NSEA-2023 (NSEA STAGE-I)

Date of Examination : 10th December, 2023

PAPER CODE - 45

SOLUTIONS
1. Venus has an equatorial radius of 6052 km. The semi-major axis of its orbit is 0.72 AU. The Sun has a radius
of 7 × 1010 cm. A Venus transit is observed from Earth. The angular diameter of Venus, in arc seconds, when
observed during the transit is
(a) 60 (b) 30 (c) 0.6 (d) 1.2
Ans. (a)

EN
Sol.

q=
e a

28 AU

2 ´ 6052 ´ 103 m
6052 × 2 km

0.72 AU
S 7 × 1010 cm× 2

q=
arc
0.28 ´ AU rad

2 ´ 6052 ´ 103 12104

LL
= 11 Þ ´ 103 ´ 10-11
0.28 ´ 1.50 ´ 10 m 0.42

= 0.029526.1 × 10–8 rad

1 rad = 206265 arc sec
= 60.9 rac sec. ; 60 arc sec.
2. A telescope with a 5 meter objective mirror diameter gathers ________ times more light and can resolve object
of ______ times angular size when compared to a 1 meter telescope.
A

1 1 1 1
(a) 25, (b) 5, (c) 25, (d) 5,
5 25 25 5

Ans. (a)

pD2
Sol. ( L.G.P.)1 = 4
1 meter 5 meter

p ( 5D )
2
pD2
(LGP)1
4
( LGP )5 4

pD2 p.25D2
(LGP)2
4 4

( L.G.P.)5 = 25 ( L.G.P.)1

1
 D 5D
( R.P.)1 = 1.22l ( R.P.)5 = 1.22l

( R.P.)1
( R.P.)5 =
5
3. The location of Sun in the sky, is the farthest from the celestial equator
(a) in winter solstice and summer solstice
(b) in vernal equionox and autumnal equinox
(c) they coincide at all times
(d) at noon each day of the year
Ans. (c)
Sol. The location of sum in the sky is the farthest from the celestial equator two times per year. The northern
hemisphere summer solstice and winter solstice.
4. The Sun's core contains about 1026 particles per cubic centimeter at a temperature of 15 million K. on the other
hand, Earth's atmosphere at sea level has a density of about 2.4 × 1019 particles per cubic centimeter and the
temperature is about 300 K. If we compare the pressure at Sun's core and Earth's atmospheric pressure at sea
level the ratio because
EN (a) 2 × 103
Ans. (d)

Sol.
Psum N K T
= 1 B 1
Pearth N2 K B T2
(b) 2 × 106 (c) 2 × 109 (d) 2 × 1011

1026 ´ 10 ´ 106 ´ 10
=
2.4 ´ 1019 ´ 300
LL
5 1032 5
= ´ = 1012 ´ = 2 × 1011
24 1020 24

5. Sirius, the brightest star in our sky, has a measured parallax angle of 0.379". Its distance in parsecs is
(a) 0.379 pc (b) 3.379 pc (c) 2.64 pc (d) 0.264 pc
Ans. (c)
Sol. Parallax angle = 0.379" = 03789 arc sec.

1
A

d= d = distance of the star in par sec.

p

1
d= p = parallax angle in arc sec.
0.379

d = 2.63par sec

6. The Sun's orbital velocity is 220 km/s and it is at distance of 27,000 light-years from the centre of the galaxy.
Assuming simple Keplerian motion, the mass of the Milky Way Galaxy enclosed within the Sun's orbit is about
(a) 1060 kg (b) 1041 kg (c) 1055 kg (d) 1082 kg
Ans. (b)

2
 GM
Sol. V=
R

V2R
M=
G

(220 ´ 10 )
2
3
´ 27,000 ´ 9.461 ´ 1015
= -11
; 1041
6.67 ´ 10

7. A visible-light emission line of hydrogen has rest wavelength of 656.3 nm, but it appears at 662.9 nm, in the
spectrum of a distant galaxy. How fast is the galaxy moving away from us?

1
(a) 300 km/s (b) km / s
3000

(c) 3000 km/s (d) 30000 km/s

EN
Ans. (c)

Sol. Z=
l - l0 v
l0
=
c

662.9 ´ 10-9 - 656.3 ´ 10-9

656.3 ´ 10 -9
= 5
v
3 ´ 10 km / s

6.6 ´ 10-9 ´ 3 ´ 105

v= km / s
LL
656.3 ´ 10-9

v » 3000 km / s

8. The orbital period of a geosynchronous statellite is equal to Earth's rotation period. The orbital radius of such a
geosynchronous satellite in a circular orbit is about
(a) 42,000 km (b) 35,800 km
(c) 42,220 km (d) 42,180 km
Ans. (c)
A

R3
Sol. T = 2p
GME

T2 GM E
R=
4p2

=
(24 ´ 3600 )2 ´ 6.67 ´ 10-11 ´ 5.972 ´ 1024
2
æ 22 ö = 42,220 km
4´ç ÷
è 7 ø

3
9. Assume that you are looking at this question paper using the Hubble space telescope which has an angular
resolution of 0.05 arc seconds, how far away could you place the question paper and still be able to read it? You
would need to resolve at least 0.2 mm to read the letters clearly.
(a) 8250 km (b) 825 m (c) 2850 km (d) 82 km
Ans. (b)

0.05 q 0.2 mm = d
Sol.

d
q=
D

d 0.2 ´ 10-3
D= =
q 0.05 ´ 4.848 ´ 10 -6

10.
EN D » 825m
For very hot stars, the higher the temperature, the weaker are the hydrogen lines in their emission spectra. The
reason is
(a) Strong helium lines cover the hydrogen lines
(b) The hydrogen is used to form molecules
(c) Very hot stars have converted hydrogen to helium
(d) Too much of the hydrogen is ionized
Ans. (d)
Sol. High temperatures in hot star cause a significant portion of hydrogen atom to lose electrons, result in ionization
LL
and weaker hydrogen spectra.
11. The half circle in the sky, running precisely overhead between the celestial north pole and the celestial south
pole is called the meridian. At any given location, the time between two successive meridian crossings (from east
to west) of a star other than the Sun is _____ the time between two successive meridian crossings of the Sun.
(a) is always equal to (b) is always less than
(c) is always greater than (d) is varying compared to
Ans. (a)
A

Sol. is always equal to

12. At the end stages of the very massive stars, the final element that is formed at their core, after which no further
stabel fusion of elements proceeds, is
(a) Uranium (b) Plutonium (c) Iron (d) Nickel
Ans. (c)
Sol. Fusion beyond iron doesn't release energy.
13. A polar satellite is revolving at a height of 600 km from the surface of the Earth (radius 6400 km). It passes over
zenith of an observer. The angular displacement the observer will see in 10 seconds is
(a) 0.04° (b) 0.62° (c) 3.7° (d) 7.2°
Ans. (b)

4
 arc
Sol. q=
7000 km

GM
V=
R

6.67 ´ 10-11 ´ 5.972 ´ 1024

=
7 ´ 10°
600 km

39.8 ´ 10-13 64
v= 00
7 ´ 106 m km

5.7 ´ 1013-6

EN w=
q
T

7.5 ´ 104
7 ´ 10 6
=

1.071 × 10–2 = Q
0.107 = Q
Q
10

180°
Q = .107 ×
p
LL
» 0.61°3 = 0.62°
14. A drawf galaxy, of mass 108 solar masses, is in orbit around its parent galaxy. The orbital radius is 30 kpc. From
an analysis of its spectrum the dwarf galaxy's tangential speed in its orbit is found to be 300 km/s. How many
times smaller is the dwarf galaxy's mass compared to the amount of mass of the parent galaxy encircled by the
orbit of the dwarf galaxy?
(a) the two masses are comparable (b) 104
(c) 6250 (d) 6000
A

Ans. (c)

GMP
Sol. VD =
R

GMP
VD2 =
R

VD2 R
MP =
G

(300 ´ 10 )
2
3
´ 30 ´ 103 ´ 3.09 ´ 1016
=
6.67 ´ 10-11
5
 9 ´ 104 ´ 106 ´ 30 ´ 1019 ´ 3.09 ´ 1016
=
6.67 ´ 10-11

9 ´ 30 ´ 3.09
= ´ 1029 +11 ´ 1040
6.67

125 ´ 1040
=
2 ´ 1030

62.5 ´ 1010
=
108
= 6250
15. Titius-Bode type relations give mutual relative distances of the planets around a parent star and also of the
moons around a parent planet. One such function relation found for an exoplanetary system is
an = 0.0142 e0.9975 n
Here n is the order of the planet when the distances, of the planets of a system from their parent star are put
in ascending order. For a particular exoplanetary system the distance to the fifth planet works out as 2 AU. At
what distance (in AU) would the tenth planet be from the star?
EN (a) 70.42
Ans. (d)
Sol. an = 0.0142 e0.9975 n

a10 0.0142 e0.9975´10

(b) 14.19 (c) 140.84 (d) 281.69

=
a5 0.0142 e0.9975 ´ 5

a10 0.9975´(10-5 )
=e
2
LL
a10 = e0.9975 × 5 × 2
a10 = 293.139 AU

» 281.69AU
16. The Sun rotates differentially, with the equatorial regions rotating faster compared to the regions closer to the
poles. The equatorial regions complete one rotation in 24 days. Given the Sun's equatorial radius as 6.96 ×108
m, the observed difference in wavelength, between the two edges of the Sun along its equator, as observed in
the oxygen 630 nm line is
(a) 0.0044 nm (b) 0.1 nm (c) 0.0088 nm (d) 0.2 nm
A

Ans. (a)

Dl v
Sol. =
l C

Dl 2p ´ 6.96 ´ 106
=
630 ´ 10 -9 24 ´ 24 ´ 36
1.32
= ´ 10-2 nm
3
= 0.44 × 10–2 nm
= 0.0044 nm

6
17. The relation R on Z, the set of integers, defined by (x, y) Î R if and only if x + y ¹ 0 is
(a) Reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive (b) Symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive
(c) Transitive but neither reflexive nor symmetric (d) Neither reflexive nor symmetric nor transitive
Ans. (b)
Sol. (0, 0) Ï R Hence R is not reflexive
If (a, b) Î R than a + b ¹ 0
Þ b+a¹0
Þ (b, a) Î R
Þ R is symmetric
Because (2, 0) Î R & (0, –2) Î R but (2, –2) Ï R hence R is not transitive.
18. A is a 23 × 23 skew symmetric matrix. What is the determinant of A?
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 23
Ans. (a)
Sol. Determinant of odd order skew symmetric matrix is zero.
Þ determinant of A is zero

19.
EN Þ (a) is correct option.
For what values of k does the following system of linear equations have a non-zero solution?
kx + y + z = 0
x + ky + z = 0
x + y + kz = 0
(a) k = –1, k = 0
Ans. (b)
(b) k = 1, k = –2 (c) k = 3, k = 4 (d) k = 4, k = 5

Sol. K 1 1
1 K 1 =0
LL
1 1 K

Þ (k + 2) (k – 1)2 = 0
Þ k = 1 & k = –2
20. The number of real values of x that satisfy the equation e2x + ex – 2 = 0 is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
Ans. (b)
Sol. (ex)2 + 2ex – ex – 2 = 0
Þ (ex + 2)(ex – 1) = 0 Þ ex – 1 = 0 (ex ¹ –2)
A

Þ ex = 1 Þ x=0
Þ number of real values of x are 1.

z -2
21. If z is a complex number such that = 1, then which of these is not necessarily correct?
z+2

(a) Real part of z = 0 (b) Imaginary part of z = 0

(c) z + z = 0 (d) The only such real z is 0
Ans. (a)
Sol. |z – 2| = |z + 2|
Þ z lies on perpendicular bisector of (2, 0) & (–2, 0)
Þ z lies on line x = 0
Þ Real (z) = 0

7
22. The number of positive divisors of 194700 is
(a) 6 (b) 18 (c) 36 (d) 72
Ans. (d)
Sol. 194700 = 22 × 3 × 52 × 11 × 59
Þ Number of positive divisors are
(2 + 1) (1 + 1) (2 + 1) (1 + 1) (1 + 1) = 72

p
23. p and q are positive real numbers. For what value of is the following function continuous at x = 0?
q

sin px sin qx
f(x) = if x ³ 0 and f(x) = 1 + if x < 0
qx px

1+ 5 1- 5 5 -1 5 -2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2 2

Ans. (a)

EN
Sol. lim f(x) = lim+
x ®0+

æ
lim f(x) = lim- ç 1 +
x ®0 - x ®0
è
x ®0
sin px p p
px

sin qx q ö
qx
´ =
q q

´ ÷ = 1+
p ø
q
p

2
p q æpö p
Þ =1+ Þ ç ÷ – –1=0
q p èqø q
LL
p 1+ 5 1- 5 p
Þ = or (reject because > 0)
q 2 2 q

Þ (a) is correct option.

Note : There is error in question hence it can be bonus also.

p
sin 3 x
24. The value of the integral ò
0
2
sin3 x + cos 3 x
is
A

p p
(a) 0 (b) (c) (d) p
4 2

Ans. (b)

p /2
sin3 x dx
Sol. I = ò0 sin 3 x + cos 3 x
.....(1)

æx ö
p /2 sin3 ç - x ÷ dx
è2 ø
Þ I= ò æ p ö æp ö
0
sin3 ç - x ÷ + cos 3 ç - x ÷
è2 ø è2 ø
8
 p /2
cos 3 x dx
Þ I= ò0 cos 3 x + sin3 x
.....(2)

p /2
sin3 x + cos3 x
Add (1) and (2) Þ 2I = ò
0 sin3 x + cos3 x
dx

p /2
p p
Þ 2I = ò0 dx =
2 ÞI=
4
25. The area bounded by y = 4 – x2 and y = x2 – 4 is

16 32 48 64
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 3 3
2
Ans. (d) y=4–x
(0, 4)
2 2
x3
Sol. Area = 4 ò (4 - x ) dx = 4 4x -
2

0
3 0
(–2, 0) (2, 0)

26.
EN æ
è
8ö
= 4 ç8 - ÷ = 4 ´
3ø
16 64
3
=

(d) is correct option

3 (0, –4) y = x2– 4

Five unbiased coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability that exactly two heads show up?

(a)
5
10
(b)
5
16
(c)
5
32
(d)
5
64

Ans. (b)
Sol. Arrangements of 2H & 3T are 5C2
LL
5
æ1ö 10 5
Þ Probability = C2 × ç ÷ = 5
=
2
è ø 32 16

Þ (b) is correct option.

dy x
27. The differential equation + = 0 represents
dx y
A

(a) a family of congruent circles with centres on X-axis

(b) a family of congruent circles with centres on Y-axis
(c) a family of concentric circles centred at origin
(d) a family of concurrent straight lines
Ans. (c)
Sol. ydy + xdx = 0

y2 x2
Þ + =C
2 2

Þ x2 + y2 = K
Which is family of circles with centre at (0, 0)
Þ (c) is correct option.

9
28. The point on the curve y = x2 +3x + 4 in the first quadrant at which the tangent passes through the origin is
(a) (1, 8) (b) (2, 14)
(c) (3, 22) (d) (4, 32)
Ans. (b)
Sol. y = x2 + 3x + 4

dy
= 2x + 3
dx

dy ù
dx úû (a,b) = 2a + 3

Let tangent at point (a, b) in first quadrant passes through origin.

b -0
Þ = 2a + 3
a-0

b = 2a2 + 3a
EN also (a, b) lies on curve hence b = a2 + 3a + 4
Þ 2a2 + 3a = a2 + 3a + 4
Þ a2 = 4 Þ a = 2 Þ b = 8 + 6 = 14
Þ (a, b) = (2, 14)
Þ (b) is correct option.
29. Let P(x) be a polynomial having non-negative integer coefficients such that the product of its coefficients is 73
and sum of the coefficients is 2023. What is its degree?
(a) 1949 (b) 1950
LL
(c) 1951 (d) 1952
Ans. (b)
Sol. 73 is prime number which is product of coefficient. Hence one coefficient is 73 and remaining coefficient are 1.
Now sum of coefficient is 2023, hence sum of coefficient which are 1 is equal to 2023 – 73 = 1950
Þ There are 1951 coefficient in which one coefficient is 73 and remaining 1950 coefficient are 1.
Þ degree of polynomial is 1950.
Þ (b) is correct option.
A

30. How many positive integers less than 10000 have the digit 2, 4 or 6 in the hundred's place?
(a) 1512 (b) 2700
(c) 3000 (d) 3600
Ans. (c)
Sol. Number must be 3 digit or 4 digit

Thousand place Hundred place Ten place Unit place

10 ways 3 ways 10 ways 10 ways

Þ Total ways = 10 × 3 × 10 × 10 = 3000 ways

10
31. The geographical coordinates of the peak of Mount Everest are 27° 59' 18" N and 86° 55' 31" E. Which of the
following relations may be used to determine approximately the latitude l of an observer, who, standing on the
same longitude as that of the peak of Everest and at mean sea level will see the pole star in line with the peak?
[The curvature of Earth has been ignored; h satnds for the height of Mount Everest from sea level, g stands for
the longitude of the peak of Mount Everest and REarth stands for the radius of Earth.]

h tan l h cot l
(a) l Everest - =l (b) l Everest - =l
R Earth R Earth

h sin g h cos l
(c) l Everest - R =l (d) l Everest - R =l
Earth Earth

Ans. (*)
Sol. *
32. A businessperson buys 11 items for 10 rupees and sells them all at the rate of rupees 11 per 10 items. The
whole lot is bought back for rupees 12 per item and re-sold at the rate of rupees 13 per item. The correct

EN statement is
(a) Profit from the second sale is equal to the profit from the first sale
(b) Percentage profit from the second sale is larger than the percentage profit from the first sale.
(c) Profit from the second sale is larger but the profit percentage is the same as in the first case.
(d) The percentage profit from the first sale is 21%
Ans. (d)
Sol. C.P. of 11 articles = 10 Rs.

10
C.P. of 1 article = Rs.
11
LL
S.P. of 10 articles = 11 Rs.

11
S.P. of 1 articles = Rs.
10

11 10 121 - 100
- 21 ´ 11
Profit % = 10 11 ´ 100 = 110 ´ 100 = × 100 = 21%
10 10 110 ´ 10
A

11 11

33. Two moles of ideal gas at 1 bar pressure are compressed isothermally to half its volume at 300 K. It is then
brought to original pressure in an isochoric process. Further it is expanded to original volume in an isobaric
process. The total amount of heat given out by the system in the cycle is
(a) 963 J (b) 2494 J (c) 3458 J (d) 5952 J
Ans. (*)
Sol. n = 2

V0
, 300 K) —® (105, V0 , T3) —® (105, T0, T4 ® 300 K)
980
(105, V0, 300K) ¾¾¾¾ ® (P2,
thermal 2 2
Heat will be released in process 1-2, 2-3.

11
 0 P
1-2 : DQ1 = DU + Dw 5 2
2×10

v2
= nRT ln
v1

10
5
1
= 2 × R × 300 × ln (1 / 2 ) = - 600Rln2

0
2-3 : DQ2 = DU + Dw
V0 V0 V
2
f
DQ2 = nRDT
2

T3 = 150 K

3
DQ2 = ´ 2 ´ R éë150 - 300 ùû
2

EN = –450 R

Net Heat released = –600 Rln2 – 450R

Heat absorbed in process 3 – 1 :

f
Þ DQ3 = nRDT + PDV
2

3
Þ DQ3 = ´ 2 ´ R ´ éë300 - 150 ùû + nRDT
2
LL
= 450R + 2 × R × [300 – 150]

= 750 R

Heat Heat loss = DQ3 + DQ1 + DQ2

= 750R – 450R – 600Rln2

= –2777.804 J
A

34. Effective solar power incident on the Earth is about 1350 W/m2. A converging lens of 100 mm aperture
diameter with focal length of 50 mmis used to focus sunlight on a paper, on a bright sunny day. As seen from

1
Earth the angular diameter of the Sun is observed as a degree. The estimated amount of power per unit area
2

(in W/m2) in the image is (assuming lens allows 85% energy to pass through it):

(a) 1.1 × 107 (b) 4.5 × 107 (c) 6.0 × 107 (d) 2.8 × 108

Ans. (*)

Sol. *

12
35. A symmetric biconvex lens has focal length of 40 mm in air. It is kept on the surface of water in a tank. The focal

4
length inside the water is now 70 mm. If refractive index of water is m w = , The refractive index of the
3
material of the lens is
(a) 1.7 (b) 1.8 (c) 1.9 (d) 2.0
Ans. (a)
Sol. fair = 40 mm fwater = 70 mm

1 æ2ö
Þ = ( m - 1) ç ÷ .... (1)
40 èRø

1 æ m ö æ2ö
Þ =ç - 1 ÷ .ç ÷ .... (2)
70 è 4 / 3 ø èRø
Þ Dividing

70 3 ( m - 1)
Þ =
40 3m - 4

36.
EN Þ 21m – 28 = 12m – 12
Þ 9m = 16

Þ m=
16
9
= 1.7 ; 1.7

A parallel plate capacitor, with air in gap is charged to 10V. If now it is filled with material having dielectric
constant 2.50, which of the following is possibly correct?
(a) Potential difference remains 10 V but charge reduces by factor 2.50.
(b) Potential difference becomes 25 V and charge increases by factor of 2.50.
(c) Potential difference becomes 4.0 V and charge increases by factor of 2.50.
LL
(d) Potential difference becomes 4.0 V and charge remains the same.
Ans. (d)
Sol. Since the capacitor is not connected to battery all the time so charge on capacitor will remain constant.
Þ q = C1V1 = C2V2
Þ C × 10 = (2.5 C) × V2
Þ V2 = 4V
37. The heat given to the ideal gas system in the following cycle, if at lower left end of cycle the pressure is 1.00 bar
A

is approximately

30 lit

20 lit
V

300K 400K

(a) 19 J (b) 24 J (c) 274 J (d) 337 J

Ans. (3)

13
Sol. Process 1 - 2 :
# Isochoric
0
Þ DQ1 = DU + wgas

3
Þ DQ1 = ´ n ´ R ( 400 - 300 )
2 30 lit 4 3

Þ 998.9271 J
Process 2 - 3 : 20 lit
1 2
V
# Isothermal
0
Þ DQ2 = DU + wgas
300K 400K
æ3ö
Þ DQ2 = nRTln ç ÷
è2ø

= 1080.08 J
Process 3 - 4 :
EN # Isochoric

Þ DQ3 = DU + wgas

=
3
2
0

´ nR éë300 - 400ùû

= –998.92 J
Process 4 - 1 :
# Isothermal
LL
0
Þ DQ4 = D U + wgas

æ2ö
Þ DQ4 = nR × 300 × ln ç ÷
è3ø

= –810.060 J

Þ Net heat exchange = 270.02 J

A

38. When a current of 14.0 A flows through a circular coil of radius 10.0 cm, the magnetic field at its centre is twice
the horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field at a particular location. When the coil is placed in a vertical
plane perpendicular to magnetic meridian at the same location and the current is passed, the angle of dip at the
point becomes half compare to the before the current starts. The magnitude of earth's magnetic field at the
location is
(a) 0.88 gauss (b) 0.51 gauss (c) 0.44 gauss (d) 0.25 gauss

Ans. (NA)
Sol. *

14
39. In the adjacent diagram, CP represents a wave front and AO and BP, the corresponding two rays. Find the
condition of q for constructive interference at P between the rays BP and reflected ray AOP :

O
Q R
qq

C d

A P
B

3l l l 4l
(a) cos q = (b) cos q = (c) sec q - cos q = (d) sec q - cos q =
2d 4d d d

Ans. (b)

EN
Sol. For constructive interference at P

æ
è

AC = BP
lö
ç AOP + ÷ - BP = nl
2ø

AOP = AC + CO
From (1), (2), (3)
.... (1)

.... (2)
.... (3)

l
Þ CO + + OP = nl .... (4)
LL
2

d
Þ OP = , CO = OP cos 2q
cos q

d l d
Þ .cos 2q + + = nl
cos q 2 cos q

d (1 + cos 2q ) l
A

Þ = nl -
cos q 2

d 2cos2 q l
Þ = nl -
cos q 2

l
Þ 2d cos q = nl -
2

l 3l
Þ n = 1, cos q = n = 2, cos q =
4d 4d

15
40. The network shown in the figure is a part of a complete circuit. If at a certain instant the current i is 5 A and it
is decreasing at the rate of 103 A/s then VB – VA is

i – +
A B
1W 15 V 5 mH

(a) 5 V (b) 10 V (c) 15 V (d) 20 V

Ans. (c)
Sol. VA – i × 1 + 15 + 5 × 10–3 × 103 = VB
Þ VB – VA = 5 + 15 – 5 = 15V
41. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of radius ‘r’ such that its centripetal acceleration is ac = Krt2
where K is a constant.
(a) The speed of the particle at time t is v = Krt
(b) The speed of the particle on the circular track remains same throughout
(c) The power delivered to the particle during the course of its motion is P = mKr 2t
(d) The force responsible to this kind of motion of F = mKr
Ans. (c)
EN
Sol. ac = Krt2

Fc = mKrt2 =

Þ v=
mv 2
r

Kr 2 t2 = K rt
Þ Power = Tangental Force (Ft) × Tangental velocity (v)

æ dv ö
Þ Ft = m ç ÷ = m K .r
è dt ø

Þ Power = m K r × K rt
LL
P = mKr2t
42. An incompressibble and non-viscous liquid of density 1.25 g/cm3 flows with a speed of 25 cm/s through a
horizontal pipe of diameter 7.0 cm. It has a constriction where diameter reduces to 5.0. The pressure change
at the constriction is
(a) –150 Pa (b) –111 Pa (c) –625 Pa (d) –375 Pa
Ans. (b)
Sol. Applying Bernoulli's equation.
A

1 1
Þ P1 + PV12 = P2 + + V22
2 2
1
Þ P1 – P2 = P(V22 – V12) .....(1)
2
Þ A1V1 = A2V2 ....(2)
Þ 25 × 7 = 5 × V2
2 2

Þ V2 = 49 cm/sec .....(3)

1 10-3
Þ P1 – P2 = × 1.25 × -6 (492 – 252) × 10–4 = 111 Pa
2 10
So, P2 – P1 = –111 Pa

16
43. Two protons collide head-on with energy of 100 keV each. The minimum distance they can approach is
(a) 7.2 fm (b) 14.4 fm (c) 14.4 pm (d) 28.8 pm
Ans. (a)

1 Ke2
Sol. mv2 × 2 = .....(1)
2 rmin

1
Þ mv2 = 100 × 103 × 1.6 × 10–19 J ....(2)
2

Ke 2
Þ 100 × 103 × e × 2 =
rmin

9 ´ 109 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19

Þ rmin =
2 ´ 105
Þ rmin = 7.2 fm

44.

EN (a) MT–2 and M0LT3

Ans. (c)
Sol. PQ = MLT–2
(b) M–1L–2 and M2L–1T4

......(1)
æ - x3 ö
The force of interaction between two atoms is given by F = PQ exp ç Pk T ÷ ; where x is the distance, kB is the
è B ø
Boltzmann constant, T is temperature, and P, Q are two constants. The dimensions of P and Q are
(c) M–1T2 and M2LT–4 (d) M0LT2 and M1L3T1K2

L
Þ = 1 ......(2)
PK[ML T -2 K -1 ]
2

Þ Dimensional formula of Boltzman constant = ML2T–2K–1

LL
L2
Þ P=
KML2 T -2 K -1
Þ P = M–1T2 .....(3)
Þ M T .Q = MLT
–1 2 –2

Þ Q = M2LT–4 .....(4)
45. A small plane mirror is placed at the centre of a spherical screen of radius 4 cm. A beam of light is falling on the
mirror. If the mirror is rotated about an axis laying in the plane of mirror and perpendicular to the incident ray
A

so as to make N revolutions per second, the speed of the spot of light on the screen after reflection from the
mirror will be

N 2N
(a) units (b) units (c) 16 N units (d) 8Np units
p p

Ans. (c)
Sol. w of mirror w1 = N × 2p rad/sec
Þ w of reflected ray = w2 = 2w1
Þ speed of spot = w2 × R
= 2w1R
= 2 × N × 2p × 4 × 10–2
= 16 Np units

17
46. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases when electromagnetic radiation of wavelength shorter
than 1136 nm is incident on it. The band gap (in eV) of the semiconductor is
(a) 0.71 (b) 1.09 (c) 0.80 (d) 1.31
Ans. (b)

1240
Sol. Band gap = = 1.09
1136

47. A non-conducting cube of side 25.0 cm has identical small circular conducting loops of radii 10.0 cm and 100
turns, one on each surface, centred at the centre of the surface. The surfaces of the cube are parallel to XY, YZ
and ZX planes. Each loop carries 100 mA current such that net magnetic field at the centre of the cube is zero.
In one loop on a surface parallel to XY plane, the direction of current is reversed, the magnetic field (in milli
gauss) at the centre of the cube will then be
(a) Zero (b) 306 (c) 480 (d) 610
Ans. (b)

r mNIR2
Sol. B due to loop at one face, at the center of cube =
( )
3/2
2 R2 + x 2
EN Þ B=
(4p ´ 10 ) ´ 100 ´ 100 ´ 10

Þ B = 0.153173 T
-3

2 é( 0.1) + ( 0.125 ) ù
êë
2 2
-3

úû
´ ( 0.1)
3/2
2

r
Þ If the direction of current is reversed in a loop at XY plane then the B at center will double.

Þ 2B = 2 × 0.153173 = 0.306347
LL
= 306.347 m gauss
48. Radio signals are added to the signal generated by a local oscillator (LO) to get an Intermediate Frequency (IF)
signal. The LO has a predefined frequency range from uL MHz to uU MHz. In the Giant Meter Wave Radio
Telescope (GMRT) at Pune, radio waves ranging in frequency from fL = 20 MHz to fU = 1660 MHz are added

uU
to the output from a LO to produce an IF signal centred at 70 MHz. For the LO it is good to keep the ratio
uL

as small as possible. For this uL and uU should be such that

(a) uL > fL; uU < fU (b) uL > fL; uU > fU (c) uL < fL; uU < fU (d) uL < fL; uU > fU
A

Ans. (a)
Sol. uU must be small and uL must be large.
49. Consider a binary star system of star A (a hot star) and star B (a colder star) at edge-on configuration. In such a
system eclipses occur when one star comes in front of the other in our line of sight. The correct statement(s) is/
are
(a) A shallower dip in the emission occurs when B is eclipsing (passing in front of) star A
(b) A shallower dip in the emission occurs when the star A is eclipsing star B
(c) The duration from start of eclipse to the minimum of the deeper dip in the binary emission is longer if star
B has the smaller radius
(d) The duration of the stronger/deeper dip is longer if star A has the larger radius
18
Ans. (b, c)
Sol. A shallower dip in the emission occurs when the star A is eclipsing star B
The duration from start of eclipse to the minimum of the deeper dip in the binary emission is longer if star B has
the smaller radius
50. The position of a particular star in the sky with respect to an observer depends on
(a) the right ascension of the star (b) the declination of the star
(c) latitude of the observer (d) longitude of the observer
Ans. (a, b, c)
Sol. the right ascension of the star
the declination of the star
latitude of the observer
51. The typical spectrum of a star showing blackbody emission along with absorption lines gives information about
(a) temperature (b) composition (c) luminosity (d) mass
Ans. (a, b)

52.
EN
Sol. temperature and composition
A rocky exoplanet having radius rp is on a circular orbit of radius r0 around its parent star. The parent star has
luminosity L and its radius is rs. The system is at a distance D from the observer. The planet has no atmosphere.
Approximately how much area on the star's surface will the planet block from view when it comes in the line of
the sight to the star?

2æ 2 ö
(a) prp ç 1 + (r0 - rs ÷
2æ r0 ö
(b) prs ç 1 + ÷
æ r -r ö
(c) pr0 rp ç 1 + 0 s ÷
2 æ
(d) prp ç1 +
r0 - rs ö
÷
è D ø è Dø è D ø è D ø

Ans. (*)
LL
Sol. *
53. Which of the following is/are true for the function f(x) = x3|x|, x Î R? Here R is the set of real numbers.
(a) f is differentiable at 0
(b) f is not differentiable at 0
(c) f is three times differentiable at x = 0 but not four times
(d) f is discontinuous at x = 0
Ans. (a, c)
A

ïì x
4
x³0 ïì 4x
3
x³0
Sol. f(x) = í 4 f'(x) = í
ïî- x x<0 ïî -4x
3
x<0

ïì 12x ì 24x x ³ 0
2
x³0
f''(x) = í f'"(x) = í
î-24x x < 0
2
ïî -12x x<0

ì 24 x >0
"" ï
f (x) = íNot defined x = 0
ï -24 x<0
î

Þ (a) & (c) are correct options.

19
54. If a, b, c are the roots of the equation x3 – 7x2 – 2023x – 1 = 0, then which of the following is/are true? It is
given that the discriminant is greater than zero.
(a) ab + bc + ca = –2023

æ 1 1 1 ö
(b) (a2 + b2 + c2) ç 2 + 2 + 2 ÷³7
èa b c ø

æ 1 1 1 ö
(c) (a4 + b4 + c4) ç 4 + 4 + 4 ÷³4
èa b c ø

(d) a + b + c > 7
Ans. (a, b, c)
Sol. a + b + c = 7, ab + bc + ca = –2023, abc = 1
Þ (a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ca)
Þ a2 + b2 + c2 = 49 + 2(2023) = 49 + 4046 = 4095

1 1 1
Now + + = ab + bc + ca = –2023
a b c
EN Þ
1
a 2
1 1 æ 1
+ 2 + 2 = (–2023)2 –2 ç
b c

= 20232 – 2(7)
= 4092515
+
1
+
1 ö
è ab bc ca ø
÷

æ 1 1 1 ö
Þ (a2 + b2 + c2) ç 2 + 2 + 2 ÷ = 4095 × 4092515 ³ 7
èa b c ø
LL
æ 1 1 1 ö æ a 2 b2 ö æ a 2 c2 ö æ b2 c 2 ö
Infact (a2 + b2 + c2) ç 2 + 2 + 2 ÷ = 3 + ç 2 + 2 ÷ + ç 2 + 2 ÷ + ç 2 + 2 ÷ ³ 3 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 9 ³ 7
èa b c ø èb a ø èc a ø èc b ø

æ 1 1 1 ö æ a 4 b4 ö æ a4 c 4 ö æ b4 c 4 ö
Similarly (a4 + b4 + c4) ç 4 + 4 + 4 ÷ = 3 + ç 4 + 4 ÷ + ç 4 + 4 ÷ + ç 4 + 4 ÷ ³ 3 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 9 ³ 4
èa b c ø èb a ø èc a ø èc b ø

Þ (a), (b) and (c) are correct options.

55. Consider the LPP
A

Max Z = 2x + 3y subject to the constraints

5x + 4y ³ 20, y – x £ 1, x – 2y = 4, x, y ³ 0
Which of the following is/are true?
(a) x = 4, y = 1 is a feasible solution of the LPP.
(b) x = 6, y = 1 and x = 24, y = 10 are feasible solutions of the LPP.
(c) x = 4 + 2k, y = k is a feasible solution of the LPP for any real number k.
(d) The LPP has an unbounded optimal solution.
Ans. (b, d)

20
Sol.
5x + 4y ³ 20 y–x= £1

(0, 5)

x – 2y = 4

(0, 1)
Feasible region

(4, 0)

(0, –2)

EN ray x – 2y = 4 is feasible region in which x > 4 and y > 0

Þ (4 + 2k, k) (k > 0) is feasible region.
Now (6, 1) satisfies feasible region
Max z is not defined because it reaches to infinite
Þ (b) and (d) are correct options.
56. Consider the relation R on a subset A of real numbers defined as (x, y Î R) if and only if xy ¹ 0. Which of the
LL
following is/are false?
(a) R is an equivalence relation on any such set A
(b) R is transitive on any such set A
(c) R is an equivalence relation on A = (0, 1)
(d) R is an equivalence relation on A = (–2023, 2023)
Ans. (b, c)
Sol. For option (d) here A = (–2023, 2023)
A

(0, 0) Ï R hence R is not reflexive Þ R is not equivalence

Þ (d) is incorrect option.
Similarly we can say option (a) is also incorrect option.
For option (b)
If (a, b) Î R, (b, c) Î R than ab ¹ 0, bc ¹ 0
Þ a ¹ 0, b ¹ 0, c ¹ 0 Þ ac ¹ 0
Þ (a, c) Î R Þ R is transitive
For option (c), here A = (0, 1)
In set A no element is zero
Þ R = A × A = equivalence relation
Þ (b) & (c) are correct options.

21
57. Consider the following circuit. The battery terminal voltage is 3.60 V. The two resistors are 3300 W and 300 W.
When the voltage across each resistor is measured with a voltmeter, it showed 3.20 V and 0.291 V respectively.
Consider Ammeter resistance to be negligible. The correct statement(s) is/are

V
+ –
mA

+
–

(a) the resistance of the voltmeter is 8800W

(b) the current in the ammeter when volt meter is connected to 3300W is 1.33 mA

(c) the current in the ammeter when the voltmeter is connected across 300 W is more than 1 Amp
(d) the current in the ammeter when voltmeter is not connected is 1 mA
Ans. (b, d)

Sol. the current in the ammeter when volt meter is connected to 3300W is 1.33 mA

58.
EN the current in the ammeter when voltmeter is not connected is 1 mA

A ball P moving with speed 20 ms –1 collides elastically with another identical ball Q. At the instant of the collision,
P was moving at an angle of 60° from the line joining the centers of the two balls. Select the correct option(s)

(a) After the collision the two balls move perpendicular to each other

(b) After the collision the speed of ball P is 10 3 ms–1

(c) After the collision the speed of ball Q is 10 ms –1

(d) Kinetic energy will not be conserved here
LL
Ans. (a,b,c)

60° 20cos60
Sol. Þ
A

P Q P Q
Before Before

# The collision is elastic

3
Þ Vp = 20 ´ = 10 3 m / s
2

Þ VQ = 20 cos 60 = 10 m/s
Þ K.E. before the collision will be equal to after collision because the collision is elastic.

22
59. The optical powers of the objective and the ocular (eye piece) of a microscope are equal to 100 and 20 D
respectively. The microscope magnification is equal to 50 for relaxed eye.
(a) The object is located at 1.1 cm in front of the objective
(b) The length of the microscope tube (separation between objective and eyepiece) is 16 cm
(c) The magnification of the microscope becomes 60 when the distance between the objective and the ocular
i.e. the tube length is increased by 2.0 cm
(d) The magnifying power is 62 if the final image is formed at infinity for the original arrangement prior to
increasing the tube length
Ans. (a, b)
1
Sol. F0 = ´ 102 = 1cm
100
1
Fe = ´ 100 = 5 cm
20
æv ö æDö
M = 50 = çç 0 ÷÷ ´ çç ÷÷ .... (1)
è u0 ø è fe ø

EN Þ
1
+
1

Þ v0 = u - f
0

æ f0
1
= ,
v 0 u0 f0
u0 f0

è 0 0
1 ´ 25
0

Þ 50 = çç u - f
ö æDö
÷÷ ´ çç ÷÷
ø è fe ø
1
v0
v0
=
u -f
= 0 0
u 0 f0
f0
u 0 u0 - f0
..... (2)

Þ 50 = u - 1 ´ 5
( 0 )
Þ u0 – 1 = 0.1m u 0 = 1.1 cm
LL
1
Þ v 0 = u - 1 ´ 1.1 = 11 cm
0

Þ tube length = (v0 + fe) = 16 cm

(c) u0 = 1.1 cm, v0 = 11 cm
L = 18 cm = v0 + ue
ue = 7 cm, f0 = 1 cm
fe = 5 cm
A

1 1 1
Þ - =
v e u e fe
1 1 1
Þ v +7=5
e

1 1 1 2
Þ = - =
v e 5 7 35
35
Þ ve =
2
11 ( 35 / 2 )
Þ m0 = ,me =
1.1 7
11 35
Þ m0 × me = ´ = 25
1.1 14

23
60. Having fallen vertically under gravity through a height ‘h’ a small solid ball rebounds elastically off a rigid and
smooth inclined plane AB forming an angle a with horizontal.

A h

P
a
B

(a) The ball will rebound second time, off the inclined plane, at a distance of S = 8h sin a along the incline from
the point P of first impact.

8h
(b) The time taken between the first impact to the second impact on the incline is t 1 =
g

(c) The speed of the ball just after the first impact is 2gh

(d) After the first impact with the inclined plane the ball will move at an angle of 90 – 2a with the horizontal
EN
Ans. (a, b, c, d)
Sol. Option c and d are correct. They can be seen from the diagram.

h a
a
2gh = U

90 – a t1
a S
a
g sin a
g cos a
g
LL
2U cos a 2 2gh
Þ t1 = =
g cos a g

8h
Þ t1 = (option b)
g

1
Þ S = (U sin a)t1 + g sin a × t12
A

2 2gh 1 æ 8h ö
Þ S = 2gh × 5ma × + × g × 5ma × ç ÷
g 2 è g ø

Þ S = 4h 5ma + 4h 5ma
= 8h 5m a (option a)

24