in

the rural areas is run by only one

teacher.
There has been a huge dropout from
the primary schools in rural areas.
The university officers have decided to
conduct last examination every year in
March/April in order to announce the
result at proper time.
In past the result was declared late by
the University due to the lack of
number
of
examiners.

Many people in the area are reported

to be suffering from Malaria.
Private Medical Practitioners in the
area have decided to close their clinics
for few days.
Police had resorted to lathi-charge to
disperse the unruly mob from the civic
headquarters.
The civic administration has recently
hiked the property tax of the

128

residential buildings by about 30

percent.
The prices of petrol and diesel in the
domestic market have remained
unchanged for the past few months.
The crude oil prices in the
International market have gone up
substantially in the last few months.

17th of the month.

Large number of people living in the
low lying areas has been evacuated
during the last few days to safer places.
The Government has rushed in relief
supplies to the people living in the
affected areas.

Syllogism
INTRODUCTION:
The questions which are asked in this section contain two or more statements and these
statements are followed by two or more conclusions. You have to find out which of the
conclusions logically follow from the given statements. The statements have to be taken true
even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts.
For such questions, you can take the help of Venn Diagrams. On the basis of the given
statements, you should draw all the possible diagrams, and then derive the solution from each of
these diagrams separately. Finally, the answer common to the all the diagrams is taken.
Example 1:
Statements:
1. All dogs are asses. 2. All asses are bulls.
Conclusions:
1. Some dogs are not bulls.
2. Some bulls are dogs.
3. All bulls are dogs.
4. All dogs are bulls.
Solution:
On the basis of both statements, the following one diagram is possible.

From the diagram it is clear that (2) and (4) conclusions logically follow.
Example 2:
Statements:
1. Some dogs are asses.
2. Some asses are bulls.
Conclusions:
1. Some asses are not dogs. 2. Some dogs are bulls.
Solution:
From these given statements the following diagrams are possible:

From the diagram neither (1) nor (2) conclusions follow.

EXERCISES
1)

Statements: Some pearls are jewels.

Some jewels are ornaments.
Conclusions:
Some jewels are pearls.
Some ornaments are jewels.

2)

Statements: Some hens are cows. All

the cows are horses.
Conclusions:
Some horses are hens.
Some hens are horses.

3)

Statements: Some papers are pens. All

the pencils are pens.
Conclusions:
Some pens are pencils.
Some pens are papers.

4)

Statements: All the actors are girls. All

the girls are beautiful.
Conclusions:
All the actors are beautiful.
Some girls are actors.

5)

Statements: All the flowers are leaves.

Some leaves are birds.
Conclusions:
Some birds are flowers.
Some leaves are flowers.

6)

Statements: All the windows are

doors. No door is a wall.
Conclusions:
Some windows are walls.
No wall is a door.

7)

Statements: All cups are books. All

books are shirts.
Conclusions:
Some cups are not shirts.
Some shirts are cups.

8)

Statements: Some cows are crows.

Some crows are elephants.
Conclusions:
Some cows are elephants.
All crows are elephants.

9)

Statements: All the pencils are pens.

10) Statements: Some dogs are bats. Some

129

All the pens are inks.

Conclusions:
All the pencils are inks.
Some inks are pencils.

bats are cats.

Conclusions:
Some dogs are cats.
Some cats are dogs.

11) Statements: All the trucks are flies.

Some scooters are flies.
Conclusions:
All the trucks are scooters.
Some scooters are trucks.

12) Statements: All buildings are chalks.

No chalk is toffee.
Conclusions:
No building is toffee
All chalks are buildings.

13) Statements: All cars are cats. All fans

are cats.
Conclusions:
All cars are fans.
Some fans are cars.

14) Statements: No door is dog. All the

dogs are cats.
Conclusions:
No door is cat.
No cat is door.
Some cats are dogs.
All the cats are dogs.

15) Statements: All green are blue. All blue

are white.
Conclusions:
Some blue are green.
Some white are green.
Some green are not white.
All white are blue.

16) Statements: All men are vertebrates.

Some mammals are vertebrates.
Conclusions:
All men are mammals.
All mammals are men.
Some vertebrates are mammals.
All vertebrates are men.

17) Statements: All the phones are scales.

All the scales are calculators.
Conclusions:
All the calculators are scales.
All the phones are calculators
All the scales are phones.
Some calculators are phones.

18) Statements: Some cars are scooters. No

scooter is cycle.
Conclusions:
No car is cycle.
No scooter is car.
Some cars are cycles.
Some scooters are cars.

19) Statements: All the locks are keys. All

the keys are bats. Some watches are
bats.
Conclusions:
Some bats are locks.
Some watches are keys.
All the keys are locks.

20) Statements: Some keys are staplers.

Some staplers are stickers. All the
stickers are pens.
Conclusions:
Some pens are staplers.
Some stickers are keys.
No sticker is key.
Some staplers are keys.

21) Statements: Some questions are

answers. Some answers are writers. All
the writers are poets.
Conclusions:
Some writers are answers.
Some poets are questions.
All the questions are poets.
Some poets are answers.

22) Statements: Some envelops are gums.

Some gums are seals. Some seals are
adhesives.
Conclusions:
Some envelopes are seals.
Some gums are adhesives.
Some adhesives are seals.
Some adhesives are gums

23) Statements: All the papers are books.

All the bags are books. Some purses are
bags.
Conclusions:
Some papers are bags.
Some books are papers.
Some books are purses.
25) Statements: All the books are papers.
Some papers are journals. Some
journals are calendars.
Conclusions:
Some journals are books.
Some calendars are papers.
Some books are journals.
Some books are calendars.

24) Statements: Some rats are cats. Some

cats are dogs. No dog is cow.
Conclusions:
No cow is cat.
No dog is rat.
Some cats are rats.

27) Statements: Some cars are jeeps. All the

boxes are jeeps. All the pens are cars.
Conclusions:
Some cars are boxes.
No pen is jeep.
Some boxes are cars.

28) Statements: Some tables are T.V. Some

T.V. are radios.
Conclusions:
Some tables are radios.
Some radios are tables.
All the radios are T.V.
All the T.V. are tables.
30) Statements: All the goats are tigers. All
the tigers are lions.
Conclusions:
All the goats are lions.
All the lions are goats.
Some lions are goats.
Some tigers are goats.

29) Statements: Some pens are books. Some

books are pencils.
Conclusions:
Some pens are pencils.
Some pencils are pens.
All pencils are pens.
All books are pens.

26) Statements: All the bottles are boxes.

All the boxes are bags. Some bags are
trays.
Conclusions:
Some bottles are trays.
Some trays are boxes.
All the bottles are bags.
Some trays are bags.

Classification
130

EXERCISES

D. Soap : Bathe

D. Mongoose : Snake

Choose the word which is different from the rest.

1)

A. Cap B. Turban C. Helmet D. Veil E.

Hat

2)

A. Kiwi B. Eagle C. Emu D. Ostrich

3)

A.
Rigveda
B.
Yajurveda
C.
Atharvaveda D. Ayurveda E. Samveda

4)

A. Curd B. Butter C. Oil D. Cheese E.

Cream

5)

A. Pear B. Apple C. Litchi D. Guava E.

Orange

6)

A. Dagger B. Hammer C. Knife D.

Sword E. Blade

7)

A. Oyster B. Whelk C. Scallop D.

Mussel E. Clam

8)

A. Producer B. Director C. Investor D.

Financier E. Entrepreneur

9)

A. Tricycle B. Trident C. Trifle D.

Tricolour E. Trilogy

10) A. Chameleon B. Crocodile

Alligator D. Locust E. Salamander

C.

Choose the pair in which the words are differently related (does not bear a common
relationship)

21) A. Solder : Tin

B. Haematite : Iron
C. Bauxite : Aluminium
D. Malachite : Copper

22) A. Donald : Comedy

B. Holmes : Suspense
C. Premchand : Novel
D. Robinson : Adventure

23) A. Onomatology : Names

B. Nidology : Nests
C. Phycology : Algae
D. Concology : Shells

24) A. Cow : Fodder

B. Crow : Carrion
C. Poultry : Farm
D. Vulture : Prey

25) A. Fish : Pisciculture

B. Birds : Horticulture
C. Bees : Apiculture
D. Silkworm : Sericulture

26) A. Aphid : Paper

B. Moth : Wool
C. Termite : Wood
D. Locust: Plant

Which word does NOT belong with the others?

27) A. inch B. ounce C. centimeter D. yard

28) A. tulip B. rose C. bud D. daisy

11) A. Scalpel : Surgeon

B. Chisel : Soldier
C. Awl : Cobbler
D. Knife : Chef

12) A. Beans : Pulses

B. Rice : Cereals
C. Tea : Beverages
D. Legumes : Nodules

29) A. rye B. sourdough C. pumpernickel

D. loaf

30) A. dodge B. flee C. duck D. avoid

31) A. tape B. twine C. cord D. yarn

13) A. Pelican : Reptile

B. Gnu : Antelope
C. Elk : Deer
D. Shark : Fish

14) A. Malaria : Protozoa

B. Yeast: Fungi
C. Typhoid : Bacteria
D. Polio : Virus

33) A. couch B. rug C. table D. chair

32) A. leopard B. cougar C. elephant D.

lion
34) A. cornea B. retina C. pupil D. vision

35) A. noun B. preposition C. punctuation

D. adverb

36) A. peninsula B. island C. bay D. cape

15) A. Chandragupta : Mauryan

B. Babar : Mughal
C. Kanishka : Kushan
D. Mahavira : Jainism

16) A. Flurry : Blizzard

B. Moisten: Drench
C. Prick : Stab
D. Scrub : Polish

37) A. fair B. just C. equitable D. favorable

38) A. acute B. right C. obtuse D. parallel

39) A. scythe B. knife C. pliers D. saw

40) A. evaluate B. assess C. appraise D.

instruct

17) A. Saw : Wood

B. Pen : Paper
C. Author : Book
D. Chalk : Blackboard

18) A. Twigs : Nest

B. Wood : Furniture
C. Pitcher : Pottery
D. Gold : Ornaments

19) A. Broom : Sweep

B. Spoon : Feed
C. Nut : Crack

20) A. Deer : Flesh

B. Crane : Fish
C. Crow : Carrion

Logical Sequence Of Words

EXERCISES
In this type of question, some words are given. You have to arrange these words in a meaningful
order. The order may be according to age, size and need etc.
1) 1. Key
2. Door
3. Lock
2) 1. Word
2. Paragraph
3.
4. Room
5. Switch on
Sentence

131

3)

5)

7)

9)

1. Police
2. Punishment
Crime
4. Judge
5. Judgement
1. Poverty
2. Population
Death
4. Unemployment
5.

3.

4)

3.

6)

Disease

1. Windows
2. Walls
3.
Floor
4. Foundation 5. Roof 6. Room
1. House
2. Street
3. Room
4. Town
5. District

17) 1. Butterfly 2. Cocoon 3. Egg 4.

Worm
19) 1. Milky way 2. Sun 3. Moon 4.
Earth
5. Stars
21) 1. Sea 2. Rivulet 3. Ocean 4. River
5. Glacier
23) 1. Reading 2. Composing 3. Writing
4. Printing
25) 1. Honey 2. Flower 3. Bee 4. Wax
27) 1. Site
2. Plan 3. Rent
Money
5. Building 6. Construction
29) 1. Rainbow
2. Rain
3. Sun
Happy
5. Child
31) 1. Elephant 2. Cat 3. Mosquito
4. Tiger
5. Whale
3. Saree

4.

4.

4. Cotton

35) 1. Patient 2. Diagnosis 3. Bill

4. Doctor 5. Treatment

36)

1. Atomic Age 2. Metallic Age

3. Stone Age 4. Alloy Age

Verbal Reasoning
EXERCISES

8)

11) 1. Index
2. Contents 3. Title
4. Chapters 5. Introduction
13) 1. Table 2. Tree 3. Wood 4. Seed
5. Plant
15) 1. Windows
2. Walls 3. Floor
4. Foundation 5. Roof 6. Room

33) 1. Yarn 2. Plant

5. Cloth

4. Letters
5. Phrase
1. Family
2. Community
3.
Member
4. Locality
5. Country
1. Never 2. Sometimes 3. Generally
4. Seldom 5. Always

1. Cut
4. Measure

2. Puton
5. Tailor

3. Mark

10) 1.Probation
2.Interview
3. Selection
4.Appointment
5. Advertisement
6. Application
12) 1. Income
2. Status 3. Education
4. Well-being 5. Job
14) 1. Table 2. Tree 3. Wood 4. Seed
5. Plant
16) 1. Presentation 2. Recommendation
3. Arrival
4. Discussion
5.
Introduction
18) 1. Rain
2. Monsoon 3. Rescue
4. Flood 5. Shelter 6. Relief
20) 1. Foetus
2. Child
3. Baby
4.
Adult
5. Youth
22) 1. Doctor
2. Fever 3. Prescribe
4. Diagnose 5. Medicine
24) 1. Hecto 2. Centi 3. Deca 4. Kilo
5. Deci
26) 1. Country 2. Furniture 3. Forest
4. Wood
5. Trees
28) 1. Key 2. Door 3. Lock 4. Room
5. Switch on
30) 1. Cutting 2. Dish 3. Vegetable
4. Market 5. Cooking
32) 1. Cut
2. Put on
3. Mark
4.
Measure
5. Tailor
34) 1. Police 2. Punishment 3. Crime
4. Justice 5. Judgement

Find the statement that must be true according to the given information.
1)

Erin is twelve years old. For three

years, she has been asking her parents
for a dog. Her parents have told her
that they believe a dog would not be
happy in an apartment, but they have
given her permission to have a bird.
Erin has not yet decided what kind of
bird she would like to have.
A. Erin's parents like birds better than they
like dogs.
B. Erin does not like birds.
C. Erin and her parents live in an
apartment.
D. Erin and her parents would like to move.

2)

3)

Seahorse populations have declined

everywhere that seahorses are fished.
During the past five years, seahorse
populations have decreased by 50%.
Last year, biologists met to discuss what
might be done to reverse this trend.
A. Seahorses are likely to become extinct
within five years.
B. One way to increase seahorse populations
is to ban the fishing of seahorses.
C. Biologists from all over the world are
working to save the seahorses.
D. Seahorse fishermen have spoken out
against the biologists.

4)

5)

6)

Georgia is older than her cousin

Marsha. Marsha's brother Bart is older

132

Last summer, Mike spent two weeks

at a summer camp. There, he went
hiking, swimming, and canoeing. This
summer, Mike looks forward to
attending a two-week music camp,
where he hopes to sing, dance, and
learn to play the guitar.
A. Mike's parents want him to learn to
play the guitar.
B. Mike prefers music to outdoor activities.
C. Mike goes to some type of camp every
summer.
D. Mike likes to sing and dance.

On weekends, Mr. Sanchez spends

many hours working in his vegetable
and flower gardens. Mrs. Sanchez
spends her free time reading and
listening to classical music. Both Mr.
Sanchez and Mrs. Sanchez like to
cook.

A. Mr. Sanchez enjoys planting and

growing vegetables.
B. Mr. Sanchez does not like classical
music.
C. Mrs. Sanchez cooks the vegetables that
Mr. Sanchez grows.
D. Mrs. Sanchez enjoys reading nineteenth
century novels.
Sara lives in a large city on the East
Coast. Her younger cousin Marlee

than Georgia. When Marsha and Bart

are visiting with Georgia, all three like
to play a game of Monopoly. Marsha
wins more often than Georgia does.
A. When he plays Monopoly with Marsha
and Georgia, Bart often loses.
B. Of the three, Georgia is the oldest.
C. Georgia hates to lose at Monopoly.
D. Of the three,Marsha is the youngest.

lives in the Mid-west in a small town

with fewer than 1,000 residents.
Marlee has visited Sara several times
during the past five years. In the same
period of time, Sara has visited Marlee
only once.
A. Marlee likes Sara better than Sara likes
Marlee.
B. Sara thinks small towns are boring.
C. Sara is older than Marlee.
D. Marlee wants to move to the East Coast.

7)

8)

Ten new television shows appeared

during the month of September. Five of
the shows were sitcoms, three were
hour-long dramas, and two were newsmagazine shows. By January, only
seven of these new shows were still on
the air. Five of the shows that
remained were sitcoms.
A. Only one of the news-magazine shows
remained on the air.
B. Only one of the hour-long dramas
remained on the air.
C. At least one of the shows that was
cancelled was an hour-long drama.
D. Television viewers prefer sitcoms over
hour-long dramas.

Tim's commute never bothered him

because there were always seats
available on the train and he was able
to spend his 40 minutes comfortably
reading the newspaper or catching up
on paperwork. Ever since the train
schedule changed, the train has been
extremely crowded, and by the time
the doors open at his station, there
isn't a seat to be found.
A. Tim would be better off taking the bus
to work.
B. Tim's commute is less comfortable since
the train schedule changed.
C. Many commuters will complain about
the new train schedule.
D. Tim will likely look for a new job closer
to home.

C. academic scholars are putting together an anthology of Shakespeare's work.

D. New Yorkers have a renewed interested in the work of Shakespeare.
E. Shakespeare was a psychiatrist as well as a playwright.
2)

One of the warmest winters on record has put consumers in the mood to spend money.
Spending is likely to be the strongest in thirteen years. During the month of February, sales
of existing single-family homes hit an annual record rate of 4.75 million.
This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. consumer spending will be higher thirteen years from now than it is today.
B. more people buy houses in the month of February than in any other month.
C. during the winter months, the prices of single-family homes are the lowest.
D. there were about 4 million homes for sale during the month of February.
E. warm winter weather is likely to affect the rate of home sales.

3)

Yoga has become a very popular type of exercise, but it may not be for everyone. Before you
sign yourself up for a yoga class, you need to examine what it is you want from your fitness
routine. If you're looking for a high-energy, fast-paced aerobic workout, a yoga class might
not be your best choice.
This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. yoga is more popular than high-impact aerobics.
B. before embarking on a new exercise regimen, you should think about your needs and
desires.
C. yoga is changing the world of fitness in major ways
D. yoga benefits your body and mind
E. most people think that yoga isn't a rigorous form of exercise.

4)

Analyzing Arguments

Human technology developed from the first stone tools about two and a half million years
ago. At the beginning, the rate of development was slow. Hundreds of thousands of years
passed without much change. Today, new technologies are reported daily on television and
in newspapers.

EXERCISES
1)

This paragraph best supports the statement that

A. stone tools were not really technology.
B. stone tools were in use for two and a half million years
C. there is no way to know when stone tools first came into use.
D. In today's world, new technologies are constantly being developed
E. none of the latest technologies is as significant as the development of stone tools.

One New York publisher has estimated that 50,000 to 60,000 people in the United States
want an anthology that includes the complete works of William Shakespeare. And what
accounts for this renewed interest in Shakespeare? As scholars point out, his psychological
insights into both male and female characters are amazing even today.
This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. Shakespeare's characters are more interesting than fictional characters today.
B. people even today are interested in Shakespeare's work because of the characters.

5)

Mathematics allows us to expand our consciousness. Mathematics tells us about economic

trends, patterns of disease, and the growth of populations. Math is good at exposing the

133

truth, but it can also perpetuate misunderstandings and untruths. Figures have the power to
mislead people.

learning the basics, like arithmetic and reading. After all, a baby has to crawl before she can
walk.

This paragraph best supports the statement that

A. the study of mathematics is dangerous.
B. words are more truthful than figures.
C. the study of mathematics is more important than other disciplines.
D. the power of numbers is that they cannot lie.
E. figures are sometimes used to deceive people.
6)

II.

III.

8)

Which of the following methods of argument is used in the previous passage?

A. a specific example that illustrates the speaker's point
B. attacking the beliefs of those who disagree with the speaker
C. relying on an analogy to prove the speaker's point
D. displaying statistics that back up the speaker's point
E. comparing different methods of learning
Read the below passage carefully and answer the questions:

Quinn: Our state is considering raising the age at which a person can get a driver's license to
eighteen. This is unfair because the age has been sixteen for many years and sixteen-year-olds
today are no less responsible than their parents and grandparents were at sixteen.Many young
people today who are fourteen and fifteen years old are preparing to receive their licenses by
driving with a learner's permit and a licensed driver, usually one of their parents. It would not be
fair to suddenly say they have to wait two more years.

Which of the following, if true, would weaken the speaker's argument?

A. An action is not considered a part of freedom of speech.
B. People who burn the flag usually commit other crimes as well.
C. The flag was not recognized by the government until 1812.
D. State flags are almost never burned
E. Most people are against flag burning.

Giving children computers in grade school is a waste of money and teachers time. These
children are too young to learn how to use computers effectively and need to spend time on

Which of the following, if true, would weaken the speaker's argument?

A. a demonstration that computers can be used to teach reading and arithmetic
B. analysis of the cost-effectiveness of new computers versus repairing old computers
C. examples of adults who do not know how to use computers
D. recent grade reports of students in the computer classes
E. a visit to a classroom where computers are being used

III.

Which of the following is similar to the argument made by the speaker?

A. The rich should not be allowed to "buy" politicians, so the Congress should enact
campaign finance reform.
B. The idea of freedom of religion also means the right not to participate in religion, so
mandated school prayer violates freedom of religion.
C. The Constitution guarantees freedom to own property, so taxes should be illegal.
D. Convicted felons should not have their convictions overturned on a technicality.
E. In order to understand what may be constitutional today, one needs to look at what
the laws were when the Constitution was enacted.

Which of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?
A. Only veterans care about the flag-burning issue.
B. Flag burning almost never happens, so outlawing it is a waste of time.
C. Flag burning will be a very important issue in the next election.
D. To outlaw flag burning is to outlaw what the flag represents.
E. Burning the flag should only be illegal when it is done in foreign countries.

Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the speaker's argument?

A. studies showing computers are expensive
B. research on the effect of computer games on children
C. examples of high school students who use computers improperly
D. proof that the cost of computers is coming down
E. evidence that using computers makes learning to read difficult

II.

Some groups want to outlaw burning the flag. They say that people have fought and died for
the flag and that citizens of the United States ought to respect that. But I say that respect
cannot be leg-islated. Also, most citizens who have served in the military did not fight for
the flag, they fought for what the flag represents. Among the things the flag represents is
freedom of speech, which includes, I believe, the right for a citizen to express displeasure
with the government by burning the flag in protest.
I.

7)

I.

Dakota: It is true that people have been allowed to receive a drivers license at sixteen for
generations. However, in recent years, the increase in traffic means drivers face more dangers
than ever and must be ready to respond to a variety of situations. The fact that schools can no
longer afford to teach drivers education results in too many young drivers who are not prepared
to face the traffic conditions of today.
I.

What is the point at issue between Quinn and Dakota?

A. whether sixteen-year-olds should be required to take drivers education before being
issued a license
B. whether schools ought to provide drivers education to fourteen- and

134

fifteen-year-old students
C. whether the standards for issuing drivers licenses should become more stringent
D. whether sixteen-year-olds are prepared to drive in today's traffic conditions
E. whether parents are able to do a good job teaching their children to drive
On what does Quinn rely in making her argument?
A. statistics B. emotion
C. fairness
D. anecdotes
E. actualities
On what does Dakota rely in making her argument?
A. statistics B. emotion
C. fairness
D. anecdotes
E. actualities

II.
III.

Verification of Truth
EXERCISES
1)

Which one of the following is always

with 'Bargain'?
A. Exchange B. Sumptuousness
C. Triviality D. Eloquence

2)

Which one of the following is always

found in 'Phrase'?
A. Nomenclature B. Manifestation
C. Pictorial effect D. Glossary

4)

5)

Danger always involves

A. Enemy B. Attack
C. Fear D. Help

6)

Which one of the following is always

found in 'Remedy of fault'?
A. Punishment B. Remedy
C. Fault D. Scolding

7)

In India a widow can marry her

brother-in-law although a man cannot
marry the sister of his dead wife:
A. Always B. Never
C. Often D. Sometimes

8)

A mirror always
A. Retracts B. Distorts
C. Refracts D. Reflects

9)

A bulb always has

A. Glass B. Current
C. Filament D. Light

10) Which one of the following is always

found in 'Wonder'?
A. Crowd B. Lumber
C. Astonishment D. Rustic

3)

11) Disclosure always involves

A. Agents B. Display
C. Exposition D. Secrets

My ten years old niece is taller than

my twelve years old son:
A. Always B. Never
C. Often D. Sometimes
If we are going early in the morning
towards the south the sun will be
visible at our left:
A. Always B. Never
C. Often D. Sometimes

12) What is always in worry?

A. Difficulty B. Unrest
C. Non-Cooperation D. Poignancy

13) Which one of the following is always

associated with 'tree'?
A. Flowers B. Leaves
C. Fruits D. Roots

14) Which one of the following is always

associated with 'justice'?
A. Hypocrisy B. Legitimate
C. Magnanimity D. Diminutiveness

15) A hill always has

A. Trees B. Height
C. Animals D. Water

16) What is found necessarily in

newspaper?
A. Date B. Advertisement
C. News D. Editor
18) Which one of the following is always
in 'Sentiment'?
A. Cruelty B. Insight
C. Neutrality D. Emotion

17) Controversy always involves

A. Dislike B. Injustice
C. Disagreement D. Passion

19) A camera always has

A. Reels B. Flash
C. Stand D. Lens

20) What is found necessarily in a race?

A. Judge B. Spectators
C. Competitor D. Prize

Blood Relation Test

INTRODUCTION
The questions which are asked in this section depend upon Relation. You should have a sound
knowledge of the blood relation in order to solve the questions. To remember easily the relations
may be divided into two sides as given below:
1. Relations of Paternal side:
1. Father's father Grandfather
2. Father's mother Grandmother
3. Father's brother Uncle
4. Father's sister Aunt
5. Children of uncle Cousin
6. Wife of uncle Aunt
7. Children of aunt Cousin
8. Husband of aunt Uncle
2. Relations of Maternal side:
1. Mother's father Maternal grandfather
2. Mother's mother Maternal grandmother
3. Mother's brother Maternal uncle
4. Mother's sister Aunt
5. Children of maternal uncle Cousin

135

6.

Wife of maternal uncle Maternal aunt

Relations from one generation to next:

Therefore, D is a boy because there is only one daughter of E.

Hence, B is the brother of D.
Type 3:
Pointing to a photograph, Rekha says to Lalli, "The girl in the photo is the second daughter of the
wife of only son of the grandmother of my younger sister." How this girl of photograph is related
to Rekha?
Solution: First method:
1. Grandmother of younger sister of Rekha Grandmother of Rekha
2. Wife of only son of grandmother Mother of Rekha
3. Younger daughter of the mother Younger sister.
Note: While solving the question (+) can be used for male and (-) can be used for
female.
Second Method - By Generating Charts:

Differenct types of questions with explanation:

Type 1:
If A + B means A is the mother of B; A x B means A is the father of B; A $ B means A is the
brother of B and A @ B means A is the sister of B then which of the following means P is the son
of Q?
(A) Q + R @ P @ N (B) Q + R * P @ N
(C) Q x R $ P @ N (D) Q x R $ P $ N
Solution: (D)
Q x R = Q is the mother of R [-Q, R]
R $ P = R is the brother of P [+ R, P]
P $ N = P is the brother of N [+ P, N]
Therefore P is the son of Q.
Type 2:
A has 3 children. B is the brother of C and C is the sister of D, E who is the wife of A is the
mother of D. There is only one daughter of the husband of E. what is the relation between D and
B?
Solution: With the chart

136

A. Q - N + M x P B. P + S x N - Q
C. P - M + N x Q D. Q - S % P
3)

If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of

C; and C is the father of D, how D is
related to A?
A. Brother B. Sister
C. Nephew D. Cannot be determined

4)

If A + B means A is the brother of B;

A - B means A is the sister of B and A
x B means A is the father of B. Which
of the following means that C is the
son of M?
A. M - N x C + F B. F - C + N x M
C. N + M - F x C D. M x N - C + F

5)

Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the

son of the daughter of the father of my
uncle." How is the boy related to the
girl?
A. Brother B. Nephew
C. Uncle D. Son-in-law

6)

If D is the brother of B, how B is

related to C? To answer this question
which of the statements is/are
necessary?
The son of D is the grandson of C.
B is the sister of D.
A. Only 1 B. Only 2
C. Either 1 or 2 D. 1 and 2 both are
required

7)

If A + B means A is the father of B; A B means A is the brother B; A % B

means A is the wife of B and A x B
means A is the mother of B, which of
the following shows that M is the
maternal grandmother of T?
A. M x N % S + T B. M x N - S % T
C. M x S - N % T D. M x N x S % T

8)

A and B are children of D. Who is the

father of A? To answer this question
which of the statements (1) and (2) is
necessary?
C is the brother of A and the son of E.
F is the mother B.
A. Only (1) B. Only (2)
C. Either (1) or (2) D. (1) and (2) both

9)

If P $ Q means P is the brother of Q; P #

Q means P is the mother of Q; P * Q
means P is the daughter of Q in A # B $
C * D, who is the father?
A. D B. B
C. C D. Data is inadequate

10) A3P means A is the mother of P

A4P means A is the brother of P
A9P means A is the husband of P
A5P means A is the daughter of P
Which of the following means that K
is the mother-in-law of M?
A. M9N3K4J B. M9N5K3J
C. K5J9M3N D. K3J9N4M

11) P is the mother of K; K is the sister of D;

D is the father of J. How is P related to
J?
A. Mother B. Grandmother

12) Pointing to Gopi, Nalni says, "I am

the daughter of the only son of his
grandfather." How Nalni is related to
Gopi?

EXERCISES
1)

Pointing to a photograph of a boy

Suresh said, "He is the son of the only
son of my mother." How is Suresh
related to that boy?
A. Brother B. Uncle C. Cousin D.
Father

2)

If A + B means A is the mother of B;

A - B means A is the brother B; A %
B means A is the father of B and A x
B means A is the sister of B, which of
the following shows that P is the
maternal uncle of Q?

137

C. Aunt D. Data inadequate

A. Niece B. Daughter
C. Sister D. Cannot be determined

13) M is the father of N who is the son of V.

In order to know the relation of M to P,
which of the statement/statements
is/are necessary?
P is the brother of V.
The daughter of N is the granddaughter
of V.
A. Only (1) B. Only (2)
C. Either (1) or (2) D. (1) and (2) both
15) Anupam said to a lady sitting in a car,
"The only daughter of the brother of my
wife is the sister-in-law of the brother
of your sister." How the husband of the
lady is related to Anupam?
A. Maternal uncle B. Uncle
C. Father D. Son-in-law

14) A * B means A is the sister of B

A $ B means B is the mother of A
A + B means A is the brother of B
A = B means B is the father of A.
Which of the following means M is
the maternal uncle of N?
A. M = P + Q * N B. N + P = Q * M
C. N * P $ Q * M D. None of these

17) M % N means M is the son of N.

M @ N means M is the sister of N.
M $ N means M is the father of N.

18) A + B means A is the mother of B.

A - B means A is the sister of B.
A * B means A is the father of B.
A B means A is the brother of B.

16) Deepak said to Nitin, "That boy

playing with the football is the
younger of the two brothers of the
daughter of my father's wife." How is
the boy playing football related to
Deepak?
A. Son B. Brother
C. Cousin D. Brother-in-law

Which of the following shows the

relation that C is the granddaughter of
E?
A. C % B $ F $ E B. B $ F $ E % C
C. C @ B % F % E D. E % B $ F $ C

Which of the following means Q is

the grandfather of P?
A. P + N * M * Q B. Q * N * M + P
C. Q M N * P D. None of these

Which of the following shows the

relation that S is the father of Q?
A. S @ P $ Q B. Q @ P % S
C. Q $ S @ P D. None of these

Which of the following means that N

is the maternal uncle of M?
A. N P - L + E - M B. N - Y + A M
C. M - Y * P - N D. N C + F * M

Matching Definitions
EXERCISES
Read each definition and all four choices carefully, and find the answer that provides the best
example of the given definition.
1)

People speculate when they consider a

2)

Posthumous Publication occurs when

situation and assume something to be

true based on inconclusive evidence.
Which situation below is the best
example of Speculation ?
A. Francine decides that it would be
appropriate to wear jeans to her new office
on Friday after reading about "Casual
Fridays" in her employee handbook.
B. Mary spends thirty minutes sitting in
traffic and wishes that she took the train
instead of driving.
C. After consulting several guidebooks and
her travel agent, Jennifer feels confident
that the hotel she has chosen is first-rate.
D. When Emily opens the door in tears,
Theo guesses that she's had a death in her
family.

a book is published after the author's

death. Which situation below is the
best
example
of
Posthumous
Publication ?
A. Richard's illness took his life before he
was able to enjoy the amazing early
reviews of his novel.
B. Melissa's publisher cancels her book
contract after she fails to deliver the
manuscript on time.
C. Clarence never thought he'd live to see
the third book in his trilogy published.
D. Elizabeth is honored with a prestigious
literary award for her writing career and
her daughter accepts the award on behalf
of her deceased mother.

3)

Establishing a Power of Attorney

occurs when a legal document is
created that gives one individual the
authority to act for another. Which
situation below is the best example of
Establishing a Power of Attorney?
A. Louise is selling her house and she hires
a lawyer to review the contract.
B. Simone's mother can no longer get to the
bank to cash her checks and make deposits,
so she has taken legal steps to enable
Simone to do these things for her.
C. Jack's father is elderly and Jack thinks he
is no longer able to make decisions for
himself.
D. At her daughter's urging, Mrs.Lenox
opens up a retirement account with the
local bank.

4)

5)

6)

Reentry occurs when a person leaves

his or her social system for a period of
time and then returns. Which situation
below best describes Reentry ?
A. When he is offered a better paying
position, Jacob leaves the restaurant he

138

Embellishing the Truth occurs when a

person adds fictitious details or
exaggerates facts or true stories.
Which situation below is the best
example of Embellishing the Truth?
A. Isabel goes to the theater, and the next
day, she tells her coworkers she thought
the play was excellent.
B. The realtor describes the house, which is
eleven blocks away from the ocean, as
prime waterfront property.
C. During the job interview, Fred, who has
been teaching elementary school for ten
years, describes himself as a very
experienced teacher.
D. The basketball coach says it is likely that
only the most talented players will get a
college scholarship.
A Tiebreaker is an additional contest
or period of play designed to establish
a winner among tied contestants.
Which situation below is the best
example of a Tiebreaker?
A. At halftime, the score is tied at 28.

manages to manage a new restaurant on the

other side of town.
B. Catherine is spending her junior year of
college studying abroad in France.
C. Malcolm is readjusting to civilian life
after two years of overseas military service.
D. After several miserable months, Sharon
decides that she can no longer share an
apartment with her roommate Hilary.

B. Mary and Megan have each scored three

goals in the game.
C. The referee tosses a coin to decide which
team will have possession of the ball first.
D. The Sharks and the Bears each finished
with 14 points, and they are now battling it
out in a five-minute overtime.

7)

In the Maple Hill school district, a

Five-Day Suspension occurs when a
student is not permitted to attend
school for five days for (1) physically
assaulting another student, a teacher,
or a school employee or (2) willfully
destructing
or
defacing
school
property. Which situation below is the
best
example
of
a
Five-Day
Suspension?
A. Lillian gets caught cheating on a math
test for the second time and is suspended
from school.
B. Marc is asked to leave the classroom due
to his constant disruptions.
C. Franny uses spray paint to write
derogatory comments on the locker room
wall and she is given a suspension.
D. Ms. Farmer tells her class that students
who fail the midterm exam will be expected
to stay after school for tutoring help.

8)

9)

10) The rules of baseball state that a batter

Legally Completes His Time at Bat
when he is put out or becomes a base
runner. Which situation below is the
best example of a batter Legally
Completing His Time at Bat?
A. Jared's blooper over the head of the
short-stop puts him in scoring position.
B. The umpire calls a strike, even though
the last pitch was way outside.
C. The pitcher throws his famous

A Guarantee is a promise or assurance

that attests to the quality of a product
that is either (1) given in writing by
the manufacturer or (2) given verbally
by the person selling the product.
Which situation below is the best
example of a Guarantee?
A. Melissa purchases a DVD player with the
highest consumer ratings in its category.
B. The salesperson advises Curt to be sure
that he buys an air conditioner with a

guarantee.
C. The local auto body shop specializes in
refurbishing and selling used cars.
D. Lori buys a used digital camera from her
coworker who says that she will refund
Lori's money if the camera's performance is
not of the highest quality.

knuckleball, Joe swings and misses, and the

umpire calls a strike.
D. The count is two balls and two strikes as
Mario waits for the next pitch.

Theme Detection
Erratic Behavior occurs when an
individual acts in a manner that lacks
consistency,
regularity,
and
uniformity. Which situation below is
the best example of Erratic Behavior?
A. Julia cannot contain her anger whenever
the subject of local politics is discussed.
B. Martin has just been told that he is being
laid off. Before leaving his supervisor's
office, he punches a hole in the door.
C. Rhonda has visited the dealership
several times, but she still cannot decide
which car to buy.
D. In the past month, Jeffrey, who has been
a model employee for three years, has
repeatedly called in sick, forgotten
important meetings, and been verbally
abusive to colleagues.

EXERCISES
Each of the following questions contains a small paragraph followed by a question on it. Read
each paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.
1)

Though the waste of time or the

expenditure on fashions is very large,
yet fashions have come to stay. They
will not go, come what may. However,
what is now required is that strong
efforts should be made to displace the
excessive craze for fashion from the
minds of these youngsters.

The passage best supports the

statement that:
A. fashion is the need of the day.
B. the excessive craze for fashion is
detrimental to one's personality.
C. the hoard for fashion should be done
away with so as not to let down the
constructive development.
D. work and other activities should be
valued more than the outward appearance.

3)

The school has always been the most

important means of transferring the
wealth of tradition form one generation
to the next. This applies today in an
even higher degree than in former

139

2)

Emerson said that the poet was

landlord, Sealord, airlord. The flight
of imagination made the poet master
of land, sea and air. But a poet's dream
of yesterday becomes today an actual
achievement and a reality for all men.
Even those who invented, improved
and perfected the aeroplane could
hardly have dreamt of the possibility
of flight into outer space.
The passage best supports the
statement that:
A. seemingly impossible imaginations
make one a good poet,
B. all imaginations become a reality some
day.
C. what man imagined has never been
impossible; he has always turned it a
reality through his conception of ideas
and sheer hard labour.
D. man has reached the climax of
technological development with his
exploration into outer space.
4)

Industrial exhibitions play a major

role in a country's economy. Such
exhibitions, now regularly held in
Delhi, enable us to measure the extent
of our own less advanced industrial

times for, through the modern

development of economy, the family as
bearer of tradition and education has
become weakened.
This passage best supports the
statement that for transferring the
wealth of tradition from one
generation to the next A. there are means other than the school.
B. several different sources must be tried.
C. economic development plays a crucial
role
D. modern technology must be put to use.
E. family, as ever, is the most potent means.

5)

progress and the mighty industrial

power and progress of countries like
the U.K., U.S.A. and Russia whose
pavilions are the centres of the
greatest attention and attractions.
The passage best supports the
statement that industrial exhibitions A. greatly tax the poor economies.
B. are more useful for the developed
countries like U.S.A. whose products stand
out superior to those of the developing
countries.
C. are not of much use to the countries that
are industrially backward.
D. boost up production qualitatively and
quantitatively by analytical comparison of
a country's products with those of the
developed countries.

To forgive an injury is often considered

to be a sign of weakness; it is really a
sign of strength. It is easy to allow
oneself to be carried away by
resentment and hate into an act of
vengeance; but it takes a strong
character to restrain those natural
passions. The man who forgives an
injury proves himself to be the superior
of the man who wronged himself and
puts the wrong-doer to shame.
The passage best supports' the
statement that:
A. the sufferer alone knows the intensity of
his sufferings.
B. people tend to forgive the things
happened in the past.
C. natural passions are difficult to suppress.
D. mercy is the noblest form of revenge.
E. a person with calm and composed nature
has depth of thought and vision.

6)

7)

8)

The future of women in India is quite

bright and let us hope that they will

The prevention of accidents makes it

necessary not only that safety devices
be used to guard exposed machinery
but also that mechanics be instructed
in safety rules which they must follow
for their own protection, and that
lighting in the plant be adequate.
The passage best supports the
statement that industrial accidents A. are always avoidable;
B. may be due to ignorance.
C. cannot be entirely overcome.
D. can be eliminated with the help of
safety rules.
E. usually result from inadequate
machinery.

justify their abilities by rising to the

occasion. Napoleon was right when he
declared that by educating the women
we can educate the whole nation.
Because a country can never rise
without the contribution of 50% of
their population.
The passage best supports the
statement that:
A. India is striving hard for the
emancipation of women.
B. all women should be well educated.
C. a nation can progress only when women
are given equal rights and opportunities as
men.
D. women ought to be imparted full
freedom to prove their worth and
contribute to the progress of the nation.

greater dignity and value that it

imparts to human labour. In a highly
industrialized society, there is no
essential difference between Brahmin
and Dalit, Muslim and Hindu; they
are equally useful and hence equally
valuable for in the industrial society
individual productivity fixes the size
of the pay cheque and this fixes social
status.
The passage best supports the
statement that:
A. technology decides individual's social
status.
B. castes and religions are man-made.
C. human labour has dignity and value.
D. all individuals, irrespective of caste and
creed, are born equal.
E. industrial society is a great leveler of
men.

9)

10) The virtue of art does not allow the

work to be interfered with or
immediately ruled by anything other
than itself. It insists that it alone shall
touch the work in order to bring it
into being. Art requires that nothing
shall attain the work except through
art itself.
This passage best supports the statement
that:
A. art is governed by external rules and
conditions.
B. art is for the sake of art and life.
C. art is for the sake of art alone.
D. artist realizes his dreams through his
artistic creation.
E. artist should use his art for the sake of
society.

There is a shift in our economy from a

manufacturing to a service orientation.
The increase in service-sector will
require the managers to work more
with people rather than with objects
and things from the assembly line.
This passage best supports the
statement that:
A. managers should have a balanced mind.
B. assembly line will exist in service
organizations.
C. interpersonal skills will become more
important in the future work place.
D. manufacturing organizations ignore
importance of people.
E. service organizations will not deal with
objects and things.

One of the important humanitarian

by-products of technology is the

140