Paper 1 Set A Answer Key

Regn No: _________________ Name: ___________________ (To be written by the candidates)

5th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION FOR ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS- November, 2007
PAPER 1:
Date: 17.11.2007

General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit

Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions: o o o o o Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions The question paper is divided into three sections All questions in all three sections are compulsory All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section I: OBJECTIVE TYPE

(i) (ii) (iii)

Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

Answer all 50 questions Each question carries one mark Please darken the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with HB Pencil or Black Colour Ball Pen , as per instructions

1.

The first major commercial energy consuming sector in the country is a) industry b) agriculture c) residential d) transport

2.

Select the source of stored mechanical energy a) water b) compressed air c) coal d) electricity

3.

Select the incorrect statement with respect to Carbon Monoxide (CO) a) it is emitted into the atmosphere as a result of combustion processes, and from oxidation of hydrocarbons and other organic compounds. b) in urban areas, CO is produced almost entirely (90%) from road traffic emissions c) CO at levels found in ambient air may reduce the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. d) it survives in the atmosphere for a period of approximately 1 year and finally gets oxidized to carbon dioxide (CO2).

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Paper 1 Set A Answer Key

4.

Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Designated Consumers as covered under the Energy Conservation Act,2001 a) the designated consumer has to get energy audit conducted by a certified energy auditor; b) certified energy managers are required to be appointed or designated by the designated consumers; c) designated consumers would comply with norms and standards of energy consumption as prescribed by the central government. d) designated consumers to submit a report, in the form and manner as may be prescribed, on the status of energy consumption at the end of the every financial year to designated agency.

5.

The country which has the largest share of proven oil reserve in the world is a) USA b) China c) Saudi Arabia d) Iran

6.

The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1 o C is known as a) specific heat b) sensible heat c) latent heat d) calorific value

7.

The quantity of heat required to convert one kg of a solid into a liquid without change of temperature is called a) latent heat of fusion b) specific heat c) sensible heat d) heat capacity

8.

kg of water per kg of dry air (kg/kg) is termed as a) humidity b) specific humidity c) humidity factor d) relative humidity (RH)

9.

For determining NCV from GCV, which of the following elements in fuel are required? a) hydrogen b) moisture c) hydrogen & moisture d) carbon

10.

If the reactive power drawn by a load operating on a three phase AC system is zero then its power factor would be a) zero b) unity c) less than unity d) more than unity

11.

Apparent power consumption of AC 3 phase motors can be determined by using the following relations. a) 3 V I cos b) 3 V I c) 3 V I cos d) 3 V I

12.

If the density of a liquid fuel is 850 kg/m3 then its specific gravity is a) 0.85 b) 850 c) 1.176 d) none of the above

13.

Which of the following is not true for a preliminary energy audit a) estimate the scope for savings c) use existing or easily obtainable data b) identify low cost/no cost measures d) construct an energy balance

14.

Which of the following instruments is of contact type a) stroboscope c) fyrite b) infra red thermometer d) ultrasonic flow meter

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Paper 1 Set A Answer Key

15.

Energy management involves a) combination of technical and managerial skills c) only technical skills b) only managerial skills d) only energy audit skills

16.

Sankey diagram is a useful tool to represent a) financial strength of the company to consider energy conservation projects b) management philosophy to reduce waste c) input and output energy flow d) human resource strength of the company to have good house keeping

17.

Water flow in pipes is measured by a) pitot tube b) x-rays c) doppler effect d) electric fields

18.

Energy management does not include a) energy conservation c) decreasing unavoidable losses b) satisfying regulations d) fuel substitution

19.

In a coal fired boiler, hourly consumption of coal is 1000 kg. The ash content in the coal is 30%. If the boiler operates 24 hours/day and 5% of the ash formed is carried away by the flue gas, the quantity of ash collected at the bottom of boiler per day will be a) 6840 kg b) 7200 kg c) 1500 kg d) none of the above

20.

A mass balance for energy conservation purpose does consider the following substance a) steam b) water c) raw materials d) all of the above

21.

In the material balance of a process which compound will not be considered on the input side a) chemicals b) air and water c) recycled product d) by-product

22.

Water flowing at 5.56 litres per second into an empty 10m x 10m x 1m tank will fill the tank in approximately a) 5 minutes b) 25 minutes c) 28 minutes d) 300 minutes

23.

Water in a tank is heated from 30 oC to 70oC by using directly 20 kg of steam with an enthalpy of 600 kCal/kg. The volume of water heated would be a) 200 litres b) 300 litres c) 320 litres d) none of the above

24.

An analysis which helps to unearth the positive and negative forces in an organisation is a) energy action planning c) energy policy b) force field analysis d) energy analysis

25.

Energy efficiency improvement project requires for sure a) a budget b) energy policy c) energy audit d) data validation

26.

An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 30 %. If the stoichiometric air to fuel ratio is 13 kg of air per kg of oil and oil consumption is 200 kg per hour, then the mass of flue gas liberated in kg/ hour would be a) 3380 b) 2800 c) 3580 d) none of the above

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27.

In a force field analysis one of the indicators below is not considered a negative force a) low price of energy c) low salary of staff b) energy efficient technology available d) insufficient financial resources

28.

Which of the following is not a requirement for energy audit planning a) feedback b) publicity c) metering d) budgeting

29.

An investment of Rs 2,40,000 has a simple payback period of two years. The monthly savings must be a) Rs 8,000 b) Rs 10,000 c) Rs 9,600 d) Rs 12,000

30.

Which of the following is not a project planning technique? a) CPM b) PERT c) Gantt Chart d) CUSUM

31.

Sensitivity analysis is an assessment of a) cash flows c) capital investment b) risks due to assumptions d) finance sourcing

32.

For an investment which has fluctuating annual savings over its project life, which of the following financial analysis techniques is the best? a) NPV b) ROI c) Simple payback period d) IRR

33.

A sum of Rs 50,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays 9% interest annually. How much money in Rs. is in the bank account at the end of the fifth year, if no money is withdrawn? a) 54,500 b) 72,500 c) 76,931 d) none of the above

34.

What is the ROI from a project which requires a capital cost of Rs.200 lakhs and having a annual net cash flow of Rs.40 lakhs a) 20% b) 40% c) 250% d) 125%

35.

The future value of a cash flow in Rs. at the end of the 6 th year if the Present Value is Rs 2.0 Lakhs and the interest rate is 9%. a) 3,35,420 b) 3,08,000 c) 2,54,000 d) none of the above

36.

The first step in a project development cycle is a) start training c) arrange finance b) identify project components d) implement the project

37.

Which one of the following not the duty of an energy manager a) prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy b) prepare an annual activity plan c) report to BEE and state level designated agency once a year d) conduct energy audit

38.

In any project, the critical path in the network is a) the longest path b) the path in which the activity with highest duration falls c) the path without any dummy activity d) the shortest path

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39. In the first two months the cumulative sum is 8 and 8 respectively. In the next two months Ecalculated is more than Eactual by 8. The energy savings at end of the fourth month would be a) - 8 40. b) 24 c) 32 d) none of the above

The fixed energy consumption for the company is 2000 kWh/month. The slope in the energy production chart is found to be 0.4. If the company is to produce 90,000 tonnes of product/month, the actual energy consumption per month is given by a) 80,000 b) 34,000 c) 36,000 d) 38,000

41.

A contract in which the costs are paid from all or part of the energy cost savings is called a) guaranteed savings performance contract c) extended technical guarantee contract b) traditional contract d) performance contract

42.

The major difference between CPM and PERT is a) CPM provides graphic and PERT does not b) CPM uses single time estimates while PERT uses three time estimates c) CPM is an expansion of PERT d) PERT is an expansion of CPM

43.

Fixed energy consumption can not be determined from a) Gantt chart b) Sanky diagram c) Bar chart d) all the above

44.

A firm pays Rs. 2 for 1 kWh of fuel oil. If the calorific value of fuel oil is 10000 kCal per litre, the cost of one litre of fuel oil will be a) Rs. 26.8 b) Rs. 11.62 c) Rs. 23.25 d) question does not make sense

45.

The Calorific Value of coal is 4,200 kCal/ kg. Find out the oil equivalent of 500 kg of coal if the Calorific Value of oil is 10,000 kCal/ kg a) 420 kg b) 500 kg c) 210 kg d) 200 kg

46.

Which of the following gas damages the ozone layer a) CFCs b) CO2 c) Nitrogen d) Argon

47.

Which is a greenhouse gas a) Nitrous Oxide b) Nitrogen c) Sulfur Dioxide d) none of the above

48.

The Prototype Carbon Fund has been established by a) United Nations b) United States c) World Bank d) Japan

49.

The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of carbon dioxide is considered as a) 1 b) 18.7 c) 21 d) 270

50.

One of the flexible instrument as stated in the Kyoto Protocol is a) CO2 adaptation c) CO2 sequestration mechanism b) Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) d) none of the above

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Paper 1 Set A Answer Key

Section - II:

SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions (ii) Each question carries Five marks S-1 Name any five greenhouse gases responsible for global warming. Answer: (i) CO2 (Carbon Dioxide), (ii) CH4 (Methane), (iii) NOx (Nitrous Oxides), (iv) H2 O(g) (Water in vapor form), (v) HFCs (Hydro Fluoro Carbons), (vii) SF6 (Sulfur Hexafluoride), (viii) PFCs (Pero Fluoro Carbons)

S-2

An electric heater of 230 V, 3 kW rating is used for hot water generation in an industry. Find electricity consumption per day (a) at the rated voltage (b) at 190 V. Answer: (a) Electricity consumption (kWh) at rated voltage = 3 kW x 24 hour = 72 kWh/day. (b) Electricity consumption at 190 V (kWh) = (190 / 230) 2 x 3 kW x 24 hour = 49 kWh/day.

S-3

Which set of standard equipment does the energy auditor need to establish the operational efficiency of an Induced draft fan? Assume that the operational efficiency of the motor can be known from the performance chart of the motor. Answer: a kW meter for measuring input power to the motor pressure manometers/ transducers to measure suction and discharge pressure a pitot tube arrangement to measure flow in order to assess the fan efficiency.

S-4

How much steam is required in a heat exchanger to heat 50 kg/ hour of a process fluid from 40O C to 100O C. The specific heat of process fluid is 0.24 kCal/kg OC and the latent heat of steam is 540 kCal/ kg. Answer:

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Paper 1 Set A Answer Key

Heat required per hour, m cp t Steam required 50 x 0.24 x (100-40) = 720 kCal/ hour 720/540 1.33 kg steam/hr

S-5

A thermal power plant uses 0.65 kg of coal to generate one kWh of electricity. If the coal contains 54% carbon by weight, calculate the amount of CO2 emissions/ kWh generated under complete combustion conditions.

Answer: C + O2 ------------------- CO2

12 + 32 ------------------- 1 kg of carbon gives 44/12 kg of carbon dioxide 44

CO2 emissions/kWh

=
=

0.65 x 0.54 x 44/12

1.287 kg of CO2/kWh

S-6

Calculate the Net Present Value of a project at a discount rate of 16% with an investment of Rs 50,000 at the beginning of the first year, and savings of Rs 15,000, Rs. 18,000 and Rs. 20,000 respectively at the end of the first, second and third year. NPV = -50,000+(15000/1.16)+18000/(1.16x1.16)+(20000/(1.16x1.16x1.16)) = -50,000 + 12931 + 13377 + 12813 = (- 10879)

S-7

Explain briefly PERT.

The Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) is a network model that allows for randomness in activity completion times. PERT uses three time estimates, optimistic, most likely and pessimistic. This helps in establishing the probability of completing a project within a specified time and take calculated risks before commencing a project. PERT has the potential to reduce both the time and cost required to complete a project. Note: Some candidates might have represented in the form of a diagram. Due consideration may be given for the diagram.
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Paper 1 Set A Answer Key

S-8 A plant consumes 5,500 tons of furnace oil per year (GCV =10,200 kCal/kg), as well as 34,000 MWh of electricity per year. Draw the pie-chart of percentage share of each type of energy based on consumption in kCal (1 kWh = 860 kCal).

5,500 tonnes x 10,200 kCal x1000 = 5.61 x 1010 kCal 34,000 MWh = 34,000,000 kWh = 34,000,000 x 860 kCal = 2.924 x 1010 kCal Total consumption 5.61 + 2.924 = 8.534 x 10 10 of which 2/3 (65.7%) is oil and 1/3 (34.3%) is electricity.

65.7% oil

34.% Electicity

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Section - III:

LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Six questions (ii) Each question carries Ten marks L-1 a) An energy auditor is trying to establish the operating power factor of a 15 HP/11.2 kW induction motor with full load efficiency of 90%.The motor is not connected with any PF correction capacitors at motor terminals. The instrument to measure input electric parameters to the motor displays the three numbers 5 kW, 2 kVAr and 0.928 PF. As an Energy Manger/Energy Auditor, do you fully agree with the instrument display of Power Factor reading and its correctness? b) Briefly mention about primary sources of energy? a) Rectangular triangle and Pythagoras yields (kVA)2 = (kW)2 + (kVAr)2 . Furthermore, PF = kW/kVA, and consequently

kVA = ((kVAr)2 + (kW)2 )= (2)2 + (5)2 = 5.38516

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Paper 1 Set A Answer Key

PF = 5/5.38516 = 0.928 This calculation agrees with the display of 0.928.. However it is unlikely that a 15 HP/11.2 kW motor operating at 40% load will ever achieve a PF of 0.928. Consequently something is suspicious with the instrument. Therefore the answer is NO.

b) Primary energy sources are those that are either found or stored in nature. Common primary energy sources are coal, oil, natural gas and biomass. Other primary energy sources found on earth include nuclear energy from radioactive substances, thermal energy stored in earths interior and potential energy due to earths gravity.

L-2 a) Define latent heat of fusion and latent heat of vaporization? b) Briefly define active, apparent and reactive power Answer a) Latent heat of fusion (L) of a substance is the quantity of heat required to convert 1 kg of solid to liquid state without change of temperature. Latent heat of vaporization (L) of a substance is the quantity of heat required to change 1 kg of the substance from liquid to vapor state without change of temperature.

b)

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Active power: kW is the active power or the work-producing part of apparent power Apparent power (Kilovolt Ampere (kVA)) It is the product of kilovolts and amperes This measures the electrical load on a circuit or system. . Reactive power Reactive power (kVAr ) is the portion of apparent power that does no work. This type of power must be supplied to all types of magnetic equipment, such as motors, transformers etc. .

L-3 a) b) c) d) e)

Briefly explain the following terms: Energy Management Energy audit (as defined in EC Act 2001) Production factor Reference year Equivalent Energy Use Plant energy performance

a) Energy Management The judicious and effective use of energy to maximize profits (minimize costs) and enhance competitive positions (OR) The strategy of adjusting and optimizing energy, using systems and procedures so as to reduce energy requirements per unit of output while holding constant or reducing total costs of producing the output from these systems b) Energy audit (as defined in EC Act) As per the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, Energy Audit is defined as the verification, monitoring and analysis of use of energy including submission of technical report containing recommendations for improving energy efficiency with cost benefit analysis and an action plan to reduce energy consumption.
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c) Production factor Production factor is used to determine the energy that would have been required to produce this years production output if the plant had operated in the same way as it did in the reference year. It is the ratio of production in the current year to that in the reference year.
Pr oduction factor = Current year ' s production Re ference year ' s production

d) Reference year Equivalent Energy Use The reference years energy use that would have been used to produce the current years production output may be called the reference year energy use equivalent or reference year equivalent for short. The reference year equivalent is obtained by multiplying the reference year energy use by the production factor (obtained above) Reference year equivalent = Reference year energy use x Production factor

e)Plant energy performance The improvement or deterioration from the reference year is called energy performance and is a measure of the plants energy management progress. It is the reduction or increase in the current years energy use over the reference, and is calculated by subtracting the current years energy use from the reference years equivalent. The result is divided by the reference year equivalent and multiplied by 100 to obtain a percentage.
Plant energy performance = Reference year equivalent - Current year's energy x 100 Reference year equivalent

The energy performance is the percentage of energy saved at the current rate of use compared to the reference year rate of use. The greater the improvement, the higher the number will be.

L-4

The details of activities for implementation of an energy efficient project is given below: Activity Preceding activity Duration (days) A 10 B A 9 C A 4 D C 7 E C 2 F E 3 G B, D 8 H D 4 I F,G,H 1
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a) draw a PERT chart b) find out the duration of the project c) identify the critical path. a)

A=10 C=4

B=9 D=7 E=2

G=8 H=4 F=3

I=1

b) Duration = 30 days c) Critical Path: A-C-D-G-I L-5 An investment of Rs. 1.10 Lakh is made for a variable speed drive at the beginning of the year, which is also the date of first operation. Savings expected over 4 years are Rs. 28,000, Rs. 35,000, Rs. 40,000 and Rs. 40,000 respectively. Find out the IRR of the project. 1,10,000 = 28,000/(1+r/100) + 35,000/(1+r/100)2 + 40,000/(1+r/100)3 + 40,000/(1+r/100)4 = 11 % (app)

IRR

L-6 a) Determine the amount of moisture on a wet and dry basis for a waste sludge that has 30 kg of water and 20 kg of solids. b) Milk is evaporated in a steam jacketed kettle at atmospheric pressure. 1000 kg milk is charged per batch in the kettle. Milk is heated from 30C to 100C and boiled continuously till 25% of the mass is evaporated. Determine the amount of dry saturated steam at 1 kg/cm2 g required per batch excluding the heating of kettle. Specific heat of milk 0.9 kCal / kgOC Latent heat of evaporation of water - 540 kCal /kg Latent heat of steam at 1 kg/cm2 g - 525 kCal/ kg

a) WET BASIS = 30 * 100 /(30+20) = 60% DRY BASIS = 30 * 100/20

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= 150%
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b) SENSIBLE HEAT REQUIRED = 1000 X 0.9 X (100 30) = 63000 kCal water evaporated = 1000 x 0.25 = 250 kg latent heat for evaporating 250 of kg of water = 250 x 540 = 135000 kCal Total heat required Steam required at 1 kg /cm2 g = 135000 + 63000 = 198000 kCal = 198000 / 525 = 377 kg

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