AIEEE 2011 Paper I With Answer Key

1 AIEEE 2011 Paper-I
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. This question paper has 30 objective type questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which only one is correct.
2. For each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response. Each question. 1 (one) marks will be
deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.
AIEEE 2011 TEST PAPER-I
PHYSICS
1. 100g of water is heated from 30C to 50C ignoring the slight expansion of the water, the change in its internal
energy is (specific heat of water is 4184 J/Kg/K)
(1) 4.2 kJ (2) 8.4 kJ (3) 84 kJ (4) 2.1 kJ
2. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. The approximate time interval (t
2
t
1
) between the time t
2
when
3
2
of it has decayed and time t
1
when
3
1
of it had decayed is :
(1) 7 min (2) 14 min (3) 20 min (4) 28 min
3. A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring, executes SHM with a amplitude A
1
. When the mass M passes
through its mean position then a smaller mass m is placed over it and both of them move together with
amplitude A
2
. The ratio of
!
!
"
#
$
$
%
&
2
1
A
A
is :
(1)
m M
M
'
(2)
M
m M'
(3)
2 / 1
m M
M
!
"
#
$
%
&
'
(4)
2 / 1
M
m M
!
"
#
$
%
& '
4. Energy required for the electron excitation in Li
++
from the first to the thrid Bohr orbit is :
(1) 12.1 eV (2) 36.3 eV (3) 108.8 eV (4) 122.4 eV
5. The transverse displacement y(x,t) of a wave on a string is given by
( ) xt ab 2 bt ax
2 2
e ) t , x ( y
' ' *
+
This represents a :
(1) wave moving in +xdirection with speed
b
a
(2) wave moving in x-direction with speed
a
b
(3) standing wave of frequency
b
(4) standing wave of frequency
b
1
Time : 1.00 Hr Date : 01.05.2011 Max. Marks : 120
6. A resistor 'R' and 2,F capacitor in series is connected through a switch to 200 V direct supply. Across the
capacitor is a neon bulb that lights up at 120 V. Calculate the value of R to make the bulb light up 5s after the
switch has been closed. (log
10
2.5 = 0.4)
(1) 1.3 10
4

- (2) 1.7 10
5

- (3) 2.7 10
6

- (4) 3.3 10
7

-
7. A current . flows in an infinitely long wire with crosssection in the form of a semicircular ring of radius R. The
magnitude of the magnetic induction along its axis is :
(1)
R
2
0
/
. ,
(2)
R 2
2
0
/
. ,
(3)
R 2
0
/
. ,
(4)
R 4
0
/
. ,
8. A Carnot engine operating between temperatures T
1
and T
2
has efficiency
6
1
. When T
2
is lowered by 62 K, its
efficiency increases to
3
1
. Then T
1
and T
2
are, respectively :
(1) 372 K and 310 K (2) 372 K and 330 K (3) 330 K and 268 K (4) 310 K and 248 K
9. An object moving with a speed of 6.25 m/s, is decelerated at a rate given by :
0 * +
0
5 . 2
dt
d
where 0 is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object, to come to rest, would be :
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s (3) 4 s (4) 8 s
10. The electrostatic potential inside a charged spherical ball is given by 1 = ar
2
+ b where r is the distance from the
centre; a,b are constants. Then the charge density inside the ball is :
(1) 24/ a2
0
r (2) 6/ a2
0
r (3) 24/ a2
0
(4) 6 a2
0
11. A car is fitted with a convex sideview mirror of focal length 20 cm. A second car 2.8 m behind the first car is
overtaking the first car at a relative speed of 15 m/s. The speed of the image of the second car as seen in the
mirror of the first one is :
(1)
10
1
m/s (2)
15
1
m/s (3) 10 m/s (4) 15 m/s
12. If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, its resistance will :
(1) increase by 0.05% (2) increase by 0.2% (3) decrease by 0.2% (4) decrease by 0.05%
13. Three perfect gases at absolute temperature T
1
,T
2
and T
3
are mixed. The masses of molecules are m
1
,m
2
and
m
3
and the number of molecules are n
1
,n
2
and n
3
respectively. Assuming no loss of energy, the final temperature
of the mixture is :
(1)
3
) T T T (
3 2 1
' '
(2)
3 2 1
3 3 2 2 1 1
n n n
T n T n T n
' '
' '
(3)
3 3 2 2 1 1
2
3 3
2
2 2
2
1 1
T n T n T n
T n T n T n
' '
' '
(4)
3 3 2 2 1 1
2
3
2
3
2
2
2
2
2
1
2
1
T n T n T n
T n T n T n
' '
' '
14. Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of length ! are initially
a distance d(d < < !) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charge begins to leak from both the spheres
at a constant rate. As a result the charges approach each other with a velocity 0. Then as a function of distance
x between them :
(1) 0 4 x
1/2
(2) 0 4 x
1
(3) 0 4 x
1/2
(4) 0 4 x
15. Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble from a radius of 3 cm to 5 cm is nearly. (Surface tension of
soap solution = 0.03 Nm
1
)
(1) 4/ mJ (2) 0.2/ mJ (3) 2/ mJ (4) 0.4/ mJ
16. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q
0
is connected to a coil of self inductance L at t = 0. The time at
which the energy is stored equally between the electric and the magnetic fields is :
(1)
LC /
(2) LC
4
/
(3)
LC 2/
(4)
LC
17. Two bodies of masses m and 4 m are placed at a distance r. The gravitational potential at a point on the line
joining them where the gravitational field is zero is :
(1) zero (2)
r
Gm 4
(3)
r
Gm 6
(4)
r
Gm 9
18. A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its centre. An insect is at rest
at a point near the rim of the disc. The insect now moves along a diameter of the disc to reach its other
end. During the journey of the insect, the angular speed of the disc :
(1) remains unchanged (2) continuously decreases
(3) continuously increases (4) first increases and then decreases
19. Let the x - z plane be the boundary between two transparent media. Medium 1 in z 5 0 has refractive index
of
2
and medium 2 with z < 0 has a refractive index of
3
. A ray of light in medium 1 given by the vector
k
10 j
3 8 i
3 6 A ' +
"
in incident on the plane of separation. The angle of refraction in medium 2 is :
(1) 30 (2) 45 (3) 60 (4) 75
20. Two particles are executing simple harmonic motion of the same amplitude A and frequency 6 along the
x - axis. Their mean position is separated by distance X
0
(X
0
> A). If the maximum separation between them is
(X
0
+ A), the phase difference between their motion is :
(1)
2
/
(2)
3
/
(3)
4
/
(4)
6
/
21. Direction :
The question has a paragraph followed by two statements, Statement 1 and Statement 2. Of the given four
alternatives after the statements, choose the one that describes the statements.
A thin air film is formed by putting the convex surface of a plane-convex lens over a plane glass plate. With
monochromatic light, this film gives an interference pattern due to light reflected from the top (convex) surface
and the bottom (glass plate) surface of the film.
Statement 1 :
When light reflects from the air-glass plate interface, the reflected wave suffers a phase change of /
Statement 2 :
The centre of the interference pattern is dark.
(1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1
(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1
(4) Statement1 is false, Statement 2 is true
22. A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal gas of molecular mass M and ratio of specific heats 7. It is
moving with speed v and is suddenly brought to rest. Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings, its tempera-
ture increases by :
(1)
K Mv
R ) 1 ( 2
) 1 (
2
' 7
* 7
(2)
K Mv
R 2
) 1 (
2
7
* 7
(3) K
R 2
Mv
2
7
(4) K Mv
R 2
) 1 (
2
* 7
23. A screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of a wire .
Main scale reading : 0 mm
Circular scale reading : 52 division
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions of the circular scale.
The diameter of wire from the above data is :
(1) 0.52 cm (2) 0.052 cm (3) 0.026 cm (4) 0.005 cm
24. A boat is moving due east in a region where the earth's magnetic field is 5.0 10
5
NA
1
m
1
due north and
horizontal. The boat carries a vertical aerial 2m long. If the speed of the boat is 1.50 ms
1
, the magnitude of the
induced emf in the wire of aerial is :
(1) 1 mV (2) 0.75 mV (3) 0.50 mV (4) 0.15 mV
25. This question has Statement 1 and Statement 2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose the
one that best describes the two statements.
Statement 1
Sky wave signals are used for long distance radio communication. These signals are in general, less stable
than ground wave signals.
Statement 2 :
The state of ionosphere varies from hour to hour, day to day and season to season.
26. A mass m hangs with the help of a string wrapped around a pulley on a frictionless bearing. The pulley has
mass m and radius R. Assuming pulley to be a perfect uniform circular disc, the acceleration of the mass m,
if the string does not slip on the pulley, is :
(1) g
2
3
(2) g (3)
g
3
2
(4)
3
g
27. A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water all around it. If the speed of water coming out of the fountain is
v, the total area around the fountain that gets wet is :
(1)
g
v
2
/
(2)
2
4
g
v
/
(3)
2
4
g
v
2
/
(4)
2
2
g
v
/
28. This questions has Statement 1 and statement 2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose the
one that best describes the two statements :
Statement 1 :
A metallic surface is irradiated by a monochromatic light of frequency 8 > 8
0
(the threshold frequency). The
maximum kinetic energy and the stopping potential are K
max
and V
0
respectively. If the frequency incident on the
surface is doubled, both the K
max
and V
0
are also doubled.
Statement 2 :
The maximum kinetic energy and the stopping potential of photoelectrons emitted from a surface are linearly
dependent on the frequency of incident light.
29. A pulley of radius 2m is rotated about its axis by a force F = (20t 5t
2
) newton (where t is measured in seconds)
applied tangentially. If the moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of rotation is 10 kg m
2
, the number of
rotations made by the pulley before its direction of motion if reversed, is :
(1) less than 3 (2) more than 3 but less than 6
(3) more than 6 but less than 9 (4) more than 9
30. Water is flowing continuously from a tap having an internal diameter 8 10
3
m. The water velocity as it leaves
the tap is 0.4 ms
1
. The diameter of the water stream at a distance 2 10
1
m below the tap is close to :
(1) 5.0 10
3
m (2) 7.5 10
3
m (3) 9.6 10
3
m (4) 3.6 10
3
m
ANSWER KEY TO AIEEE 2011 TEST PAPER (PHYSICS)
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (1)
8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (2) 21. (1)
22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (4) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (4)
29. (2) 30. (4)
Time : 1.00 Hr Date : 01.05.2011 Max. Marks : 120
2. For each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response. Each question. (one fourth) marks
will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.
1. The presence or absence of hydroxy group on which carbon atom of sugar differentiates RNA and DNA.
(1) 1
st
(2) 2
nd
(3) 3
rd
(4) 4
th
2. Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound :
(1) FeCl
2
(2) SnCl
2
(3) AlCl
3
(4) MgCl
2
3. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(1) The stability of hydrides increase from NH
3
to BiH
3
in group 15 of the periodic table :
(2) Nitrogen cannot form d!-p! bond.
(3) Single N N bond is weaker than the single P P bond.
(4) N
2
O
4
has two resonance structure
4. Phenol is heated with a solution of mixture of KBr and KBrO
3
. The major product obtained in the above reaction
is :
(1) 2-Bromophenol (2) 3-Bromophenol (3) 4-Bromophenol (4) 2, 4, 6 -Tribromophenol
5. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol, CH
3
OH, is supplied. What is the mole fraction of methyl
alcohol in the solution?
(1) 0.100 (2) 0.190 (3) 0.086 (4) 0.050
6. The hybridisation of orbitals of N atom in NO
3
, NO
2
+
and NH
4
+
are respectively :
(1) sp, sp
2
, sp
3
(2) sp
2
, sp, sp
3
(3) sp, sp
3
, sp
2
(4) sp
2
, sp
3
, sp
CHEMISTRY
7. Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in a cold climate. Mass of ethylene glycol which should be added to
4 kg of water to prevent it form freezing at 6 C will be : (K
f
for water = 1.86 K kg mol
1
, and molar mass of
ethylene glycol = 62g mol
1
) :
(1) 804.32 g (2) 204.30 g (3) 400.00 g (4) 304.60 g
8. The reduction potential of hydrogen half-cell will be negative if :
(1) p(H
2
) = 1 atm and [H
+
] = 2.0 M (2) p(H
2
) = 1 atm and [H
+
] = 1.0 M
(3) p(H
2
) = 2 atm and [H
+
] = 1.0 M (4) p(H
2
) = 2 atm and [H
+
] = 2.0 M
9. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid ?
(1) Aqueous NaOH (2) Tollen's reagent (3) Molisch reagent (4) Neutral FeCl
3
10. Trichloroacetaldehyde was subjected to Cannizzaro's reaction by using NaOH. The mixture of the products
contains sodium trichloroacetate ion and another compound. The other compound is :
(1) 2, 2, 2Trichloroethanol (2) Trichloromethanol
(3) 2, 2, 2Trichloropropanol (4) Chloroform
11. Which one of the following orders presents the correct sequence of the increasing basic nature of the given
oxides ?
(1) Al
2
O
3
< MgO < Na
2
O < K
2
O (2) MgO < K
2
O < Al
2
O
3
< Na
2
O
(3) Na
2
O < K
2
O < MgO < Al
2
O
3
(4) K
2
O < Na
2
O < Al
2
O
3
< MgO
12. A gas absorbs a photon of 355 nm and emits at two wavelengths. If one of the emission is at 680 nm, the other
is at :
(1) 1035 nm (2) 325 nm (3) 743 nm (4) 518 nm
13. Which of the following statements regarding sulphur is incorrect ?
(1) S
2
molecule is paramagnetic.
(2) The vapour at 200C consists mostly of S
8
rings.
(3) At 600C the gas mainly consists of S
2
molecules.
(4) The oxidation state of sulphur is never less than +4 in its compounds.
14. The entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas from a volume of
10 dm
3
to a volume of 100 dm
3
at 27C is :
(1) 38.3 J mol
1
K
1
(2) 35.8 J mol
1
K
1
(3) 32.3 J mol
1
K
1
(4) 42.3 J mol
1
K
1
15. Which of the following facts about the complex [Cr(NH
3
)
6
]Cl
3
is wrong ?
(1) The complex involves d
2
sp
3
hybridisation and is octahedral in shape.
(2) The complex is paramagnetic.
(3) The complex is an outer orbital complex.
(4) The complex gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution.
16. The structure of IF
7
is :
(1) square pyramid (2) trigonal bipyramid
(3) octahedral (4) pentagonal bipyramid
17. The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every 10C rise of temperature. If the temperature is raised by 50C,
the rate of the reaction increases by about :
(1) 10 times (2) 24 times (3) 32 times (4) 64 times
18. The strongest acid amongst the following compounds is :
(1) CH
3
COOH (2) HCOOH
(3) CH
3
CH
2
CH(Cl)CO
2
H (4) ClCH
2
CH
2
CH
2
COOH
19. Identify the compound that exhibits tautomerism.
(1) 2-Butene (2) Lactic acid (3) 2-Pentanone (4) Phenol
20. A vessel at 1000 K contains CO
2
with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of the CO
2
is converted into CO on the
addition of graphite. If the total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, the value of K is :
(1) 1.8 atm (2) 3 atm (3) 0.3 atm (4) 0.18
21. In context of the lanthanoids, which of the following statement is not correct ?
(1) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with increasing atomic number in the series.
(2) All the member exhibit +3 oxidation state.
(3) Because of similar properties the separation of lanthanoids is not easy.
(4) Availability of 4f electrons results in the formation of compounds in +4 state for all the members of the series.
22. a and b are van der Waals constants for gases. Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane because
(1) a and b for Cl
2
> a and b for C
2
H
6
(2) a and b for Cl
2
< a and b for C
2
H
6
(3) a for Cl
2
< a for C
2
H
6
but b for Cl
2
> b for C
2
H
6
(4) a for Cl
2
> a for C
2
H
6
but b for Cl
2
< b for C
2
H
6
23. The magnetic moment (spin only) of [NiCl
4
]
2
is :
(1) 1.82 BM (2) 5.46 BM (3) 2.82 BM (4) 1.41 BM
24. In a face centred cubic lattice, atom A occupies the corner positions and atom B occupies the face centre
positions. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face centred points, the formula of the compound is :
(1) A
2
B (2) AB
2
(3) A
2
B
3
(4) A
2
B
5
25. The outer electron configuration of Gd (Atomic No : 64) is :
(1) 4f
3
5d
5
6s
2
(2) 4f
8
5d
0
6s
2
(3) 4f
4
5d
4
6s
2
(4) 4f
7
5d
1
6s
2
26. Boron cannot form which one of the following anions?
(1) BF
6
3
(2) BH
4
(3) B(OH)
4
(4) BO
2
27. Ozonolysis of an organic compound gives formaldehyde as one of the product. This confirms the presence of:
(1) two ethylenic double bonds (2) a vinyl group
(3) an isopropyl group (4) an acetylenic triple bond
28. Sodium ethoxide has reacted with ethanoyl chloride. The compound that is produced in the above reaction is :
(1) Diethyl ether (2) 2-Butanone (3) Ethyl chloride (4) Ethyl ethanoate
29. The degree of dissociation (") of a weak electrolyte, A
x
B
y
is related to van't Hoff factor (i) by the expression:
(1) " =
) 1 y x (
1
#
i
(2) " =
1 y x
1
# #
i
(3) " =
1
1 y x
i
#
(4) " =
1
1 y x
i
# #
30*. Silver Mirror test is given by which one of the following compounds?
(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetone (3) Formaldehyde (4) Benzophenone
ANSWER KEY TO AIEEE 2011 TEST PAPER-1 (CHEMISTRY)
1. 2 2. 3 3. 1,4 4. 4 5. 3
6. 2 7. 1 8. 3 9. 4 10. 1
11. 1 12. 3 13. 4 14. 1 15. 3
16. 4 17. 3 18. 3 19. 3 20. 1
21. 4 22. 4 23. 3 24. 4 25. 4
26. 1 27. 2 28. 4 29. 1 30*. 1,3
MATHEMATICS
Time : 1.00 Hr Date : 01-05-2011 Max. Marks : 120
2. For each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response. Each question. (one fourth) marks
will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.
1. Let !, " be real and z be a complex number. If z
2
+ !z + " = 0 has two distinct roots on the line Re z = 1, then
it is necessary that :
(1) " $ (0, 1) (2) " $ (1, 0) (3) |"| = 1 (4) " $ (1, %)
2. The value of
&
'
'
1
0
2
x 1
) x 1 log( 8
dx is :
(1) ( log 2 (2)
8
(
log 2 (3)
2
(
log 2 (4) log 2
3.
2
2
dy
x d
equals :
(1)
1
2
2
dx
y d
)
*
*
+
,
-
-
.
/
(2)
1
2
2
dx
y d
)
*
*
+
,
-
-
.
/

3
dx
dy
)
*
+
,
-
.
/
(3)
*
*
+
,
-
-
.
/
2
2
dx
y d

2
dx
dy
)
*
+
,
-
.
/
(4)
*
*
+
,
-
-
.
/
2
2
dx
y d

3
dx
dy
)
*
+
,
-
.
/
4. Let 0 be the purchase value of an equipment and V(t) be the value after it has been used for t years. The value
V(t) depreciates at a rate given by differential equation
dt
) t ( dV
= k(T t), where k > 0 is a constant and T is the
total life in years of the equipment. Then the scrap value V(T) of the equipment is :
(1) T
2

k
1
(2) 0
2
kT
2
(3) 0
2
) t T ( k
2
)
(4) e
kT
5. The coefficient of x
7
in the expansion of (1 x x
2
+ x
3
)
6
is :
(1) 144 (2) 132 (3) 144 (4) 132
6. For x $
*
+
,
-
.
/ (
2
5
, 0
, define f(x) =
&
x
0
t sin t dt. Then f has :
(1) local maximum at ( and 2(.
(2) local minimum at ( and 2(
(3) local minimum at ( and local maximum at 2(.
(4) local maximum at ( and local minimum at 2(.
7. The area of the region enclosed by the curves y = x, x = e, y =
x
1
and the positive x-axis is
(1)
2
1
square units (2) 1 square units (3)
2
3
square units (4)
2
5
square units
8. The line L
1
: y x = 0 and L
2
: 2x + y = 0 intersect the line L
3
: y + 2 = 0 at P and Q respectively. The bisector
of the acute angle between L
1
and L
2
intersects L
3
at R.
Statement-1 : The ratio PR : RQ equals 2 2 :
5
Statement-2 : In any triangle, bisector of an angle divides the triangle into two similar triangles.
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true ; Statement-2 is correct explanation for Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true ; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
9. The value of p and q for which the function f(x) =
1
1
2
1
1
3
4
5
) '
6
7
' '
0 x ,
x
x x x
0 x , q
0 x ,
x
x sin x ) 1 p sin(
2 / 3
2
is continuous for all x in R, are:
(1) p =
2
1
, q =
2
3
(2) p =
2
5
, q =
2
1
(3) p =
2
3
, q =
2
1
(4) p =
2
1
, q =
2
3
10. If the angle between the line x =
2
1 y )
=
8
) 3 z
and the plane x + 2y + 3z = 4 is cos
1

*
*
+
,
-
-
.
/
14
5
, then 8 equals:
(1)
3
2
(2)
2
3
(3)
5
2
(4)
3
5
11. The domain of the function f(x) =
x | x |
1
)
is :
(1) (% , %) (2) (0, %) (3) (%, 0) (4) (%, %) {0}
12. The shortest distance between line y x = 1 and curve x = y
2
is :
(1)
4
3
(2)
8
2 3
(3)
2 3
8
(4)
3
4
13. A man saves Rs. 200 in each of the first three months of his service. In each of the subsequent months his
saving increases by Rs. 40 more than the saving of immediately previous month. His total saving from the start
of service will be Rs. 11040 after :
(1) 18 months (2) 19 months (3) 20 months (4) 21 months
14. Consider the following statements
P : Suman is brilliant
Q : Suman is rich
R : Suman is honest.
The negation of the statement Suman is brilliant and dishonest if and only if Suman is rich can be expressed
as :
(1) ~ P ^ (Q 9 ~ R) (2) ~ (Q 9 (P ^ ~R)) (3) ~ Q 9 ~ P ^ R (4) ~ (P ^ ~ R) 9 Q
15. If :(;1) is a cube root of unity, and (1 + :)
7
= A + B: . Then (A, B) equals
(1) (0, 1) (2) (1, 1) (3) (1, 0) (4) (1, 1)
16. If
10
1
a 6
!
) k
3 ( ' and ) k
6 j
3 i
2 (
7
1
b ) ' 6
!
, then the value of ) b a 2 (
!
!
) . )] b 2 a ( ) b a [(
!
!
!
!
' < < is:
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 3
17. If
dx
dy
= y + 3 > 0 and y(0) = 2, then y("n2) is equal to :
(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 13 (4) 2
18. Equation of the ellipse whose axes are the axes of coordinates and which passes through the point
(3, 1) and has eccentricity
5
2
is :
(1) 3x
2
+ 5y
2
32 = 0 (2) 5x
2
+ 3y
2
48 = 0
(3) 3x
2
+ 5y
2
15 = 0 (4) 5x
2
+ 3y
2
32 = 0
19. If the mean deviation about the median of the numbers a, 2a, ....., 50a is 50, then |a| equals :
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
20.
2 x
lim
=
*
*
+
,
-
-
.
/
)
) )
2 x
)} 2 x ( 2 { cos 1
(1) does not exist (2) equals
2
(3) equals
2
(4) equals
2
1
21. Statement-1 : The number of ways of distributing 10 identical balls in 4 distinct boxes such that no box
is empty is
3
9
C .
Statement-2 : The number of ways of choosing any 3 places from 9 different places is
3
9
C .
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
22. Let R be the set of real numbers.
Statement-1 : A = {(x, y) $ R R : y x is an integer} is an equivalence relation on R.
Statement-2 : B = {(x, y) $ R R : x = !y for some rational number !} is an equivalence relation on R.
23. Consider 5 independent Bernoullis trials each with probability of success p. If the probability of at least
one failure is greater than or equal to
32
31
, then p lies in the interval :
(1)
>
?
@
-
.
/
4
3
,
2
1
(2)
>
?
@
-
.
/
12
11
,
4
3
(3)
>
?
@
A
B
C
2
1
, 0
(4)
>
?
@
-
.
/
1 ,
12
11
24. The two circles x
2
+ y
2
= ax and x
2
+ y
2
= c
2
(c > 0) touch each other if :
(1) 2|a| = c (2) |a| = c (3) a = 2c (4) |a| = 2c
25. Let A and B be two symmetric matrices of order 3.
Statement-1 : A(BA) and (AB)A are symmetric matrices.
Statement-2 : AB is symmetric matrix if matrix multiplication of A with B is commutative.
(1) Stat ement-1 i s t rue, Statement -2 i s t rue; Stat ement-2 i s a correct expl anat i on f or
Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct
explanation for Statement-1.
26. If C and D are two events such that C D D and P(D) ; 0, then the correct statement among the following
is :
(1) P(C|D) = P(C) (2) P(C|D) E P(C) (3) P(C|D) < P(C) (4) P(C|D) =
) C ( P
) D ( P
27. The vectors
a
!
and
b
!
are not perpendicular and
c
!
and
d
!
are two vectors satisfying :
d b c b
! !
!
!
< 6 <
and
0 d . a 6
!
!
. Then the vector
d
!
is equal to :
(1)
c
d . a
c . b
b
!
!
!
!
!
!
*
*
+
,
-
-
.
/
)
(2)
b
b . a
c . a
c
!
!
!
! !
!
*
*
+
,
-
-
.
/
'
(3)
c
b . a
c . b
b
!
!
!
!
!
!
*
*
+
,
-
-
.
/
'
(4)
b
b . a
c . a
c
!
!
!
! !
!
*
*
+
,
-
-
.
/
)
28. Statement-1 : The point A(1, 0, 7) is the mirror image of the point B(1, 6, 3) in the line :
3
2 z
2
1 y
1
x )
6
)
6
Statement-2 : The line :
3
2 z
2
1 y
1
x )
6
)
6
bisects the line segment joining A(1, 0, 7) and B(1, 6, 3).
29. If A = sin
2
x + cos
4
x, then for all real x :
(1) 1 A
4
3
F F (2)
1 A
16
13
F F
(3) 1 F A F 2 (4)
16
13
A
4
3
F F
30. The number of values of k for which the linear equations
4x + ky + 2z = 0
kx + 4y + z = 0
2x + 2y + z = 0
posses a non-zero solution is :
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) zero
ANSWER KEY TO AIEEE 2011 TEST PAPER-I (MATHEMATICS)
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (3)
8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (1,2) 19. (3) 20. (1) 21. (1)
22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (2)
29. (1) 30. (2)

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