CBSE X Science (Hots)

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
Study Material
CL A
ASS
S :: X
Yearr :: 200
088-
-009
9
S
SUB
BJJE
ECCT
T : SC
CIENC
CEE
Prepared by :
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
(Ahmedabad Region)
A Word To The Students
Present day understanding of learning is that learning is an exercise in

meaning - making . When indulging in the process of meaning making,
mental ideas or concepts are built by the learner. Acquiring mere
concepts is of no use and the ability to use them in real life situations is
the requirement of the day. Therefore, the purpose of learning is to
identify, understand and use these concepts to situations in real life.
Knowing a concept is at the bottom of hierarchy of learning outcomes

and it can easily be achieved even by rote learning. Whereas, the
ability to use these concepts in different situations is the next stage to
knowing and therefore the questions which test these are referred to
Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) questions. The essential first step in
acquiring the competence to answer HOTS questions is the
development of a clear understanding of the concepts in its totality by
the learner. Therefore, every learner is advised to learn the lessons
thoroughly before venturing to answer the questions included in this
material.
This material has been prepared chapter wise, with the focus primarily
on the HOTS questions. And in each chapter you will find two sections,
one in which both questions and answers will be there and the other in
which only questions are there for which you have to find the answers (
which we presume is within the reach of each and every learner).
I take this opportunity to thank all the teachers and Principals who were
involved in the preparation of this material in the short time that was
given to them. Every effort has been made to ensure that there are no
errors in this material and in case you find that there are errors /
discrepancies, you are advised to consult your teacher without fail to
resolve those discrepancies.
I wish you all the best for your success.
N R Murali
Offg. Asst. Commissioner
KVS Regional Office
Gandhinagar
CHAPTER No. 1
CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
HOTS: (High Order Thinking Skill) Questions with Answers:
1 A compound `X` is used for drinking, has pH =7.Its acidified solution undergoes
decomposition in presence of electricity to produce gases `Y` and `Z` The volume
of Y is double than Z. Y is highly combustible whereas Z is supporter of
combustion .Identify X, Y & Z and write the chemical reactions involved.
2 An aqueous solution of metal nitrate P reacts with sodium bromide solution to

form yellow ppt of compound Q which is used in photography. Q on exposure to
sunlight undergoes decomposition reaction to form metal present in P along with
reddish brown gas. Identify P&Q . Write the chemical reaction & type of chemical
reaction.
3 Bhawana took a pale green substance A in a test tube. and heated it over the flame
of a burner. A brown colored residue B was formed along with evolution of two
gases with burning smell of sulphur.Idetify A & B. Write the chemical reaction
involved.
4 A student took 2-3 g of a substance X in a glass beaker & poured water over it
slowly. He observed bubbles along with hissing noise. The beaker becomes quite
hot. Identify X.What type of reaction is it?
5 A reddish brown vessel developed a green colored solid X when left open in air
for a long time. When reacted with dil H2SO4 , it forms a blue colored solution
along with brisk effervescence due to colourless & odourless gas Z. X
decomposes to form black colored oxide Y of a reddish brown metal along with
gas Z, Identify X, Y, & Z.
6 A substance X used for coating iron articles is added to a blue solution of a

reddish brown metal Y,the color of the solution gets discharged Identify X and Y
& also the type of reaction.
7. A student has mixed the solutions of lead (II) nitrate and potassium iodide.
(i) What was the colour of the precipitate formed? Can you name the compound?
precipitated ?
(ii) Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(iii) What type of reaction is it?
8. Observe the following activity & answer the questions

a. Do you observe anything happening around the zinc granules?
b. Is there any change in its temperature?
c. Why is glass tube not dipped in dil H2SO4?
d. How is H2 gas collected by downward displacement or upward displacement
of water?
e. Is H2 gas soluble or insoluble in water?
f. Is H2 gas heavier or lighter than air?
9. A reddish brown metal X when heated in presence of oxygen forms a black

compound Y which is basic in nature when heated with hydrogen gas gives back X.
Identify X & Y.Write the chemical reaction between Y & H 2 Identify the substance
being oxidized & reduced.
10 Name the type of reaction seen in the diagram below. Write the reaction for the
same.
Thread Test
Tube
CuSO4
Solution
Iron
Nail
11. A student burnt a metal A found in the form of ribbon. The ribbon burnt with a
dazzling flame & a white powder B is formed which is basic in nature. Identify A &
B.Write the balanced chemical equation.
12. A student dropped few pieces of marble in dilute HCl contained in a test tube. The
gas evolved was passed through lime water. What change would be observed
in lime water? Write chemical reactions for both the changes observed.
13. Astha has been collecting silver coins and copper coins. One day she observed a
black coating on silver coins and a green coating on copper coins. Which chemical
phenomenon is responsible for these coatings? Write the chemical name of black and
green coatings
Answers
Ans: 1 2H2O (l) H2 (g) + O2 (g)
X Y Z
Ans.:2 P = Ag NO3 , Q = AgBr 2AgBr (s) 2Ag(s) + Br2(g)

Photochemical decomposition
Ans: 3
A (green) B (brown)
Ans: 4 a) X = Calcium oxide (Quick lime), Combination reaction.
Ans. 5 X = CuCO3. Cu (OH) 2, Y= CuO, Z= CO2
Ans. 6 X= Fe, Y = Cu, Displacement reaction.
Ans. 7 (i). Yellow, Lead iodide

(ii) Pb (NO3)2 + KI PbI2 + 2KNO3
(iii) Double displacement reaction
Ans.8 a.Bubbles of hydrogen gas.

b. Yes temperature will increase.
c H2SO4 will rise in glass tube, preventing H2 to evolve
d. downward displacement
e. Insoluble
f lighter than air
.
Ans. 9 Oxygen reacts with copper to form copper oxides which has black colour
2Cu(s) + O2 (g) 2Cuo(s)
Air Black
The copper (II) oxide is losing oxygen and is being reduced. The hydrogen is gaining
oxygen and is being oxidized.
Ans.10 Displacement Reaction

Fe(S) + CuSO4 FeSO4aq + Cu
Ans.11 X = Mg, Y = MgO, Mg + O2. 2 MgO
Ans.12 Ca (OH) 2(aq) + CO2 (g) CaCO3(s) + H2O (l)

Ans.13 Corrosion is responsible for this coating. Black coating is due to formation of
Ag2S and green coating is due to formation of CuCO3.Cu (OH)2
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Fe + CuSO4 FeSO4 + Cu
Identify the type of reaction.
2. What does the symbol (g) used with water indicate?
3. How can we prevent fried food from turning ‘Rancid’?
4. Why does lime water turn milky when CO2 is passed into it?
5. Which gas is evolved when lead nitrate is heated?
6. During electrolysis of water, how can we identify the gas present in each test
tube?
7. Give an example of a photolytic reaction which is not a decomposition
reaction?
8. Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu
In above reaction iron nail becomes brownish in colour and the blue colour of
copper sulphate solution fades. Why?
9. Identify the element which is most reactive and the element which is least
reactive?
A2O3 + 2B → B2O3 + 2A
3CSO4 + 2B → B2(SO4)3 + 3C
3CO + 2A → A2O + 3C
10. Write a chemical equation of a reaction in which a precipitate is formed.
11. Write your observation when Magnesium ribbon is burned in air? Name the
powder formed.
12. Which characteristics of a chemical change do you observe when dilute
sulphuric acid is added to zinc granules in a conical flask ?
13. Write word equation for the following chemical equation :
a. Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2
heat
b. 2KNO3 2KNO2(s) + O2 (g)
14. What happens when CO2 (g) is bubbled through lime water. Write the
chemical equation.
15. What happens when a silver spoon is kept immersed in aqueous copper
sulphate solution?
16. Why does copper not liberate hydrogen on reacting with dilute sulphuric acid?
17. Write a chemical equation to show the process of respiration. Mention the type
of reaction.
18. Which of the following reactions show evolution of gas.
a. 2AgCl → 2Ag + Cl2
b. Pb + CuCl2 → PbCl2 + Cu
c. CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
d. ZnO + C → Zn + CO
19. Name 2 metals which get tarnished. Why does this happen ?.
20. Why is corrosion harmful?
21. Mention three situations in daily life where a chemical change occurs.
22. Balance the following chemical equations.

a. H2SO4 + NaOH → Na2SO4 + H2O
b. NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3
c. CH4 + O2 → CO2 + H2O
23. Write chemical equations for the following word equations :

a. Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen Chloride
b. Sodium + Water → Sodium Hydroxide + Hydrogen
c. Zinc Oxide + Carbon → Zinc + Carbon Monoxide
24. What do you mean by endothermic and exothermic reactions? Give examples.
25. What happens when potassium iodide solution is added to lead nitrate
solution? Give equation of reaction and mention the type of reaction involved?
26. How can we make a chemical equation more informative?
27. Write one chemical equation to show:

a. Combination reaction
b. Decomposition reaction
c. Double Displacement Reaction
28. Write short notes on:

a. Corrosion
b. Rancidity
29. A substance X when mixed with water is used for white washing. The
substance X is also formed when a substance Y decomposes.
a. Identify X and Y and write their formula.
30. Define oxidation and reduction. Give an example of a Redox reaction.

CHAPTER No.: 2
ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
1. Kazi and priyam want to prepare dil H2SO4 .Kazi added conc.H2SO4 to water
slowly with constant stirring& cooling whereas Priyam added water to conc.
H2SO4.Name the student who was correct and why?
2. A compound X is bitter in taste. It is a component of washing powder& reacts
with dil.HCl to produce brisk effervescence due to colourless, odourless gas
Y which turns lime water milky due to formation of Z. When excess of CO2
is passed, milkiness disappears doe to formation of P. Identify X, Y, and Z &
P.
3. Compound P forms enamel of teeth. It is the hardest substance of the body.
It does not dissolve in water but it is corroded when pH in the mouth is below
5.5. How does tooth paste prevent dental decay?
4. The oxide of a metal M was water soluble when a blue litmus strip was
dipped in this solution, it did not go any change in colour. Predict the nature
of oxide
5. A first aid manual suggests that vinegar should be used to treat wasp sting
and baking soda for bee stings.
(i) What does this information tell you about the chemical nature
of the wasp stings
(ii) If there were no baking soda in the house, what other household
substance could you use to treat bee stings?
6. À` is a soluble acidic oxide and `B` is a soluble base. Compared to pH of
pure water. What will be the pH of (a) solution of A (b) solution of B?
7. A road tanker carrying an acid was involved in an accident and its contents
spilled on the road. At the side of the road, iron drain covers began melting
and fizzing as the acid ran over them. A specialist was called to see if the
acid actually leaked into the nearby river.
(a) Explain how the specialist could carry out a simple test to see if the
river water contains some acid or not.
(b) The word melting is incorrectly used in the report. Suggest a better
name that should have been used.
(c) Explain why drain covers began fizzing as the acid rain over them.
8. A compound `X` on electrolysis in aqueous solution produces a strong base.
`Y` along with two gases À` and `B`. `B` is used in manufacture of
bleaching powder. Identify X, Y, A and B. Write chemical equations.
9. A yellow powder X gives a pungent smell if left open in air. It is prepared by
the reaction of dry compound Y with chlorine gas. It is used for disinfecting
drinking water. Identify X and Y. and write the reaction involved.
10. When CO2 gas pass through saturated solution of ammonical brine, two
compound `X` and `Y` are formed. `Y` is used as antacid and decomposes to
form another solid `Z`. Identify `X`,`Y`, `Z` and write chemical equations.
11.A compound À on heating at 370 K gives `B` used as plaster for supporting
fractured bones in the right position. `B` on mixing with water changes to À`.
Identify À` and `B` and write the chemical reaction.
12. A few drops of phenolphthalein indicator were added to an unknown solution
A. It acquired pink colour. Now another unknown solution B was added to it
drop by drop and the solution becomes colorless. Predict the nature of A & B.
13. A student heated a few crystals of copper sulphate in a dry boiling tube.
(a) What will be the color of the copper sulphate after heating?
(b) Will you notice water droplets in the boiling tube?
(c) Where have these come from?
14. A substance `X` used in the kitchen for making tasty crispy pakoras.and is also an
ingredient of antacid. Name the substance `X`.
(i) How does `X` help to make cakes and bread soft and spongy.
(ii) Is the pH value of solution of `X` is lesser than or greater than 7.0?
ANSWERS
Ans.1 Kazi was correct. If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated
may cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns. The glass container may also
break due to excessive local heating.
Ans.2
X Y
P
.
Ans.3 P = Ca3 (PO4)2. Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by degradation of
sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth after eating. Using toothpastes, which
are generally basic, for cleaning the teeth can neutralize the excess acid and prevent
tooth decay.
Ans.4 The Metal oxide (MO) is of basic in nature. It dissolves in water to
form metal hydroxide as MO + H2O M (OH) 2
Blue litmus does not undergo any change in colour in the basic
medium.
Ans 5: (i) Since vinegar (acetic acid) is used to heal or neutralize the effect of
wasp stings this means that the chemical present in the stings must be some base.
(ii)NH4OH
Ans 6: pH of A will be less than 7 and that of B will be more than 7.
Ans 7: (a) By dipping a strip of blue litmus paper in to the sample of river water.
If the colour changes to red this means that some acid has gone in to the river.
(b) Corrosion.
(c) Iron reacts with acid to evolve hydrogen gas.
Ans 8:
X Y B A
Ans 9:
Y X
Ans 10:
`X` `Y`
`Z`
Ans 11.
`B` À`
Ans. 12: Sol À` is basic in nature as phenolphthalein has imparted pink colour
to it. Sol `B` is an acid it has made solution A colourless by neutralizing by its
basic effect.
Ans 13: (a) White

(b) Yes
(c) Copper sulphate crystals which seem to be dry contain water of
crystallization.
Ans 14:
`X`
(i) When CO2 gas escapes as bubbles it leaves behind pores which
make the cake or bread soft and spongy.
(ii) It is a salt of strong base so the pH of the solution will be more than 7.0
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. A substance changed its colour on heating in a closed vessel but regained
it after sometime when allowed to cool and exposed to air. Name the
substance. Explain the phenomenon involved.
2. What do you understand by the term Hyperacidity in a patient? What is
the
remedy for it?
3. A person caused burns while adding water into a concentrated acid. What
was the reason behind it?
4. Why are same perishable food preserved in vinegar?
5. A doctor applied surgical bandages on fractured bones of a patient after
making them wet. What changes are likely to occur?
6. Tooth enamel is one of the hardest substances in our body yet damage
occurs
when chocolates & sweets are eaten? Why? What will you do to prevent
it?
7. An important chemical which is used in manufacture of glass, soap, paper
and is also used as a cleansing agent for domestic purposes. Name it;
write formula and also its chemical name.
8. Why curd or sour substance should not be kept in brass or copper
container?
9. Name two synthetic indicators? What are its effects in a acidic and basic
solutions?
10. Name the substance present in
1) Bee sting 2) Stinging hair of nettle leaves.
What should be the nature of substance for its remedy?
CHAPTER No. 3
METALS AND NON METALS
1. A metal acts as a good reducing agent. It reduces Fe2O3, and MnO2. The
reaction with Fe2O3 is used for welding broken railway tracks. Identify the metal
and write all the chemical reactions
2. A yellow coloured powder `X` is soluble in carbon disulfide. It burns with a
blue flame forming suffocating smelling gas which turns moist blue litmus red.
Identify `X` and gives chemical reaction. Identify it is metal or nonmetal.
3. An element reacts with oxygen to form an oxide which dissolves in dilute
hydrochloric acid. The oxide formed also turns a solution of red litmus blue. Is
the element a metal or non-metal? Explain with the help of a suitable example.
4. A student set up an electric circuit as shown in Fig. He placed the metal to be
. tested in the circuit between terminals A and B as shown.
(i) Does the bulb glow? What does this indicate?

(ii) Why are electric wires coated with rubber like materials?
5. Royal water is prepared by mixing two acids À` and `B`. It can dissolve gold
and platinium. It is highly corrosive and fuming liquid. Identify À` and `B`. What is
the ratio in which À` and `B` are mixed.
6.. Four metals A, B, C and D are, in turn, added to the following solutions one by
one. The observations made are tabulatd below:
Answer the following questions based on above information.

(i) Which is the most active metal and why?
(ii) What would be observed if B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate and
Why?
(iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in order of increasing reactivity.
(iv) Container of which metal can be used to store both zinc sulphate solution and
silver nitrate solution.
(v) Which of the above solutions can be easily stored in a container made up of any of
these metals?
7. Nikita took Zn, Al, Cu, Fe, Mg, Na metals & put each metal in cold water and then
hot water. She reacted the metal with steam
(i) Name the metal which reacts with cold water.
(ii) Which of the above metals react with steam?
(iii) Name the metal which reacts with hot water.
(iv) Arrange these metals in order of increasing reactivity.
8. A student was given Mg, Zn, Fe, and Cu metals. He put each of them in dil HCl
contained in different test tubes. Identify which of them
(i) will not displace H2 from dil HCl
(ii) forms a pale green substance
(iii) will give H2 with 5% HNO3
(iv) will be displaced from its salt solution by all other metals.
9. A metal `X` is found in the form of filings which burns vigorously when sprinkle
on flame. When these filings are treated with sulphur a black colured compound `Y`
is formed which is not attracted by magnet. `X` reacts with dil HCl to liberate
hydrogen gas. `X` reacts with steam to form `Z` along with hydrogen gas. Identify
`X`, `Y`, and `Z`. Write the reaction involved.
10. A, B and C are 3 elements which undergo chemical reactions according to

following equations:
a) A2O3 + 2B B2O3 + 2A
b) 3CSO4 + 2B B2 (SO4)3 + 3C
c) 3CO + 2A A2SO3 + 3C
Answer of the following:
i) Which element is most reactive?
ii) Which element is least reactive?
11. An element X on reacting with O2 forms X2O.This Oxide dissolves in water and
turns blue litmus paper red. Predict the nature of element whether it is a metal or a
non metal.
12 An element E combines with O2 to form an oxide E2O, which is a good conductor

of electricity. Answer the following:
i) How many electrons will be present in the outer most shell of E?
ii) Write the formula of the compound formed when it combines with
Chlorine.
ANSWERS
Ans 1: Aluminium
Ans 2:
`X` is sulphur
S + O2 SO2
It is non metal.
Ans 3: It is metal
4Na(s) + O2 2Na 2O (s)
Na 2O (s) + 2HCl (dil) 2NaCl (aq) +H2O (l)
Ans 4: (i) Yes the bulb glows, this indicates that metal is a good conductor of
electricity
(iii) Rubber like substance is a bad conductor of electricity
Ans 5: 3HCl + HNO3
Ans. 6 (i) B
(ii) Displacement reaction. Because B is more reactive than Cu.
(iii) B.>A.>C.>D
(iv) D
(v) ZnSO4
Ans.7 (i) Na
(ii) Al, Zn, Fe
(iii) Mg
(iv) Na>Mg> Al > Zn > Fe > Cu
Ans8: (i) Cu
(ii) Fe
(iii) Cu
(iv) Cu
Ans 9: Fe + S Fe S
`X` `Y`
Fe + HCl FeCl2 +H2
`Z`
Ans.10 i) Most reactive element is B as it has replaced both A and C from

their compounds.
ii) Element C is least reactive as it has been replaced both by A and B.
Ans11 The oxide is acidic in nature as it has turned blue litmus to red. Hence X is a
non
metal.
Ans12 i) Valency of the element E is 1.This means that it has only one electron in the
valence shell.
ii) E+ + Cl - ECl
Valency of Cl is 1 and Valency of E is also 1.Therefore the formula will be
ECl.
MORE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
Q1. Name 2 metals which are neither ductile nor malleable.
Q2. What happens to the electrical conductivity of a metal when it is heated?
Q3. What is the nature of Al2O3?
Q4. An alloy of a metal contains Mercury. What will you call it?
Q5. What is the purpose of adding C to molten Iron?
Q6. Who am I?
a) Versatility is my name. There are more than 5 million compounds of me.
b) Your teacher uses me, I am a metallic element found in chalk, limestone,
marble
etc.
c) Shocking? In one form I am a conductor whereas in another an insulator.
d) ‘Bang’. I am the element formed when H2 bomb explodes.
Q7. Which of the following is metal and non metal?

7 3 10
3X , 1 Y, 9Z
Q8. Name one metal and one non metal element which are obtained on a large scale
from sea water.
Q9. Zn is more electropositive than Fe. So it should get corroded faster than Fe. But it
does not happen. Instead it is used to galvanize Iron. Explain why does it happen so?
Q10. The reaction of a metal X with Fe2O3 is highly exothermic and is used to join
railway tracks. Identify metal X.Write the chemical equation of its reaction with
Fe2O3.
Q11. Why do metals generally not evolve H2 gas when reacted with HNO3? Name 2
metals which liberate H2 gas with very dil. HNO3.
Q12. Name one metal each which is extracted by:

a) reduction with heat alone
b) reduction with C
c) reduction with Al.
d) electrolytic reduction.
Q13.a) A metal M is found in nature as MCO3.It is used in galvanizing Fe articles.

Name the Metal M.
b) How can metal M be obtained from its Carbonate Ore?
Q14.Explain how the following metals are obtained from their compounds by the
reduction process.
a) Metal X which is low in the reactivity series.
b) Metal Y in the middle of reactivity series.
c) Metal Z which is high in the reactivity series.
Give an eg of each.
Q15. Write the equations for the reactions of:

a) Iron with Steam
b) Calcium with Water.
c) Potassium with Water.
Q.16. Why Al metal cannot be obtained by the reduction of Al2O3 with Coke.
Q17 You cannot hold a piece of Na in your hand but you can eat Na ions in
NaCl.Why?
Q18. Cinnabar is an ore of metal X.It exists in the lower order of the reactivity series.
Write down the reaction involved in it for the extraction of X.
Q19. Identify the acid which oxidizes H2 to H2O.

CHAPTER No. 4
Carbon and its compounds
1.An organic compound X with a molecular formula C2H6O undergoes oxidation

with in presence of alkaline KMnO4 to form a compound Y. X on heating in presence
of Conc. H2SO4 at 443K gives Z.which on reaction with H2Oin presence of H2SO4
gives back `X.` `Z` reacts with Br2 (aq) and decolorizes it. Identify X, Y, & Z.and
write the reactions involved.
2. An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative in pickles and has a
molecular formula C2H2O2. This compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet
smelling
compound ‘B.
(i) Identify the compound ‘A’
(ii) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form compound
‘B’.
(iii) How can we get compound ‘A’ back from ‘B’?
(iv) Name the process and write corresponding chemical equation.
(v) Which gas is produced when compound ‘A’ reacts with washing soda?
Write the chemical equation.
3. Hydrocarbon `X` and `Y` having molecular formulae C3 H8 and C3 H6 respectively.
Both are burnt in different spatula on the bunsen flame. Indicate the color of the flame
produced by `X` and `Y`. Identify `X` and `Y`. Write the structural formulae.
4. A compound `X` has molecular formula C4 H10. It undergoes substitution reaction

readily than addition reaction. It burns with blue flame and is present in LPG. Identify
`X` and give the balanced equation for its combustion and substitution reaction with
Cl2 in presence of sunlight.
5. À` compound works well with hard water. It is used for making shampoos &
products for cleaning clothes. A is not 100% biodegradable and causes water
pollution. `B` does not work well with hard water. It is 100% biodegradable and does
not create water pollution. Identify A & B.
6. An organic compound P with molecular formula C2H6Ois an active ingredient of

all alcoholic drinks. It is also used in medicines such as tincture iodine, cough syrups.
Identify `P`. Drop a small piece of sodium into the test tube containing `P`.A new
compound `Q` is formed with the evaluation of colorless and odorless gas Name the
gas evolved and compound `Q` write the chemical reaction.
7. A cyclic compound `X` has molecular formula C6H6. It is unsaturated and burns
with sooty flame. Identify `X` and write its structural formula. Will it decolorize
bromine water or not and why?
8. An organic compounds À` is a constituent of antifreeze and has the molecular

formula C2H6O. upon reaction with alkaline KMnO4, the compound À` is oxidized to
another `B` with formula C2H6O2. Identify the compound A` and `B`. Write the
chemical equation for the reaction which leads to the formulation of `B`
9. Two compounds `X` and `Y` have the same formula C2H4O2. One of them reacts
with sodium metal to liberate H2 and CO2 with NaHCO3. Second one does not reacts
with Na metal and NaHCO3 but undergo hydrolysis with NaOH to form salt of
carboxylic acid and compound `Z` which is called wood spirit. Identify `X`, `Y`, and
`Z` and write chemical equation for the reaction involved.
10. A compound `X` with molecular formula C2H4 burns with a sooty flame. It
decolourise bromine water. Identify `X`. Will it dissolve in water or not? Will it
conduct electricity in aq. Solution? Will it have high melting point or low melting
point ?
Answers
Ans I.
X Y
. Z
Ans 2.
. A B
(iii)Esters react in the presence of an acid or a base to give back the alcohol
and carboxylic acid.
(iv)
(v) CO2
Ans 3: `Y` will burn with a sooty flame. So it is an unsaturated hydrocarbon.
Propane (X) Propene (Y)

Ans 4:
C4H10 + 13/2 O2 4CO2 +5 H2O
`X` (Butane)
C4H10 + Cl2 C4H9Cl +HCl
Ans 5 A is detergent & B is soap.
Ans 6:
`P` `Q`
Ans 7:
It does not decolorize bromine water because it does not undergo addition reaction.
Ans 8:
À` `B`
Ans 9:
`X`
CH3COOH + Na CH3COONa +H2
HCOOCH3 + NaOH HCOONa + CH3OH

`Y` `Z`
Ans 10:
`X` is ethene. It will neither dissolve in water nor conduct electricity because
it is a covalent compound. It has low melting point.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Write the formula for ‘ethanoic acid’and name the functional group present in it.
2. Allotropy is a property shown by which class:-
Substances, elements, compounds, mixture.
3. What is the use of oxyacetylene flame?
4. Name the gas which is formed by decomposition of plants and animal matter
in marshy areas?
5. Mention the name of the by product of soap industry/
6. Write the molecular formula and structures of benzene.
7. Match the following:-

1. Ethane - Used in anti freeze solution.
2. Ethanol - fruity smell.
3. Ester - fossil fuel.
8. Write two uses of fullerenes.
9. Complete and balance following equation:-

a) CH2=CH2 + H2 heat, Ni
b) CH4+O2
10. Two alkanes A and B have 4 and 6 carbon atoms respectively in their
molecule. In which physical state will they occur at room temp?
1) Give a test that can be used to differentiate chemically between butter and
cooking oil.
2) How will you distinguish between ethanol and ethanoic acid by a suitable
chemical test? Write chemical reactions involved.
3) Complete the following reactions :-
1) CH3COOH + NaHCO3 conc.H2SO4
2) HCOOH + CH3OH
3) CH3COOC2 H5 + H2O
4) Name the compound CH3COOC2 H5.Name the acid and alcohol from which it
is made .write equation.
CHAPTER – 5
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
HOTS: (High Order Thinking Skill) Questions with Answers
Q-1 X, Y and Z are the elements of a dobereiners triad. If the atomic mass of x is 7
and that of z is 39, what should be the atomic mass of y?
Q-2 A and B are the two elements having similar properties which obey Newlands
law of octaves. How many elements are there in between A and B?
Q-3 The following is Newland’s Octave Table. Observe it and answer the following
questions:
sa(do) re(re) ga (mi) ma (fa) pa(so) da ( la) ni(ti)
H Li Be B C N O
F Na Mg Al Si P S
Cl K Ca Cr Ti Mn Fe
Co and
Cu Zn Y In As Se
Ni
Ce and
Br Rb Sr Zr - -
La
i. Which of the element in 1st column has different properties from rest of the
elements?
ii. Which of the elements resemble with each other in second column?
iii. Pick up odd element in second last column.
iv. Pick up elements which have similar properties in last column.
Q-4 In the Periodic Table given below, Lithium, carbon, oxygen and neon are
placed in their correct positions and the positions of nine other elements are
represented by letters. These letters are not the symbols for the elements?
1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18
Lithium Carbon Oxygen L Neon
X E G Q
Y R
Z T
By reference to the table, answer the following questions:

(a) Give the letter of the most reactive metal.
(b) Give the letter of the most reactive non-metal.
(c) Name the family of elements represented by L, Q, R, and T.
(d) Name one element in each case occurring in groups 2, 13 and 15
Q-5 Two elements X and Y have atomic numbers 12 and 16 respectively. Write the
electronic configuration for these elements. To which period of the modern periodic
table do these two elements belong? What type of bond will be formed between
them and why?
Q-6 An element X (2,8,2) combines separately with NO3 and (SO4)2 -, (PO4)3 - radicals.
Write the formulae of the three compounds so formed. To which group of the periodic
table does the element ‘X’ belong? Will it form covalent or ionic compound? Why?
Q-7 The following table shows the position of six elements A, B, C, D, E and F in the
periodic table.
Using the above table answer the following questions :

(a) Which element will form only covalent compunds?
(b) Which element is a metal with valency 2?
(c) Which element is a non-metal with valency of 3?
(d) Out of D and E, which one has a bigger atomic radius and why?
(e) Write a common name for the family of elements C and F.
Q-8 The diagram below shows part of the Periodic Table

1 2 3 4 5 6 7
0
Na Cl Ar
The position of three elements in the Periodic Table is shown:

i Write the atomic numbers of the elements.
ii Give the electronic distribution of the elements
iii Using these three elements as examples, describe the trend in chemical
properties across the third period of the Periodic Table.
Q-9
Group I II III IV V VI VII VIII
Oxide R2O RO R2O3 RO2 R2O5 RO3 R2O7 RO4
Hydride RH RH2 RH3 RH4 RH3 RH2 RH
Periods A A B A B A B A B A B A B
B
1 H
2 Li Be B C N O F
3 Na Mg Al Si P S Cl
4.First K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni
Series:
Second Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br
Series:
5 First Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd
Series:
Second
Series Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I
127.90 126.90
6 First Cs Ba La Hf Ta W Os Ir Pt
Series:
Second Au Hg Tl Pb Bi
Series
(a) Write the formula of hydride and oxide of silicon

(b) Name the elements which is in
(i) II group and 4th period
(ii) VI group and 3rd period.
(c) Name the elements in group I which do not resemble with alkali metals
(d) In group VI why does Te with atomic mass 127.60 comes before I with
atomic mass 126.90
Q 10. A metal M forms an oxide having the formula M2O3. It belongs to 3 rd period
in the modern periodic table. Write the atomic number and valency of the metal.
Answers
Ans 1 (7 + 39) = 46/2 y = 23.
2
Ans 2 Six elements.
Ans 3: (a) Co & Ni

(b) Li, Na , K
(c) Mn
(d) O, S, Se
Ans 4 (a) Z , (b) L , (c) Halogen family, (d) Mg(group-2), Al (group-13), N (group-
15)
Ans 5: X (Z=12): 2, 8, 2
Y (Z=16): 2, 8, 6
Both these elements are present in third period. An ionic bond is formed between X &
Y as a result of transfer of two electrons from X to Y
Ans 6: X (NO3)2 : XSO4 X3(PO4)2

X belong to second group . X forms ionic compound because by losing two
electrons X achieve the electronic configuration of Noble gas element Neon.
Ans 7:
(a) E, (b) D, (c) B, (d) D, because the atomic size decreases along a period,
(e) Noble Gases.
Ans 8:
(a) Na = 11
Cl = 17
Ar = 18
(b) Na ( 2,8,1) Cl ( 2,8,7) Ar ( 2,8,8,)
(c) Metallic and reducing character decreases.
Ans.9 (a) SiO2, SiH4
(b) (i) Ca,Zn
(ii) S
(c) H
(d) The sequence was inverted so that elements with similar properties could
be grouped together
Ans 10. Atomic number = 13
Valency = 3
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Q-1 State the modern periodic law

Q-2 which of the two elements
A=2,8,1 B= 2,8,8,1 is more electropositive
Q-3 How does the atomic size very in going from
A) Left to right in a period
B) Top to Bottom in a group
Q-4 An element has atomic number 13. In which group and period it should
be placed?
Q-5 How many periods and groups are there in the long from of P.T?
Q-6 Why does the size of the atoms progressively become smaller when we
move from sodium (Na) to chlorine (cl) in the third period of the
period table ?
Q-7 Give symbols for
A. A metal of group 2.
B. A metal of group 13.
C. Two non metals of group 16.
D. Most reactive non- metal of group 17.
Q-8 Explain Why-
1. All the elements of a group have similar chemical properties.
2. All the elements in a period have different chemical properties.
Q-9 The atomic number of an element X is 17. Predict -
A. Its valency.
B. Nature of the elements.
C. Whether it is metal or non – metal.
D. Name of the element.
E. Relative size with respect to other members of its group.
Q-10 The three elements predicted by mendeleev from the gaps in his
periodic table were known as eka- boron, eka- aluminum, eka- silicon.
What names were given to these elements when they were discovered
later on?
Q-11 The atomic numbers of Nitrogen, Oxygen and fluorine are 7, 8, and 9
respectively. Write the electronic configuration of each element and
answer the following:
(a) Out of N, O and F which is most electronegative and which one is
least electronegative?
(b) What is the number of valence electrons of F?
(c) What is the valency of each of N, O and F?
CHAPTER-6
LIFE PROCESSES
SOLVED QUESTIONS
(1) Due to availability of less water, how does the plant cope up with lack of
water in desert conditions?
(2) After a vigorous exercise, you may experience cramps in your leg
muscles. Why does this happen?
(3) What will happen if carbon monoxide combines with haemoglobin?
(4) Food moves down the gut by peristalsis. Which region of brain controls
peristalsis?
(5) Name the pigment present in plants, which can absorb solar energy.
(6) Name the respiratory organs of (i) fish (ii) mosquito (iii) earthworm.
(7) Which of the four chambers of the human heart has the thickest muscular
walls?
(8) What will be the outcome if a farmer floods his field everyday?
(9) Which part of visible spectrum is absorbed by chlorophyll pigments?
(10) How does respiration in plants differ from that in animals?
(11) Name the cartilaginous flap which closes the glottis to check the entry of
food into it during swallowing.
(12) Which equipment is used to facilitate breathing during serious breathing
problems?
(13) Chloroplast are called energy convertors. Explain.
(14) Why is the rate if breathing much faster in aquatic organisms than those of
terrestrial organisms?
(15) Why are glomeruli considered as dialysis bags?
(16) Autotrophs synthesise food for the living world. Justify this statement in one
sentence only interconnecting autotrophs and heterotrophs.
(17)Veins and arteries carry blood. Which of these carry blood?
a) Away from the heart?
b) Back to the heart?
(18) Which of the organs perform the following functions in humans?
1. Absorption of food.
2. Absorption of water
(19) Name the areas in a woody stem through which respiratory exchange of gases
take place.
(20) Tooth enamel is one of the hardest substances in our body. How does it
undergo damage due to eating chocolates and sweets?
(21) A certain tissue in a green plant somehow get blocked and the leaves wilted.
What was the tissue that got blocked?
(22) Write one feature which is common to each of the following pairs of the
term/organs.
i) glycogen and starch ii) chlorophyll and haemoglobin
iii) gills and lungs iv) arteries and veins.
(23) Why doesn’t the lungs collapse even after forceful expiration?
(24) The two openings of the pharynx, one leading to trachea and the other
leading to oesophagus, lie very close to each other. Yet food we swallow
normally does not enter into our trachea. Why?
(25) How would it affect the digestion of proteins and carbohydrates if the
duodenum of man if there is a blockade in the pancreatic duct?
(26) What do you mean by double circulation of blood?
(27) “If there were no algae there would be no fish in the sea”. Comment.
(28)Write the functions of the following in the digestive process:

(i) Bile
(ii) Bicarbonate secreted by the duodenal wall.
(iii) Pancreatic amylase.
(29) Why is the process of diffusion insufficient to meet the oxygen requirement
of human beings?
(30) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal showing duodenum, small
intestine, liver and pancreas.
(31) Draw a diagram of the human urinary system and label in it.
a. Kidney
b. Ureter
c. Urinary Bladder
d. Urethra
ANSWERS
Ans-1) They open their stomata at night and stomata remain closed during day time,
to conserve moisture.
Ans-2) The sudden build up of lactic acid in our muscles during vigorous,
exercise, causes muscular cramps in our leg muscles.
Ans-3) If the haemoglobin binds with carbon monoxide strongly, the oxygen will not
be carried with blood leading to death of the organism.
Ans-4) Medulla of hind brain.
Ans-5) Chlorophyll.
Ans-6) Fish - gills
Mosquito – Trachea (air tubes)
Earthworm – moist skin
Ans-7) Right ventricle.
Ans-8) Respiration of plants will be affected because the oxygen present in the
interspaces of the soil will be replaced by water.
Ans-9) Blue and Red light
Ans-10) In plants, all parts like the root, stem, leaves, etc., perform respiration
individually., while in animals, either the general body surface or specific organs like
the skin, gills, lungs, etc., are involved in respiration. The rate of respiration is much
slower in plants than in animals. Unlike animals, there is little transport of gases from
one part of the plant to another.
Ans-11) Epiglottis
Ans-12) Ventilator
Ans-13) Chloroplasts are called energy convertors because they trap the solar energy
and convert it into chemical energy.
Ans-14) The aquatic organisms obtain oxygen dissolved in water. As compared to air,
the availability of oxygen in water is fairly low. Hence, the aquatic organisms have to
breathe faster as compared to the terrestrial organisms.
Ans-15) The main function performed by the glomeruli is selective filtration. They
filter small molecules containing glucose, salts, urea, and liquid serum. Etc. The large
molecules such as proteins remain in blood. Thus, glomeruli of the kidneys function
as dialysis bags.
Ans-16) The food producers are autotrophs and all the heterotrophs consume the food
produced by the autotrophs directly or indirectly.
Ans-17) a) Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
b) Veins carry blood back to the heart.
Ans-18)
1. Absorption of food takes place in small intestine.
2. Large intestine
Ans-19) In woody stem, the bark has lenticels for gaseous exchange.
Ans-20) The acid is formed in the mouth after a sugary food (chocolates and sweet)
has been taken. This acid lowers the pH in the mouth. Tooth decay starts when the pH
of acid formed in the mouth falls below 5.5. This is because then the acid becomes
strong enough to attack the enamel of our teeth and corrode it.
Ans-21) The tissue that got blocked may be xylem. It is through the xylem that water
and minerals absorbed by roots from the soil are transported to the leaves and other
parts of the plant. So, if xylem is blocked, the leaves will not get the nourishment and
will get wilted.
Ans-22)
i) Carbohydrate (food)
ii) Pigments.
iii) Respiratory organs.
iv) Blood vessels.
Ans-23) Even after forceful expiration to the maximum capacity, some amount of air
remains in the lungs, known as residual volume. So, the lungs doesn’t collapse even
after forceful expiration.
Ans-24) The food does not enter into trachea because during swallowing, the aperture
leading to trachea (glottis) gets covered by a cartilaginous flap called epiglottis and
the food has no other passage except going into the oesophagus.
Ans-25) Duodenum is the region where the pancreatic juice secreted by the pancreas
enters. The enzymes pancreatic amylase and trypsin helps in the digestion of
carbohydrates and proteins. Thus, if there is a blockade, the digestion of
carbohydrates and proteins gets affected.
Ans-26) Blood passes through the heart twice for each cycle of the body.
Ans-27) Algae produce O2 as a result of photosynthesis. This oxygen is utilised by the
fishes in the sea for carrying out respiration. If there were no algae, no oxygen would
have been produced. Thus, fishes might have died.
Ans-28)
1. Bile: It is secreted by the gall bladder and it emulsifies the fats into the
smaller droplets for their easy digestion.
2. It provides alkaline medium in the duodenum which is needed for the action of
pancreatic enzymes of different food components for their digestion.
3. Pancreatic amylase enzyme digests starch and changes it into maltose.
Ans-29) The process of diffusion for carrying O2 to all parts of the body is not
sufficient for larger multicellular organisms like human beings. Hence, respiratory
pigment haemoglobin takes up oxygen from the air and carry it to all the parts of our
body through blood.
Ans-30) Textbook Page No. 99, Figure 6.6
Ans-31) Figure 6.13 Page 110 NCERT
QUESTION BANK FOR PRACTICE
1. Which fluid in the human body wets the internal organs?
2. Where does the blood absorb oxygen in the human body?

3. Name the two parts of the plant through which gaseous waste products are
released into the air?
4. Why do the walls of the trachea not collapse when there is less air in it?
5. Normally a vein opens into a large vein or into the heart but does not end in
capillaries. Which one or more veins in humans is/are exceptions to this rule?
6. Give reason for – The lung alveoli are covered with blood capillaries.
7. Why is blood called liquid connective tissue?
8. Structure of leaf is complementary to its functions. Explain.
9. Bile juice does not contain any digestive enzymes, yet it is essential for
digestion, why so? Explain.
10. How do each of the following factors affect the productivity in the process
of photosynthesis?
1. Temperature. 2. Water. 3. Carbon dioxide.
11. Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in living
organisms?
12. What substance/substances are transported in plants by
(1) Xylem vessels and tracheids?
(2) Sieve tubes (of phloem)?
13. Why is the inner wall of alimentary canal not digested although the digestive
enzymes
can digest all the materials that make cells?
14. Explain why the rate of photosynthesis in plants is low both at low and high
temperatures?
15. Why is CO2 mostly transported in the dissolved form in our blood than O2?
16. Small intestine in the site for complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins
and fats. Write down the changes happen to the food in the small intestine before
its absorption.
17. Plants absorb water from the soil. How does this water reach the tree tops?
Explain in detail.
18. Where does aerobic break down of pyruvate take place in a living cell? What
are the end products?
19. Hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium which facilitate the action of
protein digesting enzyme in the stomach. Name the enzyme and give any three
other functions served by the acid.
20. Why is anaerobic respiration produce less energy compared to aerobic
respiration?
21. What is root pressure?
22. In which direction does lymph flow?
23. Name the organ system which is responsible for excretion and
osmoregulation?
24. What is the composition of lymph?
25. Differentiate between afferent and efferent arterioles?
26. Name the vestigial part of human alimentary canal.
27. Name the respiratory pigment of blood in mammals.
28. How does oxygen reach the cells in insects?
29. Respiration is a vital process for all organisms. Explain.
30. What will happen if a diaphragm of a person gets ruptured in an accident?
31. What is the source of oxygen in photosynthesis?
32. How would non-secretion of hydrochloric acid in our stomach affect food
digestion?
33. Why does leaf appear green?
34. What is the role of light in photosynthesis?
35. Write about the major glands associated with the alimentary canal of man and
mention their functions.
36. How does the butter in your food get digested and absorbed in the body and
explain.
37. Why is the rate of photosynthesis more during a bright sunny day as compared
to a cloudy day?
38. If all the green plants are removed from the earth life cannot be sustained.
Comment.
39. Why is digestion essential for living beings?
40. Draw a diagram to show the internal structure of human heart. Label 6 parts in
all including at least three valves.
CHAPTER-7
CONTROL AND COORDINATION
Q.1) On touching a hot plate, you suddenly withdraw your hand. Which category of
neurons became active first and which one next?
Q.2) Give one example of plant part.
a. Which is positively hydrotropic as well as positively geotropic.
b. Which is positively phototropic but negatively geotropic.
Q.3) What name is given to the microscopic gap between two adjacent neurons?
Q.4) If we step on something sharp accidently we move our foot away at once .what is
this type of response known as?
Q.5) A part of the hind brain makes possible activities like walking, skating, riding a
bicycle and picking up a pencil.name this part of the hind brain.
Q.6) The neck of a person appears to be swollen.
a. Name the disease this person suffering from.
b. Name the mineral whose deficiency in the diet causes this disease.
Q.7) Name the plant hormone:
(a) which inhibits growth and causes wilting of leaves.
(b) which promotes cell division.
Q.8) Taking the example of heart beat, justify the antagonistic action of the
sympathetic and the parasympathetic nerves.
Q.9) Why is abscisic acid known as stress hormone in plants?
Q.10) Name the part of neuron
(a) where information is acquired.
(b) through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
Q.11) How does the plant shoot bends, when the plant is placed in a room having only
one open window?
Q.12) Who transmits nerve impulse across the synapse?
Q.13) Give a reason to explain why
(a) adrenaline helps in dealing emergency situations?
(b) secretions of growth hormone should be specific in the human body?
Q.14) Why do leaves drop off seasonally?
Q.15) Give reason why endocrine glands release their secretions into the blood?
ANSWERS
Ans.1) On touching a hot plate, first the sensory neurons are activated, which take the
information to the brain or the spinal cord. Next, the motor neurons become active
and bring the impulses from the brain to the muscles. In receiving these impulses, the
muscles contract, and the hand is immediately removed from the hot plate.
Ans.2) a. roots
b. stem
Ans.3) Synapse
Ans.4) Reflex action
Ans.5) Cerebellum
Ans.6) a. Goitre
b. Iodine
Ans.7) a. Abscisic acid.
b. Cytokinins.
Ans.8) Sympathetic system increases contraction and rhythm and parasympathetic
system decreases contraction and rhythm with respect to heart beat.
Ans.9) Abscisic acid in a plant hormone which inhibits growth. Its effects include
wilting of leaves.
Ans.10) a. Dendrite
b. Axon
Ans.11) When the plant is placed in such a room that has only one open window, the
shoot of the plant bends towards the direction of light. Plant hormone auxin is formed
that diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot and stimulates the cells to live longer
on the side of the shoot which is away from light. In this way the shoot bends towards
the light.
Ans.12) Neurotransmitters.
Ans.13) a. Adrenaline increases the heart beat and breathing rate which results in the
supply of more oxygen to muscles. It reduces the blood to the digestive system and
skin, as a result the blood is further diverted to skeletal muscles. All these responses
together prepare the body to deal with the emergency situations.
b. If growth hormones is secreted in excess during childhood then it leads to
gigantism while the less secretion of this hormone during childhood causes dwarfism.
Ans.14) The leaves drop off seasonally as they stop producing auxins, which normally
prevents the formation of abscission zone that cuts off nutrients and water supply to
leaves.
Ans.15) Endocrine glands are ductless glands and their products have to act at a
distant site.
Therefore, they release their secretions into the blood.
Q1. A particular hormone requires Iodine for its synthesis .Name the endocrine gland
which secretes this hormone and state it’s location in the human body.
Q2. Write a term for the chemical substance which brings about control and
coordination in plants?
Q3. What is the apical dominance?
Q4. Name the organ associated with the nervous system which is also part of
endocrine system and secretes hormone.
Q5. Why are hormones called informational molecules?
Q6. Why do leaves of “touch me not” plant droops when we touch it?
Q7. Name the structural and functional unit of nervous system.
Q8. What is the difference between the manner in which movement in the sensitive
plant and movement in our legs takes place?
Q9. Why do people in the mountainous regions get goitre?
Q10. What is a synaptic cleft?
Q11. What are the scientific names for the following receptors in humans?
a) Receptors of smell
b) Receptors of taste
Q12. Which hormone is responsible for the development of moustache and beard in
men?
Q13. How do we detect the smell of an agarbatti?
Q14. Why do stem and root show unilateral growth towards light and gravity of earth
respectively?
Q15. Which part of the brain controls involuntary actions such as blood pressure,
salivation and vomiting?
Q16. Justify that the pancreas and gonads perform dual function.
Q17. Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin?
Q18. Pituitary gland is often called as master gland. Why?
Q19. How can thyroid activity be determined in man?
Q20. Do the plants have nervous plants like animals? If not, how control and
coordination takes place in plants?
Q21. Nervous and hormonal systems together perform the function of control and
coordination in human beings. Justify the statement.
Q22. Which hormone is released into blood when its sugar level rises? Name the
organ which
produces the hormone and its effect on blood sugar level. Also name one digestive
enzyme that this organ secretes and the function of this enzyme
Q23. Describe how auxins are related with the bending of shoots towards the source
of light.
Q24. Define nerve impulse. Which structure in a neuron helps to conduct a nerve
impulse:
a. Towards the cell body.
b. Away from the cell body.
CHAPTER-8
HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?
Q.1) Why is variation beneficial to the species but not necessary for the individual?
Q.2) What is the advantage of reproduction through spores in the case of Rhizopus?
Q.3) The simple animals such as planaria can be cut into number of pieces and each
piece grows into a complex organism. What is this process known as?
Q.4) Name the unicellular organism which caused the disease known as kala-azar.
Q.5) Which process taking place in the nucleus of a cell leads to variation in the
offspring during reproduction?
Q.6) What causes joining up of stock and scion in grafting technique of vegetative
propagation in plants? Define the terms stock and scion. Name one positive trait each
of the plant contributing scion and stock should have.
Q.7) Which type of layering is done in Jasmine?
Q.8) Where does fertilization takes place in human female?
Q.9) Why is it said that “sexual reproduction promotes diversity of characters in the
offsprings”?
Q.10) What happens if the fallopian tubes are partially blocked and the ovulated eggs
are prevented from reaching the uterus?
Q.11) Name the causative organism of syphilis and gonorrhoea.
Q.12) Why are variation possible in progeny of sexually reproductive individuals?
ANSWERS
Ans-1) Variation is beneficial to the species as it enables a species for its survival. A
favourable variation makes an organism to live better in a changed environment and
an unfavourable variation will not. So it is not necessarily true that a variation is
beneficial to the individual always.
Ans-2) The spores are covered by thick walls that protect them until they come into
contact with aother moist surface and can begin to grow.
Ans-3) Regeneration
Ans-4) Leishmania
Ans-5) DNA copying
Ans-6) The stock and scion unite due to cambial cavity. Stock is the portion on which
grafting is done and it provides the roots. Scion is the portion of the plant which is
grafted on the other plant and it contributes the stem. The plant contributing scion
should have large sized fruits and the plant contributing stock should have deep root
system.
Ans-7) Air Layering (Gootee)
Ans-8) Oviduct (fallopian tube)
Ans-9) It is because sexual reproduction results from the fusion of two gametes
coming from two different and sexually distinct individuals. This leads to variation, is
necessary for evolution.
Ans-10) Fertilization may take place but the zygote may develop in the tube instead of
uterus.
Ans-11) Treponema pallidum and Nisseria gonorrhoeae.
Ans-12) Variations are possible in progeny of sexually reproductive individuals
because copy of DNA in newly formed cell is not identical to copy DNA of original
cell.
Q1) Name those parts of the flower which serve the same function as the following do in the
animals
(1) Testes (2) Ovary (3) Eggs (4) Sperms
Q2) ‘Malarial parasite’ divides into many daughter individuals simultaneously by multiple
fission state an advantage the parasite gets because of this type of reproduction.
Q3) Is copy of DNA formed identical to original cell? If yes or no, how is it beneficial to a
species?
Q4) An individual may have a good health even when the whole of reproductive system is
removed. What is the function of the reproduction system then?
Q5) Grafting is a common method of obtaining a superior plant from two different plants.
Explain.
Q6) The buds produced in the notches along the leaf margins of Bryophyllum plant fall on
the soil and develop into new plants. Which type of reproduction is this?
Q7) What is the name of the yellow powdery substance present in the anther of a flower.
Q8) What substances are contained in oral pills used as contraceptives.
Q9) Which life process ensures that a plant or animal species will not disappear from the
earth?
Q10) Fertilization is possible if ovulation has taken place during middle of the menstrual
cycle. Give reasons.
Q11) Why is the female reproductive system more complex than the male reproduction
system?
Q12) A potato is cut into a number of small pieces, these potato pieces are placed on wet
cotton kept in a tray. After a few days, green shoots and roots appear only from some potato
pieces and not from all potato pieces why?
Q13) What is the significance of human testis being located in the scrotum?
Q14) How the surgery methods are misused by people to prevent pregnancy?
Q15) Why is the number of sperms produced always more than the number of eggs
produced?
Q16) DNA copies generated will be similar but may not be identical to the original. Explain.
Q17) After fertilization, name the part in each case which develops into
(a) the fruit (b) the seeds.
Q18) What is meant by implantation in human reproductive system.
Q19) Justify why the male reproductive system is called “urinogenital system”.
Q20) Justify that parthenogensis is not the same as asexual reproduction.
Q21) State the advantages of tissue culture in growing plants.
Q22) What is meant by internal fertilization and external fertilization? Explain with
examples.
Q23) Mention any two functions of human ovary.
Q24) What is the significance of syngamy and triple fusion?
Q25) (a) Draw the diagram showing the germination of pollen on the stigma. Label style,
male germ cell, ovule and female germ cell.
(b) What happens to the following parts of a flower after fertilization:
(i) Ovule
(ii) Zygote
(iii) Ovary
Q26) Name the following structures:
a. Primary sex organs in man and women.
b. Reproductive parts of a flower.
c. A barrier method of birth control used by human.
(Q27) What is proliferative phase during menstrual cycle?
CHAPTER – 9
HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
1. How one is change adopted to perform different functions? Give one example
2. What happened when Mendel crossed two traits of a character in a pea plants?
3. Who provided experimental evidence to support theory of origin of life from
inanimate matter?
4. Why are asexually reproducing organisms capable of showing hereditary
features?
5. If the sperm bearing Y-chromosome fertilizes the egg, the child born will not
be entirely like his father. Why is it so?
6. A normal pea plant bearing colored flowers suddenly start producing white
flowers. What could be the possible cause?
7. Mention any two recessive traits of garden pea.
8. Write the characteristics on the basis of which duck-biled platypus is
considered as a link between reptiles and mammals.
9. Why are the small number of surviving tigers a cause of worry from the point
of view of genetics?
10. What is called phylogenetic system of classification?
11. Is it true that when a new species is emerged, the old species is eliminated and
why?
12. What will be the percentage of ab gametes produced by AaBb parent?
13. Mendel crossed a pure white recessive pea plant with a dominant pure red
flowered plant. What will be the first generation of hybrids?
14. In evolutionary terms, which among-bacteria, spider, fish and chimpanzee
have a “better” body design? Why or why not?
15. What is an offspring?
16. Why are traits acquired during life-time of an individual not inherited?
17. Name the chemicals which were essential for origin of life.
18. Why males are called heterogametic?
19. What is the percentage possibility a couple of having daughters?
20. Name 2 organisms in which sex determination is regulated by environmental
factors.
21. What are inherited traits? Give one example.
22. When Mendel crossed a Tall plant with a dwarf plant, no medium height
plants were obtained in F1 generation. Why?
23. The gene type of green stemmed tomato plants is denoted as GG and that of
purple stemmed tomato plants as GG when these two are crossed.
i. What colour of stem would you expect in F1 progeny?
ii. Give the percentage of purple stemmed plants if F1 are self pollinated.
iii. In what ratio would you find the gene types CG and Gg in the F2
progeny?
24. The human hand, cat paw and horse foot when studied in detail show the same
structure of bones and point towards a common origin.
i. What do you conclude from this?
ii. What is the term given to such structures?
25. What are the causes of variations in clones?
26. How do we know how old a fossil is?
27. Study the given data and answer the questions following the data:
Parental plants cross F1 First Generation F2 Offsprings of self
fertilised and seeds offsprings pollination of F1
collected
Male parents always 330 seeds sown and Out of 44 seeds 33 seeds
bare red flowers. observed. gave plants with red
Female parent always All 330 gave red flowers and 11 seeds
had white flowers. flowers. gave plants with white
flowers.
i. What is the term for this type of cross?
ii. What does the data of the column marked F1 indicate?
iii. Express the gene type of the (a) parents (b) F1 progeny and (c) F2
progeny
28. Only variation that confer and advantage to an individual organism will
survive in a population. Do you agree with this statement? Why or why not?
ANSWERS
1. In evolution, one change occurred initially is used to perform other functions.

For example, feathers were evolved for warmth, later they were adapted for
flight.
2. Only dominant trait appeared in F1
3. Miller and Urey
4. Asexual reproduction tends to preserve the similarities among all the
individuals belonging to a give line of descent. Therefore, asexually
reproducing organisms are capable of showing hereditary features.
5. It is so because the other sex chromosome, ie the X-chromosome will also
have its effects and other autosomes of the egg will also show their
characteristics.
6. The appearance of white flowers is due to mutation.
7. Dwarf (height of plant), wrinkled seed
8. The characteristic resembling reptiles is laying of eggs and the characteristics
resembling mammals is presence of mammary glands.
9. As the population of tigers is decreasing, there is loss of genes from the gene
pool and there can’t be recombinations and variations, thus no evolution.
10. Classification based on evolutionary relationships of organisms.
11. No,it is not true that when a new species is emerged, the old species is
eliminated. Because when there is a change in any species, the change is only
in a part or a few members of the species population. If the newly generated
species after genetic change is better in any way, it will get more opportunity
to survive and if the genetic change is against the environment, it will die.
Thus, unchanged members of other species may also remain and tend to live in
changed environment.
12. 25 percent
13. All red
14. Chimpanzee have the better body design as compared to others given. They
are better adapted for locomotion, communication and thinking.
15. In sexual reproduction organisms raised are as a result of crossing over and
exchange of gene segments and are known as offspring.
16. Traits acquired during life-time of an individual not inherited because change
in non-reproductive tissue or somatic cells cannot be passed on to the DNA of
germ cells. Thus, the acquired trait will die with the death of the individual. It
is therefore non-heritable and cannot be passed on to its progeny.
17. Proteins and nucleic acid
18. Because they have dissimilar sex chromosomes.
19. 50 percent
20. Turtle, lizard
21. The characteristics which are transmitted from parents to their offsprings are
called inherited traits. E.g. free and attached earlobes.
22. Because dominant genes express themselves and suppress the effect of
recessive genes. So no medium sized plants were obtained.
23.
i. Colour of F1 progeny – Green
ii. Percentage of purple stemmed plants in F2 generation ¼ or 25%.
iii. Ratio of genotypes GG and Gg 1:2
24. They have a common ancestry (i)Homologous organs
25. i. inaccuracies during DNA copying
ii. Effect of environment termed acquired variation.
iii. Mutations are sudden stable changes which are discontinuous
inheritable as produced due to changes in genetic make-up.
26. There are two methods:
i. Relative method when we dig into the earth, the fossils we find closer
to the surface are more recent than the fossils we find in deeper layers.
ii. By detecting the ratios of different isotopes of the same element in the
fossil material.
27.
i. Monohybrid cross
ii. Red colour of flower dominant over white flower
iii. a. Parents – (RR) and (rr)
b. F1 progeny – Rr
c. F2 progeny – RR, Rr and rr
28. We agree with the statement.
All the variation do not have an equal chance of surviving in the environment
in which they find themselves. The chances of surviving depend on the nature
of variation. Different individuals have different kind of advantages. A
bacteria that can withstand heat will survive better in heat wave.
1. What name is given to a sequence of gradual changes over millions of year in

which new species are produced.
2. Which are the two processes, sexual reproduction or asexual reproduction
brings about marked variations in the offspring?
3. In which gametes are present X and Y chromosomes?
4. Name two processes which change the frequency of certain genes over
generation in a population.
5. Explain with examples how characteristics of a population changes over the
years for the following situations.
a. To gain survival advantage b. due to accidental survival c. Temporary
change of characteristics
6. How will you substantiate the statement that heredity and its concepts were
known to the ancient civilisations.
7. How many autosomes are present in a human sperm?
8. What are cross breed plants known as?
9. What does letter F represent in heredity?
10. How will you conclude that birds are closely related to reptiles?
11. Where did the earliest members of human beings live?
12. Which organ in man suggest that he is a descendent of herbivorous animals?
13. Why is appendix in human considered as vestigial?
14. Why offsprings differ from parents in certain characters?
15. What is meant by expression TT and Tt in Mendelian terms?
16. How is sex determined in human beings?
17. Why are flippers of whales and wings of birds are considered as homologous
organs?
18. On the basis of the possibilities of combination of the sex chromosomes, what
percentage probability does a couple have of having a son or a daughter. Show the
same by making a cross.
29. Explain why evolution can’t be said to progress from lower forms to higher
forms.
20. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits may be dominant or recessive?
21. Explain with an example how variation took place due to inheritance?
22. Explain Urey and Miller’s experiment showing evidence of the theory of
origin of life.
23. How does the study of fossils provide evidence in favour of organic evolution.
24. Can the wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bat be considered homologous
organs? Why or why not?
25. What do you understand by reproductive isolation? How is this mechanism
responsible for speciation?
26. Though eyes are found in many organisms why can they not be grouped
together?
27. Why can two sub-populations of a species not reproduce with each other?
State two reasons. What will be the outcome of such a situation?
Chapter No. 10
LIGHT- REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
HOTS Questions and Answers
1. Where is the image formed in a convex mirror, when the object is anywhere in
front of it ?
2. A person uses concave mirror for shaving, where should he position his face in
front of it ?
3. A ray of light is incident on a concave mirror along its principal axis. What will
be the angle of reflection?
4. What will happen to ray of light when it travels from rarer medium to a denser
medium ?
5. What does negative sign in the value of magnification of a mirror indicate?
6. Name the point inside the lens through which a ray of light goes undeviated?
7. Which of the two has a great power? A lens of short focal length or a lens of
large focal length?
8. Name the lens which always gives an erect and diminished image?
9. Which mirror is used as rear view mirror in vehicles and why ?
10. Define one dioptre?
11. The size of an object is 2cm.The magnification produced by a mirror is +1. What
is the size of the image?
12. When a ray of light passes from a denser medium to a rarer medium which angle
is greater: angle of incidence or angle of refraction?
13. An image formed in a spherical mirror has magnification -2.Is the image real or
virtual?
14. The power of a lens is -2D. Is the lens convex or concave?
15. Focal length of a convex mirror is 10cm.Find the radius of curvature of the
mirror?
16. An object is placed at a distance of 50cm from a convex mirror. State two
characteristics of the image formed.
17.Write two uses of concave mirror.
18. An object 1cm high produces a real image 1.5 cm high, when placed at a distance
of 15 cm from concave mirror. Calculate the position of the image.
19. Find the power of a concave lens of focal length 2m.
20. Which phenomenon occurs when light falls on(a) highly polished surface (b) a
transparent medium ?
21. What will happen to a ray of light when it falls normally on a surface ?
22. What is absolute refractive index ?
23. If refractive index of glass is 1.65, What is the speed of light in glass. ?
24. The magnification “ m “ for a mirror is +1 what does this signify ?
ANSWERS OF THE ABOVE QUESTIONS
1. Between pole and focus, behind the convex mirror.

2. Between pole and principal focus.
3. Angle of reflection = 0
4. Bends towards the normal .
5. Image is real.
6. Optical centre.
7. Lens of short focal length.
8. Concave lens.
9. Convex mirror, wider field of view.
10. One dioptre is the power of a lens of focal length one meter.
11. +2cm, because m=I/O , +1=I/2 =+2
12. Angle of refractions.
13. Real.
14. Concave lens.
15. 20cm.
16. (1) Image is virtual and erect.
(2) Image is diminished.
17. (1) Used as reflectors for automobile headlights.
(2) Used as shaving mirror.
18. – v/u = h’/h , -v/-15 = -1.5/1
v = 15x 1.5 = -22.5cm.
19. – p = 1/f
=1/-2 = -0.5D.
20. (a) Reflection of light.
(b) Refraction of light.
21. No bending of light ray occurs. It means light rays goes straight from one
medium to another.
22. When first medium is taken as vaccum, the refractive index of second medium is
called as
absolute refractive index.
23. Refractive Index of glass = Speed of Light in vaccum
Speed of Light in glass
à 1.65 = 3 x 108 à Vg = 3 x 108
Vg 1.65
à 1.8 x 108 m/s
24. (a) Image is of same size as the object.
(b) Image is virtual and erect .
More Questions for Practice
1. What is angle of incidence?

2. A ray of light passing through centre of curvature of a concave mirror retraces
its path on reflection, Why?
3. An object is placed at the focus of a concave mirror, Where is the image
formed?
4. What is meant by refraction of light?
5. Define principal focus of a concave mirror?
6. State Snell’s law of refraction?
7. Will the lateral displacement increase/decrease if glass block is made more
thicker?
8. Why convex lens is called conversing lens?
9. Printed letters appears diminished, when viewed through a lens. What is the
nature of lens.?
10. At What angle a ray of light should strike the surface of glass, So that it does
not suffer any refraction?
11. Does the value of speed of light change with medium?
12. What is the cause of refraction of light?
13. Which lens is used as a magnifying glass?
14. What is an optically denser medium of light?
15. What is the difference between reflection and refraction?
16. If a ray of light traveling in air is incident on the water surface obliquely,
Draw a ray diagram and show the change in its path in water?
17. Define refractive index in terms of a speed of light in two media. What is the
unit of refractive index?
18. A ray of light strikes the mirror at 15o , What is the angle of reflection?
19. What is refractive index of air? Why the refractive index of other medium is
taken with respected to air?
20. Distinguish between real and virtual images?
21. For what position of an object, a virtual image is formed by a convex lens?
Give ray diagram?
22. Find the position and nature of image formed in a concave mirror for the
following position of an object. (a) At infinity (b) Beyond C.
23. An object is placed at a distance of 10cm from convex mirror of focal length
15cm; find the position and nature of image?
24. A thin lens has a focal length of -25cm. What is the power of the lens? Is it
convex or concave?
25. Calculate the distance at which an object should be placed in front of convex
lens of focal length 10cm to obtain an image double its size?
26. Why a mirror does has one principal focus while a lens has two principal foci?
27. Focal length of the lens in a photographic camera is 5cm.What is the power
and nature of the lens?
28. Define linear magnification. Does it have any unit?
29. Why a concave mirror has a real principal focus, while convex mirror has a
virtual principal focus?
30. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading the small
letters found in dictionary.
a. A convex lens of focal length 30 cm.
b. A concave lens of focal length 30 cm.
c. A concave lens of focal length 5 cm.
d. A convex lens of focal length 5 cm.
31. Show that the refractive index of a medium 1 with respect to medium 2 is
reciprocal to the refractive index of medium 2 with respect to 1 i.e. n12 = 1 /
n21
32. From the diagram given below calculate 300 Air

a) angle of incidence
b) angle of refraction .
0
c) the refractive index of the substance X. 30
X
33. A man standing in front of special mirror finds his image having a small
face,big tummy and
legs of normal size .what are the shapes three parts of mirror?
34. A diverging lens of focal length 15cm forms an image of 10cm from the lens.
Draw a scale
diagram for the formation of image.
Chapter No. : 11
Human Eye and Colourful World
1. What is the least distance of distinct vision of a normal human eye ?

2. Name the muscle responsible for bringing change in the focal length of the eye
lens ?
3. Name one defect of vision which cannot be corrected by any type of spectacle
lenses ?
4. State one effect produced by the scattering of light by the atmosphere ?
5. What is the nature of image formed on the retina of the eye ?
6. What type of lens is used for correcting hypermetropia ?
7. Who was the first person to obtain the spectrum of sunlight ?
8. What is the function of optic nerve in human eye ?
9. What is range of vision ?
10. Why do different colours deviate through different angles on passing through
a prism?
11. As light rays pass from air into glass prism, are they refracted towards or away
from the normal ?
12. Which color has largest wavelength ?
13. Which defect of vision can be rectified using a concave lens ?
14. What phenomenon causes twinkling of star on a clear night ?
15. What is meant by scattering of light ?
16. Why does the sky appear black instead of blue to an astronaut?
17. What is the basic cause of atmospheric refraction?
18. Why does clear sky look blue?
19. Can visible light be scattered by atoms/molecules in earth’s atmosphere?
20. What is a spectrum?
21. Name the defect of vision in person
a. Whose near point is more than 25cm away?.
b. Whose far point is less than infinity.
ANSWERS OF THE ABOVE QUESTIONS :
Ans 1. 25cm.
Ans.2 Ciliary muscle.
Ans 3. Cataract.
Ans 4. Tyndall effect.
Ans.5 Real and inverted.
Ans.6 Convex lens.
Ans.7 Sir Isaac Newton.
Ans 8 Optic nerve carries the image formed on the retina to the brain in the form
of electrical
signals.
Ans 9 Range of vision of a normal human eye is between it’s near point and far
point i.e,
from 25cm to infinity.
Ans 10 This is because different colours travel through glass with different
speeds and glass has
different refractive index for different colours.
Ans 11. Towards the normal.
Ans. 12 Red color.
Ans. 13 Myopia.
Ans. 14 Atmospheric refraction.
Ans. 15 Change of direction of light on striking a scatterer.
Ans. 16 The upper atmosphere does not have particle or dust etc. as a result there
is no scattering
of light and hence the sky appear dark in stead of blue to an astronaut.
Ans. 17 The basic cause of refraction is variation in optical density of different
layers of earth’s
atmosphere. The sun passes through earth’s atmosphere.
Ans. 18 Because blue color having smallest wavelength is scattered most,
Amount of scattering is directly proportional to 1/ 4 .
Ans. 19 Yes, as size of molecules/atoms is much less then wavelength of light
Ans. 20 The band of seven colours obtained by dispersion of white light is called
spectrum.
Ans. 21
a. Hypermetropia
b. Myopia
1. A person can see only objects beyond 1m. From his eyes. Name the defect of
the eye.
2. Out of light of blue and red colours which one is scattered most?
3. What is the function of crystalline lens in the human eye?
4. Which phenomenon is responsible for increasing the apparent length of the
day by 4 minute?
5. What is the far point of a person suffering from Myopia.
6. What name is given to front transparent part of human eye?
7. Where do we see :(1) Concave and (2) Convex lens in bifocal lenses.
8. What is the nature of image formed by our eye?
9. Name the liquid which is present between eye lens and cornea.
10. Where does most of the refraction of light in an eye occurs?
11. Which kind of lens is an eye lens?
12. What is the cause of dispersion of light?
13. Under very dim light, we are able to see the objects but can not distinguish
between colours
why ?
14. What is the range of vision for normal human eye ?
15. How is the amount of light entering the eye controlled ?
16. What is the colour of danger signal? Why?
17. What is rainbow? How is rainbow formed?
18. State two causes of myopic vision.
19. How an uncorrected myopic eye sees far off objects.
20. What is presbyopia? Name the type of lens which can be used to correct
presbyopia.
21. Explain why planet do not twinkle at night?
22. Explain about the colour of the sun at sunrise and sunset.
23. Define the term (1) Near point (2) Far point
24. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the object closer than 25 cm.
25. Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass prism on
the diagram mark.
(a) Incident ray (b) Emergent ray and (c) Angle of deviation
26. How is the dispersed white light recomposed ?
27 The near point of a hypermetropic eye is at 75 cm from the eye. What is the
power of the lens required to enable him to read clearly a book held at 25 cm from
the eye.
CHAPTER -12
ELECTRICITY
Q.1 What is represented by joule/coulomb?

Q.2 A charge of 2C moves between two plates, maintained at a p.d of 1V. What is
the energy acquired by the charge?
Q.3 Why are copper wires used as connecting wires?
Q.4 A wire of resistivity is stretched to double its length. What is its new
resistivity?
Q.5 What is the resistance of connecting wire?
Q.6 What is the resistance of an ammeter?
Q.7 What is the resistance of a Voltmeter?
Q.8 Which has more resistance: 100W bulb or 60W bulb?
Q.9 How will you join three resistances, each of 2 so that the effective resistance
is 3 ?
Q.10 What happens to the current in a circuit if its resistance is doubled?
Q.11 What happens to the resistance of a circuit if the current through it is doubled?
Q.12 How does the resistance of a wire depend upon its radius?
Q.13 Two wires are of the same length, same radius, but one of them is of copper and
the other is of iron. Which will have more resistance?
Q.14 Two wires of same material and same length have radii r1 and r2. Compare their
resistances.
Q.15 Given a resistors each of resistors R. How will you combine them to get the
(i) maximum and (ii) minimum effective resistance? What is the ratio of the
maximum to minimum resistance?
Q.16 A wire of length L and resistance R is stretched so that its length its doubled.
How will its (a) Resistance change (b) Resistively change ?
Q.17 Two students perform the experiments on series and parallel combinations of
two given resistors R1 and R2 and plot the following V-I graphs.
Which of the graphs is (are) correctly labelled in terms of the words ‘series’ and
parallel’ Justify your answer.
Q.18 A household uses the following electric appliances :
(i) Refrigerator of rating 400W for ten hours each day.
(ii) Two electric fans of rating 80W each for twelve hours each day.
(iii) Six electric tubes of rating 18W each for 6 hours each day.
Calculate the electricity bill of the household for the month of June if the cost
per unit of electric energy is Rs. 3.00.
Q.19 Ammeter burns out when connected in parallel. Give reasons.
Answers of questions no 1-19
A.1 It represents potential difference.
A.2 W=QV=2×1=2J
A.3 The electrical resistivity of copper is low.
A.4 It remains same because resistivity depends on nature of material.
A.5 The resistance of a connecting wire, which is made of good conductor, is
negligible.
A.6 The resistance of an ammeter is very small and for an ideal ammeter, its value is
zero.
A.7 The resistance of a voltmeter is very high and for an ideal voltmeter, its value is
infinity.
A.8 As R 1/P.Thus, the resistance of 60W bulb is more.
A.9 A parallel combination of two resistances (which will be 1 ) joined in series
with the third resistance (2 )
A.10 As I 1/R, the current is reduced to half of its previous value.
A.11 The resistance of the circuit does not depend on the current through it.
A.12 As R 1/A, R 1/ r2 i.e. R 1/r2.
A.13 As R = l/A, but A and l are same it depends only on resistivity and it is more
for iron so iron has more resistance.
A.14 If R1 and R2 are resistances, then R1/R2 = r22/r12 because and l are same.
A.15 for maximum resistance Rs= nr (Equivalent of series combination)

for minimum resistance Rp= r/n (Equivalent of parallel combination)
Rs/Rp= n2
A.16 (a) If the original length of the wire is l and its cross-sectional area is A, then
R = l/A.When length becomes 2l, cross-sectional area reduces to A/2 because
volume does not change. The new resistance = (2l)/A/2=4 l/A = 4R
(b) Resistively does not change.
A.17 Both are correct because V/ I= resistance(R) and I/ V=1/R
Series means high resistance and parallel means low resistance.
A.18 Electrical energy consumed per day = 400×10+2×80×12+6×18×6
=4000+1920+648
= 6568 Wh
= 6.568 kWh
Electrical energy consumed in 30 days= 6.568×30

= 197 kWh (units)
Electric Bill = 197×3
= Rs 591.
A.19 Ammeter consists of a wire of low resistance when connected in parallel, a
large amount of current passes through it hence gets burnt i.e. short circuited.
Q.1 Name a substance whose resistance almost remains unchanged by increase of

temperature.
Q.2 Name two special characteristics of heater coil.
Q.3 A wire of resistance 4 is bent to form a circle. What is the resistance between
two diametrically opposite ends ?
Q.4 How does the resistance of a conductor change if its temperature is increased?
Q.5 A current of 4A flows in a wire of resistance 60 .Calculate electrical energy
consumed in 2 minutes.
Q.6 V-I graph for two resistors is given. Which of the two has minimum resistance?
Q.7 Alloys are used in electrical heating devices rather than pure metals. Give
one reason.
Q.8 An electric geyser has the ratings 2000W, 220V marked on it. What should be the
minimum rating, in whole number of a fuse wire that may be required for safe
use with this geyser?
Q.9 The electrical resistivity of few materials is given below in ohm-meter. Which of
these materials can be used for making element of a heating device?
A 6.84 x 10-8
B 1.60 x 10-8
C 1.00 x 10-4
D 2.50 x 1012
E 4.40 x 10-5
F 2.30 x 1017
Q.10 Where do we connect a fuse: with live wire or with neutral wire?
Q.11 What is the resistance of an air gap?
Q.12 Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuits and appliances.
Q.13 Two metallic wires A and B are connected in parallel. Wire A has length l and
radius r, wire B has a length 2l and radius 2r. Compute the ratio of the total resistance
of parallel combination and the resistance of wire A.
Q.14 What is the meaning of the term ‘frequency’ of an alternating current? What is
its value in India? Why is an alternating current considered to be advantageous over
direct current for long-range transmission of electric energy?
Q.15 A TV set picture tube shoots out a beam of electrons. The current due to this
beam is 10 mA. How many electrons will strike the TV screen every second?
Q. 16 An electric wire is stretched to increase its length by 25%.By what % will the
resistance be increased and what will be increase in its resistivity?
Q.17 An electric iron of resistance 20 takes a current of 5 A. Calculate the heat
developed in 30 sec.
Q.18 A 60 W electric lamp gives off energy in the form of light at the rate of 7.5 J/s.
What percentage of energy does the lamp transform into light?
Q.19 The voltage-current variation of two metallic wires A and B at constant
temperature are shown in fig. Assuming that the wires have the same length and same
diameter, explain which of the two wires will have larger resistivity.
Q.20 You are given following current-time graphs from two different sources:
(i) Name the type of current in two cases.

(ii) Identify any one source for each type of these currents.
(iii) What is the frequency of current in case II in India?
Q.21 The electric power consumed by a device may be calculated by using either of
the two expressions P = I2R or P = V 2/R . The first expression indicates that it is
directly proportional to R whereas the second expression indicates inverse
proportionality. How can the seemingly different dependence of P on R in these
expressions be explained.
Q.22. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit containing the following electrical
components:(a) a resistance (b) a voltmeter (c) an electric bulb (d) a cell (e) an
ammeter and (f) plug key
CHAPTER -13
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

Q.1 A straight wire carrying electric current is moving out of plane of paper and is
perpendicular to it. What is the direction and type of induced magnetic field?
Q.2 How can it be shown that magnetic field exist around a wire carrying current?
Q.3 How can a solenoid be used to magnetise a steel bar.
Q.4 Why can’t two magnetic field lines ever intersect?
Q.5 Can a 5 A fuse be used in wire carrying 15 A current? Why?
Q.6 Give the factors that affect strength of magnetic field at a point due to a straight
conductor carrying current.
Q.7 Where do we connect a fuse: with live wire or with neutral wire?
Q.8 Give two uses of electromagnets.
Q.9 Name any two devices which use permanent magnets.
Q.10 Draw the magnetic field lines representing uniform magnetic field.
Q.11 A current-carrying straight conductor is placed in the east-west direction. What
will be the direction of the force experienced by this conductor due to earth’s
magnetic field? How will this force get affected on? (a) reversing the direction of floe
of current (b) doubling the magnitude of current.
Q.12 An electron enters a magnetic field at right angles to it as shown in fig. The
direction of the force acting on the electron will be:
(a) to the right (b) to the left (c) out of the page (d) into the page
Q.13 Why is the earth pin thicker and longer than the live and the neutral pins?
Q.14 A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What would
happen if a bar magnet is
(i) Pushed into the coil?
(ii) Withdrawn from inside the coil?
(iii) Held stationary inside the coil?
A.1 Induced magnetic field will be in the form of concentric circles in the plane of
paper.
A.2 By using magnetic compass which, shows deflection.
A.3 By inserting the steel bar inside the solenoid and switching on electric current.
A.4 If so then at the point of intersection there will be two different directions of
magnetic field which is not possible.
A.5 No, because both of them would then be ineffective in controlling the amount of
current flowing.
A.6 Magnitude of electric current, perpendicular distance between that point and
conductor.
A.7 It is always connected with live wire.
A.8 (i) It is used in cranes for lifting heavy loads.
(ii) used in electric bells.
A.9 Loudspeakers, Galvanometer, voltmeter.
A.10
A.11 The direction of earth’s magnetic field is from G-south to G-north. Let current
is from west to east. Therefore force is vertically upwards.
(a) By reversing the direction of current, the direction of will be reversed i.e.
vertically downwards.
(b) The magnitude of the force is doubled.
A.12 When a conductor carrying current is placed perpendicular to the direction of
magnetic field, the acting on it is given by Fleming’s left hand rule. Since the
direction of current is the same as that of the motion of a positive charge, the
direction of force acting on it when moving perpendicular to the direction of
magnetic field is the same as that acting on a current-carrying conductor placed
perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field. Obviously, the force acting on an
electron is opposite to that. Therefore in this case it is into the page.
A.13 It is thicker so that it does not enter into the live or neutral sockets. It is made
longer so that it gets connected to the earth terminal earlier than the live and neutral
pins. This ensures the safety of the user.
A.14 (i) Due to change in magnetic flux linked with coil, the galvanometer shows
deflection (say towards right).
(ii) Due to change in magnetic flux linked with coil, the galvanometer shows
deflection (say towards left opposite to that in case one).
(iii) As it is stationary no change in magnetic flux linked with coil, so
galvanometer shows no deflection.
Q.1 The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current:
(a) is zero
(b) decreases as we move towards its end
(c) is same at all points.
(d) Increases as we move towards its end
Q.2 Which of the following properties of proton can change while it moves freely
in a magnetic field?
(a) mass
(b) speed
(c) velocity
(d) momentum.
Q.3 How do we think the displacement of rod AB will be affected if
(i) current in a rod AB is increased
(ii) a stronger horse-shoe magnet is used
(iii) length of rod AB is increased ?(Figure 13.12 Page number 230).
Q.4 A positively-charged particle (alpha particle) projected towards west is
deflected towards north by magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is :
(a) towards south
(b) towards east
(c) downward
(d) upward
Q.5 What is the role of the split-ring in an electric motor?
Q.6 What will be the frequency of an A.C if its direction changes after every .01 s?
Q.7 An A.C has a frequency of 50 Hz. How many times does it change its
direction in one second?
Q.8 A student performs an experiment to study the magnetic effect of current
around a current carrying straight conductor. He reports that
(i) The direction of deflection of the north pole of a compass needle kept at a
given point near the conductor remains unaffected even when the terminals
of the battery sending current in the wire are inter changed.
(ii) for a given battery, the degree of deflection of a N-pole decreases when
the compass is kept at a point farther away from the conductor.
Which of the above observations of the student is incorrect and why?
Q.9 Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of a current carrying solenoid. What
does the pattern of field lines inside the solenoid indicate? Write one
application of magnetic field of current carrying solenoid.
Q.10 Sketch magnetic field lines around a current carrying straight conductor.
Q.11 Why does a current carrying conductor kept in a magnetic field experience
force?
On what factors does the direction of this force depend? Name and state the rule
used for determination of direction of this force.
Q.5 Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. If the current in the coil
A is changed, will some current be induced in the coil B? Give reason.
Q.6 Explain what is short-circuiting and overloading in an electric supply?
Q.7 What is the function of an earth wire? Why is it necessary to earth the metallic
appliances?
Q.8 (a) What is an electromagnet? What does it consist of?
(b) Name one material in each case which is used to make a (i) permanent magnet
(ii) Temporary magnet.
Q.9 Draw a sketch of the patten of field lines due to a (i) current flowing in a circular
coin (ii) current carrying solenoid.
Q.10 A circuit has a fuse of 5A. What is the maximum number of 100W, 220V
bulbs that can be safely used in the circuit.
Chapter No. : 14
SOURCES OF ENERGY
Q.1.The cost of production of electricity in a thermal power station located in

Bihar/Jharkhand/Orissa is less than in Gujarat/Maharashtra.Do you agree? Justify
your answer.
Q.2 Which of the following sources of electricity involves more running expenses and
why? Thermal power station, Hydro power station, solar cells or Geothermal source.
Q.3 Why is there so much emphasis on changing over from petrol/diesel driven
automobiles to CNG-driven vehicles?
Q.4 Which of the following is not an example of the biomass energy source?
(a) Wood,(b) gobar gas,(c) atomic energy,(d)coal.
Q.5 How is the supply of electricity maintained in a windmill when there is no wind?
In a solar panel when there is no sun?
Q.6 Can any source of energy be pollution-free? Why or why not?
Q.7 Why is biogas a better fuel than animal dung-cakes?
Q.8 Though a hot iron emits radiation, yet it is not visible in the dark, why?
Q.9 Define: OTE (ocean thermal energy).
Q.10 H2 has been used as a rocket fuel. Would you consider it as a cleaner fuel than
CNG? Why or why not?
Ans.1 It is because coal is available in Bihar/Jharkhand/Orissa locally, whereas it has

to be transported for any thermal power plant in Gujarat/Maharashtra.
Ans.2 Thermal power stations involve more running cost due to continuous use of
coal.
Ans. 3 CNG on burning produces only carbon dioxide and water
-It does not produce smoke.
-It does not leave unburnt hydrocarbons, lead particulates etc.
Ans.4 Atomic energy is not an example of biomass energy source.
Ans.5 In both the cases, the electricity generated is stored in a battery. This battery
provides electricity when there is no wind in the case of a windmill and no sun in
the case of a solar panel.
Ans. 6 No source of energy can be called pollution-free, because the use of any source
of energy disturbs the environment in one way or the other. The actual source of
energy may be pollution-free,but the assembly of the device might have caused
some damage to the environment. So, in absolute sense, no source of energy can
be called pollution-free.
Ans. 7 Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung-cakes because-
(a) Burning of animal dung-cakes produces lot of pollution whereas biogas is a
smokeless fuel.
(b) The calorific value of Biogas is much higher than that of animal dung-cakes.
(c) Animal dung cakes leaves residue after burning whereas biogas leaves no residue.
Ans. 8 Hot iron emits infra-red rays and these are not visible to our eyes.
Ans. 9 The energy available due to the difference in the temperature of water at the
surface of the ocean and at deeper levels is called OTE.
Ans. 10 H2 when burnt in presence of O2 produces H2O as the only product with
release of lot of heat energy. Water does not cause any damage to environment
while CNG during burning produces CO2 and water. CO2 is not a pollutant yet it
leads to rise in the temperature (global warming), this rise is called green house
effect and this will affect polar ice, and life on the earth is at risk. Thus, H2 is a
cleaner fuel than CNG.
Q1. Name the components of bio-gas.

Q2.What are hot spots?
Q3. What is the product obtained when wood is burnt without much supply of
oxygen?
Q4. List problems associated with construction of dam?
Q5. What is the basis of nuclear energy? Explain briefly.
Q6. “It was believed nuclear energy is only destructive’’ do you agree? Justify your
answer.
Q7. List the criteria for selecting a good fuel.
Q8. What is bio-mass?
Q9. Name the process that converts solar energy into chemical energy in nature.
Q10. Biogas is considered to be a boon to the farmers. Give reason.
CHAPTER – 15
OUR ENVIRONMENT
Q.1 Why some substances are degraded and others not?

Q2. What limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain.
Q3. What will happen if decomposers are not there in the environment?
Q4. What is the harm of clay cups?
Q5. What will happen if all the carnivores are removed from the earth?
Q6. What will happen to grasslands if all the grazers are removed from there?
Q7. The number of malarial patients in a village increase tremendously, when a
large number of frogs were exported from the village. What could be the cause for it?
Explain the help of food chain?
Q8. State one reason to justify the position of man at the apex of most food chains?
Q9. Which food chains are advantageous in terms of energy?
Q10. Construct a food chain composing the following Snake, Hawk, Rats, Plants.
Q11. Name the process that is a direct outcome of excessive burning of fossil fuels?
Q12. If all the wastes we generate is bio-degradable what impact may this have on
the environment?
Q13. Write the harmful effect of ozone depletion.
Q14. Why food chains consists of three or four steps only?
Q15. Which of the following will have the maximum concentration of harmful
chemicals in its body?
Peacock, Frog, Grass, Snake, Grasshopper
Q16. Why energy of herbivores never come back to the autotrophs?
Q17. What are decomposers and what is the importance of them in the ecosystem?
Q18. Give the correct sequence of various trophic levels in a food chain.
Producers
Primary
Consumer
Secondary
Consumers
Tertiary
Consumers
Q19. What is biological magnification and give its causes?

Q20. Are plants actually producers of energy?
ANSWERS
Ans-1. Different components of food are changed to simpler substances by digestive

enzymes and these enzymes are very much specific in nature and action. Similarly,
substances are broken down by bacteria and saprophytes. They are also very specific
in action and break down of the particular substance. Therefore, some substances are
biodegradable and other are non-biodegradable.
Ans-2. There is a loss of energy as we go from one trophic level to the next, this
limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain.
Ans-3. If decomposers are not there in the environment, the breakdown of the
complex organic substances into simple substances will not take place and natural
replenishment of the soil will not take place. So, presence of decomposers is essential
for the replenishment of soil and biogeochemical cycle of elements or substances.
Ana-4. Clay cups cause depletion of top fertile soil as they are formed from the same.
Ans-5. If all the carnivores are removed from the earth, the population of herbivores
will increase. Large population of herbivores will overgraze. As a result, all plants
will disappear from the earth surface and ultimately the earth may become a desert.
The biosphere will get disturbed which will lead to end of life on earth.
Ans-6. If all the grazers are removed from grassland, grass will grow unchecked. It
may help the growth of some organisms harmful to the animals and the animals which
feed on the grazers will die of starvation. The biogeochemical cycle will stop and the
whole biosphere will get disturbed.
Ans-7. Phytoplankton Zooplankton Mosquito larva Frog
In the absence of frog, more mosquito larva survive, giving rise to large number of
mosquitoes which cause increase incidence of malaria.
Ans-8. The position of man is at the apex of most food chains as he is an intelligent
organism and can take any advantageous position by manipulation.
Ans-9. The two step chains in which man is close to producer are advantageous. For
example, Producer Man
Ans-10. Plants Rats Snake Hawks
Ans-11. Global warming is a direct outcome of excessive burning of fossil fuels.
Ans-12.Cleaner environment without any pollution, more nutrients will be released
into the nutrient pool, will help to maintain ecological balance.
Ans-13.1. Cause the skin cancer
2. Damage to eyes
3. Immune system
Ans-14Since so little energy is available for the next level of consumers and for this
reason food generally consists of three or four steps. The loss of energy at the each
step is so great that very little usable energy remains after four tropic levels.
Ans-15.Grass Grasshopper Frog Peacock
Peacock will have maximum conc.
Ans-16.Energy of herbivorous never comes back to autotrophs as flow of energy is
always unidirectional. So once it passes the trophic level it is no longer
available to the previous level.
Ans-17.The micro-organisms which break down the complex organic substances into
simple inorganic substances e.g. bacteria, fungi. Decomposers decompose the
complex substances into simple ones so that plants can use it again
Ans-18.
Tertiary
Consumers
Secondary
Consumers
Primary
Consumers
Producers
Ans-19.The increased concentration of chemicals at any trophic level is called
biological magnification. It occurs due to the excessive use of pesticides which enter
our food chain.
Ans- 20. No, plants are not actually producers of energy, they can trap the energy of
sun and can convert solar energy into chemical energy in the form of carbohydrates
and other food materials so they are called transducers.
Q1. During heavy rains in a village, the rain water carried excessive nitrogen
compounds to a pond. How will it affect the growth of fish in the pond in the long
run?
Q2. Which of the following materials are non-biodegradable? Aluminum wire, tea
leaves, synthetic fibres, wool
Q3. In comparing the two ecosystems A & B it is observed that A has only first
and second order consumers while B has third, fourth and fifth order consumers.
Which of the two could be more stable?
Q4. What name has been given to those organisms which breakdown the complex
organic compounds present in dead animals and plants?
Q5. Which of the following constitutes a food chain?
a) Grass, wheat and mango b) Grass, goat and human
c) Goat, cow and elephant d) Grass, fish and goat
Q6. Vegetarian food habit can sustain a larger number of people. Justify the
statement in terms of food chain.
Q7. Which of the following belong to the same trophic level?
Tree, Frog, Snake, Grass, Lizard
Q8. Give any two ways in which non-biodegradable substances would affect the
environment.
Q9. How does study of food chain in an area or habitat help us.
Q10. What percentage of energy, available at the producer level is transferred at
successive trophic levels in a food chain?
Q11. A non-biodegradable toxic chemical has entered into a food chain. Which
type of food habit will you suggest to a man? Vegetarian or Non-vegetarian.
Q12. Name two waste materials, which can be recycled?
Q13. Explain why, the practice of serving tea in Kulhads (disposable cups made of
clay) on trains has been discontinued?
Q14. Explain why there are greater chances of accumulation of harmful chemicals
in the body of human being.
Q15. The use of pesticide DDT is discouraged since this chemical is found in
human body. How does this chemical enter our body?
Q16. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
Q17. Consider the following food chains:
1. Plants Mice Snake Hawks
2. Plants Mice Hawks
If energy available at the producer level in both the food chains is 100 J in
which case will hawks get more energy as food and by how much?
Justify your answer.
Q18. How much energy will be available to hawks in the food chain comprising
hawk, snake, paddy and mice, if 10,000 J of energy is available to paddy from
the sun?
Q19. Calculate the amount of energy available to lion in the following food chain if
plants have 20000 J of energy available from the sun.
Plant Deer Lion.
Q20. In the food chain Grass Deer Lion, operating in a forest, what
will happen,
1) If all the lions are removed?
2) If all the deer are removed?
3) If all the grass is removed?
Q21. What are the various methods of waste disposal practiced in your school?
Describe any 2 methods briefly.
Q22. All the flesh of a carnivore is from grass. Justify the statement.
Q23. Explain the following terms
1) Acid Rain 2) Ozone depletion 3) Green house
effect.
CHAPTER-16
MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES
1. What does the high level of total coliform count in river Ganga indicates?
2. What are “biodiversity hot spots”? What is the measure of the biodiversity?
3. Which programme was started to replenish forests?
4. Why scarcity of water is there in our country inspite of nature’s monsoon
bounty?
5. What is the effect of continuous depletion of ground water along coastal
region?
6. Why is dependence of man on nature greater than that of any other organism?
7. In addition to low rainfall, what are the other reasons for non-availability of
water in arid and semi-arid zones of our country?
8. Why is mining a big source of pollution?
9. Write two points to be kept in mind while storing water in tanks.
10. Write any two alternatives to dams.
11. Why do you think there should be equitable distribution of resources?
12. Which canal has brought greenery to considerable areas of Rajasthan?
13. What were the two main problems as a result of Tawa Irrigation Project?
14. Write the advantages of giving the control of water management to the
residents of the area?
15. State benefits of water harvesting.
16. How did Chipko Andolan ultimately benefit the local population? Give any
three benefits?
17. Quote three instances where human intervention saved the forests from
destruction.
18. Why are environmentalists insisting upon sustainable natural resource
management? Give any four reasons.
ANSWERS
1. It indicates that water is contaminated by disease causing micro-organisms.

2. Forests are “biodiversity hot spots”. One measure of the biodiversity of an
area is the number of species found here.
3. Silviculture
4. It has taken place due to the following reasons:
(a) Failure to sustain water availability underground which has resulted largely
from the loss of vegetation cover.
(b) Diversion for high water demanding crops.
(c) Pollution from industrial effluents and urban wastes.
5. The effect of continuous depletion of ground water along coastal region will
lead to movement of saline sea water into freshwater wells then spoiling their
quality.
6. Man’s dependence on the environment is greater than that of other organisms
because man:
(a) Develops curiosity for more comforts and security.
(b) Consumes large amount of material and energy.
(c) Develops a new kind of socio-economic environment which consists of
things developed by man through his tools and techniques.
7. (a) Flowing of rain water and lack of management to harvest it.
(b) Ground water is pumped out for high water demanding crops.
(c) Water becomes unsafe and unusable due to mixing of urban wastes and
effluents from the industries.
8. Mining causes pollution because large amount of slag is discarded for every
tonne of metal extracted.
9. Storage tank should not be located close to the source of contamination and
should be accessible for cleaning.
10. Adopting water harvesting techniques and reducing the scale of floods through
better catchment management.
11. We think that there should be equitable distribution of resources because not
only a handful of rich and powerful people, but all the people may get benefit
from the development of these resources.
12. Indira Gandhi Canal.
13. Water logging and increasing salinity
14. Water harvesting techniques are highly locality specific and the benefits are
localised. Thus, giving people the control over their local water resources ensures
that mismanagement and overexploitation of these resources is reduced.
15. a. Provides self-sufficiency to water supply
b. Conserves valuable ground water
c. Reduces cost for pumping ground water
d. Reduces local flooding and drainage problems
16. a. The locals benefitted from forest produces

b. The wild life and nature were conserved
c. The quality of air and soil was preserved
17. a. Contribution of Bishnoi movement

b. Building national parks
c. Encouraging wildlife sanctuaries
28. a. Non-renewable resources are limited, we should use them judiciously

b. We should encourage the use of renewable resources
c. We should preserve the environment for future generation
d. The benefits of the controlled exploitation should go to local people
1. Construction of a dam on a river often results in the reduction of fish catch.

Why is it so?
2. Name one National Park and a bird sanctuary developed in our country to
protect wild life, rare animals and birds.
3. Write another term for petroleum
4. What are Kulhs?
5. How would the setting of a factory on the bank of a river affect the population
down stream?
6. Why the management of the forest and wildlife resources considered as a
challenging task?
7. Industrilisation is one main cause of deterioration of environment. Discuss
8. What are the main factors responsible for causing ecological crisis in nature?
9. State one limitation of rain water harvesting.
10. Write two points for sustainable forest management.
11. How can you say that water is a basic natural resource?
12. Economic growth and ecological consideration should grow hand in hand.
Explain why?
13. How can you make balance between environment and development?
14. What is Narmada Bachao Andolan?
15. Why is the re- use of material is better than recycling in saving the
environment?
16. In what way industry is affecting the forest?
17. Explain various steps of rooftop rain water harvesting.
18. How can we make wise use of rains?
19. What are the various remedial measures to conserve wild life?
20. What steps do you take at your home in order to be environmental friendly?
21. Judicious use of oil and petroleum is very important. How can this be
achieved?
22. Rainfall, soil conservation and depleting forest resources are interlinked with
one another. Explain how they are related to one another.
23. Government is sole responsible for the protection of environment and
individuals are not to be bothered about it. Give your comments on the
statement.
24. What are the advantages of ground water over surface water?

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

Present day understanding of learning is that learning is an exercise in

Knowing a concept is at the bottom of hierarchy of learning outcomes

I wish you all the best for your success.

CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

HOTS: (High Order Thinking Skill) Questions with Answers:

2 An aqueous solution of metal nitrate P reacts with sodium bromide solution to

6 A substance X used for coating iron articles is added to a blue solution of a

8. Observe the following activity & answer the questions

9. A reddish brown metal X when heated in presence of oxygen forms a black

Ans.:2 P = Ag NO3 , Q = AgBr 2AgBr (s) 2Ag(s) + Br2(g)

Ans: 4 a) X = Calcium oxide (Quick lime), Combination reaction.

Ans. 5 X = CuCO3. Cu (OH) 2, Y= CuO, Z= CO2

Ans. 6 X= Fe, Y = Cu, Displacement reaction.

Ans. 7 (i). Yellow, Lead iodide

Ans.8 a.Bubbles of hydrogen gas.

Ans.10 Displacement Reaction

Ans.11 X = Mg, Y = MgO, Mg + O2. 2 MgO

Ans.12 Ca (OH) 2(aq) + CO2 (g) CaCO3(s) + H2O (l)

20. Why is corrosion harmful?

22. Balance the following chemical equations.

23. Write chemical equations for the following word equations :

26. How can we make a chemical equation more informative?

27. Write one chemical equation to show:

28. Write short notes on:

30. Define oxidation and reduction. Give an example of a Redox reaction.

ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

HOTS: (High Order Thinking Skill) Questions with Answers:

Ans 13: (a) White

METALS AND NON METALS

HOTS: (High Order Thinking Skill) Questions with Answers:

(i) Does the bulb glow? What does this indicate?

Answer the following questions based on above information.

10. A, B and C are 3 elements which undergo chemical reactions according to

12 An element E combines with O2 to form an oxide E2O, which is a good conductor

Na 2O (s) + 2HCl (dil) 2NaCl (aq) +H2O (l)

(iii) Rubber like substance is a bad conductor of electricity

Ans 5: 3HCl + HNO3

(ii) Displacement reaction. Because B is more reactive than Cu.

(ii) Al, Zn, Fe

(iv) Na>Mg> Al > Zn > Fe > Cu

Ans.10 i) Most reactive element is B as it has replaced both A and C from

Q2. What happens to the electrical conductivity of a metal when it is heated?

Q3. What is the nature of Al2O3?

Q5. What is the purpose of adding C to molten Iron?

Q7. Which of the following is metal and non metal?

Q12. Name one metal each which is extracted by:

Q13.a) A metal M is found in nature as MCO3.It is used in galvanizing Fe articles.

Q15. Write the equations for the reactions of:

Q19. Identify the acid which oxidizes H2 to H2O.

Carbon and its compounds

HOTS: (High Order Thinking Skill) Questions with Answers:

1.An organic compound X with a molecular formula C2H6O undergoes oxidation

4. A compound `X` has molecular formula C4 H10. It undergoes substitution reaction

6. An organic compound P with molecular formula C2H6Ois an active ingredient of

8. An organic compounds `A` is a constituent of antifreeze and has the molecular

Ans 3: `Y` will burn with a sooty flame. So it is an unsaturated hydrocarbon.

Propane (X) Propene (Y)

Ans 5 A is detergent & B is soap.