Exam : Cisco 640-802

Title : Cisco Certified Network

Associate

Version : Demo
1. Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the "Serial0/0 is down" interface status?

(Choose two.)

A. A Layer 1 problem exists.

B. The bandwidth is set too low.

C. A protocol mismatch exists.

D. An incorrect cable is being used.

E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.

Answer: AD

2. Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which

command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)

A. the amount of available ROM

B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory

C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router

D. show version

E. show processes

F. show running-config

Answer: BD

3. Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support

this transmission?
A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

Answer: D

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown

in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.

B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.

C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.

D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.

E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.

F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same

encapsulation type.

Answer: DF

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on

RouterB? (Choose two.)

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.

B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.

C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.

D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.

E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

Answer: BC

6. A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network

administrator tell the new technician about VTP configuration? (Choose three.)

A. A switch in the VTP client mode cannot update its local VLAN database.

B. A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.

C. A switch in the VTP server mode can update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.

D. A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to other switches.

E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP

revision number.

F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured

VTP domain membership.

Answer: ABD

7. Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command?

(Choose two.)

A. RAM

B. NVRAM

C. flash memory

D. HTTP server

E. TFTP server

F. Telnet server

Answer: CE

8. What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)

A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices

B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device

C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches

D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails

E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device

F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers

Answer: DE

9. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are using a default configuration. Which two destination addresses

will host 4 use to send data to host 1? (Choose two.)

A. the IP address of host 1

B. the IP address of host 4

C. the MAC address of host 1

D. the MAC address of host 4

E. the MAC address of the Fa0/0 interface of the R1 router

F. the MAC address of the Fa0/1 interface of the R1 router

Answer: AF

10. Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands:

hostname Gateway

interface FastEthernet 0/0

ip address 198.133.219.14 255.255.255.248

no shutdown
interface FastEthernet 0/1

ip address 192.168.10.254 255.255.255.0

no shutdown

interface Serial 0/0

ip address 64.100.0.2 255.255.255.252

no shutdown

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.100.0.1

What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.

B. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.

C. The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers.

D. The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.

E. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet without

address translation.

Answer: DE

11. A company is installing IP phones. The phones and office computers connect to the same device. To

ensure maximum throughput for the phone data, the company needs to make sure that the phone traffic is

on a different network from that of the office computer data traffic. What is the best network device to which
to directly connect the phones and computers, and what technology should be implemented on this device?

(Choose two.)

A. hub

B. router

C. switch

D. STP

E. subinterfaces

F. VLAN

Answer: CF

12. What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.)

A. It allows switches to read frame tags.

B. It allows ports to be assigned to VLANs automatically.

C. It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network.

D. It allows frames from multiple VLANs to use a single interface.

E. It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment.

Answer: CE

13. Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4?

(Choose two.)

A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network.

B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network.

C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network.

D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address

192.168.2.4.

E. It uses the default administrative distance.

F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

Answer: AE

14. What are two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two.)
A. decreasing the number of collision domains

B. filtering frames based on MAC addresses

C. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions

D. increasing the size of broadcast domains

E. increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices

Answer: BC

15. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to configure the switches and router in the graphic so

that the hosts in VLAN3 and VLAN4 can communicate with the enterprise server in VLAN2. Which two

Ethernet segments would need to be configured as trunk links? (Choose two.)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

F. F

Answer: CF

16. Which two topologies are using the correct type of twisted-pair cables? (Choose two.)
A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Answer: DE

17. Which two values are used by Spanning Tree Protocol to elect a root bridge? (Choose two.)

A. amount of RAM

B. bridge priority

C. IOS version

D. IP address

E. MAC address

F. speed of the links

Answer: BE
18. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that the routing protocol referenced in each choice below is configured

with its default settings and the given routing protocol is running on all the routers. Which two conditional

statements accurately state the path that will be chosen between networks 10.1.0.0 and 10.3.2.0 for the

routing protocol mentioned? (Choose two.)

A. If OSPF is the routing protocol, the path will be from R1 to R3 to R4 to R5.

B. If OSPF is the routing protocol, the path will be from R1 to R2 to R5.

C. If OSPF is the routing protocol, the path will be from R1 to R5.

D. If RIPv2 is the routing protocol, the path will be from R1 to R3 to R4 to R5.

E. If RIPv2 is the routing protocol, the path will be from R1 to R5.

Answer: AE

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values

could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)

A. host A IP address: 192.168.1.79

B. host A IP address: 192.168.1.64

C. host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78

D. host B IP address: 192.168.1.128

E. host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129

F. host B IP address: 192.168.1.190

Answer: ACF

20. A network administrator changes the configuration register to 0x2142 and reboots the router. What are

two results of making this change? (Choose two.)

A. The IOS image will be ignored.

B. The router will prompt to enter initial configuration mode.

C. The router will boot to ROM.

D. Any configuration entries in NVRAM will be ignored.

E. The configuration in flash memory will be booted.

Answer: BD

21. Refer to the exhibit. The networks connected to router R2 have been summarized as a

192.168.176.0/21 route and sent to R1. Which two packet destination addresses will R1 forward to R2?

(Choose two.)

A. 192.168.194.160

B. 192.168.183.41

C. 192.168.159.2
D. 192.168.183.255

E. 192.168.179.4

F. 192.168.184.45

Answer: BE

22. Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.

B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.

C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.

D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.

E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Answer: BDE

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about how router JAX will choose a path to the

10.1.3.0/24 network when different routing protocols are configured? (Choose three.)

A. By default, if RIPv2 is the routing protocol, only the path JAX-ORL will be installed into the routing table.

B. The equal cost paths JAX-CHI-ORL and JAX- NY-ORL will be installed in the routing table if RIPv2 is the

routing protocol.
C. When EIGRP is the routing protocol, only the path JAX-ORL will be installed in the routing table by

default.

D. When EIGRP is the routing protocol, the equal cost paths JAX-CHI-ORL, and JAX-NY-ORL will be

installed in the routing table by default.

E. With EIGRP and OSPF both running on the network with their default configurations, the EIGRP paths

will be installed in the routing table.

F. The OSPF paths will be installed in the routing table, if EIGRP and OSPF are both running on the

network with their default configurations.

Answer: ADE

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.

B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique

IP subnet.

C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with

each other.

D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with

each other.

E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

Answer: BDE

25. Switch ports operating in which two roles will forward traffic according to the IEEE 802.1w standard?

(Choose two.)
A. alternate

B. backup

C. designated

D. disabled

E. root

Answer: CE

26. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the most likely

reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.

B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.

C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.

D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Answer: C

27. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations

can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?
A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.

B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester.

C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London router.

D. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.

E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.

F. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.

Answer: E

28. Refer to the exhibit. This command is executed on 2960Switch:

2960Switch(config)# mac-address-table static 0000.00aa.aaaa vlan 10 interface fa0/1

Which two of these statements correctly identify results of executing the command? (Choose two.)
A. Port security is implemented on the fa0/1 interface.

B. MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa does not need to be learned by this switch.

C. Only MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa can source frames on the fa0/1 segment.

D. Frames with a Layer 2 source address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.

E. MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa will be listed in the MAC address table for interface fa0/1 only.

Answer: BE

29. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.

C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.

E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

Answer: ADE

30. What are two characteristics of Telnet? (Choose two.)

A. It sends data in clear text format.

B. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices.

C. It is more secure than SSH.

D. It requires an enterprise license in order to be implemented.

E. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections.

Answer: AE